Etea Mdcat 2008 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The students were _ and the teacher, therefore did not take the class.

• A. Only few
• B. Few✓
• C. No much
• D. Very few

Explanation: The students were few and the teacher; therefore did not take the class.

Q2. A person who hates other people and avoids human to society is known as:

• A. Misanthrope✓
• B. Inhuman
• C. Sadist
• D. Misogynist

Explanation: 'Misanthrope' is someone who dislikes or avoids other people because of their general hatred,distrust or contempt toward humans ,human behavior or nature.

Q3. ‘Blow great trumpet / horn’ refers to:

• A. Boast✓
• B. Violent flow of word
• C. Celebrate enthusiastically
• D. Eruption

Explanation: ‘Blow great trumpet /horn’ means to tell everyone about your achievements and success in order to make them admire you which is otherwise known as to show off , brag oneself or boast.

Q4. Many ancient civilizations _ on the banks of major rivers:

• A. Dashed
• B. Flourished✓
• C. Sprawled
• D. Succeeded

Explanation: Flourished means prosper, grow or thrive.

Q5. Which one is an auxiliary?

• A. With
• B. On
• C. Do✓
• D. For

Explanation: The only auxiliary verb here is do.

Q6. To have a windfall refers to:

• A. Bad weather
• B. Receiving gifts
• C. Receiving profits✓
• D. Sudden calamity

Explanation: A windfall is a crazy bit of unexpected good fortune, jackpot or profits.

Q7. The word REPROACH means:

• A. Approach again
• B. Reach again
• C. Blame✓
• D. Praise

Explanation: Reproach means to express disappointment in or displeasure with (a person) for conduct that is blameworthy or in need of amendment.

Q8. The word GAUNT rneans:

• A. Illl health✓
• B. Glove
• C. Slout
• D. Gravel

Explanation: Gaunt means to be very thin or bony as a result of suffering, disease, hunger or age.

Q9. The word PROSCRIBE means :

• A. Say with authority
• B. Unwanted behavior
• C. Denounce✓
• D. Supportive teacher

Explanation: Denounce, which means to publicly declare something as wrong or deserving of condemnation.

Q10. To burn the candle at both end refers to :

• A. Hard work✓
• B. Face great loss
• C. Face challenge
• D. Waste money

Explanation: "Burning the candle at both ends" implies pushing oneself to the limits, working tirelessly, and expending a lot of energy. It suggests engaging in intense or excessive work without taking sufficient breaks or time for self-care. This idiom is commonly used to describe individuals who work long hours, neglect their personal well-being, and may eventually experience burnout or exhaustion.

Q11. The word LEVITY means :

• A. Impose one’s view point
• B. Serious attitude
• C. Non-serious attitude✓
• D. Enjoy frequent leave

Explanation: "Levity" refers to a lack of seriousness or lightness in manner, behavior, or attitude. It describes a tendency to treat serious matters with humor or triviality. Someone who exhibits levity often displays a light-hearted or playful approach to things that are typically regarded as serious.

Q12. Which one is the preposition ?

• A. against✓
• B. loudly
• C. so
• D. be

Explanation: A preposition is a word that typically shows the relationship between a noun or pronoun and other elements in a sentence. It indicates location, time, direction, manner, or other relationships. "Against" is a preposition. It is used to indicate a physical contact or collision between two objects or to express opposition or resistance. For example, "The book is leaning against the wall" or "They fought against injustice."

Q13. The Managing Director ……….. Staff to work had with a promise of high salary :

• A. motivates✓
• B. mitigates
• C. maneuvers
• D. minces

Explanation: The sentence suggests that the Managing Director is encouraging or inspiring the staff to work hard by promising them a high salary. The word "motivates" means to stimulate or encourage someone to take action or achieve a goal. In this context, the Managing Director is motivating the staff by offering the incentive of a higher salary.

Q14. The word INCENSE means :

• A. Make energy
• B. Alert
• C. Fool ill
• D. Encourage✓

Explanation: The word "incense" has multiple meanings depending on the context. However, one of its common meanings is to "encourage" or "inspire" someone to take action or feel enthusiastic about something. When you incense someone, you motivate or stimulate them to do or pursue something.

Q15. The word PRODIGAL means :

• A. Careful with money
• B. Wasteful with money✓
• C. Wonderful
• D. Helpful to people

Explanation: The word "prodigal" means wasteful with money or resources. It refers to someone who spends or uses money in a reckless or extravagant manner, often leading to wastefulness or extravagance.

Q16. She was ……… of the result of the interview which she attended.

• A. Reluctant
• B. Apprehensive✓
• C. Pervasive
• D. Bounced

Explanation: The word "apprehensive" means anxious or worried about something that is going to happen. In the given sentence, the person is described as being apprehensive about the result of the interview she attended. This implies that she is feeling uneasy or concerned about the outcome.

Q17. Which one is an interjection?

• A. How
• B. Hurrah✓
• C. Go
• D. Otherwise

Explanation: An interjection is a word or phrase that is grammatically independent from the words around it, and mainly expresses feeling rather than meaning.

Q18. The word PREDILECTION means:

• A. Preference✓
• B. Prediction
• C. Reference
• D. Induction

Explanation: A preference or special liking for something; a bias in favour of something. "my predilection for Asian food"

Q19. The largest demand of energy is generally fulfilled by

• A. Hydroelectric power
• B. Nuclear power
• C. Solar energy
• D. Fossil fuels✓

Explanation: Fuels that are generated very deep under the earth from the debris of plants and animals, which existed millions of years ago, are called fossil fuels. Coal, oil and natural gases are fossil fuels. Fossil fuel energy sources, such as coal, natural gas, and oil are used to meet energy demands for much of the world. Fossil fuel accounts for 84% of world’s primary consumption while hydroelectric power accounts for 6%, renewables for 5%, and nuclear power for 4%.

Q20. Which one of the bonds is broken first in glycolysis to release energy?

• A. Glycosidic✓
• B. Peptide
• C. Ester
• D. None

Explanation: Covalent bond formed between the 1st carbon atom of one monosaccharide with 4 carbon atoms of the neighboring monosaccharide unit is known as glycosidic bond which forms a polysaccharide. In the first step of glycolysis glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate with release of ATP(energy) with help of hexokinase enzyme. The bond broken is known as glycosidic bond.

Q21. Teeth adapted for cutting are:

• A. Canines
• B. Incisors✓
• C. Premolar
• D. Molar

Explanation: There are a total of 8 incisors found in both upper and lower jaws. Their primary function is to cut the food .There are two types of incisors – central incisors also known as aesthetic teeth which are known to maintain a pleasant smile and lateral incisors.

Q22. Mangroves are:

• A. Xerophytes
• B. Mesophytes
• C. Halophytes✓
• D. Hydrophytes

Explanation: Mangroves are tropical plants that are adapted to lose, wet soils, salt water and being periodically submerged by tides

Q23. Two chambered heart is found in:

• A. Leopardfish
• B. Fish✓
• C. Crocodile
• D. None of above

Explanation: Fishes have two chambered heart which include an auricle and an ventricle. Auricle is responsible for taking in blood from body and ventricle pumps out the blood that has entered the heart through gills and give fresh oxygen to the blood

Q24. Which of the following is a homoeothermic animal?

• A. Uromastyx
• B. Salamander
• C. Seahorse
• D. Kangaroo✓

Explanation: Homoeothermic animals are those animals which can maintain their body temperature irrespective of external temperature variation, i.e. they are warm blooded animals which include Birds, humans and other mammals.

Q25. Alternation of generations in plants is regarded a mechanism for:

• A. Achieving haploidy
• B. Promoting survival✓
• C. Producing diploidy
• D. Having no significance

Explanation: Plants alternate between the diploid sporophyte and haploid gametophyte, and between asexual and sexual reproduction. Which is known as alternation of generations. This ability of the plants helps them to adapt to different environments. The alternation of generations allows for both the dynamic and volatile act of sexual reproduction and the steady and consistent act of asexual reproduction. Plants are sessile. They don't move. By employing an alternation of generations they have better chances of increasing their number and hence are important for their survival.

Q26. The individual with hare-lip shows with which of the following condition?

• A. Hard palate
• B. Polydactyl
• C. Cleft palate✓
• D. Microcephaly

Explanation: Cleft palate is one of the most common birth defects in which there are openings or splits in the roof of the mouth(palate). It is usually repaired through a surgery called palatoplasty when the baby is 11-12 months old.

Q27. Receptor sensitive to smell are:

• A. Mechanical
• B. Chemical✓
• C. Photoreceptors

Explanation: Chemical receptors are sensitive to chemicals and they help differentiate and recognize taste,smell and detect changes in O2 ,CO2 and Ph.

Q28. Which hormone prepares the body for situations of stress and emergency?

• A. Adrenaline✓
• B. Non adrenaline
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Insulin

Explanation: Adrenaline triggers the body's fight-or-flight response. This reaction causes air passages to dilate to provide the muscles with the oxygen they need to either fight danger or flee. Adrenaline also triggers the blood vessels to contract to re-direct blood toward major muscle groups, including the heart and lungs.

Q29. Which of the following type of cytochromes is common in photosynthesis and respiration?

• A. Cyt “O”
• B. Cyt “a3”
• C. Cyt “b”✓
• D. Cyt “c”

Explanation: A membrane-bound cytochrome f-b complex participates in both respiratory and photosynthetic elevtron transport.

Q30. Peptide bond is formed between:

• A. Hydrogen groups of adjacent amino acids
• B. Functional group of the amino acids
• C. Carboxyl group and amino group✓
• D. Functional group and hydrogen group of adjacent amino acid

Explanation: Carboxyl or COOH– a group of one amino acid and Amine or NH3+ of another Amino acid are responsible for forming peptide bonds.

Q31. Anticodon of AUG will be:

• A. TAC
• B. UAC✓
• C. AUG
• D. CCA

Explanation: Anticodons are as follow: A = U( in case of RNA) A=T ( in case of DNA) C=G( same in both cases)

Q32. Which of these is a fresh water sponge?

• A. Sycon
• B. Leucosolenia
• C. Spongilla✓
• D. Euplectella

Explanation: Sycon, leucosolenia and euplectella are marine water sponges. Spongilla is a freshwater sponge found in clean lake water and slow streams.

Q33. In earthworm, mucin & enzyme are produced by:

• A. Intestinal sac
• B. Typhlosole
• C. Oesophagus
• D. Pharyngeal mass✓

Explanation: The pharyngeal gland is made of chromophil cells, which produce saliva containing the proteolytic enzyme; protease, and mucin which convert a protein into amino acids and make the food soft respectively.

