Sindh Mcat Nts 2001 Iba — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Because of the and prolonged nature of the water must be carefuly conserved and rationed.

• A. Arid, Reservoir
• B. Dire. Forecast
• C. Severe, Drought✓
• D. Negligent. Emergency
• E. Miserly Supply

Explanation: For this type of question..u have to read sentences ur mind and find which sounds more appropriate like a supply of water is most appropriate u should choose it.

Q2. Generally, fund raising parties are quite labor intensive and not very cost effective her words putting in a great deal of _ doesn't mean you will _ a great ideal of income:

• A. Restraint obtain
• B. Effort generate✓
• C. Successful resistance
• D. Challenged discussion
• E. Futile. Co-operation

Explanation: OPTION A; Restrain means to prohibit means u stop something or someone Obtain means u found or get something. It doesn't suit the subject of the sentence. OPTION B; Generally, fundraising parties are quite labor-intensive and not very cost-effective, in other words putting in a great deal of effort doesn’t mean you will generate a great deal of income. In options C, D, and E the second term doesn’t fit well with the following phrase Option B is the most suitable because income being generated is the most suitable phrase.

Q3. Writer: Novelist

• A. Scientist astronomer✓
• B. Teacher student
• C. Physician. patient
• D. Poet. searcher
• E. Worker: Exertion

Explanation: As writers write a novels so we choose that option that is most appropriate Writer: Novelist Scientist: Astronomer A writer is a general term for a person who writes stories, news, essays, novels, criticism, letters, and everything. A Novelist is a term that is specified to a person who writes Novels and Publishes them. So essentially, every novelist is a writer also. Similarly, every astronomer is a scientist also, just that he is a scientist in the field of astronomy who focuses their studies on a specific question or field outside the scope of Earth. Other options are incorrect because the two professions in each option aren’t related at all.

Q4. Cow: CalfIf there is an error select the one underlined part that must by changed to make the sentence correct.

• A. Hog: Pork
• B. Horse: Mule
• C. Sheep: Lamb✓
• D. Tiger: Stripe
• E. Ram: Ewe

Explanation: As u know cow and after this the word is calf which means a young domestic cow Answer: Cow: Calf Sheep: Lamb A baby cow is called a calf. Similarly, a baby sheep is called a lamb. Other options are incorrect because the two animals in each option aren’t related at all.

Q5. Everyone of the shops in the town were closed A on Tuesday because B of the ten-inch C rainfal that had fallen D during the day. E

• A. Were closed✓
• B. Because
• C. ten-inch
• D. had fallen
• E. No Error

Explanation: Where there is everyone..either neither, etc … u should go for the singular verb…it does not matter whether the subject is singular or plural we should choose the singular verb Like In this sentence we should choose was closed instead of were closed this is the error. Everyone is singular that’s why we’ll write that “Every one of the shops was closed”. This would be the correction for the statement.

Q6. Find the errorRaising living costs together with escalating taxes, have proved to be a burden for everyone.

• A. Costs
• B. Together
• C. With
• D. Have✓
• E. No error in sentence

Explanation: The sentence has an error in subject-verb agreement. The main subject 'raising living costs' is linked to another noun phrase 'escalating taxes' by 'together with', but the verb should agree with the main subject only. 'Raising living costs' is plural, so 'have' is correct. The correct identification of the error is in the use of 'have'.

Q7. He is not asking questions:

• A. Not asking questions he is
• B. Questions are not asked by him
• C. Questions are not being asked by him✓
• D. Not asking questions is what he is doing

Explanation: The phrase He is not asking questions is an example to a present continuous tense, and the correct change of voice will be Questions are not being asked by him, options A and B are grammatically incorrect and option D has redundancy that makes it excessively long and does not contribute to the phrase.

Q8. Were the crimes confessed by the criminals?

• A. Was the confession by the criminal made?
• B. Were the crimes committed confessed by the criminals?
• C. Were the criminals confessing to the crimes?
• D. Did the criminals confess to the crimes?✓

Explanation: The correct change of voice will be doing the criminals confess to the crimes because in options A and C, the tense of the phrase is changing and option B contains redundancy that makes the phrase longer.

Q9. Aneela Said, "Shahana is not doing her work properly".Convert to Indirect Speech

• A. Aneela say that Shahana dia ot do her work properly.
• B. Aneela said that Shahana was not doing her work properly.✓
• C. Shahana did not do her work properly was said by Aneela.
• D. She is not doing her work properly is what Aneela said about Shahana.

Explanation: According to the rules of converting a direct speech into indirect speech; if the reported speech has a past verb e.g., "said" in the given sentence, the reporting speech should also be change to past tense. Also we place "that" before the reporting speech. The remaining sentence remains same. Since, in options C and D, the order of sentence is changed; therefore, they are incorrect. The option A is incorrect because of spelling mistakes.

Q10. Fahad said, "All that glitters is not gold".

• A. Fahad said that all that glitters is not gold.✓
• B. All that glitters is not gold is said by Fahad.
• C. Fahad says that all that glitters is not gold
• D. Fahad is saying for all that glitters is not gold

Explanation: When the reported clause of a direct speech is a universal truth or any historical event or habitual action, then the tense of the indirect speech doesn’t change, no matter in whatever tense the reporting verb is.

Q11. Lacteals of Villi absorb:

• A. Amino acids
• B. Glucose
• C. HCL
• D. Fatty acids✓

Explanation: (Right answer): A lacteal is a lymphatic capillary that is located in the villi of the small intestine. The function of the lacteal in the small intestine: During the process of digestion, the lacteals absorb large molecules of fats and lipids from the small intestine which gives them a milky-white appearance. The products namely long-chain fatty acids, monoglycerides, and diglycerides are insoluble in water and cannot be directly absorbed from the intestinal contents. They combine with the bile salts and phospholipids to form small, spherical, water-soluble molecular aggregates called micelles. From the micelles, fatty acids, glycerides, and fat-soluble vitamins are actively absorbed into the intestinal cells. In these cells, the bile salts are freed and fatty acids, glycerol, monoglycerides, and diglycerides are resynthesized into triglycerides which are then mixed with cholesterol and absorbed by lacteal.

Q12. Microtubules perform all of the functions except:

• A. Transport of molecules
• B. Movement of cilia and flagella
• C. Movement of chromosomes
• D. Protein synthesis✓

Explanation: Ribosomes are the sites in a cell in which protein synthesis takes place. Explanation: Microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton, a structural network within the cell's cytoplasm. The roles of the microtubule cytoskeleton include mechanical support, organization of the cytoplasm, transport, motility, and chromosome segregation but not protein synthesis

Q13. Which of the following is correct ?

• A. Glucose + fructose = maltose
• B. Glucose + galactose = sucrose
• C. Glucose + glucose = maltose✓
• D. Glucose + glucose = sucrose

Explanation: There are 3 disaccharides:1)Maltose (glucose + glucose) The two-unit of glucose are linked with an alpha 1,4 glycosidic bond. 2)Sucrose (glucose + fructose) Sucrose is composed of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose, α-d-glucopyranosyl-d-fructofuranoside. 3)Lactose (glucose + galactose) Lactose is formed by beta 1-4 condensation of two hexose molecules.

Q14. Pepsin and trypsin:

• A. Are both secreted with acidic digestive juices
• B. Are both secreted by the pancreas
• C. Breakdown proteins to amino acids
• D. Are specific enzymes breaking proteins into peptide and polypeptide chains✓

Explanation: Pepsin and trypsin are both essential enzymes involved in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted in the stomach as an inactive precursor (pepsinogen) and is activated by the acidic environment of gastric juices, allowing it to break down proteins into smaller peptides. On the other hand, trypsin is secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine in a neutral form (trypsinogen) and becomes active in the alkaline environment of the intestine. While both enzymes contribute to protein digestion, they do so at different stages and conditions of the digestive process. Option A is incorrect because only pepsin is secreted with acidic digestive juices. Option B is incorrect because trypsin is the only one secreted by the pancreas. Option C is misleading since it implies that both enzymes directly break proteins down to amino acids, whereas they initially convert proteins into peptides and polypeptides.

Q15. Vitamins K:

• A. Is mostly found in green vegetables
• B. Deficiency causes pellagra
• C. Promote production of blood clotting factors✓
• D. Prevent night blindness

Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are the best dietary source of vitamin K. The most common foods with high vitamin K are green leafy vegetables such as kale, collard greens, broccoli, spinach, and cabbage. Pellagra is caused by having too little niacin or tryptophan in the diet. It can also occur if the body fails to absorb these nutrients. It is generally vit-B3 deficiency. Vitamin K helps to make various proteins that are needed for blood clotting and the building of bones. Prothrombin is a vitamin K-dependent protein directly involved with blood clotting. Vitamin A deficiency is a common cause of night blindness and can be treated with vitamin A supplements. As your vitamin A levels regulate, your night vision should return to normal.

