Sindh Mcat Nts 2000 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. In order for people who spoke different langunges to engage in trade_they often developed a simplified language called pidgin.

• A. With each the other
• B. With each to the other
• C. With each another
• D. With each other✓

Explanation: The key to solving these types of questions is reading them and filling in the options and then analysing which option fills in correctly. The correct option here will be “with each other”.

Q2. The two main_are permanent magnets and electromagnets.

• A. Kinds of magnets✓
• B. Kind of magnet
• C. Kind magnets
• D. Kinds magnets

Explanation: This kind of sentence involves use of mind in which you will analyse the full sentence and then put the right option there. Read the sentence carefully and then analyse all the four given options.

Q3. The Supreme Court does not hear a case unless_except those involving foreign ambassador.

• A. A trial
• B. Already tried
• C. It already trying
• D. It has already been tried✓

Explanation: Common sense and knowledge related question. The Supreme court is a prime institution so all the cases are first heard by High courts and then, if required, by the Supreme court.

Q4. Hoof: Horse

• A. Lion : Mane
• B. Paw: Cat✓
• C. Pace: Foot
• D. Cycle: Rider

Explanation: For these kinds of mcqs , first check the relation of question and then analyse the given options.Like here: Horses have hoovesLions, dogs and cats have paws.Bicycle and rider would not fit in this category.So option B is correct.

Q5. Ship: Doc

• A. Car : Park✓
• B. Wheel: Steer
• C. Horse: Ride
• D. Raft : Float

Explanation: Dock is an area of water in a port where the ships are loaded , unloaded, or repaired.In other word, the ships are parked here. So, car:park is the closest to the given analogy.

Q6. Expedient:

• A. Scapegoat
• B. Heterogeneous
• C. Suitable✓
• D. Apathetic

Explanation: a means of attaining an end, especially one that is convenient but possibly improper or immoral.Applicable means relevant or appropriate.Scapegoat is a person who is blamed for the wrongdoings, mistakes, or faults of others, Heterogeneous means diverse in character or content.The closest word to expedient in the options is suitable.

Q7. Voracious:

• A. Reject
• B. Excitable
• C. Honest
• D. Greedy✓

Explanation: Voracious :wanting or devouring great quantities of food. The synonym for voracious is greedy

Q8. Choose the antonym for word Hamper:

• A. Ogle
• B. Clarify
• C. Assist✓
• D. Uncover

Explanation: means to hold back; hinder; impede: So the antonym for hamper would be assist

Q9. Mark the antonym of word Gaunt:

• A. Rotund
• B. Garish
• C. Nervous
• D. Valiant✓

Explanation: Gaunt means a person lean and haggard, especially because of suffering, hunger, or age. The antonym of gaunt is valiant in the given options.

Q10. Choose the correct antonym for given word; Unwary:

• A. Alert✓
• B. Sad
• C. Angry
• D. Eager

Explanation: Unwary means not cautious of possible dangers or problems. The antonym for unwary is alert in the given options.

Q11. Regarding bacteria:

• A. Cocci are rod - shape
• B. Bacilli are spiral shaped
• C. All contain RNA
• D. None of the these✓

Explanation: Therefore since none of the options are correct , Option D is the answer

Q12. Chlamydomonas:

• A. Is a multicultural alga
• B. Has a single flag I owl
• C. Has no system of water regulation
• D. Has a light sensitive structure✓

Explanation: Chlamydomonas is a single cell green algae that swims with two flagella. It has a cell wall made up of glycoproteins, a large cup shaped chloroplast and an eyespot that senses light.

Q13. Cryptogams:

• A. Are flowering plants
• B. From seeds + fruits
• C. Include conifers + cycads
• D. Include algae✓

Explanation: d) Include algae:Option (d) is accurate. Cryptogams do include algae. Algae are a diverse group of simple, non-flowering plants that can range from microscopic organisms to larger seaweeds. They are included in the category of cryptogams because they reproduce through spores and lack the typical reproductive structures of flowering plants.

Q14. Molluscs have all of the following except:

• A. A well t:eveiooed nervous system
• B. Kidneys
• C. Nostrils tor respiration✓
• D. Circulatory system with a heal

Explanation: Molluscs primarily live in water. Molluscs have gills in their mantle cavity, which are used for respiration to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. Gills are employed by some bivalves for both filter feeding and breathing. Land molluscs have pulmonary sacs or cavities, which are aerial respiration organs.

Q15. Crustacea includes all of the following except:

• A. Crabs
• B. Lobsters
• C. Oysters✓
• D. Crayfish

Explanation: Crustacean is a subphylum of the phylum arthropoda. Approximately 30,000 species make up this subphylum . Most are aquatic . Members include lobsters, crabs, crayfish, shrimps, copepods, barnacles etc. Oysters belong to the phylum Mollusca and class Bivalvia. Other organisms of this class include clams, cockles, mussels and scallops

Q16. The dark reaction of photonynthesis:

• A. Takes place in the strome‘of the chloroplast✓
• B. Involves the fixing of water
• C. Causes formation of lactic acid
• D. Takes place in the cytoplasm

Explanation: Light -independent (Dark) reaction takes place in the stroma of the chloroplast. Light-dependent reaction takes place in the grana of the thylakoid membrane.Fixing of water is a part of light-dependent reaction.Lactic acid is formed during anaerobic respiration in humans.Glycolysis is a reaction which takes place in the cytoplasm.

