Sindh Mcat Nts 2002 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. _ child must respect his parents.

• A. A✓
• B. An
• C. This
• D. That

Explanation: a. A:This is the correct answer. The indefinite article "a" is used before words that begin with a consonant sound, such as "child."

Q2. Read the paragraph carefully and gives the best answer of the given questions:College is the practising ground for the student. It is not sufficient that he gives himself up to studies. He must develop the noble qualities of showing respect to elders and teachers create a team spirit and participate in the various extracurricular activities and maintain college discipline to raise the prestige of his college.What part does college life play in the training of the students?

• A. College life groom and prepares a student for life✓
• B. Prepare the student in academics
• C. Develops noble dualities in academics
• D. Help the students to take part in extracurricular activities

Explanation: College is described as a place where the student must not only advance in his studies but improve and develop his skills by participation in various activities, learn to show respect to his seniors and teachers and do things that raise the prestige of his college. These will provide the perfect stage for grooming the student for his life and responsibilities ahead, and he must maintain a balance, only studies or studies or activities alone are not sufficient.

Q3. The branch of biology which deals with the process and the function of processes is known as:

• A. Physiology✓
• B. Pathology
• C. Histology
• D. Evolution

Explanation: The word physiology is derived from Ancient Greek (physis), meaning "nature, origin", and (logia), meaning "study of'" is the scientific study of function in living systems. This branch of biology tells us how organisms, organ systems, organs, cells, and biomolecules function in living organisms

Q4. Note: Read the paragraph carefully and gives the best answer of the given questions:College is the practising ground for the student. It is not sufficient that he gives himself up to studies. He must develop the noble qualities of showing respect to elders and teachers create a team spirit and participate in the various extracurricular activities and maintain college discipline to raise the prestige of his college.What part does college life play in the training of the students:?

• A. College life groom and prepares a student for life✓
• B. Prepare the student in academics
• C. Develops noble dualities in academics
• D. Help the students to take part in extracurricular activities

Explanation: College is described as a place where the student must not only advance in his studies but improve and develop his skills by participation in various activities, learn to show respect to his seniors and teachers and do things that raise the prestige of his college. These will provide the perfect stage for grooming the student for his life and responsibilities ahead, and he must maintain a balance, only studies or studies or activities alone are not sufficient.

Q5. Choose the suitable preposition:Rich lady found grate pleasure _ showing off her riches.

• A. In✓
• B. For
• C. At
• D. By

Explanation: A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an object. Some examples of prepositions are words like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to." Option A is correct. The correct sentence is Rich woman found great pleasure in showing off her riches.

Q6. Bane (Synonym)

• A. Banter
• B. Mystery
• C. Exile
• D. Affliction✓

Explanation: The term bane means death, ruin and destruction.

Q7. _said that protoplasm is the physical basis of life.

• A. Robert Brown
• B. Robert Hook
• C. Purkinje
• D. Huxley✓

Explanation: Thomas Huxley referred to protoplasm as the "physical basis of life" and considered that the property of life resulted from the distribution of molecules within this substance.

Q8. Infoldings in the mitochondrial inner membrane is called :

• A. Cristae✓
• B. Thylakoid
• C. Glyoxysome
• D. Chromatin network

Explanation: The mitochondria is a double-membraned cell organelle, known as the powerhouse of the cell which is present in all eukaryotic cells. It has an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner mitochondrial membrane has folds called cristae which helps in increasing the surface area. The enzyme ATP synthase is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane helps in the synthesis of ATP molecules (energy currency of the cell). It is also the site of the electron transport chain (aerobic respiration).

Q9. The bond present between carbohydrate units :

• A. Peptide bond
• B. Covalent bond
• C. Glycosidic bond✓
• D. Electrostatic bond

Explanation: The bonds present between two carbohydrate molecules are glycosidic. A glycosidic bond is a type of covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate molecule to another group, which may or may not be another carbohydrate. A glycosidic bond is formed between the hemiacetal or hemiketal group of a saccharide and the hydroxyl group of some compound such as an alcohol. A substance containing a glycosidic bond is a glycoside.

Q10. _discovered microscopic creatures under the microscope in the blood cells of malarial patients.