Q16. Regarding the respiratory system in humans:

• A. Trachea is completely surrounded by rings of cartilage
• B. Trachea divides into 3 bronchi
• C. Vocal cords lie in larynx✓
• D. Lungs are rigid structure with little elasticity

Explanation: The trachea is surrounded by 16–20 rings of hyaline cartilage; these 'rings' are 4 millimeters high in the adult, incomplete and C-shaped. the trachea divides into two tubes (left and right) called bronchi. The bronchi connect the trachea to the lungs. ( Right answer) The vocal cords (also called vocal folds) are two bands of smooth muscle tissue found in the larynx (voice box). The lungs contain elastic tissue so they can inflate and deflate easily. They're covered by a thin lining called the pleura. The vocal folds, also known as vocal cords, are located within the larynx (also colloquially known as the voice box) at the top of the trachea. They are open during inhalation and come together to close during swallowing and phonation.

Q17. Function of oxygen in cellular respiration is:

• A. To combine with hydrogen from organic molecules to form Carbon Dioxide
• B. To combine with Carbon from organic molecule to form Carbon Dioxide
• C. To oxidize ADP to ATP
• D. To combine with glucose to form Carbon Dioxide✓

Explanation: Explanation: In cellular respiration, oxygen acts as a last electron acceptor, facilitating electron migration down a chain and resulting in the creation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Water is created by the reaction of oxygen with electrons and hydrogen ions. Glucose + Oxygen = Water + Carbon Dioxide + ATP As a result, it's vital.

Q18. Which of the following increases the rate of respiration more efficiently?

• A. Lack of oxygen in alveoli
• B. Excess of carbon dioxide in the blood✓
• C. Excess of carbon dioxide in the lungs
• D. Lack of oxygen in the tissues

Explanation: A low alveolar oxygen tension increases pulmonary vascular resistance (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction) .it restricts breathing normally. (Right Answer) The addition of CO2 in these concentrations to the inspired oxygen increased in respiratory frequency, maximal at the first breath, and sustained for the 1 min period of exposure. The increase in respiratory frequency was due to a shortening of expiratory duration. Carbon dioxide is one of the most powerful stimulants of breathing. As the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood rises, ventilation increases nearly linearly. Our chemoreceptors can response to carbon dioxide more effectively than to oxygen. A high carbon dioxide level in the lungs can confuse. Some people who have respiratory failure may become very sleepy or lose consciousness. They also may have arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat). Hypoxia is low levels of oxygen in your body tissues. It causes symptoms like confusion, restlessness, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate, and bluish skin.

Q19. The heart;

• A. Pumps blood at constant rate
• B. Oxygenate blood
• C. Is under some amount of voluntary control
• D. Is stimulated by SA node✓

Explanation: Generally, the heart does not pump blood constantly. At rest, an adult's heart beats about 60 to 80 times a minute. So it is somehow considered a variable rate according to beating fashion. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated. The oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart by the pulmonary veins which enter the left atrium. The heart is made of cardiac muscles which are completely involuntary. (Right answer) : The SA (sinoatrial) node generates an electrical signal that causes the upper heart chambers (atria) to contract. The signal then passes through the AV (atrioventricular) node to the lower heart chambers (ventricles), causing them to contract, or pump. The SA node is considered the pacemaker of the heart.

Q20. All of the following are true about skin except:

• A. It is the largest organ in body.
• B. Vitamin E is synthesized here✓
• C. It performs both secretory and excretory functions
• D. Melanin is synthesized here

Explanation: (Right answer): Vitamin E is only synthesized by photosynthetic organisms, and like so many other essential nutrients in our diet, our primary source is from plants Vitamin E is normally provided to the skin through the sebum. Topical application can also supply the skin with vitamin E and may provide specific vitamin E forms that are not available from the diet. As an antioxidant, vitamin E primarily reacts with reactive oxygen species. Skin performs both secretory and excretory functions. Excretion: the skin is a site through which we can excrete urea and other wastes via the sweat (the skin is not as important as the kidneys in terms of excretion) & Skin secretions originate from glands in the dermal layer of the epidermis. Sweat, a physiological aid to body temperature regulation, is secreted by exocrine glands. Sebaceous glands secrete the skin lubricant sebum. Sebum is secreted onto the hair shaft and it prevents the hair from splitting.Melanin is synthesized in cytoplasmic organelles called melanosomes, which reside in skin cells.

Q21. The motor nerve cell transmits impulses from:

• A. The effector organ to spinal cord.
• B. Receptor cell to spinal cord.
• C. Receptor cells to effector organs.
• D. Spinal cord to effector organ.✓

Explanation: (Right answer): The correct sequence of transmission of impulse is Sensory Neuron→Spinal cord→Motor neuron→Effector.Motor neurons transport CNS impulses to effector organs. Efferent neurons are another name for them. Muscles or glands that act in response to motor neuron stimulation are known as effectors.

Q22. Removal of thyroid gland in adult women would cause an increase in:

• A. Basal metabolic rate
• B. Conversion of glycogen to glucose
• C. Excretion of Na+ from kidney
• D. Secretion of TSH✓

Explanation: Basal metabolic rate is increased by normal or over-secretion of the thyroid gland. Glycogen is converted into glucose in the process known as glycogenolysis under the action of the enzyme glucagon which gets secreted when energy is deficient. The pancreas secretes glucagon, which promotes the conversion of glycogen to glucose. Na+ absorption occurs in the distal nephron. This process is regulated by hormones such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). (Right answer): If your entire thyroid is removed, your body can no longer make thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is a common condition where the thyroid doesn’t create and release enough thyroid hormone into your bloodstream. This makes your metabolism slow down. Also called underactive thyroid, hypothyroidism can make you feel tired, gain weight and be unable to tolerate cold temperatures.

Q23. Insulin causes;

• A. Increased blood sugar
• B. Increased calcium deposition in bones
• C. Increased permeability of glucose to cells✓
• D. Increased cholesterol to blood

Explanation: Hyperglycemia, or high blood glucose, occurs when there is too much sugar in the blood. This happens when your body has too little insulin (the hormone that transports glucose into the blood), or if your body can't use insulin properly. Increased calcium deposition in bones is caused by overactivity of the parathyroid gland. (Right answer): When you eat a meal that contains carbohydrates(mainly glucose), the amount of blood sugar in your bloodstream increases. The cells in the pancreas sense this increase and release insulin into the blood. Insulin then travels around your bloodstream, telling your cells to pick up sugar from your blood. And cells can utilize glucose and other sugars. Cholesterol is mainly related to thyroid stimulating hormone Hypothyroid patients have increased cholesterol levels compared to individuals with normal thyroid function.

Q24. Myofibrils;

• A. Are found in smooth muscles
• B. Are smallest fibre that make the skeletal muscles✓
• C. Are crossed by transverse Y-bands
• D. Cannot contract

Explanation: Myofibrils are not present in smooth muscles. Rather, Myofibrils are the basic functional unit of skeletal muscle. (Right Answer): Each myofibril has a diameter of 1 μm. A myofibril (also known as a muscle fibril or sarcostyle) is a basic rod-like organelle of a muscle cell. Skeletal muscles are composed of long, tubular cells known as muscle fibers, and these cells contain many chains of myofibrils. Sarcomere is crossed by transverse Y-bands. The sarcomere is the basic contractile unit for both striated and cardiac muscle. A myofibril is composed of many sarcomeres running along its length; thus, myofibrils and muscle cells contract as the sarcomeres contract.

Q25. The mammalian placenta has all of following functions except;

• A. Excretion
• B. Nutrition
• C. Hormone Secretion
• D. Shock Absorption✓

Explanation: In the mammalian placenta, Waste products excreted from the fetus such as urea, uric acid, and creatinine are transferred to the maternal blood by diffusion across the placenta. Mammals show heterotrophic nutrition. The placenta has evolved in eutherian mammals primarily to provide nutrients for the developing fetus. The mammalian placenta releases several protein hormones, which include human chorionic gonadotrophin, human placental lactogen, placental growth hormone, relaxin, and kisspeptin. (Right Answer): The placenta acts to provide oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, whilst removing carbon dioxide and other waste products. It metabolizes several substances and can release metabolic products into maternal and/or fetal circulations. but not a shock absorber for this there is the amniotic sac that is filled with amniotic fluid.