Q34. Food is renewable resource due to:

• A. Mechanical forming
• B. Improved crop varieties
• C. Continuous photosynthesis✓
• D. Pest control

Explanation: Food is produced from renewable resources, such as plants and animals. This is because food can be replenished as fast as it is exploited. This is only possible due to continuous photosynthesis. Options A, B and D are only techniques used for higher crop yields.

Q35. The term BIVALENT means:

• A. Two chromatics
• B. Two chromosomes✓
• C. Four chromatids.
• D. Four chromosomes

Explanation: Two chromosomes make a homologous pair aka bivalent.

Q36. Class filicinae belongs to "phylum"

• A. Tracheophyta✓
• B. Bryophyte
• C. Thallophyta
• D. Embryophyta

Explanation: Class filicinae comes under vascular plants or tracheophyta.

Q37. Which one among the following is NOT available at a vegetable shop?

• A. Capsicum annum
• B. Pisum Sativum
• C. Triticum Aestivom✓

Explanation: Triticum Aestivom is the common wheat.

Q38. What happens to oxygen in the electron transport chain?

• A. It is reduced to water✓
• B. It is ..... gas
• C. It is used as electron corner
• D. It supplies energy to produce ATP

Explanation: Oxygen sits at the end of the electron transport chain, where it accepts electrons and picks up protons to form water.

Q39. Which animal posesses an open circularity system?

• A. Amoeba
• B. Earthworms
• C. Grasshoppers✓
• D. Man

Explanation: Grasshoppers have an open circulatory system with a heart. Their blood just bathes over their cells.

Q40. Which of the following compounds has no double bond?

• A. ...
• B. Cellulose✓
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Vitamin A

Explanation: Cellulose has no double bonds. Cholesterol and Retinol (vitamin A) have double bonds.

Q41. Calvin cycle takes place within:

• A. Stoma of chloroplasts✓
• B. Granum of the chloroplast
• C. Cytoplasm of the cell
• D. ....

Explanation: Unlike the light reactions, which take place in the thylakoid membrane, the reactions of the Calvin cycle take place in the stroma, the inner space of chloroplasts.

Q42. Which enzyme helps in the digestion of carbohydrate?

• A. Ptyalin✓
• B. Pepsin
• C. Diastase
• D. option missing

Explanation: Ptyalin aids in the digestion of starch in the mouth. Diastase breaks down starch into maltose in germinating seeds.

Q43. Wings of a bird and fore limbs of a man are:

• A. Homologous✓
• B. Analogous
• C. Acquired
• D. Vestigial

Explanation: These are the organs that have similar anatomical structures but perform different functions. Wings and forelimbs develop as a result of divergent evolution.

Q44. The association in which an organism gets advantage and the other suffers is called:

• A. Symbiosis
• B. Parasitism✓
• C. Predation
• D. Mutualism

Explanation: A parasitic relationship is one in which one organism, the parasite, lives off of another organism, the host, harming it and possibly causing death.

Q45. The modern horse is called:

• A. Equus✓
• B. Eohippus
• C. Mesohippus
• D. Merychippus

Explanation: The modern horse is called Equus caballus.

Q46. If we cover the lateral sides of the Gross-hopper with wax. The system most likely to be affected will be

• A. Digestive
• B. Circulatory
• C. Respiratory✓
• D. Excretory

Explanation: Instead of nostrils, grasshoppers breathe through openings in the thorax and abdomen called spiracles. When covered with wax, gaseous exchange is greatly reduced.

Q47. Which of the following does not bring erosion of soil?

• A. Carolers forming
• B. Extensive ploughing
• C. Moderate grazing✓
• D. Heavy grazing

Explanation: Moderate grazing refers to controlled or balanced grazing practices where the number of livestock and their grazing duration are managed in a sustainable manner. It involves maintaining a healthy vegetation cover and avoiding overgrazing. This practice can actually be beneficial for the soil and ecosystem as it helps in maintaining biodiversity, nutrient cycling, and organic matter accumulation.

Q48. The human sacrum consists of how many

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four
• D. Five✓

Explanation: The sacrum is a large, triangular bone located at the base of the vertebral column, between the lumbar vertebrae and the coccyx. It is formed by the fusion of five separate sacral vertebrae (S1 to S5). These individual vertebrae fuse together during development to form a single bone called the sacrum.

Q49. Which of the following meristem is responsible for wood formation in plants :

• A. Lateral meristem✓
• B. Apical meristem
• C. Intercalary
• D. None

Explanation: The meristem responsible for wood formation in plants is the lateral meristem, specifically the vascular cambium and the cork cambium. Lateral meristems are responsible for the secondary growth of plants, which involves the thickening of stems and roots. The vascular cambium is a type of lateral meristem located between the xylem and phloem tissues in the stems and roots of woody plants. It produces new xylem cells towards the center of the stem, contributing to the growth of wood. The cork cambium, another lateral meristem, produces the outer bark of the stem, providing protection to the underlying tissues.

Q50. Bones are held together of the joints by :

• A. Tendons
• B. Smooth muscles
• C. Ligaments✓
• D. Nerves

Explanation: Bones are held together at joints by ligaments. Ligaments are fibrous connective tissues that connect bones to other bones, providing stability and strength to the joint. They play a crucial role in holding the bones in proper alignment and preventing excessive movement or dislocation.

Q51. Raphanus sativus belongs to family :

• A. Poaceae
• B. Fabaceae
• C. Brassicaceae✓

Explanation: Raphanus sativus, commonly known as radish, belongs to the family Brassicaceae (also known as Cruciferae). Brassicaceae is a family of flowering plants that includes many well-known vegetables and herbs, such as cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, kale, and mustard.

Q52. The developing embryo is protected against the physical trauma by :

• A. Pericardial fluid
• B. Allantoic fluid
• C. Amniotic fluid✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Amniotic fluid plays a crucial role in protecting the developing embryo/fetus against physical trauma. It is a liquid that surrounds the embryo/fetus within the amniotic sac, which is formed by the amnion membrane. The amniotic fluid acts as a cushion, providing a protective barrier and absorbing shocks or impacts that may occur during movement or external forces.

Q53. If red and white color flowers in mirabulus jalapa are crossed, the F1 generation will show:

• A. All red
• B. All white
• C. All pink
• D. 1, red, 2, pink & 1 white ratio✓

Explanation: When red and white color flowers in Mirabilis jalapa (Four O'Clock Flower) are crossed, the F1 generation will typically display an intermediate phenotype, resulting in pink-colored flowers. This is due to incomplete dominance or blending inheritance, where neither the red nor white color allele is completely dominant over the other. In this case, the red color is typically controlled by the presence of a dominant allele (R), while the white color is controlled by a recessive allele (r). When the red and white flowers are crossed, the F1 generation will inherit one copy of the dominant red allele (R) from one parent and one copy of the recessive white allele (r) from the other parent. As a result, the F1 plants will have a heterozygous genotype (Rr) and exhibit an intermediate phenotype, which is pink-colored flowers.

Q54. The growth of pollen tube through style to the ovary is type of movement called :

• A. Geotropism
• B. Chemotropism
• C. Chemotropism✓
• D. Phototropism

Explanation: The growth of a pollen tube through the style to the ovary is a type of movement known as chemotropism. Chemotropism is the directional growth or movement of an organism or part of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus. In this case, the pollen tube is guided by chemical signals released by the ovary, which attract and guide the tube towards the ovule for fertilization.

Q55. Which of the following expel imperfectly developed embryo out the body :

• A. Prototherians
• B. Eutherians
• C. Metatherian✓
• D. All of above

Explanation: Metatherians, also known as marsupials, are a group of mammals that give birth to relatively undeveloped embryos. These embryos are then transferred to a pouch or marsupium, where they continue their development outside the mother's body. This process is known as marsupial reproduction.

Q56. Each organism has a definite functional position different from either organisms of the locally is called :

• A. Community
• B. Niche✓
• C. Habitat
• D. Species

Explanation: In ecology, a niche refers to the specific role or position that an organism occupies within an ecosystem. It includes the range of conditions and resources that the organism requires for survival and reproduction, as well as its interactions with other organisms in the community. The niche of an organism is defined by its unique combination of habitat requirements, behavior, and ecological interactions.

Q57. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is ATGCTC, the sequence of the other strand would be :

• A. CACGTC
• B. TAGCATG
• C. TACGAG✓
• D. GACGTG

Explanation: In DNA, the base pairs are complementary to each other. Adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T), and guanine (G) always pairs with cytosine (C). Therefore, if one strand of DNA has the sequence ATGCTC, the other strand will have the complementary sequence i.e., TACGAG.

Q58. Which of the following physiological phenomenon is responsible of guttation :

• A. Capillary rise of water
• B. Root pressure✓
• C. Tensile strength

Explanation: Guttation is the process by which plants excrete excess water in the form of droplets through specialized structures called hydathodes. It typically occurs during the night or early morning when the soil moisture is high and the transpiration rate is low.

Q59. The critical day length of Hyoscyamus for flowering is :

• A. 15.5 hours✓
• B. 9 hours
• C. 11 hours
• D. 13 hours

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q60. Two individuals formed when two eggs fertilized of the same time results in twins that are genetically different are:

• A. Identical twins
• B. Siames twins
• C. Fraternal twins✓
• D. Double twins

Explanation: When a woman’s ovary releases two eggs which are fertilized by two different sperms, it results in the formation of fraternal twins. Fraternal twins or triplets or quadruplets come from different eggs which are fertilized by different sperms therefore also called dizygotic or multiple zygotic. Fraternal foetuses come from separate placentas and amniotic sacs. They can have different sexes and different blood types and may look very different from each other

Q61. Which of the following group of animals run very fast?

• A. Digitgrade✓
• B. Unguligrade
• C. Plantigrade

Explanation: A digitgrade is defined as those group of mammals that solely walk on their toes only and not touching the ground with their heels for example dogs, cats etc. They are faster than any other group of animals. The word digit comes from a latin word “digitus” meaning toes, fingers while the word “grade” means walking.

Q62. "The open water zone away from shore to the depth of affective light penetration and occupied by phylopplankion Iike green algae euglena etc." which of the following regions of fresh water has all these properties?

• A. Littoral
• B. Limnetic✓
• C. Profundal
• D. Both "a" and "b"

Explanation: It is the open water zone away from the shore and it extends up to the effective light penetration level. The limnetic zone is well-lighted (like the littoral zone) and is dominated by plankton, both phytoplankton and zooplankton. Plankton are small organisms that play a crucial role in the food chain.

Q63. When an anopheles of mosquito bites a healthy person if injects:

• A. Merozoites
• B. Sporozoites✓
• C. Gametocytes
• D. Oocytes

Explanation: The well-matured sporozoites are injected into the human host through the saliva of an Anopheles mosquito when it bites to feed on the blood. When mosquitoes bite, they inject a tiny amount of their saliva (less than a microliter), which contains a specialized, potent cocktail of molecules that numb the pain of the bite and stop the blood from clotting.

