Etea Mdcat 2009 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. It is useless _ them; they are sure to have left the house by now

• A. To call✓
• B. Call
• C. Called
• D. Calling

Explanation: The correct answer is 'to call' because the sentence discusses a potential action the speaker is considering taking in the present. The infinitive 'to call' expresses this idea of contemplation or planning without execution. The other options do not fit the context: 'call' suggests a command, 'called' implies the action has already happened, and 'calling' indicates an ongoing action. None of these align with the sentence's suggestion that the action is merely being contemplated.

Q2. Invaluable is closest in meaning to:

• A. External valuable
• B. Worthless
• C. Highly expensive✓
• D. Fertile

Explanation: The correct answer is option C:Highly expensive. The closest meaning to "invaluable" is "highly valuable" or "priceless". "Highly expensive" may refer to something that has a high cost, but it is not equivalent to "invaluable". "Invaluable" implies that something is so valuable that it cannot be measured in terms of money or price. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the meaning of "invaluable" and do not serve as synonyms for the term.

Q3. Which one is auxiliary?

• A. With
• B. One
• C. Do✓
• D. For

Explanation: An auxiliary verb, also known as a helping verb, is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice. In English, common auxiliary verbs include "be," "have," and "do." In this question, "do" is the correct answer because it functions as an auxiliary, especially in forming negatives and questions (e.g., "Do you understand?").The other options are incorrect because they are not auxiliary verbs. "With" and "for" function as prepositions, while "one" is a pronoun, none of which modify verbs.

Q4. If You had passed your examination we _ a celebration:

• A. Would have do
• B. Must have
• C. Would have✓
• D. Will have

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C:Would have. This phrase is the most appropriate to convey the hypothetical scenario of passing the examination and celebrating. The other options, such as 'Would have do' and 'Will have', are grammatically incorrect or contextually inappropriate for the sentence provided.

Q5. Tell him not _ anyone enter the enclosure:

• A. To let
• B. Let✓
• C. To have let
• D. Telling

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Let.' The sentence structure 'Tell him not let anyone enter the enclosure' is a command or directive. In English, after verbs like 'tell,' we use the base form of the verb without 'to' for commands, making 'let' the correct choice. 'To let' is incorrect as it improperly introduces a to-infinitive. 'To have let' suggests a completed action, which does not match the present intent. 'Telling' is a present participle, not suitable for the imperative sentence structure.

Q6. He has _ magazine he can lay his hands on:

• A. Some
• B. Every
• C. The
• D. Any✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Any.' This choice implies that the person can access any magazine without limitations, making it the most appropriate option. The other options, 'Some,' 'Every,' and 'The,' suggest varying levels of access or specificity, which do not align with the context of the question.

Q7. When the man failed to answer where _ the police become suspicious:

• A. Did he belong to
• B. Was he belonging to
• C. He belonged to✓
• D. He was belonging to

Explanation: The correct answer is 'He belonged to.' This option is the most appropriate as it uses the past tense verb 'belonged' to indicate the man's affiliation or belonging, making the police suspicious. The other options use incorrect verb tenses or structures, making them unsuitable for the sentence.

Q8. A train is _ different bogeys:

• A. Made of
• B. Make up of
• C. Made with
• D. Made up of✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D:Made up of. This phrase is the correct usage when describing the composition or structure of something. In this context, we are referring to how the train is composed of different bogeys. The other options, such as "Made of", "Make up of", and "Made with", are incorrect in this context as they do not convey the intended meaning.

Q9. (They) _ had a quarreled about their holiday destination. The word in bracket is:

• A. An adverb
• B. An adjective
• C. An auxiliary
• D. A pronoun✓

Explanation: The correct answer is option D: A pronoun. The word in brackets 'They' is a pronoun, specifically the third-person plural subject pronoun. It is used to refer to the group of people who had a quarrel about their holiday destination. The other options, adverb, adjective, and auxiliary, do not accurately describe the word in brackets in the context of the sentence.

Q10. When I got up yesterday, the ground was wet it_

• A. Has rained
• B. Was rained
• C. Had rained
• D. Rained✓

Explanation: "Rained" is also a correct option because it is the simple past tense, which is used to describe an action that occurred in the past. The sentence talks about the ground being wet, which implies that it had rained at some point before. Therefore, "rained" is a suitable option.

Q11. FORGO is closest in meaning to:

• A. Run away
• B. Do without✓
• C. Safeguard
• D. Precede

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Do without.' FORGO means to do without or give up something voluntarily. It does not mean to run away, safeguard, or precede. Choosing 'Do without' best reflects the meaning of FORGO in this context.

Q12. Her brother along with her parents _ that she remain in school.

• A. Insist
• B. Insists✓
• C. Are insisting
• D. Were insisting

Explanation: In this sentence, "her brother along with her parents" is a singular subject, so the verb should be in the singular form. "Insists" is the correct verb form for a singular subject, indicating that her brother and her parents collectively insist that she remain in school.

Q13. A fool and his _ are soon parted:

• A. Family
• B. Friends
• C. Riches
• D. Money✓

Explanation: The phrase 'A fool and his _ are soon parted' implies that foolish individuals tend to lose or squander things quickly. The correct answer is 'Money' because it aligns with the idea of a fool losing their money due to poor decisions. The other options, such as 'Family' and 'Friends,' do not directly relate to the concept of losing something due to foolish behavior.

Q14. I've hung out the clothes. It's lovely and sunny: if it _ like this _ dry in two hours.

• A. Stayed, would be
• B. Stays, will be✓
• C. Had stayed, would have been
• D. Will stay, will be

Explanation: Therefore, the most appropriate option in the given context is "Stays, will be" as it indicates a general statement about the future outcome based on the continuation of the current sunny weather.Stays, will be: This option indicates a general statement about the future, stating that if the weather stays sunny, the clothes will be dry in two hours. The other options are incorrect because they either refer to past hypothetical situations or make predictions without considering the current sunny weather.

Q15. When she came _ senses, she asked to see her son.

• A. In✓
• B. To
• C. At
• D. Into

Explanation: Option A (In) is the correct answer. The sentence structure requires the use of the preposition 'in' to indicate the moment when she regained consciousness before asking to see her son. The other options ('To', 'At', 'Into') do not fit the context as well as 'In' does in this sentence.

Q16. The boys got _ the bus at the terminus:

• A. From
• B. Of
• C. Off✓
• D. At

Explanation: Therefore, the correct option is 'Off' as it indicates that the boys left the bus at the terminus.Using 'From' would imply the boys started their journey on the bus, 'Of' is incorrect and not commonly used, and 'At' specifies a location but not the action of leaving the bus.

Q17. My stay in gilgit will remain _ fond memory to me.

• A. A
• B. The
• C. My✓
• D. Any

Explanation: The correct answer is 'My' because the sentence requires a possessive pronoun to indicate ownership. 'My' shows that the memory belongs to the speaker. The other options, such as 'A' and 'The', are articles and do not convey possession. 'Any' is a determiner for singular countable nouns but does not convey possession in this context.

Q18. We waited _ dark.

• A. Beyond
• B. Before
• C. Until✓
• D. Unless

Explanation: When the sentence says 'We waited until dark,' it means that the waiting was for the darkness to arrive. This indicates a specific time or condition for the waiting. The other options, such as 'Beyond dark' and 'Before dark,' do not capture the intended meaning of waiting for darkness to come. 'Unless dark' also suggests a necessary condition for waiting, but it does not convey the same sense of timing or anticipation as 'Until dark.' Hence, the correct answer is 'Until.'

Q19. Interpret

• A. non_
• B. un_
• C. dis_
• D. mis_✓

Explanation: When interpreting a word with the prefix "mis-", it implies that something is incorrect or inaccurate. In this context, the word to interpret should convey a sense of error or mistake, making option D the correct choice. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific meaning of the prefix "mis-" in this case.

Q20. All of the following structures are proteinous in nature except:

• A. Hooves
• B. Haemoglobin
• C. Enzymes
• D. Steroids✓

Explanation: One major class of lipids is the steroids, which have structures totally different from the other classes of lipids.

Q21. Most favorite host of HIV virus is?

• A. Lymphocytes
• B. RBC
• C. T_Cell✓
• D. B_ cells

Explanation: While HIV can infect other types of cells, including monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells, it has a particular affinity for T-cells. This is because the virus uses the CD4 receptor on the surface of T-cells to gain entry and infect the cells.

Q22. Sunken stomata are found in?

• A. Mesophytes
• B. Xerophytes✓
• C. Halophytes
• D. Hydrophytes

Explanation: Sunken stomata are typically found in xerophytes, which are plants adapted to survive in dry, arid environments with limited water availability. These stomata are located in pits or depressions in the epidermis of the plant, which helps to reduce water loss due to evapotranspiration. Xerophytes have evolved various adaptations like thick cuticles and reduced leaf surface area to conserve water. The other options, mesophytes, halophytes, and hydrophytes, are adapted to different environmental conditions and do not typically have sunken stomata.

Q23. The mammals terming connecting link between reptilian and mammals?

• A. Marsupials
• B. Eutherians
• C. Monotremes✓
• D. Metatherians

Explanation: Monotremes are considered the connecting link between reptiles and mammals because they exhibit both reptilian features, such as laying eggs, and mammalian features, like producing milk to feed their young. The platypus and echidna are examples of living monotremes. Marsupials, eutherians, and metatherians do not share this unique combination of reptilian and mammalian characteristics, making them incorrect answers.

Q24. In which of the following book lungs are found?

• A. Clam worm
• B. Silver Fish
• C. Leach
• D. Spider✓
• E.

Explanation: book lung, form of respiratory organ found in certain air-breathing arachnid arthropods (scorpions and some spiders).

Q25. Tissue organization is missing in protozoa and found in:

• A. Parazoa
• B. Metazoa
• C. Sporozoa✓
• D. Monera

Explanation: The correct answer is Sporozoa. Protozoa are unicellular organisms that lack tissue level organization, while Sporozoa specifically exhibit protoplasmic level organization without true tissues. Parazoa and Metazoa are multicellular but also lack true tissues, and Monera are primitive unicellular organisms without tissue level organization.

Q26. All of the following are mono nucleotides except:

• A. AMP
• B. ATP
• C. ADP
• D. FAD✓

Explanation: A nucleotide is an organic molecule that is composed of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. A mononucleotide contains only one phosphate group. FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is not a mononucleotide because it contains two nucleotide units (adenine and riboflavin) that are connected by a phosphate group bridge, making it a dinucleotide. This is why FAD is the correct answer, while the other options (AMP, ATP, ADP) are all mononucleotides.

Q27. The attachment of two subunits of ribosome along mRNA is controlled?

• A. Sodium ions
• B. Calcium ions
• C. Potassium ions
• D. Magnesium ions✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Magnesium ions. Magnesium ions play a crucial role in stabilizing the ribosome-mRNA complex by neutralizing the negative charges of the RNA backbone and facilitating hydrogen bond formation between mRNA and rRNA bases. The other options, sodium, calcium, and potassium ions, do not have a significant role in controlling the attachment of ribosome subunits along mRNA.

Q28. Proper arrangement of layers in plant cell from inside to outwards is:

• A. Primary wall _ secondary wall _ middle lamella
• B. Secondary wall _ primary wall _ middle lamella✓
• C. Primary wall _ middle lamella _ secondary wall
• D. Secondary wall _ middle lamella _ primary wall

Explanation: The correct arrangement of cell wall layers in a plant cell is Secondary wall _ Primary wall _ Middle lamella. The secondary wall is located closest to the protoplast (the living part of the cell), providing structural support. The primary wall surrounds the secondary wall and is flexible, allowing for growth. The middle lamella, which is primarily composed of pectins, is the outermost layer that acts as a glue to hold adjacent plant cells together.In contrast, the other options are incorrect because they misplace the order of the layers. For example, placing the primary wall as the innermost layer or reversing the position of the middle lamella leads to a misunderstanding of the plant cell structure.