Q26. The following is a part of the female reproductive tract:

• A. Vas deferens
• B. Cervix✓
• C. Spermatozoa
• D. Ovary

Explanation: cervix is a part of female reproductive tract

Q27. Where is oxygen produced in cells?

• A. Root hair
• B. Mesophyll cell✓
• C. Leaf epidermal cell
• D. Phloem cell

Explanation: The main function of root hairs is the uptake of water and nutrients from the rhizosphere. (Right answer): Small openings located on the epidermis allow such gases as carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and reach the mesophyll cells. On the other hand, photosynthetic processes in the mesophyll result in the production of oxygen. epidermis represents the outer layer of cells which helps to protect plants from the external environment. Epidermal cells secrete a lipophilic substance known as the cuticle, a waxy layer that protects the plant from water loss and pathogens. Phloem is the vascular plant tissue responsible for the transport and distribution of sugars produced by the photosynthesis.

Q28. Rate of transpiration varies with all except;

• A. Temperature
• B. Decreased number of chlorophylls✓
• C. Light
• D. Wind

Explanation: As the temperature increases, transpiration will increase due to a higher concentration of sunlight and warm air. (Right answer); Chlorophyll content of leaves does not directly affect the rate of transpiration. The transpiration rate is increased due to the increase in light intensity. During the daytime in the sunlight, the rate of transpiration is faster. As wind speed increases, plants react by upping their rate of transpiration, which is the plant's loss of water as it's absorbed through the roots, up to the leaves, and out the leaves, as it evaporates.

Q29. Following are involved with plant transpiration;

• A. Stomata✓
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Auxins
• D. Geotropism

Explanation: (Right answer): Stomatal transpiration accounts for almost 90% of the total transpiration. Leaves possess stomata – tiny pores, for gaseous exchange. The oxygen consumed via stomata is used up by cells in the leaves to disintegrate glucose into water and carbon dioxide. Chloroplasts are plant cell organelles that convert light energy into relatively stable chemical energy via the photosynthetic process. They have nothing major to concern with transpiration. Auxin is a key regulator of plant growth and development, orchestrating cell division, elongation and differentiation, embryonic development, root and stem tropisms, apical dominance, and transition to flowering. It doesn't concern with transpiration. Response to gravity is called Geotropism. Geotropism causes roots to grow downward and stems and leaves to grow up, generally not related to transpiration.

Q30. Nematoda includes all of following except;

• A. Hookworms
• B. Guinea worms
• C. Earthworms✓
• D. Ascaris

Explanation: Nematodes that are common parasites in humans include ascarids (Ascaris), filarias, hookworms, pinworms (Enterobius), and whipworms (Trichuris trichiura). The species Trichinella spiralis, commonly known as the 'trichina worm', occurs in rats, pigs, bears, and humans, and is responsible for the disease trichinosis. Right answer): An earthworm is a terrestrial invertebrate that belongs to the phylum Annelida.

Q31. Arthropods have all of the following except;

• A. Hard exoskeleton
• B. Jointed legs
• C. Segmentation
• D. Closed circulation✓

Explanation: Arthropods are covered with a tough, resilient integument or exoskeleton of chitin. So they possess hard exoskeletons. All arthropods (arthro = joint, pod = foot) have jointed limbs. Within the arthropods, the body wall, nervous system, kidneys, muscles, and body cavity are segmented, as are the appendages (when they are present). (Right answer): In contrast to a closed system, arthropods (including insects, crustaceans, and most mollusks) have an open circulatory system. In an open circulatory system, the blood is not enclosed in the blood vessels but is pumped into a cavity called a hemocoel.

Q32. Rod shaped bacteria are called;

• A. Bacilli✓
• B. Plasmodia
• C. Cocci
• D. Spirilli

Explanation: (Right answer): Rod shaped bacteria are called bacilli. Moreover, Bacteria are microscopic single-celled organisms. The bacteria are usually of four types:Cocci (spherical bacteria), Bacilli (rod-shaped bacteria), Spirilla (spiral or twisted bacteria), Vibrio(comma-shaped).

Q33. Most highly developed plants are;

• A. Saprophytes
• B. Angiosperms✓
• C. Byrophytes
• D. Gymnosperms

Explanation: A saprophyte is a plant that does not have chlorophyll, obtaining its food from dead matter, similar to bacteria and fungi. This type is not much developed as compared to other plant characteristics. (Right Answer): Angiosperms include about 250,000 species and are the most recently and highly evolved plants on Earth. These make up the majority of all plants on Earth. The seeds develop inside the plant organs and form fruit. Hence, they are also known as flowering plants. Angiosperms are the most advanced and beneficial group of plants. The Bryophyta is a proposed taxonomic division containing three groups of non-vascular land plants. They are characteristically limited. They don't produce flowers. gymnosperm are any vascular plant that reproduces using an exposed seed, or ovule. They also don't produce flowers.

Q34. When hybrids are crossed, the genotype ratio of the offspring is

• A. 1:1
• B. 3:1
• C. 1:2:1✓
• D. 4:1
• E. 3:2

Explanation: This is known as a monohybrid cross, involving the inheritance of a single trait (e.g., one gene with two alleles). The genotype ratio can be represented as follows:• 1/4 of the offspring are homozygous dominant (e.g., TT).• 1/2 of the offspring are heterozygous (e.g., Tt).• 1/4 of the offspring are homozygous recessive (e.g., tt).This ratio is based on Mendel's law of segregation, which describes how alleles segregate during gamete formation.

Q35. The following may cause mutation;

• A. Malaria
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Ultraviolet rays✓
• D. Colchicines

Explanation: Mutations are mainly caused by genetic disorders. Malaria is not generally concerned with mutations. Tuberculosis can cause damage to DNA, however, mutations are avoided (Right answer): Ultraviolet (UV) light induces specific mutations in the cellular and skin genome such as UV signature and triplet mutations, the mechanism of which has been thought to involve translesion DNA synthesis (TLS) over UV-induced DNA base damage. Ultraviolet (UV) irradiation causes various types of DNA damage, which leads to specific mutations and the emergence of skin cancer in humans, often decades after initial exposure. Different UV wavelengths cause the formation of prominent UV-induced DNA lesions.

Q36. Which of the following is a major advantage of using a light microscope instead of an electron microscope?

• A. Superior resolving power
• B. Constant depth of focus
• C. Observation of living matter✓
• D. Use of very thin sections

Explanation: Electron microscopes have high resolving power, about 250x that of a light microscope. Electron microscopes have a better depth of focus. (Right answer) Electron microscopes cannot be used to image living cells because the electrons destroy the samples. So, One big advantage of light microscopes is the ability to observe living cells. The electron microscope uses very thin sections and helps to observe the given specimen more accurately.

Q37. Which of the following possess more prominent Golgi apparatus?

• A. An islets of langerhans✓
• B. A retina rod cell
• C. A striated muscle
• D. A xylem trachied

Explanation: (Right answer): Golgi apparatus is mostly found where secretions occur. The Golgi apparatus is the location for processing and sorting. Within the Golgi, the nascent insulin is further processed into mature insulin and packaged into secretory vesicles.

Q38. Which of the following is the characteristic of mitochondria?

• A. They store proteolytic enzymes
• B. They provide sites for anaerobic respiration
• C. They produce cell secretions
• D. They release energy via Kreb's cycle✓

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed organelles that contain an array of enzymes capable of breaking down all types of biological polymers. Anaerobic respiration (without oxygen) takes place within the cell's cytoplasm. Cell organelle concerned with cell secretions is the Golgi apparatus (Right answer): The cell organelle in which Krebs' cycle occurs is mitochondria. Enzymes within the mitochondrial matrix are designed to oxidize the substrates, in a cyclic manner. The net energy output for one glucose molecule from glycolysis through the Krebs cycle is: 4 ATP, 10 NADH + H+, and 2 FADH2

Q39. Polysaccharides are synthesised in plants by process of:

• A. Hydrolysis
• B. Oxidation
• C. Glycogenolysis✓
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: During the hydrolysis process, cellulose and hemicelluloses present in halophytes are converted into simple sugars. Within the plant cell, the water is oxidized, meaning it loses electrons, while the carbon dioxide is reduced, meaning it gains electrons. This transforms the water into oxygen and the carbon dioxide into glucose. (Right answer): The condensation polymerization reaction of monosaccharides produces a polysaccharide and Water. The monosaccharide glucose can bond in a condensation polymerization reaction to produce starch or glycogen(polysaccharides). Glycolysis is the process in which glucose is broken down to produce energy. It produces two molecules of pyruvate, ATP, NADH, and water.