Q17. The pituitary gland secretes of the following except:

• A. Growth hormone
• B. Calcitonin✓
• C. Prolactin
• D. Oxtytocin

Explanation: The pituitary gland is divided into three lobes. Each lobe releases different hormones.The anterior pituitary gland: this releases Growth hormone(GH) also known as somatotrophic hormone(STH). Other hormones released by the anterior pituitary include Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), Adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH);which acts on the adrenal cortex, Follicle stimulating hormone(FSH), Luteinising hormone(LH)and Prolactin The Median Lobe: This releases Melanocyte stimulating hormone. The posterior lobe: This lobe is not glandular by itself. It does not synthesise any hormone. It stores antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.Calcitonin is released by the Thyroid Gland as a response to excess Ca2+ levels in the blood.

Q18. Thyroid stimulating hormone levels:

• A. Would be raised in a person with hyperthyroidism
• B. Would be high in patients with hypothyroidism✓
• C. Would be low in patient with hypothyroidism
• D. Would be unaffected in hypothyroidis

Explanation: Explanation:Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) triggers your thyroid to release its hormones, which mainly impact your body's metabolism. High TSH levels usually indicate hypothyroidism, and low TSH levels usually indicate hyperthyroidism.

Q19. Gastrulation in a frog's embryo involves all of the following except:

• A. Epiboly
• B. Involution
• C. Rotation✓
• D. Invagination

Explanation: c) Rotation:Option (c) is accurate. Rotation is not typically associated with gastrulation. It's important to note that the term "rotation" might have a specific context or meaning within the scope of a particular embryological study, but in a general sense, it is not commonly considered a part of gastrulation.

Q20. Mesoderm gives rise to:

• A. Lens of the eye
• B. Teeth enamel
• C. Liver
• D. Heart✓

Explanation: d) Heart:Option (d) is accurate. The heart is derived from the mesoderm germ layer. The mesoderm gives rise to various structures, including the cardiovascular system, skeletal muscles, bones, and connective tissues.

Q21. Gaseous exchange in Planaria takes place by means of:

• A. Osmoses
• B. Diffusion✓
• C. Breathing
• D. Aclive transport

Explanation: There are no circulatory or respiratory systems in Planaria; oxygen enters and carbon dioxide leaves the planarian's body by diffusing through the body wall.

Q22. Retina contains light sensitive receptor cells called:

• A. Rods
• B. Cones
• C. Both rods and cones✓
• D. Optic nerves

Explanation: There are 2 types of photoreceptors in the retina: rods and cones. The rods are most sensitive to light and dark changes, shape and movement and contain only one type of light-sensitive pigment. Rods are not good for colour vision.In a dim room, however, we use mainly our rodsThe optic nerve is critical to your vision. It’s an extension of your central nervous system, which includes your brain and spine.The optic nerve transmits electrical impulses from your eyes to your brain. Your brain processes this sensory information so that you can see

Q23. Excretory system of grasshopper consists of:

• A. Nephridia
• B. Flame cells
• C. Malphigian tubules✓
• D. Kidneys

Explanation: Malpighian tubule: Malpighian tubules are the excretory structure of most insects including cockroaches. These tubes are present in most of the insects as for example grasshopper is the most common example.Nephridia: Nephridia are tubular excretory structures present in earthworm and other annelids. Flame cells: They are excretory structures of platyhelminthes.They help in excretion as well as osmoregulation

Q24. Which of the following Cnidarian lives in colonies?

• A. Tapeworm
• B. Obelia✓
• C. Jelly fish
• D. Sea anemone

Explanation: b) Obelia: Obelia is a genus of hydrozoans, which are a type of cnidarian. Hydrozoans like Obelia can indeed live in colonies. These colonies are made up of interconnected polyps, which are individual units with specialized functions. The polyps within an Obelia colony are arranged in a branching pattern and can perform tasks such as feeding, reproduction, and defense collectively.

Q25. The causative agent ot malaria is:

• A. Plasmodium✓
• B. Trypanoserna
• C. Volvox
• D. Entamoeba histolytica

Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. There are 5 parasite species that cause malaria in humans, and 2 of these species – P. falciparum and P. vivax – pose the greatest threat. P. falciparum is the deadliest malaria parasite and the most prevalent on the African continent. P. vivax is the dominant malaria parasite in most countries outside of sub-Saharan Africa

Q26. Earthworms feed on:

• A. Decaying vegetation
• B. Organic matter
• C. Soil
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Earthworms eat soil. Their nutrition comes from things in soil, such as decaying roots and leaves. Animal manures are an important food source for earthworms. They eat living organisms such as nematodes, protozoans, rotifers, bacteria, fungi in soil.Earthworms are decomposers feeding on organic matter, thereby releasing nutrients through digestion and excretion with direct consequences on plant growth

Q27. Planaria feeds through the:

• A. Moult
• B. Pharynx✓
• C. Esophagus
• D. Oral groove

Explanation: They have a mouth underneath (ventrally) out of which they extend a straw-like pharynx. They use this to “suck up food.” Using their muscle tissue, they create a strong sucking action that tears chunks of tissue off of dead animals. Or they can suck a whole tiny live animal into their body. This action brings the food into the gastrovascular cavity that runs the whole length of the body.