Q29. Two parent strands of DNA molecule are:

• A. Parallel
• B. Antiparallel✓
• C. ……
• D. None

Explanation: Each strand has a backbone made up of alternating sugars and phosphate groups. The two strands are linked by complementary nitrogenous bases. The strands are oriented in opposite directions, making the structure "antiparallel".

Q30. Appendix is vestigial in man but may play role in:

• A. Digestion
• B. Excretion
• C. Immunity✓
• D. Movement

Explanation: The appendix has been found to play a role in mammalian mucosal immune function. It is believed to be involved in extrathymically derived T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocyte mediated immune responses and is also said to produce early defenses that help prevent serious infections in humans. Therefore the answer is C.

Q31. Ammonia is formed during digestion in:

• A. Liver
• B. Stomach
• C. Small intestine
• D. Large intestine✓

Explanation: Ammonia is formed during digestion in the large intestine, specifically the colon, through bacterial fermentation. This process occurs as a result of the breakdown of undigested food residues and metabolic waste, leading to the formation of ammonia. The other options - liver, stomach, and small intestine - do not play a role in the formation of ammonia during digestion.

Q32. Cloned dolly was identical to the:

• A. Parents who gestated and gave birth to Dolly
• B. Parents, who donated egg cell
• C. Parent, who donated somatic cell
• D. Both b and c✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Both b and c. Dolly, the cloned sheep, was identical to the sheep whose somatic cell was used for cloning (Parent who donated somatic cell) and the sheep whose egg cell was used for cytoplasmic and mitochondrial DNA (Parents, who donated egg cell). This combination of genetic material resulted in Dolly being a clone of the original sheep.Options A and C are incorrect because Dolly's genetic material did not come from the parents who gestated or gave birth to her, or from the parent who donated the egg cell.

Q33. Cleavage differ from mitosis in that:

• A. It occurs only in zygote
• B. It occurs in all body cells
• C. It results in haploid cells only
• D. It results in identical cells✓

Explanation: Cytokinesis during cleavage results in identical cells as the parent cell divides into two daughter cells. The other options are incorrect as cleavage is not limited to the zygote stage, does not occur in all body cells, and does not result in haploid cells.

Q34. RBC's are destroyed in liver while WBC's are destroyed in:

• A. Plasma
• B. Liver
• C. Inside various cells of body✓
• D. Outside the blood stream

Explanation: White blood cells are destroyed inside various cells of the body, where they encounter and destroy foreign substances through mechanisms like phagocytosis. This process is crucial for immune response and defense against pathogens. RBCs, on the other hand, are primarily destroyed in the liver where they are broken down and recycled. Option C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the destruction location of WBCs. Option D is not as precise as it focuses on the movement of WBCs outside the bloodstream, which is a part of their immune response but not the primary location of destruction.

Q35. Condensation of chromosome reaches to its peak during early:

• A. Prophase✓
• B. Metaphase
• C. Anaphase
• D. Telophase

Explanation: The correct answer is Prophase. This stage initiates the condensation of chromosomes, reaching their maximum compaction. Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase do not represent the peak condensation phase of chromosomes in the cell cycle.

Q36. The enzyme "reverse transcriptase" present in HIV virus is:

• A. 50 molecules per virion✓
• B. 40 molecules per virion
• C. 30 molecules per virion
• D. 20 molecules per virion

Explanation: In summary, the specific number of reverse transcriptase molecules per HIV virion can vary due to factors like viral strain and infection stage. While options from 20 to 50 molecules per virion are feasible, the actual quantity is not definitively established. Option A, with 50 molecules per virion, is considered the most suitable answer here because it falls within the possible range of values despite variability in the actual count.

Q37. All of the following are carbohydrate EXCEPT:

• A. Glycogen
• B. Collagen✓
• C. Starch
• D. Cellulose

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: Collagen. Collagen is a protein, not a carbohydrate, and is essential for the structure and strength of various tissues in the body. Glycogen (Option A), Starch (Option C), and Cellulose (Option D) are all carbohydrates with distinct functions in energy storage (Glycogen), food sources (Starch), and plant cell structure (Cellulose) respectively.

Q38. The amount of bile produced by human liver is:

• A. 1000ml/day✓
• B. 2000ml/day
• C. 3000ml/day
• D. 4000ml/day

Explanation: 1000ml/day: In a normal person, the liver produces between 800 to 1,000 milliliters of bile each day. This option falls within the plausible range of average daily bile production. While bile production can vary between individuals, this range is generally accepted. The other options suggesting higher volumes of bile production (2000ml/day, 3000ml/day, 4000ml/day) are incorrect as they exceed the typical daily production rates and are unlikely under normal circumstances.

Q39. Daphnia belongs to:

• A. Insecta
• B. Annelida
• C. Crustacean✓
• D. Arachinda

Explanation: Crustacean: This is the correct option. Daphnia belongs to the class Crustacea within the phylum Arthropoda. Crustaceans include various aquatic arthropods, such as crabs, lobsters, shrimp, and Daphnia, commonly known as water fleas. The other options are incorrect because Daphnia is not an insect (Option A), segmented worm (Option B), or arachnid (Option D). It is specifically classified as a crustacean within the phylum Arthropoda.

Q40. Changes in gene frequencies in small population by chance is called:

• A. Gene pool
• B. Genetic drift✓
• C. Gene mutation
• D. Gene flow

Explanation: Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution, it refers to random fluctuations in the frequencies of alleles from generation to generation due to chance of events, therefore the answer will be B.

Q41. Feathers of birds are water proof due to secretion of?

• A. Sudoriferous glands
• B. Endocrine glands
• C. Preen gland✓
• D. Thymus glands

Explanation: The correct answer is the preen gland. Birds use the preen oil secreted by the uropygial gland to waterproof their feathers. This oil helps maintain the integrity of the feathers and protects them from getting soaked, allowing birds to stay dry and maintain their ability to fly effectively. The other options, sudoriferous glands, endocrine glands, and thymus glands, do not play a role in waterproofing feathers.

Q42. In fishes, the heart pumps:

• A. Pure blood to body
• B. Impure blood to body
• C. Pure blood to gills
• D. Impure blood to gills✓

Explanation: In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood from the body to the gills where it gets oxygenated. The correct answer is 'Impure blood to gills' because fishes have a two-circuit circulatory system that carries deoxygenated blood to the gills for oxygenation before returning it to the body.The other options are incorrect because fishes do not pump pure blood to the body or pure blood to the gills in their circulatory system.

Q43. The size of ribosome in prokaryotic cell is:

• A. 40S
• B. 60S
• C. 70S✓
• D. 80S

Explanation: 70S: This option is correct because prokaryotic cells have ribosomes made up of a small 30S subunit and a large 50S subunit, totaling 70S. The other options are incorrect because the 40S and 60S ribosomes are found in eukaryotic cells, while the 80S ribosome is also specific to eukaryotes.

Q44. The molecular formula of chlorophyll b is:

• A. C55H70O6N4Mg✓
• B. C70H55O11N5Mg4
• C. C14H55O6N5Mg3
• D. C55H76O5N6Mg2

Explanation: The correct molecular formula of chlorophyll b is C55H70O6N4Mg. This formula indicates the presence of 55 carbon atoms, 70 hydrogen atoms, 6 oxygen atoms, 4 nitrogen atoms, and 1 magnesium atom. Option A is correct because it aligns with this molecular formula. Options B, C, and D have incorrect combinations of elements and quantities, making them incorrect choices for the molecular formula of chlorophyll b.

Q45. Which of the following is sedentary in adult and active in larval stage?

• A. Sponge✓
• B. Leech
• C. Salamander
• D. Grasshopper

Explanation: The correct answer is Sponge. Sponges have a sedentary adult stage where they are attached to a substratum, while their larval stages (Amphiblastula and Parenchymula) are free-living and active. Leeches, salamanders, and grasshoppers are all active in both their adult and larval stages, making them incorrect choices for this question.

Q46. The primers used in polymerase chain reaction has a sequence of bases

• A. 8
• B. 12
• C. 16
• D. 20✓

Explanation: Primers in PCR are typically designed to be 18-22 bases long. This length allows them to bind specifically to the target DNA sequence, providing both high specificity and efficiency at the annealing temperature. Options A, B, and C (8, 12, and 16 bases, respectively) are generally too short to offer the necessary specificity and might lead to non-specific binding or inefficient amplification. Therefore, option D, 20 bases, is the correct choice as it falls within the optimal range for PCR primer design.

Q47. The valve between left atrium and left ventricle is :

• A. Semi lunar valve
• B. Tricuspid valve
• C. Pulmonary valve
• D. Bicuspid valve✓

Explanation: The bicuspid valve, also known as the mitral valve, is the correct answer because it is located between the left atrium and left ventricle, allowing blood flow in one direction. The other options are incorrect because they are located between different chambers of the heart, not the left atrium and left ventricle.

Q48. Cup_like ascocarp in fungi is:

• A. Apothecium✓
• B. Perithecium
• C. Hysterothylacium
• D. Cleistothecium

Explanation: The correct answer is Apothecium. An apothecium is a cup-shaped ascocarp with an exposed hymenium. This structure fits the description of a cup-like ascocarp in fungi, making it the correct choice. Perithecium, Hysterothylacium, and Cleistothecium are all different types of ascocarps, but they do not match the specific cup-like morphology mentioned in the question.

Q49. Each molecule of NADH2 entering the electron transport chain produces:

• A. Four ATPs
• B. Two ATPs
• C. One ATP
• D. Three ATPs✓

Explanation: Three ATPs: This is the correct option. Each NADH molecule generally leads to the synthesis of around three ATP molecules in the electron transport chain. However, the exact ATP yield can vary based on cellular conditions and ATP production efficiency. Therefore, each NADH molecule typically results in the production of approximately three ATP molecules. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because NADH does not directly produce four, two, or one ATPs, respectively.

Q50. A coiled haemoglobin is called:

• A. Haemocyonin
• B. Haemoprotein✓
• C. Myoglobin
• D. Haemorrhoids

Explanation: A coiled haemoglobin is referred to as 'Haemoprotein' because haemoglobin is a type of haemoprotein. Haemoprotein is a general term for proteins containing a heme group, which includes haemoglobin and other oxygen-binding proteins. The other options are incorrect because they either refer to different proteins (haemocyanin and myoglobin) or a medical condition unrelated to haemoglobin (haemorrhoids).

Q51. In chromosome, the material controlling heredity is:

• A. Histone
• B. RNA
• C. DNA✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The material controlling heredity in chromosomes is DNA. DNA carries genetic information and directly influences hereditary traits in organisms. Histones are involved in DNA packaging, RNA plays roles in gene expression, but only DNA serves as the primary material controlling heredity.

Q52. If father of a baby is hemophilic and mother is a carrier then chances if the baby inheriting the disease will be:

• A. 0%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: If the father is hemophilic (has the disease) and the mother is a carrier, the chances of the baby inheriting the disease will be 50%. This is because there is a 50% chance that the baby will inherit the hemophilia gene from the father. Therefore, the correct option is '50%' as there is a 50% chance of the baby inheriting the hemophilia gene and having the disease in this particular situation. Options 0%, 75%, and 100% are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the genetic inheritance patterns of hemophilia in this scenario.