Q64. All of the following are nematodes except:

• A. Ascaris
• B. Neresis✓
• C. Trichinella
• D. Guinea worm

Explanation: Nematodes are free living or parasite, and live in soil, roots, human and animal intestine and muscles. Most roundworms are less than five cm in length and many are microscopic but some parasitic roundworms are more than one meter in length.

Q65. Daphnia belongs to the class:

• A. Insecta
• B. Arachnida
• C. Myriapoda
• D. Crustacean✓

Explanation: Crustaceans form a large, diverse arthropod taxon which includes such animals as decapods, seed shrimp, branchiopods, fish lice, krill, remipedes, isopods, barnacles, copepods, amphipods and mantis shrimp. The crustacean group can be treated as a subphylum under the clade Mandibulata. A crustacean has the following features: • a segmented body with a hard exterior (known as an exoskeleton) • jointed limbs, each often with two branches (termed biramous) • two pairs of antennae. • gills.

Q66. In bryophytes sterile hair are produced seen sex organs to keep them:

• A. Dry
• B. Wet✓
• C. Warm
• D. Covered

Explanation: Bryophytes have wet sterile hairs in between the sex organs to keep them protected from drying condition and for protection of reproductive cells.

Q67. Gas·evolved in bioconversion of solid waste is:

• A. Methane✓
• B. Sulpher dioxide
• C. Nitrogen dioxide
• D. Ethane

Explanation: Solid wastes are biologically converted into value added products by physiological action of microorganisms. These processes occur under controlled environmental condition. It could be in the form of submerged fermentation or as solid-state fermentation technology. The gas released during this conversion is methane and carbon dioxide. Usually, carbon dioxide is released during aerobic conversion of solid waste while methane is released during anaerobic conversion of solid waste.

Q68. Crop rotation leads to:

• A. Increase in the soil nutrient✓
• B. More aeration of soil
• C. Soil fertility
• D. ....

Explanation: Crop rotation helps return nutrients to the soil without synthetic inputs. The practice also works to interrupt pest and disease cycles, improve soil health by increasing biomass from different crops' root structures, and increase biodiversity on the farm.

Q69. Which of one of the following characteristics in man is controlled by a recessive gone?

• A. Tongue rolling
• B. Diabetes
• C. Skin colour
• D. Eye colour✓

Explanation: This mcq can only be solved by elimination trick. Tongue rolling is controlled by dominant trait while skin colour is a polygenic trait and exhibits intermediate phenotype due to co-dominance. This rules out option A and D. Diabetes is not usually linked with genetic factors and if it is even linked it is only autosomal dominant. This makes eye colour the best option in which blue eye colour is controlled by recessive gene.

Q70. The major and immediate nitrogenous waste product of protein metabolism is:

• A. Urea✓
• B. Uric acid
• C. Creatinine
• D. Ammonia

Explanation: Option A is correct as urea is natural waste product of protein metabolism present in urine of human and animal.

Q71. Phages viruses are usually abundant in the intestine of man and animals because.

• A. Abundant bacteria are present✓
• B. Abundant water is present
• C. Abundant nutrients are present
• D. They can only live at human body temperature

Explanation: Phages can translocate through the mucosa to lymph and internal organs and play a role as regulators of the bacterial population in the gut. Increasing abundance of phages in the gut mucosa may reduce colonization by bacteria. Moreover, phages may have an immunomodulatory role in the immune response in the human gut. Bacteriophages play important roles in regulating the intestinal human microbiota composition, dynamics, and homeostasis, and characterizing their bacterial hosts is needed to understand their impact.

Q72. In a woody-plant the·number of structures on ion sin cell has to cross to reach the adjunction cell is:

• A. 3✓
• B. 5
• C. 6
• D. 7

Explanation: The number of structures an ion crosses to move from one cell to another cell are 3. These include: 1. Middle lamella 2. Primary cell Wall 3. Secondary Cell Wall The ion crosses cell by channel proteins as plasma membrane is non-polar while ions are polar.

Q73. Which of the following is Not in the pancreatic juice?

• A. Amylase
• B. Lipase
• C. Trypsinogen
• D. Insulin✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as pancreas is a heterocrine gland which also produces hormone named as insulin and glucagon which are produced by the beta cells and alpha cells respectively. The hormone insulin functions to decrease the glucose level of blood while the hormone glucagon works to increase the glucose level. Thus the hormones work contrary to each other. Read the following paragraph to have a better understanding of pancreas. The enzymatic component of the pancreatic juice is produced by the acini cells of the pancreas and is important for the digestion of all major classes of food. Without the enzymes produced by the pancreas, lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates are not adequately digested. The proteolytic pancreatic enzymes, which digest proteins, are secreted in inactive forms, whereas many of the other enzymes are secreted in active form. The major proteolytic enzymes are trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase. They are secreted in their inactive forms as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, and procarboxypeptidase and are activated by the removal of certain peptides from the larger precursor proteins. If these were produced in their active forms, they would digest the tissues producing them. Trypsinogen is activated by the proteolytic enzyme enterokinase (meaning, intestinal enzyme), which is an enzyme attached to the brush border (microvilli) of the small intestine. Trypsin then activates more trypsinogen, as well as chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase. Pancreatic juice also contains pancreatic amylase, which continues the polysaccharide digestion that was initiated in the oral cavity. In addition, pancreatic juice contains a group of lipid digesting enzymes called pancreatic lipases, which break down lipids into free fatty acids, glycerides, cholesterol, and other components. Enzymes that reduce DNA and ribonucleic acid to their component nucleotides, deoxyribonucleases and ribonucleases, respectively are also present in pancreatic juice.

Q74. An atom has a net charge of -1 it has 18 electron and 20 neutron its mass number is

• A. 37✓
• B. 32
• C. 35
• D. 20

Explanation: Atom A has 18 electrons with net charge of -1 which means it gained one electron. Hence number of proton= number of electron - atomic charge = 18 - 1 = 17 The number of proton will be 17. Now Mass number=number of proton + number of neutron Mass number = 17+20= 37

Q75. Conc:H2SO4 is added to a mixture of K2CR2O7 and metal chloride is solid scale. Brown vapors are formed. Which one is the correct formula?

• A. CrOCl2
• B. COCl2
• C. CrO2Cl2✓
• D. CrCl6

Explanation: When a mixture of K2CR2O7 and metal chloride is added in warm conc: H2SO4 Chromyl chloride ( CrO2Cl2) which forms a deep reddish brown color vapors These vapors when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4. 6H2SO4 + K2CR2O7 + 4NaCl —-> 2KHSO4 + 4NaHSO4 + 2CrO2Cl2 +3 H20 CrO2Cl2 + 2NaOH → Na2CrO4 + 2HCL (YELLOW SOLUTION)

Q76. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 ev. The ionization potential required will be:

• A. 4.9 volt
• B. 8.5 * 10-10 volt
• C. 3.4 volt
• D. 13.6 volt✓

Explanation: Ionization energy is the energy associated with the formation of 1 mole of negative ions from 1 mole (gaseous) atoms, and 1 mol of (gaseous) electrons and the ionization potential is this energy measured in electron volts. So the ionization potential of hydrogen will be the same as its ionization energy.

Q77. Which one of the following is not correct:

• A. Xe is the most reactive among rare gasses
• B. He is an inert gas
• C. Randon is obtained from decay of radium
• D. The most abundant rare gas found in atmosphere is He✓

Explanation: The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is Argon not Helium.

Q78. Metallic carbide on treatment with water gives a colorless gas which burns readily in air and gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 + NaOH the gas is

• A. CH4
• B. C2H2✓
• C. C2H4
• D. C2H6

Explanation: Metallic carbide/Calcium Carbide: CaC2 Calcium carbide on hydration gives acetylene. Which on reaction with sodium hydroxide and silver nitrate produces white ppt. Solution: Reacting metallic carbide with water: CaC2 + 2H2O —--> Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 The gas C2H2 is acetylene Reacting acetylene with air/O2 C2H2 + 5/2O2 —-> 2CO2 + H2O CH≡ CH + 2[Ag(NH3)2]NO3 —> Ag−C≡ C−Ag + 2NH3 +2 NH4NO3

Q79. Which product is obtained when methyl magnesium chloride react with ammonia:

• A. Methane✓
• B. Methyl amine
• C. Ethyl amine
• D. Methyl chloride

Explanation: CH3-Mg-Cl +NH3 —--------> CH4 + NH2MgCl Grignard reagent/methyl magnesium chloride is basic in nature so it will accept H+ from ammonia and form methane.

Q80. The total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is:

• A. Zero
• B. Negative✓
• C. Positive
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state can be calculated using the Schrödinger equation, which is a fundamental equation in quantum mechanics. The ground state of a hydrogen atom refers to the lowest energy state that the electron can occupy. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the ground state energy can be expressed as: E = -13.6 eV / n2 Where: E is the energy of the ground state in electron volts (eV), n is the principal quantum number, which is equal to 1 for the ground state. Plugging in the values: E = -13.6 eV / (12) = -13.6 eV So, the total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is approximately -13.6 electron volts.

Q81. Which of the following cannot be displaced from their salt solution by copper?

• A. Ag
• B. AU
• C. Pt
• D. Zn✓

Explanation: A more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal from its salt in an aqueous solution. Since copper is less reactive than zinc, therefore it cannot displace Zinc from its salt solution. But copper is more reactive than mercury, silver and gold hence can replace than from their respective salt solutions.

Q82. For atomic numbers given below , which pair of elements will have the same chemical properties ?

• A. 13,22
• B. 3,11✓
• C. 4,24
• D. 2,4

Explanation: Elements belonging to the same group have the same chemical properties. The 13th element in the periodic table is aluminum and 22nd is titanium belonging to different groups and periods.Hence they have different chemical properties. The 3rd element in the periodic table is lithium and the 11th is sodium, both belonging to 1st group/Alkali metals. Hence both have similar chemical properties. The 4th element in the periodic table is beryllium and the 24th is chromium, both belonging to different periods and groups.Hence they have different chemical properties. The 2nd element in the periodic table is helium and the 4th is beryllium, both belonging to different periods and groups.Hence they have different chemical properties.

Q83. 74g of calcium hydroxide will yield OH– ions:

• A. 17g
• B. 34g✓
• C. 51g
• D. 40g

Explanation: mole= given mass in gram/molar mass Mole of calcium hydroxide = 74/74 = 1 mole OH- mass in Ca(OH–)2 = (17)2 = 34 OH– ions = 1 x 34 = 34g answer!