Q28. Sugar in stored in the liver as:

• A. Starch
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Maltose
• D. Cellulose

Explanation: Your body mainly stores glycogen in your liver and skeletal muscles (the muscles attached to your bones and tendons), with small amounts in your brain.

Q29. Function of the "tube feet" in Phylum Echinodermata is:

• A. Locomotion
• B. Anchoring to hard surface
• C. Grabbing the prey
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The tube feet in Echinoderms are present along the edges of grooves present in arms. They are used for locomotion , to gain hold on a surface, pass food to the mouth and respiration.Therefore, option D is correct

Q30. What is the main role of vitamin K in the diet of humans?

• A. To participate in the formation of visual purple
• B. To promote the production of blood clotting factors✓
• C. To prevent skin disorders
• D. Deposition of Calcium in the bones

Explanation: Vitamin K helps to make various proteins that are needed for blood clotting and the building of bones. Prothrombin is a vitamin K-dependent protein directly involved with blood clotting. Osteocalcin is another protein that requires vitamin K to produce healthy bone tissue.

Q31. Removal of the thyroid gland in an adult would cause an increase in:

• A. BMR
• B. Conversion of glycogen to glucose
• C. Excretion of Na+ from the kidney
• D. Secretion of TSH✓

Explanation: If your entire thyroid is removed, your body can no longer make thyroid hormone. This will increase the release of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone(TSH) from the pituitary gland.The BMR, conversion of glycogen to glucose and excretion of Na+ from the kidneys would reduce.

Q32. The following is a part of the female reproductive tract:

• A. Vas deferens
• B. Cervix✓
• C. Spermatozoa
• D. Ovary

Explanation: The vas deferens is a part of male reproductive tract. The vas deferens (singular) is also called a ductus deferens or a sperm duct. This long muscular tube runs from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity behind your bladder and connects to your urethra through a structure called the ejaculatory ductNote: The question is asking about the female reproductive tract and not about the female reproductive system.Therefore, Option B is correct.

Q33. The specificrtty.C of enzymes is due to their:

• A. High M.wt
• B. Hydrogen bonding
• C. pH sensitivity
• D. Surface configuration✓

Explanation: Each enzyme has a specific surface configuration with one or more clefts known as active sites to which only certain substrates can bind. Each enzyme is highly specific to the reaction it catalyzes as the substrate must fit precisely into the active site.

Q34. The complementary mRNA for the DNA triplet GAT would read:

• A. CTA
• B. CUA✓
• C. CTG
• D. CTC

Explanation: In mRNA, G pairs with CA pairs with UT pairs with A. Therefore, The triplet GAT will have CUA

Q35. Which of the following is an example of discontinuous variation:

• A. Range of height of pea plants 30-50 cm
• B. Offspring including 2 males and 3 females✓
• C. Pea plants grown in darkness are yellow
• D. Adult human weight ranges from 50-95 kg

Explanation: Discontinuous Variation: variation in phenotypic traits in which types are grouped into discrete categories with few or no intermediate phenotypes.Examples of discontinuous variation include tongue rolling, finger prints, eye colour,blood groups and gender. Continuous Variation:variation in phenotypic traits such as body weight or height in which a series of types are distributed on a continuum rather than grouped into discrete categories.

Q36. The approx. width of a cell membrane is:

• A. 0.001nm
• B. 0.10nm
• C. 1.0 nm
• D. 10nm✓

Explanation: Plasma membranes range from 5 to 10 nm in thickness.Therefore, option D is correct.

Q37. Which of the following is not a part of seed:

• A. Plumule
• B. Pericarp✓
• C. Testa
• D. Cotyledon

Explanation: The fruit wall is known as pericarp.Plumule is the essential part of the seed embryo which further develops into the shoot of the plant.Testa (seed coat): Outer protective layer of the seed, developed from the integuments of the ovule, diploid maternal tissue.Cotyledon refers to the significant part of the embryo found within the seed. It is the first and the tender leaf that emerges when the seed germinates. It is also called the storage unit of a seed, as it provides nutrients to the different parts of an embryo.

Q38. Amoeba causes:

• A. Dysenter✓
• B. Malaria
• C. Sleeping sickness
• D. Gangrene

Explanation: A:Dysentery is an infection of the intestines that causes diarrhoea containing blood or mucus. Some of the most common bacteria that cause dysentery include Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter and Escherichia coli (E. coli).Amebic dysentery is a severe form of amebiasis associated with stomach pain, bloody stools and fever.

Q39. An action potential in a muscle fiber causes the release of calcium ions from.

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin
• C. Sarcolemma
• D. Sarcoplasmic rectioulum✓

Explanation: Sarcoplasmic Reticulum surrounds each myofibril and stores calcium ions when the muscle is at rest. It releases calcium ions when depolarisation reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the T-tubule system.

Q40. All of the following are examples of fungi expect :

• A. Yeast
• B. Mushroom
• C. Moulds
• D. Vodicella✓

Explanation: Fungi Moulds and mushrooms are all examples of fungi.Vorticella is a protozoa (protist) that belongs to the phylum Ciliophora

Q41. Ruther ford discovered that the nucleus of an atom has_charge.

• A. No
• B. Negative
• C. Positive✓
• D. Very less

Explanation: c) Positive: This is the correct answer. Rutherford's famous gold foil experiment demonstrated that the nucleus of an atom is positively charged. He proposed the idea that the atom consists of a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at its center, around which negatively charged electrons orbit.