Q53. First crystalline hormone is:

• A. Thyroxine✓
• B. Non_adrenaline
• C. Adrenaline
• D. All of above

Explanation: Thyroxine: Thyroxine was the first hormone to be isolated and crystallized in 1914, making it a significant milestone in endocrinology. This historical fact makes it the correct answer to this question. Non-adrenaline and adrenaline are not crystalline hormones, so they are incorrect choices. The option 'All of above' is also incorrect because not all options listed are correct.

Q54. A pollen _ grain germinates and develops into :

• A. Prothallus
• B. Saprophyte
• C. Micro gametophyte✓
• D. Mega gametophyte

Explanation: When a pollen grain germinates, it develops into a micro gametophyte, which carries the male gametes (sperm cells) for fertilization. Therefore, the correct option is 'Micro gametophyte' as it directly relates to the development of pollen grains. The other options, Prothallus, Saprophyte, and Mega gametophyte, are incorrect because they do not represent the specific structure that pollen grains develop into during plant reproduction.

Q55. All of the following belongs to mosses Except:

• A. Funaria
• B. Polytrichum
• C. Sphagnum
• D. Club mosses✓

Explanation: Club mosses, also known as Lycopodiopsida or Lycophytes, are a distinct group of plants that are not classified as mosses. They belong to the Lycopodiaceae family. Therefore, the correct option is 'Club mosses' as it is not a member of the mosses group. Funaria, Polytrichum, and Sphagnum are all genera of true mosses, while Club mosses belong to a different group.

Q56. Alveoli are absent in:

• A. Fishes✓
• B. Amphibians
• C. Birds
• D. Mammals

Explanation: Alveoli, small air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs, are present in fishes. Fishes rely on gills rather than alveoli in their lungs for respiration, making them the correct answer. Amphibians, birds, and mammals all have alveoli in their lungs for gas exchange, so they are not the correct answers for this question.

Q57. Which one is isotonic with surrounding sea water?

• A. Bony Fishes
• B. Shark✓
• C. Carp
• D. Paramecium

Explanation: Sharks are isotonic with sea water, meaning their body fluids have the same concentration of dissolved substances as the water. This allows them to maintain water balance easily. Bony fishes are hypotonic, needing to regulate their salt concentration. Carps are hypertonic in freshwater, while Paramecium is hypotonic due to lower solute concentration in the environment.

Q58. Sperms of which animal can remain viable for years within the female genital tract?

• A. Whale
• B. Bat✓
• C. Camel
• D. Giraffe

Explanation: In most mammals, sperm is capable of fertilizing eggs for only a few days after copulation. Female bats have the ability to store sperm for extended periods, ranging from several months to even years, making them the correct answer in this context. Whales, camels, and giraffes do not exhibit the same level of sperm viability within the female genital tract as bats do.

Q59. Opossum belongs to:

• A. Metatheria✓
• B. Eutheria
• C. Theria
• D. Prototheria

Explanation: Metatheria: Opossum belongs to the Metatheria, also known as marsupials. Marsupials are a group of mammals that give birth to relatively undeveloped young, which then complete their development in a pouch.Therefore, the correct option for opossum is 'Metatheria' as they belong to the marsupial group within the category of Theria. Eutheria, Theria, and Prototheria do not apply to opossums based on their classification characteristics.

Q60. Wheat, maize and rice are the member of family:

• A. Fabaceae
• B. Solanaceae
• C. Poaceae✓
• D. Mimosaceae

Explanation: The correct answer is Poaceae. Wheat, maize, and rice belong to the Poaceae family, commonly known as the grass family, due to their similar characteristics such as grass-like appearance, parallel-veined leaves, and small flowers in spikelets. The other options are incorrect because they belong to different plant families with distinct characteristics that do not include wheat, maize, or rice.

Q61. Growth movement of pollen tube towards the egg is:

• A. Hydrotropism
• B. Chemotropism✓
• C. Chemotactic
• D. Seismetactic

Explanation: Chemotropism: Chemotropism is the growth movement of a plant part towards or away from a chemical stimulus. In the context of a pollen tube, it can refer to the growth movement towards the chemical signals released by the egg.Therefore, the most appropriate option for the growth movement of a pollen tube towards the egg is 'Chemotropism,' as it involves the growth response towards the chemical signals released by the egg.

Q62. All of the following are characteristics of enzymes except:

• A. They increase the activation energy✓
• B. They are specific in action
• C. They possess specific active site
• D. They possess dimensional shapes

Explanation: They increase the activation energy: This statement is incorrect. Enzymes actually decrease the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur, making the reaction more favorable and speeding up the rate of the reaction. Therefore, the incorrect statement among the options is "They increase the activation energy." Enzymes actually lower the activation energy of reactions, allowing them to occur more readily.

Q63. Beside mammals, diaphram is also present in:

• A. Birds✓
• B. Crocodiles
• C. Fishes
• D. Toads

Explanation: Correct Answer: BirdsThe presence of a diaphragm in birds allows for effective respiration by assisting in lung function. While birds have this structure, crocodiles, fishes, and toads do not possess a diaphragm. Crocodiles rely on organ movement, fishes use gills, and toads employ skin and lung respiration methods.

Q64. Metamerism is found in:

• A. Earth worm✓
• B. Sponges
• C. Snakes
• D. Grass Hopper

Explanation: Metamerism is the repetition of homologous body segments. This type of development can be seen in the Annelids, which include earthworms, leeches, tubeworms, and their relatives. It is also seen in a more advanced form in the Arthropods, such as crustaceans, insects.Earthworms exhibit metamerism with distinct segments along their body, allowing for efficient movement and specialized functions in each segment. Sponges, snakes, and grasshoppers do not exhibit metamerism, making them incorrect choices for this question.

Q65. Early blight of potato is caused by:

• A. Alternaria_solani✓
• B. Phytophthora_infestans
• C. Erysiphe_graminls
• D. Claviceps_purpurea

Explanation: Alternaria solani is the correct answer as it is the fungal pathogen responsible for early blight of potato, causing specific symptoms on potato plants. The other options, such as Phytophthora infestans, Erysiphe graminis, and Claviceps purpurea, are pathogens that affect different plants and do not cause early blight in potatoes.

Q66. Which one among the following possess a double ringed structure?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Adenine✓
• C. Uracil
• D. Thymine

Explanation: Purines, such as adenine and guanine, have a double-ringed structure - one hexagonal pyrimidine ring and an imidazole ring. Adenine is the correct option as it belongs to purines. Cytosine, uracil, and thymine are all single-ringed pyrimidines, making them incorrect options.

Q67. Which of the following are the pioneer group to develop true roots and true leaves,

• A. Psilopsida
• B. Sphenopsida
• C. Pteropsida✓
• D. Lycopsida

Explanation: Among the options given, the pioneer group to develop true roots and true leaves is Pteropsida.Pteropsida: This group includes ferns, which have true roots, stems, and leaves, making them the pioneers in developing all three structures.Therefore, Pteropsida is the correct option as it represents the group that has true roots and true leaves. Psilopsida lacks true roots and leaves, Sphenopsida has reduced and scale-like leaves, and Lycopsida has small and scale-like leaves as well.

Q68. An enzyme in gastric juice of many infant mammals that precipitates milk protein is:

• A. Renin
• B. Personage
• C. Rennin✓
• D. Gastrin

Explanation: Rennin, also known as chymosin, is the correct answer. It is an enzyme found in the gastric juice of many infant mammals, including humans, that helps in the digestion of milk protein by coagulating it. The other options are incorrect because 'Renin' is a misspelling of the correct enzyme 'Rennin', 'Personage' is not a relevant enzyme, and 'Gastrin' is a hormone, not an enzyme involved in milk protein digestion.

Q69. Nematocyst are found in:

• A. Nematodes
• B. Coelenterates✓
• C. Annelids
• D. Sponges

Explanation: Nematocysts are specialized structures found in coelenterates, which are multicellular aquatic animals living in colonies. These structures serve the purpose of capturing prey and defense. The other options, nematodes, annelids, and sponges, do not possess nematocysts and have different mechanisms for feeding and defense.

Q70. Extract embryonic membrane like amnion and chorine appeared for the first time:

• A. Amphibians
• B. Reptiles✓
• C. Birds
• D. Fish

Explanation: Embryonic membranes like the amnion and chorion first appeared in reptiles, making option B the correct answer. These membranes are part of the amniotic egg, a key adaptation that allowed reptiles to reproduce on land. Birds also have similar adaptations, but they evolved from reptilian ancestors, not the other way around. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the evolutionary development of embryonic membranes in animals.

Q71. Which one of the following animals possesses an open circulatory system:

• A. Amoeba
• B. Earthworm
• C. Grasshopper✓
• D. Man

Explanation: Among the options provided, the animal that possesses an open circulatory system is the Grasshopper. An open circulatory system is a type of circulatory system where the circulating fluid, called hemolymph, is not confined to blood vessels but instead bathes the tissues directly. In this system, the hemolymph is pumped by a simple heart into the body cavity, where it comes into direct contact with the organs and tissues. The fluid then returns to the heart, and the cycle repeats. Now, let's go through the options: Amoeba: Amoebas are unicellular organisms and do not possess a circulatory system. Earthworm: Earthworms have a closed circulatory system. However, they have a modified version called a "closed circulatory system with open-ended vessels."

Q72. The glucose is reabsorbed by the

• A. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron✓
• B. Distal convoluted tubule of nephron
• C. Glomerulus
• D. Bowman capsule

Explanation: The correct option is A. Glucose reabsorption primarily occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of the nephron in the kidney. The PCT is responsible for the reabsorption of various substances from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. Therefore, option A (Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron) is the correct answer as it is the primary site for glucose reabsorption in the kidney.

Q73. Where does esophagus open in the alimentary canal of earthworm?

• A. Buccal chamber
• B. intestine✓
• C. rectum
• D. intestinal caccum

Explanation: In earthworms, the esophagus connects the pharynx to the crop and then continues to the gizzard. The gizzard is a muscular organ that grinds the food into smaller particles before it enters the intestine, where digestion and absorption take place.The correct answer is Option B: intestine. The esophagus in an earthworm does not open directly into the intestine, but it connects the pharynx to the crop where food is temporarily stored. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the location where the esophagus opens in the earthworm's alimentary canal.

Q74. The process responsible for energy production in animals is:

• A. photosynthesis
• B. digestion
• C. respiration✓
• D. circulation

Explanation: Respiration: Respiration is the biochemical process by which cells break down organic molecules, such as glucose, and convert them into energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate). It occurs in the mitochondria of cells and involves the consumption of oxygen and the release of carbon dioxide. Respiration is the primary process responsible for energy production in animals. Photosynthesis, digestion, and circulation are all important processes in living organisms, but they do not directly produce energy in animals.

Q75. The complex force of photosynthesis can be studied by the use of one of the following isotopes :

• A. 6C14
• B. 1H2
• C. 2He4
• D. 6O16✓

Explanation: Oxygen-16 is the ideal isotope for studying photosynthesis because it allows for precise measurements of oxygen uptake and flow during the process. Carbon-14, Hydrogen-2, and Helium-4 are not commonly used for this specific purpose, making them incorrect choices for this question.

Q76. Which of the following is not present in fish?

• A. middle ear✓
• B. internal ear
• C. gills
• D. fins

Explanation: Middle ear: Fish do not possess a middle ear like mammals. Instead, they have a unique structure called the swim bladder, which is used for buoyancy control and sound detection. The swim bladder is not directly involved in hearing like the middle ear in mammals.In summary, while fish possess internal ears, gills, and fins, they do not have a middle ear as found in mammals.