Q84. Which of the following pairs have the same electronic structure?

• A. Ar & Cl–1✓
• B. Ca & Ar
• C. Mg & Na
• D. Ag & Sn

Explanation: Ar = 1s22s22p63s23p6 Cl– = 1s22s22p63s23p6 (doing for 18 electron instead of 17 because it gained one electron/anion)

Q85. The oxidation number of chlorine in Ca(ClO3)2 is:

• A. -1
• B. +3
• C. +5✓
• D. -6

Explanation: There are Ca+2+ & ClO3 In ClO3– there are three O-2 So, if Cl oxidation number is X then -1=-2×3+X X=+5 The oxidation number of Cl is +5.

Q86. lf glass manufacturing process annealing is done for the prevention of:

• A. Air bubbles
• B. Impurities
• C. Strain✓
• D. Shining

Explanation: The process of annealing glass is done to reduce internal stresses or strain which could otherwise lead to cracking.

Q87. lf 28.0g nitrogen gas is reacted with 8.0g of hydrogen gas to form Ammonia, the limiting reactant among the two will be:

• A. N2✓
• B. H2
• C. Both a & b
• D. None of them

Explanation: 28g of N2 = 1mole 8g of H2 = 4 mole Limiting reactant is N2 hence the correct answer is A.

Q88. The unit of K.c or the system N2O4 ⇋ 2NO2 is :

• A. Dimension (1.0 with no unit)
• B. Mole dm3
• C. Mole dm-3✓
• D. Mole2 dm3

Explanation: M2/M = mol dm-3

Q89. What is the trade name of titraflora ethylene polymer?

• A. Polystoene
• B. Backlite
• C. Nylone
• D. Teflone✓

Explanation: Tetrafluoroethylene is commonly known as Teflon.

Q90. Which one of the following does not have +7 oxidation ....

• A. F✓
• B. Cl
• C. Br
• D. 1

Explanation: Fluorine only shows -1 and 0 oxidation states.

Q91. The sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is known as:

• A. Charge number
• B. Mass number✓
• C. Atomic number
• D. Magic number

Explanation: Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

Q92. What type of intermolecular altractive force are present in CO2?

• A. Hydrogen bonding
• B. Dipole-dipole interaction
• C. London forces✓
• D. Covalent bounding

Explanation: London forces are caused by movement of electrons leading to instantaneous dipoles. It is the only force present in CO2 hence the low boiling point.Atomic number is the number of protons in an atom.

Q93. Warmer water at 40C is:

• A. Lighter
• B. Highest
• C. Heavier
• D. Heaviest✓

Explanation: Water has the highest density at 4 degree C as the cage-like structure which forms when water freezes starts breaking. Volume decreases hence water becomes more dense or heavier.

Q94. 10 L of Cl2 gas reacts with 40L of H2 gas under same condiitions of temperature and pressure. How much volume of HCl should be produced?

• A. 40L
• B. 30L
• C. 20L✓
• D. 10L

Explanation: The limiting reactant (the one with the lowest number of moles) in the reaction 𝐻2+𝐶𝑙2=2𝐻𝐶𝑙 is the chemical with the lowest volume, hence Cl2. As volume and moles are proportional and the moles of hydrochloric acid are twice as many as the moles of chlorine, then the volume of HCl will be two times of the reactant hence 20L. All Cl2 will react with 10L of H2 to form 20L of HCl, while there will be 30L of H2 remaining.

Q95. In the discharge tube emission the cathode rays requires:

• A. Low potential and low pressure
• B. Low potential and high pressure✓
• C. High potential and high pressure
• D. High potential and low pressure

Explanation: High pressure and low voltage (potential difference) should be maintained in the discharge tube for the production of cathode rays.

Q96. Which one of the following is not derivative of organic acid?

• A. Ester
• B. Amide
• C. Anhydride
• D. Amine✓

Explanation: Amines are derivatives of ammonia where H is replaced by one or more alkyl or aryl groups.

Q97. Dehydrahalogenation·of alkyl halide·is carried with:

• A. Alcoholic KOH✓
• B. Aqueous KOH
• C. Aqueous NaOH
• D. Alcoholic HaOH

Explanation: The suitable reagent used for dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides would be alcoholic KOH. Here are some examples.

Q98. When treated with ammonical cuprous chloride, which of the following forms copper derivates?

• A. C2H6
• B. C2H4
• C. C2H2✓
• D. C6H6

Explanation: Only alkynes can perform this reaction. 2[Cu(NH)3]OH + HC≡CH → Cu−C≡C−Cu + 4NH3 + 2H2O copper acetylide Red ppt.

Q99. Baron is prepared by heating B2O3 with:

• A. Potassium powder✓
• B. Bleaching Powder
• C. Carbon powder
• D. Baking powder

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q100. Consider the following.general reaction lA .. lB → Products rate of this reaction is expressed as Rate = K[A][B]' the correct order of reaction and molecularity is:

• A. 2:2✓
• B. 2:3
• C. 3:2
• D. 3:3

Explanation: Molecularity is the number of reactant molecules taking part in a single step of the reaction which is (A & B) 2. The overall order of the reaction is the sum of the exponents to which the concentration terms in the rate law are raised, in this case, 1+1 = 2.

Q101. Consider the reaction : 2SO2 + O2 …………. 2SO3 + Heat will be maximum if :

• A. Both pressure and temperature are increase
• B. Both pressure and temperature are decrease
• C. Temperature is decreased and pressure is increased
• D. Temperature is increased and pressure is decreased✓

Explanation: The reaction is the synthesis of sulfur trioxide (SO3) from sulfur dioxide (SO2) and oxygen (O2). The reaction is exothermic, meaning it releases heat. To determine the conditions under which the reaction rate will be maximum, we need to consider the effects of temperature and pressure on the reaction. According to Le Chatelier's principle, changes in temperature and pressure can influence the equilibrium position of a chemical reaction. In this case, we want to maximize the reaction rate, so we need to favor the forward reaction (formation of SO3). Increasing the temperature typically increases the reaction rate because it provides more energy for the reactant molecules to collide and overcome the activation energy barrier. Therefore, raising the temperature is generally favorable for increasing the reaction rate. Increasing the pressure, on the other hand, does not directly affect the rate of the reaction. It only affects the equilibrium position of the reaction. In this case, increasing the pressure will shift the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas, which is the forward reaction (2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3). Therefore, increasing the pressure can favor the formation of more SO3.

Q102. In one molal aqueous solution of C2H3OH the mole fraction of C2H5OH is :

• A. 0.1✓
• B. 0.9
• C. 0.0177
• D. 1.0

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q103. Which one of the following is electron deficient compounds :

• A. NH3
• B. PH3
• C. PCL3
• D. BCL3✓

Explanation: Electron-deficient compounds are those that have fewer electrons than what would be expected based on the octet rule or the number of valence electrons available. These compounds often involve elements from groups 2 and 13 of the periodic table, as they tend to form compounds with incomplete valence shells.

Q104. In which period is the most electronegative element found :

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: The most electronegative elements are found in Period 2 of the periodic table. Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself when it is involved in a chemical bond. In general, electronegativity tends to increase across a period from left to right in the periodic table. In Period 2, the elements from lithium (Li) to neon (Ne) are located. Fluorine (F) is the most electronegative element in this period, followed by oxygen (O). These elements have high electronegativity values because they have a strong attraction for electrons due to their atomic structure.

Q105. The formation of PVC from vinyl chloride is an example of :

• A. Substitution reaction
• B. Addition polymerization✓
• C. Condensation polymerization
• D. Condensation reaction

Explanation: The formation of PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride) from vinyl chloride is an example of addition polymerization. In addition polymerization, monomers join together to form a polymer without the elimination of any byproducts. It involves the repetitive addition of monomer units to form a long-chain polymer. In the case of PVC, vinyl chloride monomers undergo addition polymerization, where the carbon-carbon double bond in vinyl chloride opens up, and the monomers link together to form a long polymer chain of polyvinyl chloride.

Q106. The type of intermolecular forces (forces between the particles) present in solid mercury is:

• A. Covalent bonds
• B. Ionic bonds
• C. Metallic bonds✓
• D. H-bonds

Explanation: Solid mercury, or simply mercury (Hg) in its solid state, is an example of a metal. In metals, the bonding between atoms is primarily due to metallic bonds. Metallic bonds occur between metal atoms and are characterized by the delocalization of electrons. In a metallic bond, the valence electrons of the metal atoms are loosely held and can move freely throughout the solid lattice, creating a "sea" of delocalized electrons. This electron delocalization gives rise to several unique properties of metals, such as high electrical and thermal conductivity and malleability.

Q107. Which one of the following contains the greatest number of atoms :

• A. 4g of hydrogen
• B. 4g of magnesium
• C. 71 g of chlorine✓
• D. 127 g of iodine

Explanation: Now let's calculate the number of atoms for each substance: a) 4g of hydrogen (H): 4 moles of hydrogen × (6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol) = 2.409 × 1024 atoms of hydrogen b) 4g of magnesium (Mg): 0.165 moles of magnesium × (6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol) = 9.923 × 1022 atoms of magnesium c) 71g of chlorine (Cl): 2 moles of chlorine × (6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol) = 1.204 × 1024 atoms of chlorine d) 127g of iodine (I): 1 mole of iodine × (6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol) = 6.022 × 1023 atoms of iodine

Q108. Substances dissolved in water react better because :

• A. Water brings them close
• B. Water helps them in bonding
• C. Water dissolve them in ions✓
• D. Water reacts with them

Explanation: When substances dissolve in water, they often undergo a process called hydration, where the water molecules surround and separate the individual particles of the substance, resulting in the formation of ions. This process is known as dissociation or ionization. Water has a polar molecular structure, meaning it has a slightly positive charge on one end (hydrogen) and a slightly negative charge on the other end (oxygen). This polarity allows water molecules to interact with charged particles (ions) and polar molecules by forming hydrogen bonds.

Q109. The catalyst used in the contact process is easily poisoned by :

• A. Nitrous oxide
• B. Carbon oxide
• C. Arsenic oxide✓
• D. Nitrogen oxide

Explanation: In the contact process, the catalyst used is typically a combination of vanadium(V) oxide (V2O5) or platinum (Pt) supported on a substrate such as silica (SiO2). This catalyst is responsible for promoting the oxidation of sulfur dioxide (SO2) to sulfur trioxide (SO3) in the production of sulfuric acid. However, the catalyst used in the contact process is susceptible to poisoning, which refers to the deactivation or reduction in its catalytic activity. One of the substances that can poison the catalyst is arsenic oxide (As2O3). Arsenic oxide can interact with the catalyst's active sites, blocking or inhibiting its ability to facilitate the desired chemical reaction.