Q42. How many grams of NaCI are required to completely neutralize 100 ml of 1 M of H2SO4

• A. 80 grams
• B. 40 grams
• C. 24 grams
• D. 8 grams✓

Explanation: Problem: NaCl is a salt which does not neutralise acid.Changes: Either make the above statement an option. ORChange NaCl to NaOH in the questionExplanation: The equation for the reaction between NaOH and H2SO4 will be2NaOH + H2SO4 ======> Na2SO4 + 2H2OThe concentration of H2SO4 is 1M and its volume is 100ml (0.1l)So the moles of H2SO4 are n=cv n=1x0.1=0.1According to the equation the mole ratio of NaOH:H2SO4 is 2:1Therefore the moles of NaOH are 0.1x2=0.2The formula for calculating mass is moles x MrSo, 0.2 x 40 = 8 grams.

Q43. Cyclo Hexane has the formula:

• A. C6H14
• B. C6H12✓
• C. C6H16
• D. C6H6

Explanation: Hexane ( is an organic compound, a straight-chain alkane with six carbon atoms and has the molecular formula C6H14.Cyclohexane is a cycloalkane with the molecular formula C6H12. Cyclohexane is non-polar. Cyclohexane is a colorless, flammable liquid with a distinctive detergent-like odorBenzene is an organic chemical compound with the molecular formula C₆H₆. The benzene molecule is composed of six carbon atoms joined in a planar ring with one hydrogen atom attached to each.

Q44. In H2C_CH2 the molecule contains:

• A. 4 sigma — 2 pi Bonds
• B. 2 sigma — 4 pi Bonds
• C. 5 sigma — 1 pi Bonds✓
• D. 6 sigma Bonds

Explanation: he double bond between c=c has one sigma and one pi bond.The C-H bond has sigma bond. Since there are four C-H bonds therefore forue sigma bonds .In total there are five sigma bonds and one pi bond

Q45. What is the general formula of Ester?

• A. R-COO-R✓
• B. R-CHO
• C. -OH
• D. RX

Explanation: a) R-COO-R: This is the correct general formula for an ester. Esters are organic compounds formed by the reaction between a carboxylic acid (R-COOH) and an alcohol (R-OH). The general structure of an ester is R-COO-R', where R and R' represent alkyl or aryl groups.

Q46. The element is families of the periodic table classified as:

• A. S- block element
• B. P — block element
• C. d- block element
• D. d and f block elements
• E. All of the above✓

Explanation: Option E should be all of the above options are correct.Explanation: The elements in families of periodic table are classified as s,p, d and f block elements.

Q47. Al2 O3, 2H2O is called:

• A. Bauxite✓
• B. Gyolele
• C. Alum stone
• D. Alonit

Explanation: Option A bauxite ore (Al2O3. 2H2O). Bauxite is a sedimentary rock with a relatively high aluminium content. It is the world's main source of aluminium and gallium.

Q48. What is the boiling point of HNO3?

• A. 86°C✓
• B. 40°C
• C. 76°C
• D. 66°C

Explanation: Nitric acid, (HNO3), colourless, fuming, and highly corrosive liquid (freezing point −42 °C [−44 °F], boiling point 83 °C [181 °F]) that is a common laboratory reagent and an important industrial chemical for the manufacture of fertilizers and explosives.

Q49. The mole of Ethanol and one mole of Ethane have an equal:

• A. Mass
• B. Number of atoms
• C. Number of electrons
• D. Number of molecule✓

Explanation: One mole of ethanol and one mole of ethanolhave an equal number of molecules that is 6.022 × 10^23 molecules.

Q50. Alkenes undergo:

• A. Electrophilic Addition✓
• B. Electrophilic substitution
• C. Nucleophilic substitution
• D. Nucleophilic addition

Explanation: Alkenes have a pi bond between carbon atoms, which is an area of electron density i.e. a region of great negative charge, which attracts positively charged species, i.e. electrophiles, which add across the double bond without the removal of any atom/group of atoms. Hence, alkenes undergo electrophilic addition, option A. The remaining options describe reactions that are undergone by other organic compounds. Option B, electrophilic substitution is undergone by benzene. Option C, nucleophilic substitution is undergone by alkyl halides. Option D, nucleophilic addition is undergone by aldehydes and ketones.

Q51. During the electrolysis of water, hydrogen gas is liberated at:

• A. Anode
• B. Cathode✓
• C. Diode
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Electrolysis of water, also known as electrochemical water splitting, is the process of using electricity to decompose water into oxygen and hydrogen gas by electrolysis. Hydrogen gas released in this way can be used as hydrogen fuel.In pure water at the negatively charged cathode, a reduction reaction takes place, with electrons (e−) from the cathode being given to hydrogen cations to form hydrogen gas. The half reaction, balanced with acid, is:Reduction at cathode:2H+(aq) + 2e− → H2(g)At the positively charged anode, an oxidation reaction occurs, generating oxygen gas and giving electrons to the anode to complete the circuit:Oxidation at anode: 2 H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4e−

Q52. An example of covalent hydride is:

• A. NaH
• B. CaH2
• C. SrH2
• D. AsH3✓

Explanation: d) AsH3: This option is the correct answer. AsH3 is arsine, which is an example of a covalent hydride. It consists of a central arsenic (As) atom bonded to three hydrogen (H) atoms through covalent bonds. The sharing of electrons between the arsenic and hydrogen atoms forms covalent bonds, making AsH3 a covalent hydride.