Q77. Lactose,maltose and sucrose are the important:

• A. polysaccharides
• B. disaccharides✓
• C. monosaccharides
• D. oligosaccharides

Explanation: Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two sugar units joined by a glycosidic bond. Lactose is made up of glucose and galactose, maltose is made up of two glucose molecules, and sucrose is made up of glucose and fructose.In summary, lactose, maltose, and sucrose are disaccharides, which are composed of two sugar units bonded together. Polysaccharides are more complex carbohydrates with multiple sugar units, monosaccharides are single sugar units, and oligosaccharides have a small number of sugar units, typically 3 to 10.

Q78. The number of vertebrate in vertebrae column in man are:

• A. 37
• B. 35
• C. 34
• D. 33✓

Explanation: This option is correct. The vertebral column in humans consists of 33 vertebrae, including 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, 5 sacral vertebrae (fused into the sacrum), and 4 coccygeal vertebrae (fused into the coccyx)

Q79. Grignard reagent is prepared by reacting:

• A. Alkyl Halide and Mg✓
• B. Alkane and Mg
• C. Alcohol and Mg
• D. None of them

Explanation: Alkyl Halide and Mg extremely good nucleophiles, reacting with electrophiles such as carbonyl compounds and epoxides

Q80. Which of the following carboxylic acid is the strongest?

• A. Dichloroacetic acid✓
• B. Chloroacetic acid
• C. Formic acid
• D. Acetic acid

Explanation: Greater -I effect, due to the presence of two chloro groups increase the acid strength of dichloroacetic acid

Q81. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

• A. C2H6
• B. C2H2Cl
• C. CH3OCH3
• D. C2H5OH✓

Explanation: Among the given compounds, C2H5OH (ethanol) has the highest boiling point. The boiling points of the compounds increase as the intermolecular forces between their molecules increase. C2H5OH (ethanol) has a polar covalent bond between the carbon and oxygen atoms, which gives rise to strong hydrogen bonding interactions between its molecules. Hydrogen bonding is a particularly strong type of dipole-dipole interaction that arises when a hydrogen atom bonded to an electronegative atom, in this case oxygen, interacts with the lone pair of electrons on another electronegative atom in a different molecule, also in this case oxygen. As a result, ethanol has a much higher boiling point than the other compounds, at 78.5 °C.

Q82. Carbon atom in carbonyl is:

• A. SP hybridized
• B. SP2 hybridized✓
• C. SP3 hybridized
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In a carbonyl, the carbon atom is double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to another atom. The oxygen atom is more electronegative than the carbon atom, so it pulls the electrons towards itself and creates a partial positive charge on the carbon atom. To accommodate this charge separation, the carbon atom must be hybridized. Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals to form hybrid orbitals that have different shapes and energies from the atomic orbitals. The carbon atom in a carbonyl forms three sigma bonds in the molecule, and one pi bond with the oxygen atom. In SP2 hybridization, the carbon atom uses one S orbital and two P orbitals to form three hybrid orbitals that are arranged in a trigonal planar geometry. The remaining P orbital of carbon overlaps with the P orbital of oxygen to form the pi bond. Therefore, the carbon atom in a carbonyl is SP2 hybridized.

Q83. The unit of 1st order rate constant are :

• A. Sec
• B. Sec-¹✓
• C. Mol dm-³sec-¹
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Because the units of the reaction rate are always moles per liter per second, the units of a first-order rate constant are reciprocal seconds (s−1).

Q84. The paramagnetic nature of the substance depend on;

• A. The number of electrons in the outermost shell
• B. The number of electrons that are easily ejected
• C. The number of unpaired electrons✓
• D. The number of lone pair electrons

Explanation: A paramagnetic substance is one that is weakly attracted by a magnetic field due to the presence of unpaired electrons in its atoms or molecules. The unpaired electrons have a magnetic moment, which causes the substance to be attracted to an external magnetic field. Therefore, the correct answer is that the paramagnetic nature of a substance depends on the number of unpaired electrons. When all the electrons in an atom or molecule are paired, the substance is diamagnetic and is not attracted to a magnetic field.

Q85. When does a reaction attain equilibrium :

• A. When forward and backward reaction taking place at the same rate✓
• B. Reaction takes place
• C. The forward and backward
• D. There are two reactions with one faster than the other

Explanation: At equilibrium, the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal, and there is no net change in the concentrations of the reactants and products. This means that the system has reached a state of balance, where the concentrations of the reactants and products remain constant over time.

Q86. The following compunds, which has the shortest carbon _ Halogen bond:

• A. CH3F✓
• B. CH3I
• C. CH3Cl
• D. CH3Br

Explanation: The carbon-halogen bond length is determined by the size of the halogen atom. The larger the halogen atom, the longer the bond length. Therefore, in the given compounds, CH3F has the shortest carbon-halogen bond because fluorine is the smallest halogen.

Q87. Which of the following species deactivate the benzene ring when attached to benzene ring?

• A. C2H5
• B. SO3H✓
• C. NH2
• D. CH3

Explanation: order of activating group (NH2, NHR, NHCOCH3, OCH3,CH3,C2H5(and deactivating group (NO2, CN, CHO, COR, COOH, COOR, SO3H)to increase and decrease reactivity of electrophilic substitution. Out of the given options, the following species deactivate the benzene ring when attached to the benzene ring: SO3H (sulfonic acid group) This is called deactivating groups because they decrease the electron density of the benzene ring through resonance and/or inductive effects. This makes the benzene ring less reactive towards electrophilic substitution reactions.

Q88. The elements arsenic and Antimony are considered as:

• A. Metals
• B. Non metal
• C. Metalloid✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Arsenic and Antimony are classified as metalloids. Metalloids are elements that have properties of both metals and nonmetals. Arsenic and antimony are situated in the p-block of the periodic table and have properties intermediate between those of a metal and a nonmetal. They have metallic luster and are semiconductors, but they are brittle and can be easily broken. They can also act as either an oxidizing agent or reducing agent in chemical reactions, depending on the conditions.

Q89. Benzene is the prime member of:

• A. A cyclic compounds
• B. Ali cyclic compounds
• C. Hetro cyclic compounds
• D. Aromatic compounds✓

Explanation: Aromatic compounds are a class of cyclic organic compounds that contain one or more rings with a special stability due to the delocalization of electrons in the ring. Benzene is a cyclic compound with six carbon atoms and six hydrogen atoms. It is the simplest and most common aromatic compound. The electrons in the benzene ring are delocalized, which gives the compound its unique stability and reactivity.

Q90. The sodium ion is ISO electronic with:

• A. N
• B. P-³
• C. K+
• D. F-✓

Explanation: O2-, F–, Na+ and Mg2+ are known as isoelectronic species as they all have the same no. of electrons(10).

Q91. In which of the following solvent are alkenes the most soluble?

• A. Water
• B. Ethyl alcohol
• C. Ammonia
• D. Carbon tetrachloride✓

Explanation: CCl4 is non polar so as ethene is… They dissolve in each other perfectly because of same nature

Q92. The change in enthalpy is a measure of the heat reaction at:

• A. Constant Volume
• B. Constant Pressure and volume
• C. Variable pressure
• D. Constant pressure✓

Explanation: Enthalpy is a thermodynamic state function that represents the internal energy of a system plus the product of pressure and volume. It is expressed as ΔH, which is the change in enthalpy during a chemical reaction. Constant pressure: At constant pressure, the change in enthalpy is equal to the heat absorbed or released by the system, as well as the work done by or on the system against the constant pressure.

Q93. Reaction of alcohol with Sodium produces:

• A. Alkoxides✓
• B. Ethane
• C. Alkane
• D. Alloyed

Explanation: Alcohols react with sodium to form a salt (sodium alkoxide) and bubbles of hydrogen gas will be seen. This is similar to the reaction of water with sodium, except it is far less violent. The salt formed from the reaction with sodium and ethanol is called sodium ethoxide. When an alkali metal, such as sodium, is added to an alcohol, the alcohol will undergo a deprotonation reaction. The alkoxide ion, R-O-, is formed as a result of the transfer of a proton from the alcohol to the metal. For example, when sodium reacts with ethanol (CH3CH2OH), it forms sodium ethoxide (CH3CH2O-Na+).

Q94. Thermite process is:

• A. Exothermic✓
• B. Endothermic
• C. Reversible
• D. None of above

Explanation: Exothermic: An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat. In the case of the thermite process, it is indeed exothermic. The reaction involves the highly exothermic oxidation-reduction reaction between a metal oxide and a reducing agent, usually aluminum. The reaction produces a significant amount of heat, resulting in a rapid increase in temperature and the generation of intense heat and light. The exothermic nature of the thermite process makes it useful for various applications, such as welding and incendiary devices.

Q95. In the laboratory standard solution is prepared in?

• A. Conical flasks
• B. Beakers
• C. Volumetric flask✓
• D. Measuring cylinder

Explanation: Volumetric flasks, on the other hand, are specifically designed for accurate measurement of a specific volume and are the preferred choice for preparing standard solutions.

Q96. Nitrogen has three unpaired electrons according to:

• A. Hund's rule✓
• B. Aulban rule
• C. Paoli's exclusion lrinciple
• D. Thumb rule

Explanation: Hund's Rule: Hund's rule is a principle in quantum mechanics that states that for a given electron shell, orbitals of equal energy are filled with one electron each before any orbital receives a second electron. This rule applies to atoms or ions with multiple orbitals available at the same energy level. According to Hund's rule, when nitrogen is in its ground state, its three 2p orbitals are singly occupied by electrons with parallel spins, resulting in three unpaired electrons. In summary, the statement that nitrogen has three unpaired electrons aligns with Hund's rule, which describes the distribution of electrons in orbitals of equal energy.

Q97. The inert form of carbon is:

• A. Diamond✓
• B. Graphite
• C. Coal
• D. Charcoal

Explanation: Diamond: Diamond is the inert form of carbon. It is a crystalline structure where each carbon atom is bonded to four neighboring carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement, making it extremely hard and resistant to chemical reactions.

Q98. For the separation of gases from a mixture we use:

• A. Simple diffusion
• B. Fractional distillation✓
• C. Chromatography
• D. Graham's law of diffusion

Explanation: Fractional distillation is the special technique which is used for separation of mixture of two gases

Q99. Which one of the following forms the most acidic oxide:

• A. Al
• B. Si
• C. Fe
• D. P✓

Explanation: Phosphorus being more electronegative than Si forms more acidic oxides.

Q100. Which statement is correct:

• A. Standard Hydrogen Electrode SHE always acts as anode
• B. SHE may act as cathode or anode depending upon the reduction potential of the counterpart✓
• C. SHE always acts as cathode in voltaic cell
• D. None of the above

Explanation: SHE may act as cathode or anode depending upon the reduction potential of the counterpart: This statement is correct. The role of the SHE in a voltaic or electrolytic cell is determined by the reduction potential (also known as standard electrode potential) of the other electrode or species involved in the cell. The electrode with a higher reduction potential will act as the cathode, while the one with a lower reduction potential will act as the anode. The SHE can serve as either the cathode or the anode, depending on the specific conditions and the reduction potential of the counterpart. The correct statement is: SHE may act as cathode or anode depending upon the reduction potential of the counterpart.

Q101. The stronger the reduction potential the more difficult it is to?

• A. Oxidize the compound✓
• B. Reduce the compound
• C. Electrolyze the compound
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Oxidize the compound: A stronger reduction potential indicates that the compound is more likely to undergo reduction rather than oxidation. Therefore, it would be more difficult to oxidize the compound.

Q102. What is the ionic strength of 0.01M barium chloride solution :

• A. 0.03
• B. 0.02
• C. 0.04
• D. 0.01✓

Explanation: 0.01: This option is correct. The ionic strength is equal to 0.01. In this case, the concentration of both the barium ions (Ba2+) and chloride ions (Cl-) is 0.01 M. Since there is only one ion of each type, the sum of their concentrations gives the total ionic strength of the solution, which is 0.01 M. The ionic strength of a solution is a measure of the total concentration of ions in the solution. In this case, we have a 0.01 M barium chloride solution. To calculate the ionic strength, we need to consider the contribution of both the barium ions (Ba2+) and chloride ions (Cl-) to the total ionic concentration.