Q110. For which reaction of unit the rate constant “K” is the same as the ration rate ?

• A. Zero order
• B. First order
• C. Second order✓
• D. Third order

Explanation: In a second-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is directly proportional to the square of the concentration of one reactant or the product of the concentrations of two reactants. The rate equation for a second-order reaction is typically expressed as: rate = k[A]2 In this case, the rate constant "k" is equal to the rate of the reaction when the concentrations of the reactants are 1 M. Now let's analyze the other answer options and explain why they are incorrect:

Q111. The formula CH3(CH2)14COO- Na represents a member of the class of compounds called :

• A. Steroids
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Vitamins
• D. Soap✓

Explanation: The formula CH3(CH2)14COO-Na represents a soap compound. Soaps are salts of fatty acids and are commonly used for cleaning purposes. The formula indicates the presence of a long hydrocarbon chain (CH3(CH2)14) attached to a carboxyl group (COO-) that forms a salt with sodium (Na+). Soaps are known for their ability to dissolve in water and form micelles, which help in the removal of dirt and oil from surfaces.

Q112. Four moles of electrons (4 x 6.02 x 1023 electrons) would electroplate how many grams of silver from a silver nitrate solution ?

• A. 216
• B. 324
• C. 432✓
• D. 540

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q113. Electronic configuration of Cu is :

• A. 3d10 4s1✓
• B. 3d11 4s0
• C. 3d10 4s2
• D. 3d10 4s0

Explanation: The electronic configuration of copper (Cu) is obtained by filling the orbitals in order of increasing energy. The atomic number of copper is 29, which means it has 29 electrons. The electron configuration of copper can be determined by following the Aufbau principle, which states that electrons fill the lowest energy levels first. The electron configuration for copper can be written as: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9 However, when it comes to copper, there is an exception. Copper prefers to have a fully-filled 3d subshell rather than a half-filled 3d subshell due to increased stability. Therefore, one electron from the 4s orbital is promoted to the 3d orbital, resulting in the electron configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d10

Q114. The silky finish of mercerized cotton is obtained by treating cotton with a solution of:

• A. NaOH✓
• B. NaHCO3
• C. Na2 CO3
• D. Na2CO3. 2H2O

Explanation: Mercerization is an industrial process involving sodium hydroxide for cotton yarns or fabrics to increase the luster and dyeability. It is a chemical treatment for cellulosic material such as cotton fibres for yarns. The yarn is dipped in a 20% sodium hydroxide bath, followed by an acid bath. In mercerization cotton fabric is treated with caustic soda which swells up the cotton fibers in cotton fabric adding below properties. • Improved luster • Increased ability to absorb dye • Improved reactions with a variety of chemicals • Improved stability of form • Improved strength/elongation • Improved smoothness • Improved hand

Q115. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 Calorie of substance through 1 K is called:

• A. Heat capacity
• B. 1 Joule
• C. Specific beat✓
• D. One calorie

Explanation: The Correct MCQ should be “The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of substance through 1K is called” Specific heat is the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1g of substance by 1K.

Q116. Which one f the following has the lowest pH?

• A. 1 M HF
• B. 1 M HCL
• C. 1 m CH3COOH✓
• D. 1 M NaOH

Explanation: As we know that lower the pH, stronger the acid and greater the no of hydrogen ions in a solution. The acidity of an acid is measured by the ability to remove hydrogen ion.

Q117. The etectrical conductivity of NaCl crystal is:

• A. More than NaBr crystal
• B. Les than NaBr crystal
• C. Equal to NaBr crystal
• D. NaCl crystal doesn't conduct electric current✓

Explanation: A NaCl crystal does not conducts electricity because the arrangement of electrons within a crystal is rigid and free electrons are not available for conduction of electricity. However, NaCl does conducts electricity in molten state as there are free electrons available. When the sodium chloride dissolves in water, the sodium atoms and chlorine atoms separate under the influence of the water molecules. They're free to move around in the water as positively and negatively charged ions. This separation of charge allows the solution to conduct electricity. Crystalline NaBr contains no freely moving electrons to conduct electricity, but molten NaBr is composed of freely moving Na+ and Br− ions, which allows it to be a good conductor of electricity.

Q118. What type(s) of bonds is/are present in NH4 Cl?

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent
• C. Co-ordinate covalent
• D. All of them✓

Explanation: An ionic bond forms between the NH4 + and Cl - ions in an NH 4 Cl molecule, as well as three covalent bonds between one atom N and three atoms of H and one coordinate covalent bond between N and other atom of H (NH4 +).

Q119. In which case the genotypic and.phenolypic ratio·will be 1:2:1?

• A. Complete-dominance✓
• B. Incomplete dominance
• C. Co-dominance
• D. None

Explanation: Complete dominance is the phenomena in which a pair of alleles express the characteristic of dominance for example one allele within a pair suppresses the effect of other allele. The allele which produces its effect is called dominant allele and the allele which is suppressed is called recessive allele. The dominant heterozygote state (Rr) have the same phenotype as homozygous dominant (RR), whereas the dominant recessive (rr) have the recessive phenotype. All the seven traits in mendel’s monohybrid cross had phenotypic ratio as 1:3 while the genotypic ratio was 1:2:1

Q120. You are electrolyzing potassium salt of a dicarboxylic acid in aqueous solution. Which product do you expect to be formed?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. None

Explanation: Kolbe's electrolysis method is a general method of preparation of substituted hydrocarbons from the substituted carboxylic acids by the use of the electric discharge method where carbon dioxide gas is released. It is one of the most widely used methods for the preparation of alkanes and substituted hydrocarbons. Kolbe's electrolysis method is a general method of preparation of substituted hydrocarbons from the substituted carboxylic acids by the use of the electric discharge method where carbon dioxide gas is released. It is one of the most widely used methods for the preparation of alkanes and substituted hydrocarbons.

Q121. Formaldehyde give and addition product with methyl magnesium iodide. Which one aqueous hydrolysis gives:

• A. CH3OH
• B. C2H5OH✓
• C. (CH3)2CHOH
• D. ....

Explanation: When a Grignard reagent reacts with aldehydes and ketones, it results in production of addition products which on hydrolysis gives primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol. The reaction is carried in presence of ether followed by H3O+. 1. When Grignard reagent reacts with methanal, it results in production of primary alcohol. 2. When Grignard reagent reacts with ethanal, it results in production of secondary alcohol. 3. When Grignard reagent reacts with ketone, it results in production of tertiary alcohol.

Q122. The oxidation number of iron in (Fe( CN)6) -4 is:

• A. +3
• B. +2✓
• C. +4
• D. +6

Explanation: OPTION B is correct as there six ligands in the compound which is a cyano group having a charge of -1. Since there are six ligands so the total negative charge is -6. The Fe atom in the compound is the transition element which accepts electron from the ligand. The Fe atom in the compound has +2 charge. So, the total charge on the compound will be given as -6+2

Q123. The longest bond is of:

• A. H-1
• B. H-O
• C. H-S✓
• D. H-Cl

Explanation: The correct option is C as the we know that lower the electronegativity difference between the bonded atoms, longer will be the bond and thus more easily the bond can be broken. Here among the four atoms, Sulphur has the lowest electronegativity. Thus the bond between H and S atom will be the longest.

Q124. The ideal gas equation is PV = nRT the symbol n in SI unit represent:

• A. The number of molecules in the gas✓
• B. Avogadro's number
• C. The number of kilo-moles
• D. The number of molecules per unit volume

Explanation: The ideal gas law can be written in terms of the number of molecules of gas: PV = nRT, where P is pressure, V is volume, T is temperature, n is number of molecules, and R is the general gas constant. PV = nRT, The pressure of a gas times its volume equals the number of moles of the gas times a constant (R) times the temperature of the gas. The ideal gas law is the final and most useful expression of the gas laws because it ties the amount of a gas (moles) to its pressure, volume and temperature.

Q125. London dispersion forces (forces between the particles) are present in:

• A. Gases only
• B. Liquids only
• C. Solids only
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The London dispersion force is the weakest intermolecular force. The London dispersion force is a temporary attractive force that results when the electrons in two adjacent atoms occupy positions that make the atoms form temporary dipoles. This force is sometimes called an induced dipole-induced dipole attraction. London Dispersion Forces occurs when there is a momentary region of electron density in an atom or molecule. This momentary region is negative, giving the atom or molecule polarity. As an atom or molecule gets larger, they get more electrons, so the probability of there being a region of electron density increases. Gases have electrons, so they have London Dispersion Forces. However, their LDFs tend to be weaker as gaseous atoms and molecules tend to be smaller than liquid and solid atoms and molecules. The halogens provide an example for this concept. Fluorine and chlorine molecules exist as gases at room temperature, but iodine and bromine molecules exist as a liquid and solid respectively because they are larger molecules.

Q126. The fixing solution used in developing a negative in photography contains:

• A. Hydroquinone
• B. Sodium thiosulphate✓
• C. Pyfogallal
• D. AgBr

Explanation: Sodium thiosulfate (sodium hyposulfite), Na2S2O3, is used by photographers to fix developed negatives and prints; it acts by dissolving the part of the silver salts coated onto film which remain unchanged by exposure to light. Fixation is commonly achieved by treating the film or paper with a solution of thiosulfate salt. Popular salts are sodium thiosulfate—commonly called hypo—and ammonium thiosulfate—commonly used in modern rapid fixer formulae.

Q127. Dry CO2 is passed through grignard reagent in the presence of either as a solvent. The intermediate is decomposed with diluted HCI giving a compound 'X' identity 'X'.

• A. Primary alcohol
• B. Secondary alcohol
• C. Acetone
• D. Carboxylic acid✓

Explanation: When a Grignard reagent reacts with aldehydes and ketones, it results in production of addition products which on hydrolysis gives primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol. The reaction is carried in presence of ether followed by H3O+. 1. When Grignard reagent reacts with methanal, it results in production of primary alcohol. 2. When Grignard reagent reacts with ethanal, it results in production of secondary alcohol. 3. When Grignard reagent reacts with ketone, it results in production of tertiary alcohol.

Q128. To what volume in .... must 50.0ml of 3.50M H2SO4 be diluted in order to make 2 M H2SO4?

• A. 25
• B. 60.1
• C. 87.5✓
• D. 93.2

Explanation: The correct option is c 87.5 mL M1V1=M2V2 Where, M1⇒ Molarity of the initial solution = 3.5 M V1⇒ Volume of the initial solution = 50 mL M2⇒ Molarity of the resultant solution i.e. after dilution = 2 M V2⇒ Volume of the resultant solution 3.5×50=2×V2 V2=3.5×502=87.5 mL Therefore, the initial solution must be diluted to 87.5 mL

Q129. For reaction 3O2(e) ⇋ 2O3(e) : Kc = 10-56 at 25 °C one can predict

• A. More O3 is formed
• B. More reactants are consumed
• C. The forward reaction progresses to a large extent
• D. The backward reaction goes to near completion✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q130. The magnitude of i.(j×k) is equal to?