Q53. In an equilibrium Ks.p is expressed as: BaSO4 Ba+2e+SO4

• A. ks.p = [BaSO4]
• B. Ks p=[Ba+2][SO4-2] /[BaSO4]
• C. ks.p = [Ba+2( SO4-2)✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Ksp is a constant known as the solubility product constant. It is defined as the product of the equilibrium concentration of ions, each raised to a power which the coefficient of the ion in the balance chemical equation (FTB)In general, Ksp expression of a slightly soluble ionic compound AmBn can be written asAmBn(s)<=========> mA+n + nB-mKsp=[A+n]^m x [B-m]^nTherefore the expression for ksp will be ksp=[Be2+] x [SO4-2].

Q54. The pH of a solution contains 10-4 M{H+}

• A. 4✓
• B. 3
• C. -3
• D. 0

Explanation: Explanation: pH = −log [H+] , where [H+] denotes the molar hydrogen ion pH=-log[10^-4]=4

Q55. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transferred and transformed) This is known as:

• A. Law of conservation of energy✓
• B. Law of conservation of mass
• C. Law of conservation of Momentum
• D. Hess's Law

Explanation: The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed - only converted from one form of energy to another.

Q56. At what temperature standard enthalpy changes are measured?

• A. 298k✓
• B. 273k
• C. 293oC
• D. 298oF

Explanation: Standard state for an element or a compound is the most stable physical state at 1 atm and 298K (25C) (FTB)

Q57. Rb is an element similar to potassium which can show the decompotiton of Rubidium nitride.

• A. a
• B. b
• C. c✓
• D. d

Explanation: Explanation: The equation for the decomposition of rudibium nitride is: 2RbNO3 → 2RbNO2 + O2The equation for decomposition of potassium nitride is 2KNO3→2KNO2+O2

Q58. The wavelength of radiations emited in Balmer series is:

• A. Between 4000 A° to 8000 A°✓
• B. 10.000--18000A°
• C. less than 8000A°
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The emissions in Balmer series lie in the visible region of the EMR.Since visible light has the shortest wavelength at 4000A and highest wavelength at 7000A therefore option A is the most suitable.

Q59. Fedriel craft reaction classified as:

• A. Halogenations and Hydrogenation
• B. Alkylation and Atcytaton✓
• C. Hydrogenation and Halogenations
• D. Nitration

Explanation: Explanation: A Friedel-Crafts reaction is an organic coupling reaction involving an electrophilic aromatic substitution that is used for the attachment of substituents to aromatic rings. The two primary types of Friedel-Crafts reactions are the alkylation and acylation reactions.Hydrogenation: Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction between molecular hydrogen (H2) and another compound or element, usually in the presence of a catalyst such as nickel, palladium or platinum. The process is commonly employed to reduce or saturate organic compounds.Halogenation:Halogenation is a reaction that occurs when one or more halogens are added to a substance.Nitration: It is a chemical process for the introduction of a nitro group into an organic compound.

Q60. The formula for Sandhur is:

• A. Pb3 (OH2) .(CO3)2
• B. PbO4
• C. PbO
• D. Pb3O4✓

Explanation: Sandhur is the red colored compound of lead. It is used to prepare paints of different shaded ranging from orange red to brick red.The chemical formula for this compound is Pb3O4 and the chemical name for this compound is triplumbic tetraoxide.This compound is insoluble in water but is soluble in acids.

Q61. The atoms of the same elements, which have the same atomic number but different mass number are called:

• A. Isobars
• B. Actanids
• C. Allotrops
• D. Isotopes✓

Explanation: Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.

Q62. In haber process N2+3H2_2NH3 increasing the pressure favors.

• A. The forward reaction✓
• B. Reverse reaction
• C. Neither reaction
• D. All of the above

Explanation: a) The forward reaction: This option is correct. In the Haber process, nitrogen (N2) and hydrogen (H2) react to form ammonia (NH3). Increasing the pressure favors the forward reaction, which means more ammonia will be produced from the reactants.

Q63. Ks.p is called:

• A. Solubility product✓
• B. Concentration
• C. Equilibrium
• D. Constant concentration

Explanation: Explanation: Ksp is called solubility product.The solubility product constant is the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of a solid substance into an aqueous solution.

Q64. Thermodynamics is the study of heat energy and_energy relationship.

• A. Energy of activation
• B. Kinetic energy
• C. Chemical✓
• D. Ionization

Explanation: Explanation: Generally,thermodynamics is the study of relation between heat energy and other forms of energy. But in chemistry ,in thermodynamics we study the relation between heat energy and chemical energy.Therefore Option C is correct.

Q65. The law of conservation of energy is also called:

• A. Second law of Thermodynamics
• B. First law of Thermodynamics✓
• C. 3rd law of Thermodynamics
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics states that “ Energy can neither be created nor destroyed OR the total energy of the system and surrounding remains constant.”The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that the state of entropy of the entire universe, as an isolated system, will always increase over time.The third law of thermodynamics states, “The entropy of a system approaches a constant value when its temperature approaches absolute zero.”Therefore , THe law of conservation of energy is also called the first law of thermodynamics

Q66. Rb is an element in the same group of Li and Na) Which one is true about Rb:

• A. Reacts slowly with H2O
• B. Forms an insoluble hydroxide
• C. It is liberated at Cathode during the electrolysis of its salt in aqueous.
• D. Forms a sulphate Rb2SO4✓

Explanation: Rb(s) + H2SO4(aq) ======> Rb2SO4(s) + H2(g)

Q67. Which statement concerning energy change is false?