Q103. Stoichiometric calculation based on chemical equation provides us intimation about :

• A. Theoretical yield✓
• B. Practical yield
• C. Percentage yield
• D. All of above

Explanation: Stoichiometry uses the balanced chemical equation to calculate how much product can theoretically form from given amounts of reactants.Practical (actual) yield and percentage yield are experimental results, which are determined by performing the reaction in the lab. They cannot be predicted from stoichiometry alone.So, stoichiometry gives theoretical yield, not practical yield or percentage yield.

Q104. Which one is the separating technique:

• A. Deliquescence
• B. Fluorescence
• C. Phosphorescence
• D. Solvent extraction✓

Explanation: Solvent extraction is used for separation of mixtures

Q105. Which one is used as stationary phase in paper chromatography?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Adeline
• C. Piece of paper
• D. Water absorbed on paper✓

Explanation: Water absorbed on paper: This option is correct. In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is usually achieved by impregnating the paper with water or a suitable aqueous solution. The water absorbed on the paper fibers acts as the stationary phase, while the mobile phase (solvent) carries the components of the sample along the paper.

Q106. There are three quantum numbers n.1 and m ( all integers) characterizing each solution of the schrodinger equation. If n=3, what is the range of possible values for m?

• A. ±3
• B. ±1/2
• C. ±2✓
• D. Any positive number from 0 to -1

Explanation: n = 3, so possible l = 0, 1, 2For each l, m = -l to +lSo:l = 0 → m = 0l = 1 → m = -1, 0, +1l = 2 → m = -2, -1, 0, +1, +2✅ Range of m: -2 to +2

Q107. In hydronium ion, what is the nature of bond between oxygen of water and hydrogen ion in an acidic solution?

• A. Covalent
• B. Electrovalent
• C. Hydrogen bond
• D. Coordinate covalent bond✓

Explanation: Coordinate covalent bond: A coordinate covalent bond is formed when one atom donates a pair of electrons to be shared with another atom. In the hydronium ion, the oxygen atom of water donates a pair of electrons to form a bond with the hydrogen ion, resulting in a coordinate covalent bond.

Q108. Real gases deviate more from ideal behavior at :

• A. High temperature only
• B. High pressure only
• C. High pressure and low temperature✓
• D. Low pressure and high temperature

Explanation: High pressure and low temperature: Both high pressure and low temperature amplify intermolecular forces, leading to greater deviations from ideal behavior. The reduced kinetic energy and increased proximity of gas particles result in stronger attractive forces, impacting gas behavior.

Q109. Particles involves in an ordinary chemical reaction are:

• A. Protons
• B. Neutrons
• C. Electrons✓
• D. All of above

Explanation: Electrons (especially valence electrons) are only subatomic particles which are involved in ordinary chemical changes

Q110. The phenomenon of cooling on sudden expansion of gases is called:

• A. Bronstect effect
• B. Joule Thomson effect✓
• C. Graham's effect
• D. Dalton's effect

Explanation: Therefore, the correct term is the "Joule-Thomson effect," which describes the cooling observed when a gas expands rapidly without any external work being done on it. The phenomenon of cooling on sudden expansion of gases is called the "Joule-Thomson effect."

Q111. Fizzy drinks contain dissolved CO2. The CO2 reacts with H2O to form weak acid which is called:

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Carbonic acid✓
• C. Lactic acid
• D. Formic acid

Explanation: The weak acid formed when CO2 reacts with water in fizzy drinks is called "Carbonic acid." Therefore, the correct option is "Carbonic acid" as it is the specific weak acid formed when CO2 dissolves in water.

Q112. Cleaning action of soap is due to:

• A. Decrease in surface tension of water
• B. Viscosity of water
• C. High boiling point of water
• D. Polarity of water✓

Explanation: Polarity of water: Soap molecules have polar and nonpolar regions, allowing them to interact with both water and oily substances, facilitating the removal of dirt and oils. Therefore, the correct option for the cleaning action of soap is "Polarity of water."

Q113. Polymerization is a process of producing:

• A. High molecular weight compounds from monomers✓
• B. Low molecular weight compounds from monomers
• C. Intermediate molecular weight compound from monomers
• D. High molecular weight compounds from polymers

Explanation: High molecular weight compounds from monomers: This is the correct option. Polymerization involves the bonding of monomers to form long chains or networks, resulting in high molecular weight polymers. Therefore, the correct option is "High molecular weight compounds from monomers" as polymerization is the process of joining monomers to form larger, high molecular weight polymer molecules.

Q114. Both H ion and helium atom have the same number of:

• A. Proton
• B. Electron
• C. Neutrons
• D. None of above✓

Explanation: Therefore, the correct option is "None of the above" as H+ ion and helium atom have different numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons.

Q115. CO2 is isostructural with:

• A. HgCl2
• B. SnCl2
• C. C2H2
• D. NO2✓

Explanation: NO2: This option is correct. NO2 (nitrogen dioxide) has a linear molecular geometry and is isostructural with CO2. Both molecules have a central atom bonded to two surrounding atoms with no lone pairs, resulting in a linear shape. Therefore, the correct option is "NO2" as it is isostructural with CO2, meaning they have the same molecular geometry of linear shape.

Q116. How many subshells are present in n=3 shell:

• A. 4
• B. 3✓
• C. 5
• D. 9

Explanation: This option is correct. The n=3 shell has three subshells corresponding to l=0, l=1, and l=2. Therefore, the correct option is "3" as there are three subshells (s, p, and d) in the n=3 shell according to the allowed values of l.

Q117. All the compounds are inorganic Except:

• A. CaCO3
• B. CAC2
• C. KCN
• D. (NH2)CO✓

Explanation: (NH2)CO (urea): This compound is organic as it contains carbon-hydrogen (C-H) bonds and is commonly found in biological systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "(NH2)CO" as it is the only compound among the given options that is organic.

Q118. Molecules of oxygen is diatomic and behaves as:

• A. Diamagnetic
• B. Paramagnetic✓
• C. Ferromagnetic
• D. Anti Ferromagnetic

Explanation: Paramagnetic: Oxygen molecules (O2) are paramagnetic. Paramagnetic substances have unpaired electrons, which generate a net magnetic moment. When placed in an external magnetic field, paramagnetic substances are weakly attracted to the field. Therefore, the correct option for oxygen molecules (O2) is "Paramagnetic" as they have unpaired electrons, generating a net magnetic moment and exhibiting weak attraction when placed in an external magnetic field.

Q119. Which is strongest acid?

• A. HClO
• B. HClO2
• C. HClO3
• D. HClO4✓

Explanation: HClO4 (perchloric acid): This acid is the strongest among the options. It is a highly corrosive and reactive acid. Perchloric acid is a strong oxidizing agent and is used in laboratories for various purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is "HClO4" (perchloric acid) as it is the strongest acid among the given options.

Q120. TiCl4 is used as catalyst for the manufacture of:

• A. Sulphuric acid
• B. Plastics✓
• C. Ethanol
• D. Tetraethyl lead

Explanation: TiCI4 is used as a catalyst in the Ziegler-Natta process, which helps convert ethylene into polyethylene. The other options are wrong because they use different catalysts (like V2O5 for H2SO4)or different production methods.

Q121. The shape or appearance in which crystal grows is called:

• A. Crystal geometry
• B. Crystal lattice
• C. Crystal habit✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The general shape of a crystal and the proportions of its bounding sides–such as elongate, tabular, bladed, or other–is known as its habit, from the Latin habitus

Q122. Species in which the central atom uses sp hybride orbital in its bonding is:

• A. PH3
• B. NH3
• C. SbH3
• D. C2H2✓

Explanation: Each carbon in C₂H₂ is sp hybridized, it forms two sigma bonds (one with H, one with C) and uses two unhybridized p orbitals for the π bonds in the triple bond.

Q123. SO2 is responsible fir the formation of:

• A. Acid rain✓
• B. Green house effect
• C. Global warming
• D. Ozone depletion

Explanation: Acid rain: SO2 is a major contributor to the formation of acid rain. When released into the atmosphere, it reacts with water and other substances to form sulfuric acid, which can then fall to the Earth's surface as acid rain. Therefore, the correct option is "Acid rain" as SO2 is responsible for the formation of acid rain.

Q124. The isomerism exhibits by C2H11OH is:

• A. Position isomerism✓
• B. Functional group isomerism
• C. Chain isomerism
• D. All of above

Explanation: Position isomerism: C2H11OH, which represents a molecule with two carbon atoms, exhibits position isomerism. This is because the hydroxyl group (-OH) can be located on either of the two carbon atoms, resulting in different structural isomers. Therefore, the correct option is "Position isomerism" as C2H11OH can exhibit different structural isomers based on the position of the hydroxyl group.

Q125. When the nitrates of Na,Li,Ca and Sr were heated strongly in separate containers, all of them gave reddish brown colour except the nitrate of:

• A. Na
• B. Ca
• C. Sr
• D. Li✓

Explanation: LiNO₃ → gives Li₂O + NO₂ (brown gas) + O₂.ng.

Q126. Carboxylic acid contains:

• A. Hydroxyl group
• B. A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
• C. A carboxyl group✓
• D. A carboxyl and aldehyde group

Explanation: A carboxyl group: This option is correct. Carboxylic acids are organic compounds that contain a carboxyl group (−COOH). The carboxyl group consists of a carbonyl group (C=O) and a hydroxyl group (−OH) attached to the same carbon atom. Therefore, the correct option is that carboxylic acids contain a carboxyl group.

Q127. A catalyst is more effective when it is in the finely divided state because:

• A. The valence electrons are easily available
• B. This increases the surface area of the catalyst✓
• C. It attains equilibrium quickly
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Option b is correct. A catalyst is more effective when it is in the finely divided state because it increases the surface area of the catalyst. This allows more reactant molecules to come into contact with the catalyst, increasing the likelihood of successful collisions and hence speeding up the reaction.

Q128. The outer electronic configuration of an element "X"bis ns2 np2. It belongs to which group of periodic table:

• A. 2nd group
• B. 4th group✓
• C. 3rd group
• D. 5th group

Explanation: The outer electronic configuration of element "X" is ns2 np2, indicating that it has 2 electrons in the s subshell and 2 electrons in the p subshell of its outermost energy level. Based on this configuration, element "X" belongs to the 4th group of the periodic table. In the periodic table, groups are organized based on the number of valence electrons, and the 4th group consists of elements with 4 valence electrons.

Q129. Which one of the following is used as a drying agent?

• A. NaHCO3
• B. CaCO3.H2O
• C. CaCl2 anhydrous✓
• D. Na2SO4.H2O

Explanation: CaCl2 (anhydrous calcium chloride): Calcium chloride is a widely used drying agent due to its strong hygroscopic properties. It effectively absorbs moisture from the air, making it useful for drying applications in laboratories, industries, and even for de-icing roads.

Q130. Super Phosphate is made by:

• A. The acidulation of phosphate rock✓
• B. The alkylation of phosphate rock
• C. The alcoholation of phosphate rock
• D. The alkali addition of phosphate rock

Explanation: The correct answer is A: "The acidulation of phosphate rock." Superphosphate is a fertilizer that is commonly used to provide plants with phosphorus, an essential nutrient for plant growth. It is made by treating phosphate rock with sulfuric acid in a process known as acidulation. This process converts the insoluble phosphate in the rock into a more soluble form that can be absorbed by plants.

Q131. Which one of the following is strongest acid?