• A. 0
• B. 1✓
• C. -1
• D. 2

Explanation: Here i , j, k is indicated as the unit vector of x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis. According to right hand screw rules j*k = i. That means when you turn the screw from j to k in the area of a small angle you will get the direction in the i axis. a.b=abcos(theta) so, i.(j*k)= i.i which means two unit vectors of x-axis and angle between them is zero degree. i.i=1.1cos(0)= 1

Q131. Which one of the following isotopes of natural Uranium undergo reaction with slow neutron:

• A. 92U235✓
• B. 92U236
• C. 92U238
• D. 92U239

Explanation: 92U235 is the only naturally occurring isotope of uranium that is fissile (able to fission with slow neutrons).

Q132. Two waves of the same frequency and amplitude traveling in opposite direction along the same position are:

• A. Electromagnetic waves
• B. Microwaves
• C. Stationary waves✓
• D. Sound waves

Explanation: When two waves of the same frequency and amplitude moving with the same speed in the opposite direction along the same path, these types of waves are known as Stationary waves.

Q133. In simple A.C capacitive circuit:

• A. The voltage leads current by 900
• B. The voltage legs behind current by 900
• C. The current leads voltage by 900✓
• D. The current and voltage are in phase

Explanation: In A.C capacitive circuits, the current leads the voltage by 90° because first, the current flows through the two plates of the capacitor, where the charge is stored, after that the charge accumulates at the plates of the capacitor and causes an establishment of a voltage difference.

Q134. The phenomenon of mutual induction is practically used in:

• A. Transformer✓
• B. Generator
• C. Galvanometer
• D. Avometer

Explanation: A transformer is the most common application of mutual induction that uses this phenomenon to change the values of alternating voltages and currents

Q135. The color coding of a carbon resistor is such that the first band is green and the second yellow. The third band is red and the fourth is silver. The value of resistance is

• A. 4500 ohm with 10% to
• B. 5400 ohm with 10%✓
• C. 54000 ohm with 1-%
• D. 4500 ohm with 10%

Explanation: According to color code of carbon resistors: Code for green is 5,code for yellow is 4, code for red is 2 and code for silver or tolerance is 10%. First and second bands represent the first 2 significant figures of resistance. Third band represents the power raised to 10 in the value of resistance. Fourth band represent tolerance, So the solution will be : green —>5( 1st significant figure) yellow—>4(2nd significant figure) red—> 2(10 power raised to 2) silver—> 10%( the tolerance) hence,the answer will be 5400 ± 10%

Q136. Uncertainty principle can be expressed as:

• A. ΔpΔx = h
• B. ΔEΔI=h
• C. Both (a) and (b)✓
• D. None

Explanation: The Heisenberg uncertainty principle explains that momentum and position of a particle cannot be simultaneously at the same time with 100% accuracy. Similarly it is also impossible to measure the energy of a particle and the time measurement with 100% accuracy. ΔpΔx = h Is the expression for uncertainty in momentum and position of a particle. ΔEΔI=h Is the expression for uncertainty in energy and time measurement of a particle according to the Heisenberg uncertainty rule.

Q137. The frequency of fundamental mode of a string stretched by a tension T and gaming mass m and length l is given by:

• A. f = 1⁄2 √T/ml
• B. f = 1/2l√lT/m = 1/2l √lT/m✓
• C. f = 1/2l√T/m
• D. f = 1/2√T/m

Explanation: Frequency is directly proportional to tension and inversely with mass . Formula from SHM.

Q138. The first law of thermodynamics can be expressed mathematically as:

• A. Δθ= Δu + Δw✓
• B. Δθ =Δ u
• C. Δθ =Δw
• D. None

Explanation: First law of thermodynamics states “ energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be altered/changed into different forms”. Δθ= Δu + Δw is one of the mathematical expression for first law of thermodynamics which explains that heat supplied to the system(Δθ) is equal to change in internal energy of the system(Δu) plus work done by the system on the surrounding(Δw).

Q139. What will be the effect on the speed of transverse waves on a string if the tension in the string remains constant but the diameter of the string doubles?

• A. Remains constant
• B. Becomes half✓
• C. Becomes double
• D. Becomes four times

Explanation: As v=√T/d Where T is tension and d is linear density of the string d=m/l And mass is directly proportional to Area which is directly proportional to square of diameter Thus,doubling diameter quadruples the linear density. As v=1/√d The speed will become half by doubling the diameter.

Q140. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with constant angular speed w . its acceleration directed towards the center of circle is:

• A. w/r
• B. w2/r
• C. w2r✓
• D. Wr2

Explanation: w = v/r which is constant As ac = mv2/r So ac = w2r

Q141. A string passes over a smooth pulloy and 3kg mass at one and a 5kg mass at the other and the acceleration of the masses is:

• A. 2.5 ms-2✓
• B. 0.25 ms-2
• C. 9.25 ms-2
• D. 2.8 ms-1

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q142. Rest man energy of an electron is:

• A. 0.511 Mev✓
• B. 1 Mev
• C. 8.0 x 10-14 J
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The rest mass energy of an electron is 0.511 MeV (fact).

Q143. To an observer stationary on a plateform a compared to a stationary clock and a moving clock clicks:

• A. slower✓
• B. faster
• C. same rate as stationary dock
• D. clicks negative time

Explanation: After compensating for varying signal delays due to the changing distance between an observer and a moving clock (i.e. Doppler effect), the observer will measure the moving clock is ticking slower than a clock that is at rest in the observer's own reference frame.

Q144. In a transverse wave the distance between a crest and the adjacent trough is:

• A. λ/2✓
• B. λ/4
• C. λ
• D. 2λ

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q145. The wavelength of a wave traveling with.speed v·and having frequency f is:

• A. λ = v/f✓
• B. λ = vf
• C. λ = f/v
• D. None of above

Explanation: speed = frequency x wavelength Rearrange the formula and you get: wavelength = speed / frequency

Q146. The weight of a pilot diving down with an acceleration of 9.8ms -2 will become:

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. Zero✓
• D. Negative

Explanation: An object in free fall becomes weightless as all the forces acting on it are balanced out.

Q147. Energy of a photon having frequency 10 Hz will be:

• A. 6.63 x 10-19 J✓
• B. 6.63ev
• C. 6.63 x 10-21 J
• D. 6.63 x 10-15 ev

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q148. Which one of the following is a correct relation?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation is given as image

Q149. The unit of pressure is:

• A. Nm-2
• B. One Pascal
• C. One atmosphere
• D. All✓

Explanation: All of these options are correct

Q150. Ohm's law is valid only for currents following in:

• A. Metallic conductor✓
• B. Transistors
• C. Diodes
• D. Electric arcs

Explanation: Ohm's law is only linear for metallic conductors. Diodes, electric arcs and transistors are semiconductor devices. The current does not vary linearly with voltage in semiconductor devices.

Q151. The maximum height H attained by a projectile projected with initial velocity v = (v.o) is given by:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation is given as image

Q152. The correct representation of the vector A in the xy-plane is given. In terms of the rectangular components as:

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q153. The present SI unit of time is defined as:

• A. 1/24 x 1/60 x 1/60 (mean solar day)
• B. The second elined by the electronic digital watch✓
• C. Duration of 9.192,631,770 vibration of cosium-133 atom
• D. Minute

Explanation: The SI unit of time is seconds, symbol s.

Q154. A wire loop is moved parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The induced emf in the loop will:

• A. Be maximum
• B. Be zero✓
• C. Depend on the size of the coil
• D. None of above

Explanation: Since the coil is moving parallel to a uniform magnetic field, the magnetic flux associated with the coil will remain zero during the whole time. And as the magnetic flux associated with the coil is not changing during the motion, there will be no emf induced in the coil. Hence induced emf in the coil will be zero.

Q155. A man carries a 1kg body 10m horizontally on a level ground. The work done by man is :

• A. 10 J
• B. 1 J
• C. 0 J✓
• D. 5 J

Explanation: Given the mass of the body, m = 1 kg The displacement of the body, s = 10 m The work done on a body is equal to the product of the applied force and the displacement of the body. Mathematically, work done may be written as Since force is given by the product of mass and acceleration, and in this case it is the acceleration due to gravity. i.e., F=mg The body is carried by man and the acceleration due to gravity is acting downwards. So, the force is acting downwards. And the displacement is along the horizontal direction on a level ground. Therefore, the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, i.e., the angle between the force and displacement, . Substituting the given values in the formula of work done, for , , Therefore, the total work done by the man is zero.

Q156. The value of G at the moon as compared with its value at the earth is :

• A. Smaller
• B. Same✓
• C. Greater
• D. Zero

Explanation: The gravitational acceleration constant (G) is a fundamental constant of nature that represents the strength of the gravitational force between two objects. It is the same throughout the universe and does not depend on the location. Therefore, regardless of whether you are on Earth or the Moon, the value of G remains constant. It does not change based on the specific location or celestial body. This means that the value of G at the Moon is the same as its value on Earth.

Q157. An object is placed between convex lens and its focus, the image formed is :

• A. Real inverted , in front of the lens
• B. Virtual, erect, in front of the lens✓
• C. Real erect behind the lens
• D. Real inverted behind the lens

Explanation: When an object is placed between a convex lens and its focus, the image formed is virtual, erect, and located on the same side as the object (in front of the lens). This is because a convex lens is a converging lens, meaning it brings parallel rays of light together.

Q158. A p-type crystal is formed when Ge or SI crystal is doped with an impurity which is:

• A. Nonviolent
• B. Divalent
• C. Trivalent✓
• D. Pentavalent

Explanation: A p-type crystal is formed when a semiconductor crystal, such as Germanium (Ge) or Silicon (Si), is doped with an impurity that has one less valence electron than the atoms of the crystal. This impurity is known as a "trivalent" impurity. When a trivalent impurity is added to the crystal lattice, it replaces some of the original atoms, creating "holes" or vacant spaces in the crystal's valence band. These holes act as positive charge carriers. The trivalent impurity donates one of its valence electrons to the crystal, creating a positively charged "dopant" ion and leaving behind a vacant spot in the crystal structure. This addition of trivalent impurities effectively increases the concentration of positively charged holes in the crystal lattice, creating a surplus of positive charge carriers and hence leading to the formation of a p-type semiconductor.