Q40. Which one of the following is not immediately essential for protein synthesis?

• A. ATP
• B. Enzymes
• C. Glucose✓
• D. mRNA

Explanation: ATP powers the synthesis of proteins, nucleic acids, and all other building blocks that make up organisms. Enzymes perform a major role in protein synthesis. Peptidyl transferase is the main enzyme used in Translation. (Right answer): Raising glucose alone increased protein synthesis in fast-twitch glycolytic muscles but not in other tissues. Glucose can be used to make amino acids. Amino acids are the building blocks of cells. Glucose is used to make these amino acids which are then put together to make proteins. So glucose can be considered not as immediately essential as ATP, enzymes, and mRNA. The role of mRNA is to carry protein information from the DNA in a cell's nucleus to the cell's cytoplasm (watery interior), where the protein-making machinery reads the mRNA sequence and translates each three-base codon into its corresponding amino acid in a growing protein chain.

Q41. Which one of the following gas diffuses most rapidly?

• A. Bromine
• B. Carbon✓
• C. Methane
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Graham's law states that the rate of diffusion or effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight. The molecular weight of bromine = 79.9ų (Right answer): Molecular weight of carbon = 12ų. As carbon as the least molecular weight among the given gases, it diffuses more rapidly as compared to others. The molecular weight of methane = 16ų The molecular weight of nitrogen = 14ų

Q42. Moist ammonia may be dried by passing it through;

• A. Calcium oxide✓
• B. Calcium chloride
• C. Calcium hydroxide
• D. Conc. Sulphuric acid

Explanation: (Right answer): Ammonia can be easily dried by passing over fresh quicklime or soda lime because it is basic and doesn't react with ammonia. The gas is passed through fresh quicklime (solid calcium oxide lumps) to effectively dry it. Ammonia is collected by upward delivery as it is lighter than air. Calcium chloride can't be used to dry ammonia because it reacts with it. Calcium hydroxide can also not be used for drying ammonia because it reacts further with ammonium chloride to give ammonia again. Drying agents like sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid cannot be used to dry ammonia as they react with it very quickly due to the basic nature of ammonia.

Q43. Ordinary air from the atmosphere contains about 21% oxygen whereas the proportion of oxygen in the mixture released by boiling river is 30%. The best explanation for the increase in percentage of oxygen is that;

• A. Oxygen is more soluble in water than nitrogen✓
• B. Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen
• C. Nitrogen reacts with water
• D. The gases from boiled water contain no water vapour

Explanation: (Right answer): Air dissolved in water contains 30 percent oxygen as compared to 21 percent in air. This is because oxygen in the air has a higher solubility than other elements in the air and also there is hydrogen bonding between water and oxygen that increases its solubility. Carbon dioxide content in the air is only 0.03%, but it is highly soluble in water unlike oxygen and one volume of CO2 dissolves in an equal volume of water, the solubility is higher at low temperatures. So the percentage content of carbon dioxide makes it the least reason to increase the proportion of mixture released by boiling river. Nitrogen is a non-polar species whereas water is a polar solvent so non-polar species like nitrogen will be insoluble in it. When water is heated it evaporates, which means it turns into water vapor and expands. At 100℃ it boils, thus rapidly evaporating. And at boiling point, the invisible gas of steam is created.

Q44. For two substances separated by paper chromatography it is necessary that;

• A. They are both liquids
• B. They are both soluble in same solvents
• C. They have different densities✓
• D. They have different colours

Explanation: For paper chromatography, it is not immediately essential for both components to be liquids. It can either be solid-liquid or liquid-liquid chromatography. Chromatography works because different substances in a mixture have different degrees of solubility. Solubility refers to how much of a particular substance can dissolve in a particular solvent. (Right answer); Different density gradient affects the paper chromatography. As density is decreased, shape selectivity increases. This is due to an increase in stationary phase interactions as the mobile phase density is reduced. Chromatography can be done in either condition with similar as well as different colors.

Q45. Which of the following is not essential for photosynthesis?

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Chlorophyll
• C. Sugar✓
• D. Light

Explanation: 6CO2+6H2O→C6H12O6+6O2. Photosynthesis is the process in which carbon dioxide, water, in the presence of sunlight, and chlorophyll are used to form food (sugar) and oxygen is released. D) (Right answer): Sugar is not essential for photosynthesis sugar (glucose) is the product of photosynthesis.

Q46. Crude oil can be separated by fractional distillation because its constituents?

• A. Are compounds
• B. Are chemically similar
• C. Have different boiling points✓
• D. Have different densities

Explanation: Chemical compounds are separated by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of the mixture will vaporize. Chemicals may not be chemically similar. They are different and get separated at different points. (Right answer): Fractional distillation is used to separate crude oil into simpler, more useful mixtures. This method can be used because different hydrocarbons have different boiling points. It is the process by which miscible liquids can be separated. It works based on the difference in the boiling points of liquid. Compounds may have the same or different densities, depending on their separation points.

Q47. Which of the following is a pure compound?

• A. Dry air
• B. Ethanol✓
• C. Steel
• D. Tap water

Explanation: Air is a mixture of gases. The air in Earth's atmosphere is made up of approximately 78 percent nitrogen and 21 percent oxygen. Air also has small amounts of other gases, too, such as carbon dioxide, neon, and hydrogen. (Right answer): Alcohol such as ethanol, methanol, propanol, etc. is one single compound. So, they are pure substances as pure substances are those materials that are composed of only one type of particle. Steel is a homogeneous mixture, however, it is made from iron and carbon. Tap water is a mixture of water and dissolved impurities hence, it is not a pure substance.

Q48. Whose e/m ratio resembles with that of electron?

• A. Alpha rays
• B. Beta rays✓
• C. Gamma rays
• D. X rays

Explanation: An alpha particle is a helium nuclei. So it has a greater e/m value than that of electrons. (Right answer): Beta particles (β) are high energy, high-speed electrons (β-) or positrons (β+) that are ejected from the nucleus by some radioactive decay. These are the same because both have the same negative charge and mass. Gamma rays have no electrical charge associated with them. So they do not possess e/m value. X-rays are not charged or neutral particles. They are electromagnetic waves with very short wavelengths. So it is not typically possible to give x-rays an e/m value.

Q49. Which particles are present in solid lead (II) bromide and molten lead(II) bromide?

• A. Molecules, atoms
• B. Molecules, ions
• C. Ions, atoms
• D. Ions, ions✓

Explanation: Right Answer (Information based); The particles present in pure lead bromide are ions. Pure lead bromide (solid) is an ionic compound that consists of lead ions (cations) and bromide ions (anions), held tightly by the electrostatic force of attraction.

Q50. The ions X+ contain 23 particles in the nucleus and 10 electrons outside the nucleus. What does the nucleus of ions X+ contains?

• A. 9 Protons, 14 neutrons
• B. 10 Protons, 13 neutrons
• C. 11 Protons, 12 neutrons✓
• D. 12 Protons, 11 neutrons

Explanation: (Right answer) Numerical based; X+ implies that the atom is positive, with 10 electrons the only way the atom could be positive is with 11 protons. The atom's (Sodium, Na) nucleus contains 12 neutrons and 11 protons.

Q51. The empirical formula of a liquid compound is C2H4O. What other information is needed to work out its molecular formula?

• A. Percentage composition of compound
• B. The relative molecular mass of the compound✓
• C. The density of compound
• D. The volume occupied by 1 mole of compound

Explanation: The percentage composition of compounds is not necessary when the empirical formula is already known. (Right answer); Molecular mass can be found from the molecular formula; Empirical formula mass of C2H4O = 44g Given that vapour density = 2×44 = 88g Molecular mass = 2(vapour density) Therefore molecular mass = 2×88 = 176g Density has no concern with molecular formulas. A volume of 1 mole of gas is not required when an empirical formula is already given.

Q52. Which statement concerning energy change is false?

• A. Electrical energy is produced by reaction in battery
• B. Light energy is absorbed during photosynthesis
• C. Light energy is produced when methane is burned in the oxygen
• D. Heat energy is absorbed when sodium reacts with water✓

Explanation: A battery is a device that stores chemical energy and converts it to electrical energy. In the process of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll. Combustion is an exothermic process. When an organic compound is burnt, light energy is produced. (Right answer); This is an exothermic reaction. Placing a chunk of sodium metal in contact with water results in a violent, and often explosive, reaction. This is due to the sodium donating an electron to hydrogen ions in the water, which leads to the emission of heat and the creation of hydrogen gas.