• A. CH2Cl_CH2-COOH
• B. CHCl2_COOH✓
• C. CH3_COOH
• D. CH3-CH2-COOH

Explanation: In this case, the acidity of the carboxylic acids can be compared based on the stability of their corresponding conjugate bases. The more stable the conjugate base, the stronger the acid. Therefore, option B (CHCl2-COOH) is the strongest acid among the given options.

Q132. Identify the compound formed when ethylene combines with water in the presence of 10% sulphuric acid and HgSO4 as a catalyst:

• A. Carbonal
• B. Methanol
• C. Ethanol
• D. Glycol✓

Explanation: (D) is correct because the product of this reaction is ethylene glycol, which is a colorless, odorless, and slightly viscous liquid. Ethylene glycol is commonly used as a coolant in automotive engines, as a solvent in the chemical industry. The reaction between ethylene and water is an example of an addition reaction. The presence of sulfuric acid and HgSO4 as a catalyst helps to initiate the reaction and increase the reaction rate.

Q133. Catenation is a process in which carbon shows the properties of making

• A. Multiple bonds
• B. Hybridization
• C. Long chain or rings of carbon atom✓
• D. Showing isomerism

Explanation: C (long chain or rings of carbon atom) is the correct answer as it specifically describes the process of catenation, where carbon atoms can form long chains or rings through covalent bonding.

Q134. Silver nitrate solution turns blue when a piece of copper is added to it. This is because of :

• A. Oxidation of Ag
• B. Reduction of Cu✓
• C. Oxidation of Cu
• D. Reduction of Ag

Explanation: When a piece of copper is added to a silver nitrate solution, a redox reaction occurs. The copper atoms in the solid piece of copper lose electrons, which are transferred to the silver ions (Ag+) in the silver nitrate solution. As a result, the silver ions are reduced to metallic silver, which deposits on the surface of the copper. The overall reaction can be represented as follows: 2AgNO3 (aq) + Cu (s) -> Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s) The blue color observed in the solution is due to the formation of copper(II) nitrate (Cu(NO3)2) in the solution. The deposition of metallic silver on the copper surface gives it a characteristic silver color.

Q135. In which of the following solvents are alkenes the most soluble?

• A. water
• B. ethyl alcohol
• C. ammonia
• D. carbon tetrachloride✓

Explanation: CCl4 is non polar so alkene dissolves in it best LIKE DISSOLVES LIKE. As, alkenes is non polar so it will dissolve in non polar solvent

Q136. Calculate the volume occupied by 2.8 g of nitrogen gas at STP is:

• A. 22.4 dm3
• B. 2.24 dm3✓
• C. 4.48 dm3
• D. 44.8 dm3

Explanation: Moles of N 2 =2.8/28=0.1 moleAtS.T.P: mole→22.4 L ∴0.1 mole →2.24 L=2240 ml=2240cc=2.24 dm3

Q137. Continuous adsorption spectrum is obtained from:

• A. excited atoms✓
• B. Excited molecules
• C. Ground state molecules
• D. Ground state atoms

Explanation: Excited atoms: When atoms are excited, either by heating or by other means such as electrical discharge, they absorb energy and transition to higher energy levels. As these excited atoms return to their ground state, they emit energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation. The absorption and emission of specific wavelengths of light result in a continuous adsorption spectrum. In summary, a continuous adsorption spectrum is obtained from excited atoms, where the absorption of energy and subsequent emission of light results in a continuous range of wavelengths.

Q138. In a reaction of ethane and hydrochloric acid, the hydrogen ions act as:

• A. nucleophiles
• B. electrophiles✓
• C. carbon ions
• D. carbonium ions

Explanation: Electrophiles: Electrophiles are electron-deficient species that accept a pair of electrons to form a new chemical bond. Hydrogen ions (H+) in hydrochloric acid act as electrophiles since they are positively charged and can accept a pair of electrons from another species during a reaction. Therefore, in the reaction of ethane and hydrochloric acid, the hydrogen ions (H+) act as electrophiles by accepting a pair of electrons during the reaction.

Q139. Which of the following has the least wavelength?

• A. Alpha rays
• B. X_rays
• C. Cosmic rays✓
• D. Beta rays

Explanation: Cosmic rays are high-energy particles that come from outside our solar system. They can have a wide range of energies and wavelengths, depending on their source.

Q140. Which of the following property of light does not depend upon the nature of medium?

• A. Velocity
• B. Wavelength
• C. Frequency✓
• D. Amplitude

Explanation: The frequency of light does not change when light travels from one medium to another.

Q141. The index of refraction of light in medium and vacuum is given by?

• A. n=c/v✓
• B. n=v/c
• C. n=vc
• D. n=v.c

Explanation: This formula represents the index of refraction (n) of a medium, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum, and v is the speed of light in the medium. This formula is based on Snell's law, which relates the angle of incidence and refraction as light passes through a boundary between two different materials.

Q142. The particle carrying a charge of (2e) falls through a potential difference of 3V. Energy required by the particle is:

• A. 9.6 × 10^-19J✓
• B. 1.6 ×10^-19 J
• C. 3.2 ×10^-19 J
• D. 6.9 × 10^-19 J

Explanation: K.E = (1.6 ×10^-19) × (C×V) As K.E = (1.6×10^-19) (2×3) = 9.6 × 10^-19 JA.9.6 × 10^-19 J: This is the correct answer, obtained by using the equation E = qV and substituting the values given in the question.

Q143. The ratio of heat accepted to the heat rejected by a carnot engine gives :

• A. The efficiency of the working substance✓
• B. The ideal gas scale temperature
• C. The thermal conductivity at the working substance
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The ratio of heat accepted to the heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance. A Carnot engine is a theoretical heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle. It consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends only on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs, and is given by the Carnot efficiency formula: Efficiency = 1 - (Temperature of the cold reservoir / Temperature of the hot reservoir) The heat accepted is the heat energy absorbed by the engine from the hot reservoir, and the heat rejected is the heat energy expelled by the engine to the cold reservoir. The ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected is equal to the ratio of the absolute temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. Therefore, we can rewrite the Carnot efficiency formula as: Efficiency = 1 - (Temperature of the cold reservoir / Temperature of the hot reservoir) Efficiency = 1 - (Heat rejected / Heat accepted) So, the ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance. Therefore, the correct option is (a) - the ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance.

Q144. The speed of particle at the end of four successes seconds is 20,25,30, 35km/hr, the acceleration of the particle is:

• A. 5km/hr²✓
• B. 5km/sec²
• C. 5km_hr/sec
• D. 5km/hr_sec

Explanation: The acceleration of the particle cannot be determined with the given information. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. The formula for acceleration is: a = (v₂ - v₁) / (t₂ - t₁) where: a is the acceleration v₂ and v₁ are the final and initial velocities, respectively t₂ and t₁ are the final and initial times, respectively In this case, we are given the final velocities of the particle after four successive seconds as 20, 25, 30, and 35 km/hr, but we do not have the initial velocities or the times at which these velocities were measured. Therefore, we cannot calculate the acceleration of the particle using the above formula. Option (a) is incorrect because it represents acceleration in units of km/hr², which is not a standard unit of acceleration. The SI unit of acceleration is m/s². Therefore, the correct answer is that the acceleration of the particle cannot be determined with the given information.

Q145. The orbital speed of satellite orbiting around the Earth is:

• A. √GM/Re
• B. √GMe/Re✓
• C. √GMe/R²
• D. √GMe/h

Explanation: The correct formula to calculate the orbital speed (v) of a satellite orbiting the Earth is: v = √(GMe/r) where G is the gravitational constant, Me is the mass of the Earth, and r is the distance between the center of the Earth and the satellite. To derive this formula, we can start with the centripetal force equation F = m v² / r G (Me * m) / r² = m v² / r Solving for v, we get: v = √(GMe/r)

Q146. If n^ is unit vector in direction of A→ then:

• A. n^= A→/|A|✓
• B. n^= (A.|A|)—
• C. n^= n^A→
• D. n^= A/A—

Explanation: n^= A→/|A|: This equation represents the unit vector n^ in the direction of the vector A→. To obtain n^, we divide the vector A→ by its magnitude |A|, which gives us the direction of the vector without changing its magnitude. Overall, the correct equation for the unit vector n^ in the direction of the vector A→ is n^= A→/|A|. This equation gives us the direction of the vector A→ without changing its magnitude, as the unit vector has a magnitude of 1.

Q147. The value of K (equilibrium constant) for a reaction?

• A. Is the same at different temperature?
• B. Is different at different temperature✓
• C. Is negligible at room temperature
• D. Can be same at different temperatures

Explanation: The value of K (equilibrium constant) for a reaction can be different at different temperatures. This is because the equilibrium constant depends on the temperature of the reaction. According to the Arrhenius equation, the rate constant of a reaction increases with an increase in temperature. Therefore, the value of K changes with a change in temperature. Therefore, the value of K for a reaction is dependent on the temperature of the reaction and the enthalpy change of the reaction.

Q148. Horizontal range of projectile is:

• A. R= V²sin∅ Cos∅/g
• B. R= V²i Sin ∅/2g
• C. R = V² Sin (2∅)/g✓
• D. R= V² i sin ∅ (2∅)/g

Explanation: The correct equation for the horizontal range of a projectile is: R = V²sin(2∅)/g where: R is the horizontal range of the projectile (the distance traveled horizontally) V is the initial velocity of the projectile ∅ is the angle of projection (the angle between the initial velocity and the horizontal) g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Q149. The resistance of the pure semiconductor decreases in a certain ratio with the?

• A. Decrease in temperature
• B. Increase in current
• C. Increase in temperature✓
• D. Decrease in current

Explanation: In a pure semiconductor, the resistance decreases with an increase in temperature. This happens because as temperature increases, some electrons in the valence band gain enough energy to jump to the conduction band, leaving behind holes in the valence band. This increases the number of charge carriers in the material, leading to a decrease in resistance.

Q150. The paratrooper of mass 80 kg descends vertically at a constant velocity of 3.0 ms-¹ . Taking the acceleration of free fall as 10 ms-¹ find out what is the net force acting on him? (g=10ms-²)

• A. Zero✓
• B. 800 N upward
• C. 800 N downward
• D. 24 N downward

Explanation: The net force is zero bcz there is no acceleration. The strings of parachute are pulling against him in the upward direction with a force equal to his weight which is equal and opposite to his weight due to pull of gravity downward.

Q151. The acceleration of falling body in fluid depends upon:

• A. Velocity
• B. Viscosity of fluid
• C. Density of the body
• D. All of above✓

Explanation: When a body falls through a fluid, it experiences a resistance force due to the viscosity of the fluid. This resistance force opposes the motion of the body and causes it to slow down. As a result, the acceleration of the body decreases over time until it reaches a terminal velocity. Therefore, all of the above factors - velocity, viscosity of the fluid, and density of the body - influence the acceleration of a falling body in a fluid.

Q152. Two concurrent forces have a maximum resultant of 45N and minimum resultant of 5N. What is the magnitude of each of these?

• A. 0.45N
• B. 5N,9N
• C. 20N,25N✓
• D. 0N,45N

Explanation: maximum resultant: 45 = a + b minimum resultant: 5 = a - b Solve for a in the first equation then substitute it into the second equation: a = 45 - b 5 = 45 - b -b 5 - 45 = -2b -40 = -2b 20 = b Since we know the value for b we can substitute it into the first equation to find the value for a: 45 = a + 20 45 - 20 = a 25 = a So the magnitude of each of these forces are 20N, 25N Therefore, the answer is option C: 20N and 25N, as they give the maximum resultant of 45N and fall within the range of values required by the problem.