Q159. A setup transformer is that which :

• A. Increase of power
• B. Increase of current
• C. Increase of voltage✓
• D. Increase of energy

Explanation: A step-up transformer is a type of transformer that increases the voltage of an alternating current (AC) while decreasing the current. It consists of two coils of wire, known as the primary coil and the secondary coil, which are wrapped around a common iron core. The primary coil is connected to the input voltage source, and the secondary coil is connected to the load or the device that requires a higher voltage. When an AC current flows through the primary coil, it creates a changing magnetic field in the iron core. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil according to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. The voltage ratio between the primary and secondary coils is determined by the ratio of the number of turns in each coil. In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the secondary coil is greater than the number of turns in the primary coil. This arrangement allows the transformer to increase the voltage while decreasing the current.

Q160. Two coherent monochromatic sets of waves will interfere constructively in the region of superposition only if the path difference between them is :

• A. Half wavelength
• B. Integral number of wavelength✓
• C. Quarter wavelength
• D. Odd integral number of half wavelength

Explanation: For two coherent monochromatic sets of waves to interfere constructively in the region of superposition, the path difference between them must be an integral number of wavelengths. This condition ensures that the crests of one wave align with the crests of the other wave, resulting in constructive interference. When the path difference is an integral number of wavelengths, the waves will have corresponding points in phase, meaning the crests and troughs of the waves will align. This alignment leads to the constructive interference of the waves, resulting in a larger combined amplitude at the region of superposition.

Q161. Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor for :

• A. Slowing down fast neutrons
• B. Speeding up slow neutrons
• C. Absorbing fast neutrons✓
• D. Regulating the power evel of the reactor

Explanation: Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor for absorbing fast neutrons. Neutrons in a nuclear reactor can have different energies, and their behavior and interaction with materials vary accordingly. Fast neutrons are highly energetic and can cause unwanted reactions or increase the rate of fission in the reactor. To control and regulate the rate of fission reactions, control rods made of materials such as cadmium are inserted into the reactor core. Cadmium has a high neutron absorption cross-section, meaning it has a high probability of absorbing neutrons when they come into contact with it. By absorbing fast neutrons, the cadmium rods effectively reduce the number of available fast neutrons and help control the rate of fission reactions in the reactor. This process helps maintain a stable and controlled level of nuclear reactions, ensuring the safe and efficient operation of the reactor.

Q162. A solenoid has length ℓ and Number of turns. It carries a current I and the magnetic yield produced inside the solenoid will be :

• A. B = µ°NI ℓ✓
• B. B = µ ℓ / °Nℓ
• C. B = Nℓ / °ℓ
• D. B = µ ℓ ℓ / °N

Explanation: According to Ampere's law, the magnetic field (B) produced inside a solenoid is directly proportional to the product of the permeability of free space (µ₀), the current (I) flowing through the solenoid, and the number of turns per unit length (N/ℓ). Mathematically, it is represented as: B = µ₀NI/ℓ

Q163. Pair production can take place only if the energy E of the photon is:

• A. E = 0.52 Mev
• B. E < 1.02 Mev
• C. E < 0.52 Mev
• D. E > 1.02 Mev✓

Explanation: Pair production is a process in which a photon interacts with a nucleus or an atomic electron and produces an electron-positron pair. According to the principles of conservation of energy and momentum, pair production can only occur if the energy of the photon is greater than or equal to the rest mass energy of the particle pair being produced. In the case of electron-positron pair production, the rest mass energy is approximately 0.51 MeV for each particle, so the total minimum energy required is twice that, which is 1.02 MeV.

Q164. Two capacitors of capacitance 2µF each are connected in series to a power supply of 6 volt. The voltage across each capacitor is :

• A. 6 volt✓
• B. 1 volt
• C. 3 volt
• D. 2 volt

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance (C_total) is given by the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual capacitances (C1, C2, C3, ...): 1/C_total = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + 1/C3 + ... In this case, we have two capacitors of 2µF each connected in series. Plugging in the values, we get: 1/C_total = 1/2µF + 1/2µF Simplifying the expression: 1/C_total = 2/2µF 1/C_total = 1/µF C_total = µF So the total capacitance is 1µF. Now, the voltage across each capacitor in a series circuit is the same. Therefore, the voltage across each capacitor in this case is 6 volts.

Q165. Transistor in a circuit basically acts as:

• A. Vallage amplifier
• B. Oxillator
• C. Current amplifier✓
• D. Rectifier

Explanation: A Transistor is a device which consists of three regions of doped semiconductors in which the current flowing is modulated by the voltage or current applied to one or more electrodes. These includes: Emitter- Heavily doped and function is to emit the charges. Collector- Moderately Doped and function to collect the charges Base- Lightly Doped and functions to reduce the transit time of charge. In PN Transistors there are two types: NPN – in which electrons are majority charge carriers (these are most widely used as the mobility of electrons is three times more than the holes and operation is faster within these transistors) PNP- in which holes are majority charge carriers A Transistor works as an amplifier by increasing the strength of the signal. A signal can be used to refer to any particular current, voltage, or power in a circuit. BUT… within these transistors there are three types of configurations: Common Emitter Configuration, Common Base Configurations and Common Collector Configurations Among these configuration Common emitter configurations is the most widely used (Book Statement KPK/FTB Pg no 246). Common emitter configurations are used when large current gains are needed, therefore for this MCQ, Current Amplifier is the most preferable option.

Q166. The orbital veIocity of a satellite orbiting around the earth at distance ....

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Minimum velocity required to put satellite in a circular orbit is called orbital velocity. Minimum height of satellite revolving orbiting around the earth is 400km and 24 such satellites GPS system. The centripetal force required to put the satellite in a circular path is provided by gravitational force. • If velocity of satellite is less than the critical velocity (v<27000km/h) it will fall towards earth. • If velocity of satellite is equal to critical velocity (v=27000km/h) then it will move in circular path • If velocity of satellite is greater than critical velocity but less than escape velocity it will move in an elliptical velocity. • If velocity is equal or greater than escape velocity it will escape from earth’s gravity.

Q167. A meter rod is moving with speed of light with respect to a stationary observer. The length of the rod will appear to the observer as approaching:

• A. Infinite
• B. Zero m✓
• C. 2 meter
• D. None of above.

Explanation: Formula for length contraction is L=L0√1−v2/c2, where: • L = new length (m) • L0 = original length (m) • v = speed of object (ms−1) • c = speed of light (~3.00⋅108ms−1) So, L=√1−c2/c2 =√1−1 =√0 L=0 meter

Q168. The final image formed by a two lens compound microscope is:

• A. Real, erect
• B. Real inverted
• C. Virtual inverted✓
• D. Virtual erect

Explanation: The objective lens produces a real, inverted image and the eyepiece acts as a simple magnifier and does not re-invert and produces a virtual image. So overall the image is inverted and virtual.

Q169. A nucleus emits gamma (γ) photon what happens to its atomic number and actual mass:

• A. Atomic number and actual mass remain unchanged✓
• B. atomic number and actual mass both decrease
• C. atomic number and actual mass both increase
• D. atomic number remains the same but the actual mass decrease

Explanation: Radioactivity is the phenomena in which an unstable nuclei emits alpha particle, beta particle or gamma ray in order to achieve stability. Thus the nuclei being unstable and having high energy is transmuted to stable nuclei. The stable nuclei is called daughter nuclei.

Q170. For a H-atom which one of the following statements is correct?

• A. The radius of the orbits are integral multiple of the Bohr-radius ...... 0.053mm
• B. The angular momentum is n times h/2π✓
• C. The energy in the nth-orbit is n times the ground state energy.
• D. Missing

Explanation: This option is correct as the angular momentum is n times h/2pi which is given by the formula : L=nh/2pi or mvr=nh/2pi which is stated in one of the Bohr’s postulate. It can have only quantized values which are situated with the orbits rather having values in between the orbits.

Q171. If an amount of work △W is done by an agent in time interval △t, the power of that agency Will be:

• A. △W /△t✓
• B. △t / W△
• C. △t / △W
• D. △W + △t

Explanation: Thus power is defined as the rate of transfer of energy. In other words, we also define power. The amount of work done by a body in a one second is called power. If W is work done by a body in time t then, power is given by: P=W/t

Q172. The number.of significant figures in the measurement of 5.05 X 10-3 ms-1 is:

• A. 2✓
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 8

Explanation: Please read the following explanation:

Q173. The molecular of oxygen has two unpaired electrons. It is therefore:

• A. diamagnetic✓
• B. paramagnetic
• C. ferromagnetic
• D. electromagnetic

Explanation: Those substances which have at least only one unpaired electron are called diamagnetic substances. They are weakly repelled in direction of magnetic field.

Q174. The dimension of torque are :

• A. (MLT)
• B. (M2 42 L)
• C. (ML2 T-2)✓
• D. (ML2 T2)

Explanation: The SI unit for torque is the Newton-metre or kgm2sec-2. Torque has the dimension of force times distance, symbolically T−2L2M. Although those fundamental dimensions are the same as that for energy or work, official SI literature suggests using the unit newton metre (N⋅m) and never the joule.

Q175. In Compton effect, the photon scattered at an angle of 90°. The Compton's shift of wave length wiil be:

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Please read the following page:

Q176. A person haviog a mass of 60kg exerts a horizontal force of 150N in horizontal floor with constant velocity, Net force is:

• A. 90N
• B. 60N
• C. 150N✓
• D. 100N

Explanation: The Correct Option is C as the person is moving with a net force of 150N in horizontal direction. Net force is defined as the force after all the forces acting on a body have been added. For example if a book is lying on a table, it is in rest because all the forces acting on the book after being added is zero so the net force on book is zero. But in the above mcq the forces acting on the person after being added are not zero and has horizontal direction. Thus Net force acting on the person is 150N in horizontal direction.

Q177. A 50Ω resistance wire is stretched such that its length is doubled and its cross section area becomes half. The new resistance is:

• A. 100Ω
• B. 200Ω✓
• C. 50Ω
• D. 150Ω

Explanation: Resistance is defined as the property of a material to show hindrance against the current flowing in the conductor. It always moves opposite in the direction of the current. The expression for the resistance of a wire is given as, R=ρL/A where, ρ is the resistivity of a material. l is the length of wire. A is the cross-sectional area. Since the wire is stretched and length becomes two times while the area is halved, Therefore the new resistance will be four times the original resistance. So after multiplying 50 ohm by 4 we get 200 ohm

Q178. Why is it easiar to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with single.hand?

• A. The applied force is doubled
• B. two equal forces act concurrently on the wheel
• C. A couple acts on the wheel✓
• D. Two equal and opposite forces act cocurrently on the wheel.

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q179. I want to see what had happened.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. adjective clause
• C. adverb clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "what had happened" acts as the direct object of the verb "want to see." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I want to see something").