Q53. A sample of air was bubbled into pure water. The pH of water slowly changes from 7 to 6. Which gas in the sample cause this change?

• A. Argon
• B. Carbon dioxide✓
• C. Carbon monoxide
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Argon is a noble gas and it does not react with any other element. It does not even react at high temperatures or under any other special conditions. (Right answer); Carbon dioxide is influential in regulating the pH of water; the amount of CO2 in a solution is one way to determine the pH. Carbon dioxide gas is responsible for the changes in pH. So, the more the presence of CO2 in the air, the more the drop in the pH value of water air bubbles. Carbon monoxide generally does not influence the pH values this way. The CO association rate constant is pH-independent below pH 7, whereas in going from pH 7 to pH 11 a 2-fold increase can be detected. Dissolved oxygen does not directly affect the pH of a solution because there is no physical-chemical connection between the two.

Q54. Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?

• A. It is involved in photosynthesis
• B. It produces carbon when burnt
• C. It is a pollutant✓
• D. It is denser than air

Explanation: Carbon monoxide is not involved in photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide is involved which is reduced to glucose. If CO is burnt, it gains an oxygen atom to give Carbon Dioxide. (Right answer); Carbon monoxide (CO) is a deadly, colorless, odorless, poisonous gas. It is produced by the incomplete burning of various fuels, including coal, wood, charcoal, oil, kerosene, propane, and natural gas. CO is lighter than air.

Q55. Which statement provides the best information to confirm that two substances are allotropic forms of carbon?

• A. They have different crystalline structure
• B. They both reduce heated lead oxide to lead
• C. Equal substances of both substances require equal masses of carbon dioxide and no other product when completely burnt in oxygen
• D. Equal masses of both substances give equal masses of carbon dioxide and no other product when completely burnt in oxygen✓

Explanation: The right answer (information-based)Equal masses of both substances give equal masses of carbon dioxide and. no other product when completely burnt in oxygen.

Q56. What reacts at room temperature with ethanol and also ethanoic acid ?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Copper (II) oxide
• C. Methanol
• D. Sodium✓

Explanation: Ethanol also has a pH of 7, similar to water; therefore, it will not react with CaCO3 as in the case with other organic acids The reaction between copper(II) oxide and ethanoic acid (acetic acid) is a double-displacement reaction forming water and copper ethanoate (acetate) salt. Copper oxide also reacts with ethanol but this reaction is achieved at 130°C. Methanol's reaction with ethanol could proceed efficiently at 160 °C, while the reaction of methanol with ethanoic acid results in esterification. These reactions also don't process at room temperature. (Right answer); Sodium is a metal that reacts with both ethanol and ethanoic acid. With ethanoic acid, it releases hydrogen gas with effervescence. The chemical equation of the reaction of Ethanoic acid with Sodium is written as 2 CH3COOH + 2 Na → 2 CH3 COONa + H2 ( g ) Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate. If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give off bubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide.

Q57. Which statement concerning the ions of group VII elements is correct?

• A. Each contains odd numbers of electrons
• B. Each contains less protons than neutrons
• C. Each contains more protons than neutrons
• D. Each has 7 electrons in the outermost shell✓

Explanation: Right Answer (information-based); Group no indicate the outermost valence electron of any group member The group 7 elements exist as diatomic molecules. Their chemical formulae are F2, Cl2, Br2, and I2. The bond between the atoms in a molecule is very strong, but the forces of attraction between molecules are weak. This explains why group 7 elements have a low boiling point.

Q58. Which formula represents the oxide of an element Y in group II of the periodic table?

• A. YO✓
• B. YO2
• C. YO3
• D. Y2O

Explanation: The right answer (information-based); Valency of X = 2 since it belongs to group 2. The formula of its oxide is XO. since oxygen has valency = 2.

Q59. If four moles of sulphur dioxide are oxidised to sulphur trioxide, how many moles of oxygen are required?

• A. 0.5
• B. 1.0
• C. 2.0✓
• D. 4.0

Explanation: Right Answer (Numerical based); Every mole of SO2 requires 1 extra mole of O (or half a mole of O2) to produce SO3 and since there are 4 moles of SO2 then you'll need 4 moles of O (2 moles of O2) thus the answer should be 2 moles of oxygen.

Q60. What is the number of shared pair of electrons in methane molecule?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4✓

Explanation: Information based; Carbon shares each of its valence electrons with a hydrogen atom. Thus, there are four electron pairs shared between the carbon and the hydrogen atoms in the methane (CH4) molecule.

Q61. The relative molecular mass of Carbon Dioxide is 44. What is the mass of 24dm3 of Carbon Dioxide at RTP?

• A. 44✓
• B. 22
• C. 11
• D. 12

Explanation: The molar mass of CO2 is 44 g/mol You have 24 dm3 of CO2 Molar volume at RTP is 24 dm3. So no of the mole is =V/Vm = 24/24 = 1 mole Mass of 1 mole is = 44 g/mol

Q62. When 0.24g of Magnesium Is reacted with excess HCI, what volume of gas Is liberated at RTP?

• A. 120 cm3
• B. 240 cm3✓
• C. 360 cm3
• D. 3600 cm3

Explanation: Mg+ 2 HCI======> MgCl2 + H2.The atomic weight of Mg= 24.So 24- g of Mg will liberate 22.4 Litres of Hydrogen gas at STP.So 0.24g of Mg will liberate =22.4x0.24/24= 0.224- Litres of Hydrogen gas at STP. ( Or)224 ml of Hydrogen gas at STP.========================At rtp the volume of 1- mole a gas= 24- Litres.So the volume of 0.01- mole a gas at rtp will occupy= 0.01× 24= 0.240- litres (or) 240 - ml.The volume of 0.01 mol a gas at rtp will occupy =0.240 l or 240 ml{cm³}The volume of 0.01 mol a gas at rtp will occupy =0.240 l or 240 ml{cm³}

Q63. Which of the folowing gases is least common in air?

• A. Argon
• B. Carbon dioxide
• C. Nitrogen
• D. Hydrogen✓

Explanation: Earth's atmosphere is composed of about 78 percent nitrogen, 21 percent oxygen, 0.9 percent argon,0.04% CO2, and 0.1 percent other gases. Argon is the third least abundant gas in the air CO2 is the second most abundant gas in the air. Nitrogen makes up 78 percent of the air we breathe, and it's thought that most of it was initially trapped in the chunks of primordial rubble that formed the Earth. When they smashed together, they coalesced and their nitrogen content has been seeping out along the molten cracks in the planet's crust ever since. Hydrogen is present in trace amounts and is the least common. Hydrogen is found in great quantities on Earth combined with other elements, such as in water and hydrocarbons, but it is barely present in our atmosphere, which contains just 0.00005%

Q64. Which of the folowing element is the most abundant elementin the universel

• A. Oxygen
• B. Silicon
• C. Hydrogen✓
• D. Methane

Explanation: Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the universe. Silicon is the seventh-most abundant element in the universe and the second-most abundant element on the planet, after oxygen, according to the Royal Society of Chemistry. About 25 percent of the Earth's crust is silicon Hydrogen has an atomic weight of 1.00794u and it accounts for 75% of the matter in the universe thus making it the lightest and most abundant element in the universe. Methane is much less abundant, ranging from zero to about 35 ppbv, with a planetary average of approximately 10 ppbv. Finally, Vladimir Krasnopolsky of the Catholic University of America and his colleagues, using the Canada-France-Hawaii Telescope, measured a planetary average of about 10 ppbv

Q65. Which of the folowing gases by the fracticoal distillationof liquid air?

• A. Oxygen✓
• B. Carbon Dioxide
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Me.tane

Explanation: Fractional distillation is based on the boiling point of various gases and gases separate based on their boiling point. Fractional distillation is a type of distillation process that helps in the separation of miscible liquids.This method/process is carried out by repeated distillations and condensations of the mixture and the mixture finally gets separated into its parts.The separation happens when the mixture is heated at a certain temperature where fractions of the mixture start to vaporize. Conditions for fractional distillation:- Generally, fractional distillation can be carried out only when the difference of the boiling points of the parts is less than 25°C (under a pressure of 1 atm) ★ Fractional distillation of liquid air (resulting gases):- Air is a mixture of many gases. It mainly contains nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%). Hence, Fractional distillation of air produces two gases mainly oxygen and nitrogen. So O2 is obtained CO2 is not obtained as a resulting gas it is present in trace amounts. Hydrogen is also present in trace amounts so it is not obtained by fractional distillation. Methane is present in trace amounts so it isn't obtained.

Q66. Which of the following is a property of gamma particles?