• A. Electrical energy is produced by the reaction in a battery
• B. Light energy is absorbed during photosynthesis
• C. Light energy is produced when Methane burns in Oxygen✓
• D. Heat energy is liberated when Sodium reacts with water.

Explanation: The false statement concerning energy change is: C. Light energy is produced when Methane burns in Oxygen. When methane (CH4) burns in oxygen (O2), the primary forms of energy released are heat energy and, to a lesser extent, light energy. Therefore, statement C is false.

Q68. Electrolysis of dil.H2SO4 gives.

• A. H2 SO2
• B. H2 O2✓
• C. O2 H2
• D. SO2 H2

Explanation: Explanation: Dilute sulfuric acid contains water. The ions present in this mixture are H + and OH - (from the water) and H + and SO 4 2- from the sulfuric acid. The H + ions are attracted to the cathode and the two negative ions are attracted to the anode but it is the OH - ion which loses electrons.The equation at cathode and anode are:Cathode (reduction):2 H2O(l) + 2e−→H2(g) + 2 OH−(aq)Anode (oxidation):2 OH−(aq)→1/2 O2(g) + H2O(l) + 2 e−

Q69. Carbohydrates contains;

• A. C and H only
• B. C1Hand H only
• C. C1H2O only✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Explanation: The general formula of carbohydrates is Cx(H2O)y

Q70. An oxide of titanium contains 60% Ti. What is its empirical formula for this oxide?

• A. TiO
• B. Ti2O3
• C. TiO2✓
• D. Ti2O6

Explanation: Explanation:Percentage of Ti = 60%Percentage of O = (100 - 60) = 40%No of moles of titanium = 60/ 48 = 1.25 moles No of moles of Oxygen = 40 / 16 = 2.5 molesThe ratio of number of moles of Ti and O = 1.25 : 2.5 = 1: 2 Then the empirical formula of the compound is TiO2

Q71. If the distance between two charged bodies is doubled and the charge is also doubled the interaction force will be:

• A. Half
• B. Four times
• C. Unchanged✓
• D. Doubled

Explanation: The electrostatic force is directly proportional to the product of the two charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two charges.As the charge is doubled, the force will be quadrupled. As the radius is doubled, the force will be divided by four according to the inverse square law.So overall the force will remain unchanged.

Q72. Capacitance of a capacitor depends upon:

• A. Distance between the plates
• B. Area of the plates
• C. Dielectric used between the plates
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Explanation:C = εA/d,In this equation, C is capacitance; ε is permittivity, a term for how well dielectric material stores an electric field; A is the parallel plate area; and d is the distance between the two conductive plates.

Q73. If a radio and a bulb each of resistance 3ohm are connected In series to a 12 volts battery, the potential difference across each will be:

• A. 3V
• B. 6V✓
• C. 12V
• D. 9V

Explanation: Explanation:Resistance of radio = r1 = 3ohm Resistance of bulb = r2 = 3 ohmTotal resistance in the circuit = r1 + r2 =3 +3 = 6 ohm Apply ohm law,V = IR Voltage of battery is 12 V I = V / R 12 / 6 = 2 A The potential difference across radio and bulb Is : V= I R 3 × 2 = 6 V

Q74. Choose the relation which is not correct:

• A. Ampere = coulomb per second
• B. Volt = coulomb per joule✓
• C. Ohm = Volt per ampere
• D. 1 coulomb = charge of 6.24 x 1018 electrons

Explanation: V=Work done/Charge Volt= Joule/Coulomb

Q75. A particle of charge 'q' and mass 'm' moving with a velocity 'v' enters perpoldicularly in a uniform magnetic field 'B' describes a circular path. What will be the raditis of that path?

• A. mv/Bq✓
• B. mqv/B
• C. mvB/q
• D. mqB/v

Explanation: Explanation: When a particle of charge q of mass m is directed to move perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field ′ B ′ with velocity V The force on the charge F =q( v× B )This magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of a charged particle. Hence magnitude of velocity remains constant but direction charges continuously.Consequently the path of the charged particle in a perpendicular magnetic field becomes circular. The magnetic force (qvB) provides the necessary centripetal force to move along a circular path. Then, qvB= mv(square) / r ⇒ r= mv/ qB​Here r= radius of the circular path followed by the charge.

Q76. Light of wavelength 15x10-7 m consists of photons whose energy is;

• A. 1.7x10-15J
• B. 1.32x10-19J✓
• C. 1.1x10-27J
• D. 1.1x10-48J

Explanation: The correct answer is 1.326x10^-19.Changes: making option B 1.326x10^-19 Explanation: As , E = hv E = hc / lamda E= (6.63X10^-34) (3.0x10^8)/(15x10^-7)

Q77. The electrons structures if atoms are not involved in it 9 erassion of:

• A. Spectral lines
• B. Photoelecrons
• C. Gamma rays✓
• D. X-rays

Explanation: Explanation: Gamma rays are rays that arise from gamma decay, a type of radioactive decay. Often, after another decay, the nucleus is still unstable and it gives off energy in the form of gamma rays to stabilize itself. Hence, gamma rays have nothing to do with the electron structure, only with the nucleus of the atom.X-rays are the product of accelerating electrons, hence only specific atoms can emit a specific energy of X-rays; similarly for the photoelectric phenomenon, the energy which is needed for photoelectrons to be created depends on the electron structure of the atom (in both cases, it is important to see how strong the bond between electron and atom is).Finally, spectral lines differ depending on the electron structure of the atoms since electrons with different energies absorb different frequencies of light.