Q180. I expect that I shall get a prize.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. adjective clause
• C. adverb clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "that I shall get a prize" acts as the object of the verb "expect." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I expect something").

Q181. On a hot day or in hot climates white clothes are worn because they are good:

• A. Reflectors✓
• B. Absorbers
• C. Radiators
• D. Emitters

Explanation: White clothes are worn on hot days or in hot climates because they are good at reflecting sunlight. Light-colored and especially white fabrics reflect a significant portion of the sun's rays, helping to keep the body cooler. This is because lighter colors absorb less heat compared to darker colors. The reflection of sunlight reduces the absorption of thermal energy, contributing to a cooler feeling when wearing white clothes in hot weather.

Q182. Which theory explains that energy exchange takes place in discrete “bundles” or “quanta”?

• A. Special theory of relativity
• B. Quantum theory✓
• C. Corpuscular theory
• D. Bohr’s theory

Explanation: The theory that explains that energy exchange takes place in discrete "bundles" or "quanta" is quantum theory. This concept was first introduced by Max Planck in 1900 when he proposed that energy is quantized and exists in discrete packets. Subsequently, quantum theory was further developed by scientists like Albert Einstein, Niels Bohr, Werner Heisenberg, and Erwin Schrödinger, leading to the establishment of quantum mechanics. In quantum mechanics, the behavior of particles, including energy exchanges, is described in terms of discrete units or quanta.

Q183. Mathematically quantum theory is stated as:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: E = hf This equation is a key element in understanding the quantization of energy in quantum theory. It shows that energy is quantized in discrete packets or quanta, with the energy of each quantum directly proportional to the frequency of the associated electromagnetic wave.

Q184. A single quantum of electromagnetic radiation is:

• A. Photon✓
• B. Proton
• C. Meson
• D. Positron

Explanation: A single quantum of electromagnetic radiation is called a "photon." Photons are elementary particles that represent a discrete amount of energy associated with electromagnetic waves. The energy of a photon is quantized and is directly proportional to the frequency of the associated electromagnetic wave. Photons exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties, and they play a crucial role in the quantum theory of electromagnetic radiation.

Q185. Light consists of particle wave called:

• A. Proton
• B. Electron
• C. Neutron
• D. Photon✓

Explanation: The light particle conceived by Einstein is called a photon. Photons exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties, and they play a crucial role in the quantum theory of electromagnetic radiation.

Q186. Rest mass of photon is:

• A. Infinite
• B. Zero✓
• C. Equal to proton
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Photons are massless particles. The rest mass of a photon is zero. Unlike particles with mass, such as electrons or protons, photons do not have rest mass. Because light always travels with some speed and is never at rest. So it has zero rest mass. Irrespective of the intensity, all the photons which have the same frequency, possess the same energy.

Q187. Due to the deficiency of _ hormone, synthesis of glycogen gets depressed, glucose level increases in blood and leads to a condition called Diabetes mellitus.

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Parathormone
• C. Glucagon
• D. Insulin✓
• E. Cortisol

Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by high levels of glucose in the blood due to the inability of the body to produce or respond to the hormone insulin. Insulin is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas and is responsible for glucose uptake from the blood into the cells, where it can be used as energy or stored as glycogen. When insulin is deficient, as in the case of diabetes, glycogen synthesis gets depressed, and glucose levels increase in the blood.

Q188. During active membrane potential, _ conducts the impulse in the form of nerve impulse.

• A. Axon
• B. Soma
• C. Neuron✓
• D. Cytoplasm
• E. Ribosome

Explanation: The neuron is the basic unit of the nervous system and consists of three main parts: the cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon. During active membrane potential, the neuron conducts an electrical impulse in the form of a nerve impulse or action potential. The impulse travels along the axon, a long, thin extension of the neuron, and is transmitted to other neurons, muscles, or glands.

Q189. The most important function of _ hormone is cell division in apical meristem of young plants.

• A. Gibberellins
• B. Ethylene
• C. Cytokinins
• D. Auxins✓
• E. Abscisic acids

Explanation: Auxins are plant hormones that play a crucial role in regulating plant growth and development. One of their main functions is to promote cell division in the apical meristem of young plants, which is the area of the plant responsible for growth in length. Auxins also help control plant growth orientation, and promote the formation of roots and fruits.

Q190. Norepinephrine:

• A. Is released by sympathetic fibers✓
• B. Is released by parasympathetic fibers
• C. Decrease the heart rate
• D. Decrease blood pressure
• E. Released by sympathetic fibers and decreases blood pressure

Explanation: Norepinephrine, also known as noradrenaline, is a neurotransmitter and hormone released by sympathetic fibers of the autonomic nervous system. Its effects on the body include increasing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and raising blood pressure.

Q191. Neurons CANNOT undergo division, because they do not have:

• A. Centrosome✓
• B. Nucleus
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Golgi apparatus

Explanation: Neurons cannot undergo division because they do not have centrosomes. Centrosomes are organelles that help to organize microtubules, which are essential for cell division. Without centrosomes, neurons cannot properly divide and therefore cannot repair themselves or replace damaged cells.

Q192. Hypothalamus initiates the release of hormones, by their releasing factors, while _ is directly released by it.

• A. TSH
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH
• E. GH

Explanation: Option A: TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. Option B: Oxytocin is released directly by the hypothalamus into the bloodstream. It is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. Option C: ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Option D: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to releasing factors called follicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSHRH) and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) from the hypothalamus. FSH and LH are involved in the regulation of reproduction. Option E: GH (growth hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) from the hypothalamus. GHRH stimulates the release of GH, which is involved in growth and development.

Q193. Functions of the brainstem include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Integration of righting reflexes
• B. Autonomic control for respiration
• C. Equilibrium and posture regulation
• D. Initiation of voluntary movements✓
• E. Fixation of the eyes

Explanation: Option A: Integration of righting reflexes: The brainstem plays a crucial role in integrating and coordinating reflexes that help maintain an upright posture and balance in response to changes in body position. Option B: Autonomic control for respiration: The brainstem contains respiratory centers that regulate and control the automatic process of breathing, including the rhythm and depth of respiration. Option C: Equilibrium and posture regulation: The brainstem, along with other brain structures, contributes to the maintenance of balance, coordination, and posture. It receives sensory information from the inner ear and coordinates motor responses to help keep the body stable and oriented. Option D: Initiation of voluntary movements: The initiation of voluntary movements primarily involves higher brain regions, such as the motor cortex. While the brainstem is involved in coordinating and refining movements, it does not directly initiate voluntary movements. Option E: Fixation of the eyes: The brainstem includes structures responsible for controlling eye movements and coordinating the fixation of gaze. It ensures that the eyes can move together smoothly and accurately to focus on specific targets.

Q194. What part of the brain integrates sensory information such as pain and temperature?

• A. Forebrain✓
• B. Midbrain
• C. Hindbrain
• D. Spinal cord

Explanation: Option A: Forebrain is the part of the brain that is responsible for higher-level functions, such as thinking, planning, and decision-making. It includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala, hippocampus, and cerebral cortex. The part of the brain that integrates sensory information such as pain and temperature is the thalamus. The thalamus is a relay center for sensory information, meaning that it receives information from sensory receptors throughout the body and then sends it to the appropriate parts of the brain for processing. The thalamus is located in the forebrain, specifically in the diencephalon. Option B: Midbrain is the part of the brain that is responsible for connecting the forebrain and hindbrain. It includes the tectum, tegmentum, and substantia nigra. Option C: Hindbrain is the part of the brain that is responsible for basic functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and balance. It includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum. Option D: Spinal cord is a long, thin bundle of nerves that runs from the brainstem to the lower back. It is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the brain and for sending motor commands from the brain to the body.

Q195. Glands and muscles are activated by:

• A. Sensory neurons
• B. Associative neurons
• C. Relay neurons
• D. Motor neurons✓

Explanation: Option A: Sensory neurons transmit information from the environment to the central nervous system (CNS). Option B: Associative neurons integrate information from sensory neurons and send signals to motor neurons. Option C: Relay neurons transmit signals from one part of the CNS to another. Option D: Motor neurons activate glands and muscles.Motor neurons are the final pathway in the nervous system that controls the contraction of muscles and the secretion of glands. They receive signals from associative neurons and send signals to the muscles and glands. The signals from motor neurons are called motor impulses. Motor impulses cause muscles to contract and glands to secrete.

Q196. The system involved in preparing our body in condition of stress and emergency:

• A. Nervous system only
• B. Endocrine system only
• C. Both nervous & endocrine system✓
• D. Both endocrine & exocrine

Explanation: The answer is both nervous and endocrine system. The nervous system is responsible for detecting danger and sending signals to the body to prepare for a fight-or-flight response. The endocrine system then releases hormones that help the body to respond to the stress. These hormones, such as adrenaline and cortisol, increase heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels. They also prepare the body for physical activity by increasing muscle strength and endurance.

Q197. Which of the following helps in maintaining balance?

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Medulla Oblongata
• C. Cerebellum✓
• D. Pons

Explanation: The cerebellum is a part of the hindbrain which helps in maintaining posture and balance of the body.Hypothalamus has several endocrine functions involving thermoregulation. Pons regulate the sleep-wake cycle. Medulla Oblongata controls involuntary movements such as breathing, heart rate, etc.

Q198. Sensation of pleasure, punishment, or sexual arousal are stimulated by the parts of the brain:

• A. Hippocampus
• B. Hypothalamus
• C. Amygdala✓
• D. Thalamus

Explanation: The amygdala controls the sensation of pleasure, punishment, or sexual arousal.The hippocampus has a major role in learning and memory.The hypothalamus is considered to be a link structure between the nervous and the endocrine system, its main function is to maintain the homeostasis of the body.The thalamus has several functions, such as relaying of sensory signals, including motor signals to the cerebral cortex and the regulation of consciousness, sleep, and alertness.

Q199. Goiter is one of the abnormalities due to the deficiency of hormone:

• A. Adrenaline
• B. Thyroxine✓
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Parathormone

Explanation: The most common cause of goitres worldwide is a lack of iodine in the diet. In the United States, where the use of iodized salt is common, a goitre is more often due to the over or under-production of thyroid hormones or to nodules in the gland itself.

Q200. Which of the following is NOT a part of the immune system?

• A. Phagocytes
• B. Complement Proteins
• C. Cytokines
• D. Atherosclerosis✓

Explanation: Atherosclerosis is a disease caused by high levels of cholesterol in the blood. The immune system comprises of cells such as lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and phagocytes such as macrophages. It also has complement proteins that help in combatting the incoming pathogen. Cytokines released act to promote an immune response to the pathogen in the form of inflammation.