• A. They carry a chare of-1
• B. They can penetrate Aluminium foil about 15cm — 20cm
• C. They are a type of electromagnetic radiation✓
• D. They have a mass approximately equal to a helium nuclei

Explanation: Note; THE QUESTION SHOULD BE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PROPERTY OF THE GAMMA RAYS? Explanation Gamma rays are produced by the hottest and most energetic objects in the universe, such as neutron stars and pulsars, supernova explosions, and regions around black holes. On Earth, gamma waves are generated by nuclear explosions, lightning, and the less dramatic activity of radioactive decay. GAMMA RAYS don't carry a charge of -1 as the gamma rays are charged less Gamma rays are highly penetrating rays and have less ionizing power so they can penetrate through the Al foil about 1km. Gamma rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation (EMR). They are similar to X-rays, distinguished only by the fact that they are emitted from an excited nucleus. Gamma rays have the smallest wavelengths and the most energy of any wave in the electromagnetic spectrum. They are produced by the hottest and most energetic objects in the universe, such as neutron stars and pulsars, supernova explosions, and regions around black holes GAMMA RAYS are not helium nuclei.

Q67. 10g of metal (relative atomic mass 40) are liberated by the passage of 0.5 moles of electrons through molten chloride. What is the formula of chloride?

• A. M2Cl
• B. MCl
• C. MCl4
• D. MCl2✓

Explanation: If the metal is univalent (like an alkali metal), then 10 g= 0.5 mol, because one electron per ion is needed to neutralize the ion.Therefore 1 mol = 20 g, but there's a problem. No alkali metal has a molar mass of just 20 g/mol.So, let's next consider divalent metals (such as alkaline-earth metals).These require two electrons per ion forneutralization, so 0.5 mol of electrons could liberate 0.25 mol of metal. Since we get 10 g here, the molar mass would have to be 40 g/mol. This corresponds to calcium.

Q68. In which of the following instances is there no change in the concentration of the solution during electrolysis?

• A. Concentrated HCl between Carbon Electrodes✓
• B. Copper (II) sulfate solution between platinum electrodes
• C. Copper (II) sulfate solution between copper electrodes
• D. Dilute Sulfuric Acid between Platinum electrodes

Explanation: The correct answer is Concentrated HCl between Carbon Electrodes. In this case, while gases are produced at the electrodes (hydrogen and chlorine), the overall concentration of the hydrochloric acid remains effectively unchanged due to the complete transformation of the ions into gaseous products without leaving the electrolyte in solution. Option B (Copper (II) sulfate solution between platinum electrodes) is incorrect because the electrolysis of copper sulfate leads to a decrease in solution concentration as copper ions are reduced at the cathode. Option C (Copper (II) sulfate solution between copper electrodes) results in a dynamic equilibrium where the concentration doesn't change, but the ions are still being consumed and deposited, which doesn't fit the requirement of 'no change in concentration'. Option D (Dilute Sulfuric Acid between Platinum electrodes) is also incorrect as the electrolysis consumes ions, thus decreasing the concentration of the sulfuric acid during the process. Overall, the only scenario where the solution concentration remains unchanged is with concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Q69. Which one of the following correctly describes the process occurring at the electrodes when molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed?

• A. Anode: Catalysation
• B. Cathode: Hydration
• C. Cathode: reduction✓
• D. Anode: Reduction

Explanation: When we use Nacl then it is oxidised at the anode ..as when we use any halogen family it oxidised at the anode it self and reduction occurs at cathodeOxidation takes place at the anode and reduction takes place at the cathode.

Q70. Which one of the following compounds in a 1 mol/dm3 solution has the lowest pH value?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Hydrochloric Acid✓
• C. Ethanoic Acid
• D. Sodium Hydroxide

Explanation: The value of pH normally varies between 0 → 14 at 25°C. Solutions of negative pH and having values more than 14 are also known as pH = -log[H ] and pOH = -log[OH ] For neutral water, pH = -log10 = 7 -7 pOH = -log10 = 7 when pH = 7, the solution is neutral pH < 7, the solution is acidic pH > 7, the solution is basic More H+ ions less the pH Ammonia (NH3) in 1 mol \dm³ solution is basic. Ammonia has a ph above 7. The pH of Ammonia is 11-13. HCl is a strong acid and ionises to a large extent in 1 mol\dm³ solution. It has the Lowest pH of 1-2. Hence, HCl is a strong acid so it has a low PH value Ethanoic acid is a weak acid with a pH below 7. The pH of Ethanoic acid is 3. Sodium Hydroxide is a strong base with a pH above 7. The pH of sodium hydroxide is 10.

Q71. What are the dimensions of work?

• A. (MLT)
• B. (M2LT2)
• C. (ML2T-2)✓
• D. (MLT)

Explanation: Work is the transfer of energy to a body by the application of a force that causes the body to move in the direction of the force.• Work is done only when a force causes an object to move in the direction of the force. This is different from the everyday meaning of work.• Work Equation work = force x distance, W=Fxd

Q72. Resultant of two forces 30N and 40N acting perpendicular to each other is

• A. 70N
• B. 10N
• C. 50N✓
• D. 40N

Explanation: Of course, with a triangle with a 90° angle, a right triangle, you can simply use.Pythagoras theorem (a2+b2=c2) then SOH-CAH-TOA to solve for the angle (\theta=Cos-1(\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse} )) .(θ=Cos−1(adjacent/hypotenuse)).But what if it isn't a right triangle? The cosine rule works for all triangles, even if they don't have a 90° angle.a2=b2+c2−2(b)(c)Cos(A)aWhere a is the missing side, and A is the angle opposite to side a.With this rule, we can find a missing angle or a missing side to any type of triangle, assuming you have the needed variables.Let's plug your example in:Let b=40 c=30 and A=90°a2=402+302-2(40)(30)Cos(90)a Cos(90)=0 which is why Pythagoras theorem works at 90°, but I'll continue as if it did matter.a2=2500-2(40)(30)Cos(90)a 2 =2500−2(40)(30)Cos(90)a2=2500-2400*0a2 =2500−2400∗0a=√{2500}a= 2500a=50Na=50N

Q73. If the momentum of a body is doubled. Its K.E. will be:

• A. Increase √2 times
• B. Increase √3 times
• C. Be doubled
• D. Be quadrupled✓

Explanation: Momentum is directly proportional to velocity. If the momentum of an object is doubled, but its mass does not increase (so velocity remains below the speed of light) then its velocity is doubled. If the velocity is doubled, then the kinetic energy increases by four times.The relation between momentum and K.E is given by;K.E=p2/2m

Q74. First of all 'G' was measured in laboratory by:

• A. Newton
• B. Kepler
• C. Carendish✓
• D. Plank

Explanation: Sir Isaac Newton PRS was an English mathematician, physicist, astronomer, alchemist, theologian, and author, widely recognised as one of the greatest mathematicians and physicists and among the most influential scientists of all time. He was a key figure in the philosophical revolution known as the Enlightenment. The newton (symbol: N) is the unit of force in the International System of Units (SI). It is defined as 1 kg⋅m/s2, the force which gives a mass of 1 kilogram and an acceleration of 1 metre per second squared. It is named after Isaac Newton in recognition of his work on classical mechanics. Johannes Kepler was a German astronomer, mathematician, astrologer, natural philosopher and writer of music. He is a key figure in the 17th-century Scientific Revolution, best known for his laws of planetary motion, and his books Astronomia Nova, Harmonice Mundi, and Epitome Astronomiae Copernicanae. Cavendish experiment. The Cavendish experiment, performed in 1797–1798 by British scientist Henry Cavendish, was the first experiment to measure the force of gravity between masses in the laboratory and the first to yield accurate value for the gravitational constant Max Planck, in full Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck, (born April 23, 1858, Kiel, Schleswig [Germany]—died October 4, 1947, Göttingen, Germany), German theoretical physicist who originated quantum theory, which won him the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1918.

Q75. A body mass 'm' is dropped from the top of a tower during the first second it will fall through:

• A. 9.8 m
• B. 4.9 m✓
• C. 98 m
• D. 49 m

Explanation: a body of mass M is dropped from the top of thetower during the first second of the motion it will fallthroughbody is dropped so initial velocity u = 0 m/stime = 1 seca = g = 10 m/s2S = distance fall throughS = ut +(1/2)at2=> S=0*1+(1/2)(10)* 12=>S=0+5=> S = 5the body will fall through 5 m in 1 sec

Q76. Angular displacement is measured in:

• A. Radians✓
• B. Meters
• C. Foot
• D. Pound

Explanation: Angular displacement is measured in units of radians. Two pi radians equals 360 degrees.