Q78. When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from a higher orbit to the fifth orbit, the set of lines emitted are called:

• A. Bracket series
• B. Paschen series
• C. Lyman series
• D. Pfund series✓

Explanation: d) Pfund series: This option is correct. The Pfund series is a set of spectral lines emitted when an electron transitions to the fifth energy level (n = 5) from higher energy levels in a hydrogen atom. These transitions involve higher energy levels and result in shorter wavelength infrared lines.

Q79. Why gamma radiations are used to kill bacteria to sterilize surgical equipment etc:

• A. Because they are chargeless
• B. Because they have no mass
• C. Because of its penetration
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Explanation: Gamma radiation are used to kill bacteria to sterilise surgical equipments because they are chargeless ,have no mass, and have high penetration power.Shielding this very penetrating type of ionising radiation requires thick, dense material such as several inches of lead or concrete. Gamma radiation kills bacteria by breaking down bacterial DNA, inhibiting bacterial division. Energy of gamma rays passes through the equipment, disrupting the pathogens that cause contamination. These changes at the molecular level cause the death of contaminating organisms or render such organisms incapable of reproduction. The gamma irradiation process does not create residuals or impart radioactivity in the processed items. Complete penetration can be achieved depending on the thickness of the material.

Q80. The name of the most useful tracer is:

• A. Na-34
• B. 1-31
• C. C-14✓
• D. O-12

Explanation: The isotope also is used as a tracer in following the course of particular carbon atoms through chemical or biological transformations.In carbon-14 dating, measurements of the amount of carbon-14 present in an archaeological specimen, such as a tree, are used to estimate the specimen’s age.

Q81. A wire of uniform cross-sectional area has a length of 10m, a resistance of 2 ohm and resisitivity 2x10-7ohm-cm. The cross-sectional area in m2 Is:

• A. 2x10-4
• B. 1x10-5
• C. 0.5x10-5
• D. 1x10-8✓

Explanation: Explanation: Resistance = ρ L/AResistance= 2 OhmResistivity= 2x10^-7 Ohm.cm = 2x10^-9 ohm-mLength= 10mA = ρ L/R A = 2x10^-9 x 10/ 2A= 10 x 10-9A = 1 x 10-8 m2

Q82. The power of a load is one watt if:

• A. 1 ampere current flows through a conductor when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied✓
• B. 0.1 ampere current flows when a potential difference of 0.1 volt is applied
• C. 1 ampere current flows when a potential difference of 10 volt is applied
• D. 10 ampere current flows when a potential difference of 10 volt is applied

Explanation: The power of load is one watt if one ampere of current flows through a conductor, when potential difference of one volt is applied.

Q83. If the rate of cost is Rs. 2 per kWh then a 500 W kettle operating for 30 minutes will cost

• A. Rs 0.50✓
• B. Rs 0.075
• C. Rs 0.1
• D. 1.50

Explanation: Power= 500 WTime ½ hrTotal units = 500 x 1/2 = 250 watt hour = 0.25 kWHHence total cost = 0.25 x 2 = 0.50 Rs

Q84. An AC voltage measures V° volts in a circuit. Its peak value is given by:

• A. Vo
• B. Vo/2✓
• C. 2/Vo
• D. 2

Explanation: b) Vo/2: This option is correct. The peak value of an AC voltage is typically given by V° divided by the square root of 2 (approximately 1.414). Mathematically, the peak value (V_peak) is related to the RMS value (V_RMS) by the equation V_peak = V_RMS × √2. Therefore, the peak value of the AC voltage in this context would be V°/√2, which is equivalent to Vo/2.

Q85. A stationary photon has mass:

• A. 1.67252x10-27kg
• B. 9.1x10-31kg
• C. Infinite
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: 1.67x10^-27 is the rest mass of a proton.9.1x10^-31 is the rest mass of an electron.A stationary photon has zero mass

Q86. A battery of 5 volts is connected to two resistors of 3ohm and 2ohm joined together in series. Find the current flowing through the circuit?

• A. 12A
• B. 1.2A✓
• C. 36A
• D. 150A

Explanation: Explanation: R 1 =2Ω R 2 =3Ω R=R 1 +R 2​ =2+3=5Ω V=6VI= V/ R ​ = 6 / 5​ =1.2A

Q87. An electric kettle of 1000 watts boils a certain quantity of Hater in 8 minutes. How much heat has been generated for boiling?

• A. 4000J
• B. 480000J✓
• C. 4800J
• D. 500J

Explanation: The rated power is: P=1000W The time involved is: t=8min(or 480sec) Heat generated = P×t = 1000 × 480 = 480000J

Q88. The current passes through all the resistors combined in series should be_.