• A. Ronald Ross
• B. Leveran✓
• C. Grassy
• D. A.F.A King

Explanation: Our understanding of the malaria parasites began in 1880 with the discovery of the parasites in the blood of malaria patients by Alphonse Laveran. Ronald Ross , A.F.A king and grassy were the contributors to the causes and treatment of malaria.

Q11. The nonliving part of protoplasm is :

• A. Golgi bodies
• B. Inclusion✓
• C. Organelles
• D. E. R

Explanation: Cells consist of various cell organelles like chloroplast, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria etc. which form the living component of the cell which also include the protoplasm of a cell. ∙ The various non-living inclusions are metabolic by-products which are either organic or inorganic in nature. ∙ As they are not included in the protoplasm such non-living components are also called as non-protoplasmic contents/ ergastic substances/ Hyaloplasm. Golgi bodies endoplasmic reticulum and all organelles of the cell are considered living. Hence options A, C and D are incorrect.

Q12. The movement of cytoplasm is called

• A. Exocytosis
• B. Endocytosis
• C. Pinocytosis
• D. Cyclosis✓

Explanation: Cytoplasmic streaming, known as cyclosis, is a movement of cytoplasm in various organisms including bacteria, higher plants, and animals (Williamson and Ashley, 1982; Theurkauf, 1994).

Q13. Some bacteria live on dead organic matter they are called :

• A. Parasites
• B. Phages
• C. Saprophytes✓
• D. Symbionts

Explanation: saprotroph, also called saprophyte or saprobe, is an organism that feeds on nonliving organic matter known as detritus at a microscopic level.

Q14. Blue green pigment found only in blue green algae is:

• A. Chlorophyll
• B. Xanthophyll
• C. Carotene
• D. Phycobilin✓

Explanation: Blue-green algae or cyanobacteria also contain chlorophyll a, yellowish carotenoids, and blue-pigment phycobilins. Only the appearance of these pigments causes the blue-green colour of the algae. Chlorophyll is a true green pigment. Xanthophylls are yellow pigments. Carotene are yellow and orange pigments. Hence A, B and C are incorrect.

Q15. Sexual reproduction in bacteria is taken by:

• A. Binary fission
• B. Conidia
• C. Conjunction✓
• D. Zoospore

Explanation: So, bacteria can't reproduce sexually, but they can exchange genetic information with each other. Using a pilus, two bacteria make contact with each other and exchange genetic material. This is called conjugation.

Q16. Cyanobacteria is a typical example of:

• A. Chlorophyceae
• B. Cyanophyceae✓
• C. Green algae
• D. Fungi

Explanation: Cyanobacteria, also known as Cyanophyta, are a phylum of gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy via photosynthesis.

Q17. Saliva in mouth helps in digestion of :

• A. Bread✓
• B. Meat
• C. Fat
• D. Table Salt

Explanation: Saliva contains special enzymes that help digest the starches in your food. An enzyme called amylase breaks down starches (complex carbohydrates) into sugars, which your body can more easily absorb. Saliva amylase in mouth only digests carbs upto 3 to 5%. It cannot digest protein (meat), lipid (fat), and salts.

Q18. Major metabolic factory, detoxification centre and storage organ of body is :

• A. Stomach
• B. Brain
• C. Kidney
• D. Liver✓

Explanation: Your main detoxification organs are the liver and kidneys.The bowels and urinary tract are extensions of these organs as wastes exit your body.The skin (via sweat) and the lungs (via breathing/expelling CO2) Are also considered detoxification organs.

Q19. The actual visual receptor of the eye are :

• A. Iris and pupil
• B. Iris and lens
• C. Rods and cones✓
• D. Cornea and retina

Explanation: Cones are active at higher light levels (photopic vision), are capable of colour vision and are responsible for high spatial acuity. Iris is the coloured part, pupil is the central black spot from where light enters the eye. Lens is responsible for focusing light. Cornea is a membrane that protects structures inside eye while retina contains layers of photoreceptors (rods and cones).

Q20. Haemoglobin is :

• A. Respiratory pigment✓
• B. Excretory pigment
• C. Digestive pigment
• D. Storage pigment

Explanation: Haemoglobin (Hb) is a protein found in the red blood cells that carries oxygen in your body and gives blood its red colour. Haemoglobin levels vary from person to person. Men usually have higher levels than women.