Q77. Simple pendulum is oscillating. When the bob is at its highest point, the string suddenly breaks, the:

• A. Bob will
• B. Keep on moving in the circular path
• C. Move horizontally
• D. Move in a projectile motion✓

Explanation: If we cut the string anywhere, the bob will not continue circular motion because the centripetal force is no longer in action as the tension of the string decreases to zero due to the breakage of the string. And circular motion is not possible due to the absence of centripetal force. When the string of the bob of a simple pendulum breaks when it is at its highest point, it cannot move horizontally because it doesn't. Because the velocity of the pendulum bob is zero, it cannot move horizontally or in a projectile motion after the string breaks, as it does not have the kinetic energy to do so. When the string of the bob of a simple pendulum breaks when it is at its highest point, it will fall vertically downward. When the bob on the pendulum is at its highest point, it has zero kinetic energy, i.e. zero velocity and maximum gravitational potential energy. When its string breaks right at the maximum point, since it only has potential energy, it can only fall downward vertically.

Q78. A body is running along a circular path of circumference 44m and completes one round trip in 11 seconds. His displacement at the end of one trip is:

• A. 4 m
• B. 44 m
• C. Zero✓
• D. 484 m

Explanation: Along the circular path, displacement is zero as the body comes to the same point on the circumference from where it started its motion. W=F.d W=Fd cos theta W=Fdcos (90) Cos 90 = 0 W= 0 If the electric field is uniform, then acceleration is also uniform and hence, the position of the particle at any instant of time can be found by using equations of uniformly accelerated motion. When a charge particle q is moving with velocity v in a region where there is an electric field E and magnetic field B, the total force F is the vector sum of the electric force qE and magnetic force q (vx B) that is, F=Fe,+Fb F=qE+q(vxB) This force F is known as the Lorentz force. It is to be pointed out that only the electric force does work, while no work is done by the magnetic force which is simply a deflecting force.

Q79. A ball 'A' is dropped verticaly from the top of a building 49m high at the same time another ball 'B is thrown horizontally with a speed of 21 m/s. (Negtecting the resistance of air)

• A. Ball'A' will reach first than ball 'B'
• B. Ball 'B'will reach first than ball 'A'
• C. Both balls wil reach the ground at the same ti✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: The time of flight is dependent on the height of a fall for a freely falling body which is the same for both cases the time of flight is just double the maximum height. time. At maximum height, vy = 0. The time of flight is also determined solely by the initial velocity in the y direction and the acceleration due to gravity. Time of flight is dependent on the height of fall for a freely falling body which is the same for both the cases so the ball A will not hit the ground early.

Q80. If AxB= 2 3 4 / 1 5 2 then vector B is:

• A. 2i + 3j + 4k
• B. i+5j + 2k✓
• C. -142+7k
• D. 2i+5j+4k

Explanation: IT is incorrect as it shows the vector A. It represents the vector b {i+5j+2k}

Q81. Out of all the existing four forces the weakest force is:

• A. Gravitational force✓
• B. Strong force
• C. Electromagnetic force
• D. Weak Force

Explanation: The electric and magnetic forces were unified to get an electromagnetic force by Faraday and Maxwell, who were able to prove that a current is induced in a coil whenever the magnetic flux passing through the coil is changed; leaving behind four fundamental forces, the strong nuclear force, the electromagnetic force, the weak nuclear force and the gravitational force. These four fundamental forces of nature have seemed for some time quite different from one another.

Q82. The relation between horse power and watt is:

• A. 1 hp = 546 watts
• B. 1 hp = 1000 watts
• C. 1 hp = 746 watts✓
• D. 1 hp = 476 watts

Explanation: A power level of 1 hp is approximately equivalent to 746 watts (W) or 0.746 kilowatts (kW). To convert from horsepower to watts, multiply by 746. To convert from watts to horsepower, multiply by 0.00134. To convert from horsepower to kilowatts.

Q83. Velocity of Sound In Vacuum is:

• A. 332m/s
• B. 820 m/s
• C. 224 m/s
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: The speed of sound in a vacuum is zero metres per second, as there are no particles present in the vacuum. The sound waves travel in a medium when there are particles for the propagation of these sound waves.

Q84. One bel is equal to:

• A. 10 decibel✓
• B. 100 decibel
• C. 1000 decibel
• D. 0.1 decibel

Explanation: The term bel is derived from the name of Alexander Graham Bell, inventor of the telephone. The unit decibel is used because a one-decibel difference in loudness between two sounds is the smallest difference detectable by human hearing. One bel is equal to 10 decibels. (FACT).10 BEL = 100 DECIBELS100 BEL=1000 DECIBELS0.01 BEL =0.1 DECIBELS

Q85. In Newton's ring when interference pattern is viewed from the above by means of reflected light, the central spot always appears:

• A. White
• B. Black✓
• C. Blue
• D. Red

Explanation: Option A; As destructive interference takes place so the central point is dark instead of white. These circular fringes were discovered by Newton and are called Newton's rings. Those rings are formed with equally spaced bright and dark bands with a central spot as a dark spot. At the point of contact of the lens and the glass plate, the thickness of the film is effectively zero but due to reflection at the lower surface of air film from a denser medium, an additional path difference of 2 is introduced. Consequently. The centre of the Newton rings is dark due to destructive interference.

Q86. The frequency of the Second pendulum is

• A. 2Hz
• B. 0.5Hz✓
• C. 20Hz
• D. 0.05Hz

Explanation: The frequency of a second pendulum is not 2 Hz although the period is 2 seconds A seconds pendulum is a pendulum whose period is precisely two seconds; one second for a swing in one direction and one second for the return swing, with a frequency of 0.5 Hz. A seconds pendulum has a period of T = 2 s. Thus, its frequency f= 1\T=1\2=0.5Hz or s-1

Q87. The weight of 20kg of a body at the center of earth is

• A. 19.6 N
• B. 196 N
• C. ON✓
• D. 1.96 N

Explanation: The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is zero because the value of g is zero. As we move a body closer to the centre of the earth, the mass of the earth between the centre of the earth and the body keeps decreasing. This causes the force acting from the centre of the earth on the body to decrease. The mass at the exact centre of the earth is zero. Gravitational force exists only if there is mass in the object.

Q88. If the distance between two bodies is doubled and their masses are also doubled, the gravitational force will:

• A. Increase four times
• B. Decrease four times
• C. Remain constant✓
• D. Increase two times

Explanation: THE FORCE OF GRAVITATION HAS THE FORMULA GIVEN ABOVE As the masses and distance between the masses are doubled so, F=G(2m1)(2m2)\(2r)² Evaluate the above equation F=G [4(m1)(m2)]\4r² multiply and divide by 4 F=G [4(m1)(m2)]\4r² x4\4 F=Gm1m2\r²

Q89. Weight of an object on the moon is 30N. Its weight on the earth will be:

• A. 105 N
• B. 180 N✓
• C. 60 N
• D. 150 N

Explanation: The weight of an object on the moon is 30 then the weight on earth will be 181.14N ~180N Objects on the moon are accelerated at 1.624 m/s2. On Earth, they are accelerated at 9.807 m/s2. If you measured a force of 30 Newtons on the moon then you would have F = ma → m = F/a m = F/a = 30 N/ 1.624 m/s2 = 18.47 kg. On Earth, you would measure F = ma = 18.47 kg * 9.807 = 181.14 Newtons Weight of an object on the moon is 30 then the weight on earth will be 181.14N ~180N Weight of an object on the moon is 30 then the weight on earth will be 181.14N ~180N

Q90. The power of lens is measured is:

• A. Watt
• B. Joule
• C. Diopter✓
• D. Metre

Explanation: The watt is the unit of power or radiant flux in the International System of Units, equal to 1 joule per second or 1 kg⋅m²⋅s⁻³. It is used to quantify the rate of energy transfer. 1 Joule is the amount of work done when a force of one Newton displaces a body one metre in the direction of the force applied. Joule is the S.I. unit of work. Work is the product of the component of force in the displacement direction and the magnitude of the displacement. W = F .d Option C: The meter (abbreviation, m; the British spelling is metre) is the International System of Units (SI) unit of displacement or length. One meter is the distance travelled by a ray of electromagnetic (EM) energy through a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 (3.33564095 x 10-9) of a second.