Q153. The direction of torque is:

• A. Parallel to the plane of F and γ
• B. Perpendicular to the plane of F and γ✓
• C. Anti parallel to the plane of F and γ
• D. Is the same as that of the plane of F and γ

Explanation: Perpendicular to the plane of F and γ: This option is correct as torque is always perpendicular to the plane defined by the force vector and the position vector from the axis of rotation to the point where the force is applied (i.e., γ).

Q154. How are the two vectors of the same magnitude oriented to get a resultant of the same magnitude?

• A. 90°
• B. 60°
• C. 45°
• D. 120°✓

Explanation: 120°: If two vectors of the same magnitude are oriented at 120 degrees to each other, the resultant vector will have a magnitude that is greater than the individual vectors. The magnitude of the resultant vector can be calculated using the law of cosines: magnitude of resultant = sqrt(magnitude of individual vector^2 + magnitude of individual vector^2 - 2 * magnitude of individual vector * magnitude of individual vector * cos(θ)) Where θ is the angle between the vectors. In this case, since θ is 120 degrees, the resultant vector will have a magnitude that is greater than the magnitude of each individual vector.

Q155. Rain drops falling from sky reach the ground with?

• A. Constant acceleration
• B. Constant terminal velocity✓
• C. Acceleration greater than g
• D. Variable acceleration

Explanation: When raindrops fall from the sky, they experience various forces and factors that affect their motion. Let's explore each option in relation to the motion of raindrops: Constant terminal velocity: This option is correct. Raindrops falling from the sky eventually reach a state where the drag force due to air resistance equals the force of gravity. At this point, the raindrop achieves a constant terminal velocity. Terminal velocity is the maximum velocity a falling object can reach when the drag force equals the gravitational force pulling it downward. Raindrops, being relatively small and having a high surface-to-volume ratio, experience significant air resistance, which ultimately limits their acceleration and causes them to fall with a constant terminal velocity. In summary, raindrops falling from the sky reach the ground with a constant terminal velocity once they have reached a point where the drag force due to air resistance balances the force of gravity.

Q156. Potentiometer is the instrument working on the principle of:

• A. Kirchholf's 1st law
• B. Wheatstone bridge✓
• C. Combination of resistance
• D. Kirchholf's 2nd law

Explanation: Wheatstone Bridge: The Wheatstone bridge is a circuit arrangement consisting of four resistive elements connected in a diamond shape. It operates based on the principle of null detection, where the bridge is balanced by adjusting one of the resistances until the potential difference across the central point of the bridge is zero. The potentiometer uses the Wheatstone bridge principle to measure unknown voltages or to compare and calibrate resistances. In conclusion, the potentiometer is an instrument that works based on the principle of the Wheatstone bridge, which involves the balancing of resistances to measure unknown voltages or compare resistances accurately.

Q157. The density of steal ball was determined by measuring the mass and diameter. The mass was measured with 1% and diameter 3% of the error. In the calculated density of the steel ball is at most;

• A. 2%
• B. 8%
• C. 4%✓
• D. 10%

Explanation: 4%: As mentioned earlier, the maximum error in the calculated density is the sum of the errors in measuring the mass and diameter, which is 1% + 3% = 4%. Therefore, the maximum error in the calculated density is 4%. Based on the analysis, the option that correctly represents the maximum error in the calculated density of the steel ball is 4%.

Q158. Two vectors A→ and B→ are such that |A+B|→ = |A-B|→. The angle between the two vectors is:

• A. 0°
• B. 60°
• C. 90°✓
• D. 180°

Explanation: 90°: If the angle between A→ and B→ is 90°, the dot product A→ · B→ would be |A→| |B→| cos(90°) = 0. This option is consistent with the given condition 2A→ · B→ = 0, as it satisfies the equation. Based on the analysis above, the angle between the two vectors A→ and B→ is 90°.

Q159. If a green light in a Young double slit experiment is replaced by monochromatic orange light of the same intensity, Then:

• A. Fringe width will decrease
• B. Fringe width will increase✓
• C. Fringe width will remain the same
• D. Fringe width will become less intense

Explanation: Fringe width will increase: If the orange light has a longer wavelength compared to the green light, then the fringe width will increase. In this case, the fringes become more spread out, resulting in a wider fringe pattern. This occurs because the fringe width is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light.

Q160. Two bodies with masses m1 ans m2 have equal kinetic energies. If M1 and M2 are their respective momentum then the ratio between M1 and M2 is:

• A. m1:m2
• B. √m1/m2✓
• C. m1²: m2²
• D. √m1:√m2

Explanation: The energy and momentum are related The KE is proportional to square of momentum KE = p²/2m so if two bodies have equal energy then their square of momentum divided by masses will be equal. Say M1 and M2 their momentum M1²/2.m1= M2²/2.m2 So M1/M2 = √m1/m2

Q161. If frequency of incident light falling on photo emissive plate is doubled. Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron is:

• A. Doubled
• B. More than double✓
• C. Unchanged
• D. Less than double

Explanation: More than double: From Einstein's equation for photoelectric effect , the maximum kinetic energy , K=hν−W where ν= frequency of incident light , h= Planck's constant and W= work function of metal. When ν is made double, K =2hν−W=2(hν−W)+W=2K+W Thus, kinetic energy of photoelectrons will be more than doubled when incident frequency is doubled.

Q162. The number of significant figures in 4.0030 is:

• A. Four
• B. Five✓
• C. Two
• D. Three

Explanation: Five: There are five significant figures in 4.0030. All the digits (4, 0, 0, 3, and 0) are non-zero and the trailing zero after the decimal point indicates precision, making it significant.

Q163. Hydrogen atom in the ground state absorbs energy from the incident photon. Which makes a transition to energy level characterized by n=4 the number of lines observed are:

• A. 8
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 10

Explanation: The transition of a hydrogen atom from the ground state to an energy level characterized by n = 4 corresponds to an electron moving from the first energy level (n = 1) to the fourth energy level (n = 4).To determine the number of spectral lines observed, we can use the formula:Number of spectral lines = n(n-1)/2=4(4-1)/2=6

Q164. An object in a satellite orbiting around the Earth is weightless because:

• A. g=0
• B. It is falling freely
• C. No force acts on it✓
• D. It is far away from the earth

Explanation: No force acts on it: This option is incorrect. There is a force acting on the object due to gravity, but it is balanced by the centripetal force of the satellite's orbital motion.

Q165. Light and heavy bodies have equal kinetic energies. Which one has the greater momentum?

• A. Heavy body✓
• B. Light body
• C. Both have same momentum
• D. None of these

Explanation: Heavy body: Momentum is given by the product of mass and velocity. Since the heavy body has a larger mass, even if the kinetic energies are equal, its momentum would be greater due to its mass.

Q166. In open organ pipe of length l is the wavelength of the fundamental note is:

• A. Equal to 1
• B. Equal to 2L✓
• C. Equal to 4L
• D. Equal to 3l/2

Explanation: Equal to 2L: This option is correct. In an open organ pipe, the fundamental wavelength corresponds to the length of the pipe, so the wavelength is equal to 2 times the length (2L).

Q167. The time period of communication satellites is:

• A. 1 hour
• B. 2 hour
• C. 12 hours
• D. 24 hours✓

Explanation: 24 hours: This option is correct. Geostationary communication satellites orbit the Earth at a height of about 35,786 kilometers, taking 24 hours to complete one orbit. This allows them to remain fixed in the sky relative to an observer on Earth, providing continuous communication coverage.

Q168. When the Newton's ring interference_ is seen from above by means of reflected light. The central spot always appears:

• A. White
• B. Black✓
• C. Red
• D. Green

Explanation: Black: The central spot appears black when destructive interference occurs, causing the incident and reflected waves to cancel each other out, resulting in minimum brightness or complete darkness at the center.

Q169. The unit of electric intensity is:

• A. Volt/meter
• B. Newton/coulomb
• C. Joule/coulomb_meter
• D. All of above✓

Explanation: Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" since all the options are valid units for electric intensity, each expressing a different aspect of the electric field strength.

Q170. If a wave can be polarized, it must be:

• A. An electromagnetic wave
• B. A stationary wave
• C. Transverse wave✓
• D. A longitudinal wave

Explanation: Transverse waves which include all electromagnetic waves such as light, radio waves, and x-rays can be polarized, hence the answer will be C.

Q171. The resolving power is expressed as maximum angle α min between the two sources S1 and S2 . If λ is wavelength of of light and D is diameter of lens, then the resolving power is given by:

• A. αmin≥1.22λ/D✓
• B. αm.λ/D
• C. αmin 2.1 λ/D
• D. αmin ≤1.22λ/D

Explanation: αmin ≥ 1.22λ/D. This is the correct expression for resolving power, known as Rayleigh's criterion, which states that the minimum resolvable angle is at least 1.22 times the wavelength divided by the diameter of the lens. Therefore, the correct option for the resolving power is "αmin ≥ 1.22λ/D."

Q172. Planck's constant has the dimension of:

• A. Energy
• B. Work
• C. Linear momentum
• D. Angular momentum✓

Explanation: The dimension of angular momentum is M1L2T-1. This option is correct oneAngular momentum has the formula as π π L = nh / 2 π ,where is the Planck's constant. π π nh / 2 π is a constant and can be neglected during dimension calculation. Hence, Angular momentum has the same dimension as of Planck's constant

Q173. The wavelength of sound made from a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz is nearly:

• A. 330m
• B. 100m
• C. 10m
• D. 1m✓

Explanation: Therefore, the correct option is "1m" as it represents a reasonable wavelength for audible sound produced by a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. The wavelength of sound can be calculated using the formula: wavelength = speed of sound / frequency.

Q174. Pressure exerted by perfect gas is equal to :

• A. ⅓ mean K.E/volume
• B. ½ Mean K.E/volume
• C. ⅔ mean K.E/volume✓
• D. Mean K.E/volume

Explanation: 2/3 mean K.E/volume: This option is correct. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is numerically equal to two-third of the mean kinetic energy of translation per unit volume of the gas. Hence, pressure is two-third of mean KE per unit volume.

Q175. The charge on an electron is equal to :

• A. 1.7588×10^19 Coulomb
• B. 1.6022×10^-19 Coulomb✓
• C. 1.2057×10^19 Coulomb
• D. 0.6022×10^19 Coulomb

Explanation: 1.6022×10^-19 Coulomb: This option is correct. The charge of an electron is approximately -1.6022×10^-19 Coulomb.

Q176. A particle performs simple harmonic motion of amplitude 0.02m and frequency 2.5 Hz what is the maximum speed?

• A. 0.008m/s
• B. 0.314m/s✓
• C. 0.125m/s
• D. 0.05m/s

Explanation: To determine the maximum speed of a particle in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 0.02 m and frequency of 2.5 Hz, we can use the equation vmax = ωA, where ω is the angular frequency and A is the amplitude. 0.314 m/s: This option is correct. By substituting the values, vmax = (2π × 2.5 Hz) × 0.02 m = 0.314 m/s. Therefore, the correct option is "0.314 m/s" as it represents the maximum speed of the particle in simple harmonic motion with the given parameters.

Q177. A particle of mass moving with velocity V makes head. One elastic collision with another particle of the same mass and initially at rest. The velocity of the first particle after the collision:

• A. 2V
• B. -V✓
• C. +V
• D. Zero

Explanation: -V: This option is correct. In an elastic collision, the first particle will experience a change in direction and will have a velocity equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to its initial velocity. Therefore, the correct option is "-V" as the first particle will have a velocity equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to its initial velocity after the elastic collision.

Q178. In CRO, the time bases sweep circuit is connected to the:

• A. X_plate
• B. Y_plate
• C. Electron gun
• D. Accelerating electrode✓

Explanation: Accelerating electrode: This option is correct. The time base sweep circuit is connected to the accelerating electrode, which controls the speed at which the electron beam scans across the screen horizontally, creating the time base sweep.