Q21. The excretory organ in insects are :

• A. Flame cells
• B. Malpighian tubules✓
• C. Contractile vacuoles
• D. Kidneys

Explanation: In insects, Malpighian tubules (MTs) are the main osmoregulatory and excretory organs and are considered analogous to the nephridia of annelids or the kidneys of vertebrates.

Q22. The kidneys does not perform the function of :

• A. Regulation of blood pressure
• B. Secretion of bile✓
• C. Regulation of pH
• D. Homeostasis

Explanation: Kidney regulates B.P and blood pH and hence performs homeostasis. Bile is secreted by the liver. It is not a function of the kidneys. Therefore option B is incorrect while all others are correct.

Q23. Which of following statement is true about Euglena:

• A. Autotrophic animal✓
• B. Unicellular Algae
• C. Prokaryotic autotroph
• D. A-cellular animal

Explanation: Euglena is a class of single cell flog eukaryotic. The species Euglena gracilis has been utilised widely in the research centre as a model creature. Most types of Euglena have photosynthesizing chloroplasts inside the body of the cell, which empower them to nourish via autotrophy, similar to plants.

Q24. During inspiration, the path of air is :

• A. Nostril-pharynx-lung-trachea-bronchi
• B. Nostril-bronchi-pharynx-trachea-lungs
• C. Nostril-pharynx-trachea-bronchi-lungs✓
• D. Nostril-pharynx-lungs-trachea-bronchi

Explanation: When you inhale through your nose or mouth, air travels down your pharynx (back of your throat), passes through your larynx (voice box) and into your trachea (windpipe). Your trachea is divided into two air passages called bronchial tubes. One bronchial tube leads to your left lung, the other to your right lung.

Q25. The manufactured food is transported to various regions by a process called:

• A. Translocation✓
• B. Transpiration
• C. Osmosis
• D. Diffusion

Explanation: The manufactured food is transported to various regions by a process called Translocation.

Q26. The protoplasm is shrinked in the solution of :

• A. Normal saline solution
• B. Isotonic solution
• C. Hypotonic solution
• D. Hypertonic solution✓

Explanation: When the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the protoplasm of the cell shrinks due to outward movement of solvent from the cell to the surrounding. A, B and D are incorrect.

Q27. The natural clock in the human body :

• A. Pineal body✓
• B. Medulla
• C. Pons
• D. Cerebellum

Explanation: Circadian rhythms are physical, mental, and behavioural changes that follow a 24-hour cycle. These natural processes respond primarily to light and dark and affect most living things, including animals, plants, and microbes. Chronobiology is the study of circadian rhythms.

Q28. The forebrain is divisible into two components :

• A. Cerebrum and cerebral hemispheres
• B. Medulla and pons
• C. Telencephalon and diencephalon✓
• D. Telencephalon and medulla

Explanation: Weighing at just 2% of the total body weight, the human brain is probably the most complex structure. It is the centre of control of all the body functions and senses. The average weight of the human brain is around 1.5 kg and it contains about 86 billion nerve cells (neurons) that control every action you take. Medulla and pons are part of the hindBrain.

Q29. Sugar level in blood is maintained by :

• A. Liver
• B. Kidney
• C. Adrenal gland
• D. Islets of Langerhans✓

Explanation: The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon, which releases glucose from the liver and fatty acids from fat tissue. Liver performs detoxification, the kidney makes urine, while adrenal glands secrete hormones that control mineral and glucose levels and combat emergency situations. Hence options A, B and C are incorrect.

Q30. In meiosis I , crossing over takes place in :

• A. Pachytene✓
• B. Diplotene
• C. Zygotene
• D. Diakinesis

Explanation: Crossing over mainly takes place in the pachytene stage of the prophase I of the meiosis. During crossing over, the homologous chromosomes exchange their genetic material which leads to the formation of recombinants.

Q31. Vertebral column is the part of _ skeleton :

• A. Axial✓
• B. Appendicular
• C. Exoskeleton
• D. Hydrostatic

Explanation: The axial skeleton is the part of the skeleton that consists of the bones of the head and trunk of a vertebrate. In the human skeleton, it consists of 80 bones and is composed of six parts; the skull (22 bones), also the ossicles of the middle ear, the hyoid bone, the rib cage, sternum and the vertebral column.