• A. Same✓
• B. The sum of the current passes from each resistors
• C. Potential difference over the value of equivalent resistance
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: The current through the circuit is the same for each resistor in a series circuit and is equal to the applied voltage divided by the equivalent resistance.The current through each resistor is added when the resistors are combined in parallel

Q89. The red line of the balmer series originates in a transition between levels having quantum numbers:

• A. 2 and 1
• B. 3 and 1
• C. 3 and 2✓
• D. a and 1

Explanation: The red H-alpha spectral line of the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen, is a result of the transition from the shell n = 3 to the shell n = 2,

Q90. Solid state detector basically is:

• A. A PNP transistor
• B. A NPN transistor
• C. a PN-Junction diode✓
• D. A light emitting diode

Explanation: c) A PN-Junction diode: This option is correct. A PN-junction diode is a type of solid-state semiconductor device that conducts current in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. When exposed to radiation or light, certain PN-junction diodes can generate electrical signals or currents, making them suitable for use as solid-state detectors.

Q91. Wichelson's interferometer is usually used to determine the:

• A. Wavelength of light✓
• B. Velocity of light
• C. Frequency of light
• D. Dispersion of light

Explanation: Michelson’s interferometer is used to measure the wavelength of light.The Fizeau–Foucault apparatus is either of two types of instrument historically used to measure the speed of light.A spectrometer is a scientific instrument that is used to separate and measure spectral components of dispersion. It is an optical device for measuring wavelengths, deviation of refracted rays, and angles between faces of a prism.

Q92. How is the image formed by a convex lens affected if the upper half of the lens is covered with a paper?

• A. The brightness of the image is reduced✓
• B. The upper half of the image is cut off
• C. The size of the image becomes one half
• D. No effect at all

Explanation: If the upper half of the lens is wrapped with a paper the brightness of the image is reduced because now less amount of light rays will go through the lens and will participate in making of image. So option A is correct.

Q93. A.convex lens gives a virtual image only when the object is placed:

• A. Between focus and centre of curvature
• B. Between focus and Optical center✓
• C. Beyond 2f
• D. Between f and 2f

Explanation: A convex lens forms a virtual image of an object when the object is placed between optical centre and focus.

Q94. If the pressure is increased, the melting point of ice:

• A. Decrease✓
• B. Increase
• C. Remain unchanged
• D. None of the above

Explanation: According to Boyle’s law PV=constant, where P is pressure and V is volume so P is inversely proportional to V. When pressure increases, volume decreases.The melting point of ice decreases when pressure increase because when pressure is increased , the volume decreases and the volume of water is less than ice. So it will be easier to change state from solid to liquid and therefore, the melting point decreases

Q95. The process in which the pressure of system remains constant is called:

• A. Isothermal process
• B. Isochoric process
• C. Isobaric process✓
• D. Adiabatic process

Explanation: An isobaric process is a process occurring at constant pressure.

Q96. Under adiabatic compression the increase in temperature of a gas is proportional to:

• A. The pressure to which the gas is compressed
• B. Ratio of the two specific heats
• C. Universal gas constant
• D. Work done on the gas✓

Explanation: An adiabatic process is the one in which no heat enters or leaves the system. Therefore, ∆Q =0 and the first law of thermodynamics gives w= -∆u.Thus if the gas expands and does external work, it is done at the expense of internal energy of its molecules and hence, the temperature of the gas falls.Conversely an adiabatic compression causes the temperature of the gas to rise because of the work done on the gas.Therefore, under adiabatic compression, the increase in temperature is directly proportional to the work done on the gas.

Q97. A 50 mh coil carries a current of 2 amp.The energy stored in its magnetic field is;

• A. 0.05J
• B. 0.1J✓
• C. 10J
• D. 100J

Explanation: Energy stored in an inductor is given by E = ½ × L × I² Where L is the inductance and I is the current.By substituting the values given in the question in the formula we getE=½ (50x10^-3)(2)^2We get 0.1J

Q98. In amplitude modulation the waves that superimpose on electromagnetic waves are:

• A. Water waves
• B. Sound waves
• C. Light waves✓
• D. Material waves

Explanation: It is because superimposition of waves are those waves which travel in same direction in same time. Such waves pass through a medium without any disturbance.Light wave is a continuous wave and they have finite length and it can pass through a medium without getting disturbed.Light waves are electromagnetic waves which travel through space and they are visible form of lights which can be seen by human eyes.

Q99. Quality of X-rays depends upon:

• A. Current of filament
• B. Accelerating voltage✓
• C. Material of the target
• D. Both accelerating voltage and material of the target

Explanation: The quality of X-rays is measured in terms of their penetrating power which is dependent on the potential difference between filamentary cathode and the anode. Greater this accelerating voltage higher the speed of the striking electrons and consequently more penetrating the X-rays produced

Q100. According to Bohes theory of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of electron in an allowed orbit Is:

• A. nh/x
• B. nh/2x✓
• C. n/2xh
• D. 2xh/n

Explanation: In the year 1913, Niels Bohr proposed an atomic structure model, describing an atom as a small, positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons that travel in circular orbits around the positively charged nucleus with attraction provided by electrostatic forces, popularly known as Bohr’s atomic According to Bohr’s atomic model, the angular momentum of electrons orbiting around the nucleus is quantized. He further added that electrons move only in those orbits where the angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple of h/2.The angular momentum of an electron by Bohr is given by mvr or nh/2π (where v is the velocity, n is the orbit in which electron is revolving, m is mass of the electron, and r is the radius of the nth orbit).