Q91. SI unit of magnetic field is

• A. Gauss
• B. Tesla✓
• C. Weber/m2
• D. Ampere

Explanation: The Gauss, symbol G (sometimes Gs), is a unit of measurement of magnetic induction, also known as magnetic flux density. The unit is part of the Gaussian system of units, which was inherited from the older CGS-EMU system. It was named after the German mathematician and physicist Carl Friedrich Gauss in 1936. Tesla is the unit of magnetic induction or magnetic flux density in the metre–kilogram–second system (SI) of physical units. If I=1A, L=1 m and a = 90°, then F= B. Thus B, the strength of the magnetic field which is also known as magnetic induction is defined as the force acting on one-metre length of the conductor placed at a right angle to the magnetic field when 1 A current is passing through it. In SI units the unit of B is tesla. A magnetic field is said to have a strength of one tesla if it exerts a force of one newton on the one-metre length of the conductor placed at right angles to the field when a current of one ampere passes through the conductor. 1T=1 NA-1 m-1 Weber per square metre(Wb/m2) is the unit of magnetic flux density which is equal to one tesla. magnetic fields are the area around a magnet in which there is a magnetic force An ampere is a unit of measure of the rate of electron flow or current in an electrical conductor. One ampere of current represents one coulomb of electrical charge (6.24 x 10 18 charge carriers) moving past a specific point in one second.

Q92. The minimum charge on any object cannot be less than:

• A. 1 coulomb
• B. 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb✓
• C. The minimum net charge that an object can get is one electron’s charge,which is 1.6x10-19 C
• D. The minimum net charge that an object can get is one electron’s charge,which is 1.6x10-19 C.

Explanation: It is the amount of electricity that a 1-ampere (A) current carries in one second (s). A quantity of 1 C is equal to the electrical charge of approximately 6.24 x 1018 electrons or protons. He, therefore, concluded that this minimum value of the charge is the charge on an electron. A given droplet between the two plates could be suspended in air if the gravitational force F = mg acting on the drop is equal to the electrical force F, =qE. The F can be adjusted equal to F, by adjusting the voltage. In this case, we can write, Fe=Fg or qE=mg If V is the value of p. d.between the plates for this setting, then & E=V\d we may write qV\d=mg q=mgd \V……..A F=6лrv=mg where r is the radius of the droplet and n is the coefficient of viscosity for air. If p is the density of the droplet, then m= 4\3πr³ p……….B Hence, 4\3πr³рg=6πη rVt or r²=9ηVt\2pg Knowing the value of r, the mass m can be calculated by using Eq. B This value of m is substituted in Eq. A to get the value of charge q on the droplet. To determine the mass The Coulomb The unit for electric charge is the coulomb The smallest increment of charge is that of one electron e -1.6 x 10-19 C or =e+= 1.6 x 10-19C Therefore a charge of 2e can be written 2q or 2e or in coulombs 3.2x10-19 C. ALL SAY THE SAME THING!!! The minimum net charge that an object can get is one electron's charge, which is 1. 6×10−19 coulomb. The minimum net charge that an object can get is one electron’s charge, which is 1.6x10-19 C. The minimum net charge that an object can get is one electron’s charge, which is 1.6x10-19 C.

Q93. The number of neutron In 92U235 is:

• A. 92
• B. 235
• C. 143✓
• D. 327

Explanation: The number of neutrons in U-235 is 143.

Q94. The most appropriate device used to measure the emf of a cell:

• A. Voltmeter
• B. Potentiometer✓
• C. Avometer
• D. Ammeter

Explanation: Potential difference is usually measured by an instrument called a voltmeter. The voltmeter is connected across the two points in a circuit between which potential difference is to be measured. The resistance of the voltmeter must be large compared to the circuit resistance across which the voltmeter is connected. Otherwise, an appreciable current will flow through the voltmeter which will alter the circuit current and the potential difference to be measured. Thus the voltmeter can read the correct potential difference only when it does not draw any current from the circuit across which it is connected. An ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance. However, there are some potential measuring instruments such as digital voltmeters and cathode ray oscilloscopes which practically do not draw any current from the circuit because of their large resistance and are thus very accurate potential measuring instruments. But these instruments are very expensive and are difficult to use. A very simple instrument which can measure and compare potential differences accurately is a potentiometer. REF.PTB.PAGE 51. A potentiometer is the best option as during the measurement by potentiometer no current flows through it Ammeter is a device used to measure either alternating or direct current. We know that ampere is the unit of current. Since this device measures the value in amperes, it's known as an ammeter. A multimeter, also known as an avometer, is a tester used to measure electrical voltage, current, resistance and so on. Multimeters are mainly of two types, analogue and digital. Both are used for measuring and fault detection in electrical circuits.

Q95. Which quantity can be measuring is unit of Joule/coulomb?

• A. Current
• B. Potential Difference✓
• C. Power
• D. Resistance

Explanation: The SI unit of current is ampere which measures the flow of electric charge across a surface at the rate of one coulomb per second. Since the charge is measured in coulombs and time in seconds, the unit is coulomb/Sec (C/s) or amp. Meanwhile, the formula for electric current is given as follows: I = V/R Potential difference is the difference in the amount of energy that charge carriers have between two points in a circuit. The amount of work done by bringing a unit positive charge force from one point to another point is called the Electric Potential Difference The SI unit of electric potential difference is volt (V). 1V=JOULE\COULOMB OR 1J\1CJoule is the unit of work done and coulomb is the unit for the charge. Power is the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit of time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the watt, equal to one joule per second. In older works, power is sometimes called activity. Power is a scalar quantity.Derivations from other quantities P = E/t; P = F·v; P = V·I; P = τ·ω: Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit. Resistance is measured in ohms, symbolised by the Greek letter omega (Ω). Ohms are named after Georg Simon Ohm (1784-1854), a German physicist who studied the relationship between voltage, current and resistance.

Q96. A 40 watt lamp turns half the electrical energy it uses into light energy. How much light energy does it give out is 10 seconds.

• A. 400J
• B. 200J✓
• C. 800J
• D. 20J

Explanation: The light energy given out in 10 sec is 200J. Total Power= 40 W Well 40 W= 40 joules a second = 40 J/s Efficiency= 50% Power x efficiency= Actual Power output 40x0.5=20 W Time x Power = Energy 10 s x 20 W = 200 J Light Energy = 200 J The light energy given out in 10 sec is 200J. The light energy given out in 10 sec is 200J.

Q97. What is the smallest total resistance which can be obtained using only 6 and 12 resistor?

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 50
• D. 60

Explanation: The smallest resistance observed is 4 ohms observed when the resistances are connected in parallel. As the given resistances are 6 ohms and 12 ohms respectively so the smallest equivalent resistance will be observed when the resistances are connected in parallel. 1/R=1/R1+1/R2 1/R=1/6+1/12 1/R=2+1/12 1/R=3/12 1/R=1/4 R=4

Q98. Two capacitors of 5uf and 10uf are connected in series. The total capacitance is:

• A. 15μf
• B. 5uf
• C. 3.3uf✓
• D. 1.11uf

Explanation: C1 = 10uF, C2 = 5uF. C = C1xC2/(C1+C2) = (10x5)/(10+5) = 3.33 uF. The equivalent capacitance is 33.3 microFarads.

Q99. Which of the following is correct answer?

• A. 1F>1C
• B. 1F<1C✓
• C. 1F=1C
• D. None of the above

Explanation: 32 degrees Fahrenheit equals 0 degrees Celsius. It’s the temperature of ice formation. Since 100 Celsius degrees span the same range as 180 Fahrenheit degrees, one degree on the Celsius scale is 1.8 times larger than one degree on the Fahrenheit scale (because 180100=95=1.8).1 degree Celsius is hotter than 1 degree Fahrenheit. I

Q100. A device which converts AC into DC voltage is called

• A. An amplifier
• B. A rectifier✓
• C. A voltmeter
• D. An oscillator

Explanation: An amplifier is an electronic device for increasing the amplitude of electrical signals. It is an electronic device that increases the voltage, current, or power of a signal. Amplifiers are used in wireless communications and broadcasting, and audio equipment of all kinds. A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current, which periodically reverses direction, to direct current, which flows in only one direction. The process is known as rectification since it "straightens" the direction of current A voltmeter is an instrument used for measuring the electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit. It is connected in parallel. It usually has a high resistance so that it takes negligible current from the circuit. An electronic oscillator is an electronic circuit that produces a periodic, oscillating electronic signal, often a sine wave or a square wave or a triangle wave. Oscillators convert direct current (DC) from a power supply to an alternating current (AC) signal. They are widely used in many electronic devices ranging from simplest clock generators to digital instruments (like calculators) and complex computers and peripherals etc. Common examples of signals generated by oscillators include signals broadcast by radio and television transmitters, clock signals that regulate computers and quartz clocks, and the sounds produced by electronic beepers and video games.