Q179. Ampere hour is a unit of:

• A. Current
• B. Time
• C. Quantity of charge✓
• D. Power

Explanation: Quantity of charge: This option is correct. Ampere hour is a unit of the quantity of charge, representing the total charge transported by a current of one ampere in one hour.

Q180. A 100m long conductor carrying current of 2A is at right angle to B of 0.5 wb_m² . The force experienced by the conductor is:

• A. 1.2N
• B. 3 dynes
• C. 10^7 dynes✓
• D. 10^5 dynes

Explanation: This option is correct as 10^7 dynes are equal to 100N. The force can be calculated by: F = BILsinθ In this case, the cylinder is carrying a current of 2A and is placed at right angles to a magnetic field of 0.5 Wb/m². Therefore, the angle between the current and the magnetic field is 90 degrees, and sinθ = 1. Substituting the given values into the formula, we get: F = (0.5 Wb/m²) x (2 A) x (100 m) x sin 90° F = 100 N

Q181. Which type of field is present near a moving electric charge?

• A. An electric field only
• B. A magnetic field only
• C. Both magnetic and electric field✓
• D. Magnetic and gravitational field

Explanation: Magnetic and gravitational field: This option is incorrect. A moving electric charge does not generate a gravitational field. The gravitational field is associated with mass, not electric charge. Therefore, the correct option is "Both magnetic and electric field" as a moving electric charge generates both types of fields in its vicinity.

Q182. If an electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 100 volts. Its final Kinetic Energy is:

• A. 1.6 × 10^-18J
• B. 1.6 × 10^-17J✓
• C. 100J
• D. 100 electron volt

Explanation: Kinetic Energy = Work done = Q x V = 1.6×10−19×100=1.6×10−17 Joules. This option is correct as seen from the following relation.

Q183. The inductance of solenoid depends upon the:

• A. Area of cross section
• B. Length of solenoid
• C. Number of turns
• D. All of above✓

Explanation: Therefore, the correct option is "All of the above" as the inductance of a solenoid depends on the area of cross section, the length of the solenoid, and the number of turns.

Q184. The mean value of sinusoidal emf over cycle is:

• A. Maximum
• B. Zero✓
• C. Maximum and minimum
• D. No change in emf

Explanation: Zero: The mean value of a sinusoidal emf over a cycle is zero. This is because the positive and negative values of the sinusoidal wave cancel each other out when averaged over a complete cycle. Therefore, the correct option is "Zero" as the mean value of a sinusoidal emf over a cycle is zero.

Q185. An efficient voltmeter has:

• A. Low resistance in comparison to circuit resistance
• B. High resistance in comparison to circuit resistance✓
• C. A resistance equal to circuit resistance
• D. None of the above

Explanation: High resistance in comparison to circuit resistance: This is the correct option. An efficient voltmeter should have a high internal resistance compared to the resistance of the circuit. This prevents significant current flow through the voltmeter, ensuring accurate voltage measurement without affecting the circuit's performance. Therefore, the most efficient voltmeter has high resistance compared to the resistance of the circuit it is measuring.

Q186. The period of simple pendulum double when :

• A. Its length is doubled
• B. The mass of the bob is double
• C. Its length is made four time✓
• D. The mass and length of the pendulum is made two times

Explanation: The correct option is C Its length is made four times T = 2π√l/g⇒T∝√l , When length will be four times then,T =√4 =2 According to this relation,

Q187. A transformer changes 12V to 18000V and there are 6000 turns in secondary coil. The number of turns in primary coil are:

• A. 40
• B. 20
• C. 30
• D. 4✓

Explanation: 4: If there are 4 turns in the primary coil, the voltage transformation ratio would be 6000/4 = 1500, which matches the given transformation ratio of 12V to 18000V. Therefore, the correct answer is "4" as the number of turns in the primary coil of the transformer is 4.

Q188. If a person is injured by the shot of gun and all the pellets could not be removed, they may cause poisoning by:

• A. Hg
• B. Pb✓
• C. Fe
• D. Sn

Explanation: Pb (Lead): If pellets containing lead (Pb) remain in the body, they can cause lead poisoning, which can result in neurological, gastrointestinal, and other systemic symptoms.However, it is most dangerous. It's important to note that any foreign object left in the body, regardless of its composition, can lead to complications such as infection, inflammation, or tissue damage. Prompt medical attention is necessary in such cases.

Q189. In power loss in a capacitor in A.C circuit is:

• A. P > V°l°
• B. <P>= V°I° sinθl°
• C. <P>= V°I° Cos θl
• D. <P>= zero✓

Explanation: In purely inductive or purely capacitive circuit, power loss is zero.

Q190. The truth table of logic function:

• A. Summarizes its output
• B. Tabulates all its input conditions only
• C. Displays all its input/output possible✓
• D. Is not based on the logic algebra

Explanation: The truth table displays all the input/output possibilities for the logic function. It systematically lists all possible combinations of input values and their resulting output values, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the function's behavior.

Q191. A ball of mass 1g is moving with a velocity of 10³ m/s. The De_Broglie wavelength of the ball is:

• A. 13.26 × 10^-36 m
• B. 3.315 × 10-³⁴ m
• C. 6.63 × 10-³⁴ m✓
• D. 4.97 × 10^-26 m

Explanation: momentum= 1/1000 Kg×1000m/s λ= Ph = 1 6.6×10−34J/s /1=6.6×10 −34mOPTION (A,B and D) are incorrect.As, it is a numerical so it could have only one answer.

Q192. If diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is:

• A. Attracted by poles
• B. Attracted by North pole & repelled by south pole
• C. Attracted by south pole & repelled by North pole
• D. Repelled by the poles✓

Explanation: Diamagnetic substances are those that do not have unpaired electrons in their atoms. When a diamagnetic substance is brought near a magnet, it becomes temporarily magnetized in the opposite direction to the magnet. This causes the diamagnetic substance to experience a weak repulsion from both the north and south poles of the magnet.

Q193. When an object slides at constant speed down an inclined plane, the coefficient of fraction may be approximately:

• A. Sin θ
• B. Cos θ
• C. Tan θ✓
• D. Cot θ

Explanation: The coefficient of friction is a measure of the frictional force between the object and the surface it is sliding on. It depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact and is typically denoted by the symbol 'μ'. The force of friction is given by the equation: f = μN where f is the force of friction, N is the normal force (the component of the weight of the object that is perpendicular to the inclined surface), and μ is the coefficient of friction.In the case where the object is sliding at constant speed down an inclined plane, the force of friction is equal in magnitude to the component of the weight of the object that is parallel to the plane. This component is given by: mg sin θ θ is the angle of inclination of the plane. Thus, we have: f = mg sin θ Substituting the equation for the force of friction into the equation for the coefficient of friction, we get: μ = f/N = (mg sin θ)/(mg cos θ) = tan θ Therefore, the coefficient of friction is approximately equal to the tangent of the angle of inclination of the plane. So, the correct option is (C) tan theta.

Q194. If the area of a circle is equal to its circumference the radius of this circle is:

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: πr2=2πr⟹r=2.The correct option is B. 2. The area of a circle is given by the formula A = πr^2, where r is the radius. The circumference of a circle is given by the formula C = 2πr. If the area of a circle is equal to its circumference, we can set up the equation πr^2 = 2πr. Simplifying this equation, we get r = 2.Therefore, the radius of this circle is 2.AS, IT IS NUMERICALLY DERIVATED SO IT COULD HAVE ONLY ONE ANSWER.

Q195. A ball is just allowed to fall from the window of a moving train, it will hit the ground following a:

• A. circular path
• B. hyperbolic path
• C. straight line path
• D. parabolic path✓

Explanation: This option is correct. When a ball is dropped from a moving train, it follows a parabolic path. The ball moves vertically downward due to the force of gravity, while simultaneously moving horizontally with the train's velocity. The combined effect of these motions results in a parabolic trajectory. The ball's path is curved, but it is not a perfect arc because the horizontal and vertical motions are not independent of each other.

Q196. A girl sitting on a spinning bus tool with her legs folded , suddenly out spreads then her angular velocity will:

• A. decrease✓
• B. increase
• C. Remain the same
• D. first increase and then decrease

Explanation: The moment of inertia of girl increases (since the mass of her legs is now farther from the axis of rotation). According to the law of conservation of angular momentum, the product of the moment of inertia and the angular velocity must remain constant. If the moment of inertia increases, the angular velocity must decrease in order to keep the total angular momentum constant. So the correct answer is (A) decrease.

Q197. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour. A brown eyed man whose mother was blue eyed marries a blue-­eyed women. The children will be:

• A. Both blue eyed and brown eyed 1:1✓
• B. All brown eyed
• C. All blue eyed
• D. Blue eyed and brown eyed 3:1

Explanation: The correct option is Both blue-eyed and brown-eyed, 1:1. The man is heterozygous for eye color (Bb), having inherited a blue-eye allele from his mother and a brown-eye allele from his father. The woman is homozygous recessive (bb), with two blue-eye alleles. Their children can inherit either a brown-eye allele or a blue-eye allele from the man and a blue-eye allele from the woman, leading to a 1:1 ratio of brown-eyed (Bb) to blue-eyed (bb) children.The other options are incorrect as they do not reflect the Mendelian inheritance patterns given the genotypes of the parents. All brown-eyed or all blue-eyed children would require different genetic combinations in the parents, and a 3:1 ratio is not possible with a homozygous recessive parent.

Q198. The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called :

• A. Codominant
• B. Supplementary
• C. Complementary
• D. Recessive✓

Explanation: The correct option is d): Recessive.A recessive allele is one that does not express its trait in the phenotype when paired with a dominant allele. The effect of a recessive allele is only observable when an organism has two copies of this allele, making it homozygous recessive. In the presence of a dominant allele, the recessive allele's effect is masked, which is why option d) is correct.Options a), b), and c) do not describe the relationship between alleles where one is masked by another. Codominance (Option a) refers to both alleles being expressed, supplementary (Option b) is not a genetic term for allele interaction, and complementary (Option c) is a term related to DNA base pairing rather than allele interaction.

Q199. RR (Red) Antirrhinum is crossed with white (WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an example of

• A. Dominant-recessive
• B. Incomplete dominance✓
• C. Hybrid
• D. Supplementary genes

Explanation: The inheritance pattern observed in the cross between red (RR) and white (WW) Antirrhinum, resulting in pink (RW) offspring, is an example of incomplete dominance. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate of the two homozygous phenotypes. This is evidenced by the pink color of the RW offspring, which is a blend of the red and white colors of the parents. In contrast, dominant-recessive inheritance would result in offspring displaying only the dominant phenotype. The term 'hybrid' does not specify the nature of the genetic interaction, and 'supplementary genes' refer to a different genetic interaction not demonstrated in this example.

Q200. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when:

• A. Her mother and maternal grandfather were colour blind
• B. Her father and maternal grandfather were colour blind✓
• C. Her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision
• D. Parents have normal vision but grandparents were colour blind

Explanation: The correct option is B: Her father and maternal grandfather were colour blind. Color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning a female must inherit two copies of the recessive allele (Xc) to express the trait. In this scenario, the daughter's father must be colour blind (XcY) to pass on an Xc, and the mother must at least be a carrier (XcX) or colour blind (XcXc) to pass on the second Xc. The maternal grandfather's condition indicates that the mother has at least one Xc, fulfilling the condition.Option A is incorrect because it does not ensure the father passes on an Xc. Option C is incorrect as it lacks information on the father's Xc contribution. Option D is incorrect because normal vision parents are less likely to pass two Xc alleles, despite the grandparents' condition.