Q32. The science of ageing is called :

• A. Ethnology
• B. Gerontology✓
• C. Embryology
• D. Genetics

Explanation: Gerontology is the study of ageing and older adults. The science of gerontology has evolved as longevity has improved. Researchers in this field are diverse and are trained in areas such as physiology, social science, psychology, public health, and policy.

Q33. The possible result of crossing over between heterozygous tall (Tt)and homozygous dwarf (tt) is :

• A. 50 %tall and 50%dwarf✓
• B. 100% tall
• C. 100%dwarf
• D. 75%tall and 25% dwarf

Explanation: a) 50% tall and 50% dwarf: This is the correct answer. When crossing over occurs between a heterozygous tall (Tt) and a homozygous dwarf (tt), the possible outcomes of the offspring are half tall (Tt) and half dwarf (tt).

Q34. _muscle pulls the limb outward away from the body :

• A. Adductor
• B. Protractor
• C. Abductor✓
• D. Extensor

Explanation: :In general terms, abduction, in the anatomical sense, is classified as the motion of a limb or appendage away from the midline of the body. In the case of arm abduction, it is the movement of the arms away from the body within the plane of the torso.

Q35. _hormone stimulates mammary gland to secrete milk and process of labour :

• A. Oxytocin✓
• B. F.S.H
• C. L.H
• D. T.S.H

Explanation: :The two main actions of oxytocin in the body are contraction of the womb (uterus) during childbirth and lactation. Oxytocin stimulates the uterine muscles to contract and also increases production of prostaglandins, which increase the contractions further.

Q36. _germinal layer gives rise to all the body muscles.

• A. Ectoderm
• B. Endoderm
• C. Mesoderm✓
• D. Chorion

Explanation: The three germ layers are the endoderm, the ectoderm, and the mesoderm. Cells in each germ layer differentiate into tissues and embryonic organs. The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and the epidermis, among other tissues. The mesoderm gives rise to the muscle cells and connective tissue in the body.

Q37. The tendency of gene in chromosome to remain together is called :

• A. Crossing over
• B. Synapsis
• C. Terminalization
• D. Linkage✓

Explanation: Genetic linkage is the tendency of DNA sequences that are close together on a chromosome to be inherited together during the meiosis phase of sexual reproduction. Crossing is the exchange of genetic material . Synapsis is the fusion of chromosome pairs at the start of meiosis. Terminalization is the movement of bonds towards the ends of paired chromosomes

Q38. The bond between adenine and thymine is :

• A. Single
• B. Double✓
• C. Triple
• D. Covalent

Explanation: The bases of one strand bond to the bases of the second strand with hydrogen bonds. Adenine always bonds with thymine, and cytosine always bonds with guanine. The bonding causes the two strands to spiral around each other in a shape called a double helix. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a second nucleic acid found in cells.

Q39. _mono consists of deeper layer of water :

• A. Letic
• B. Littoral
• C. Limnetic
• D. Profundal✓

Explanation: The profundal zone is a deep zone of an inland body of freestanding water, such as a lake or pond, located below the range of effective light penetration. This is typically below the thermocline, the vertical zone in the water through which temperature drops rapidly.

Q40. Lichen is associated between:

• A. Fungus and Algae✓
• B. Algae and Bacteria
• C. Bacteria and Fungus
• D. Bacteria and Virus

Explanation: Lichens are commonly recognized as a symbiotic association of a fungus and a chlorophyll containing partner, either green algae or cyanobacteria, or both. The fungus provides a suitable habitat for the partner, which provides photosynthetically fixed carbon as energy source for the system. Bacteria can never be a part of lichen. Hence all options except A are incorre

Q41. Extra circular chromosome present in bacteria is called :

• A. Centrosome
• B. Centromere
• C. Plasmid✓
• D. DNA

Explanation: Plasmids carry only a few genes and exist independently of chromosomes, the primary structures that contain DNA in cells. Able to self-replicate, plasmids can be picked up from the environment and transferred between bacteria. Plasmids are used by their host organism to cope with stress-related conditions.

Q42. The person with down's syndrome has :

• A. One extra chromosome✓
• B. One less chromosome
• C. Two extra chromosome
• D. Two less chromosome

Explanation: Down syndrome results when abnormal cell division involving chromosome 21 occurs. These cell division abnormalities result in an extra partial or full chromosome 21. This extra genetic material is responsible for the characteristic features and developmental problems of Down syndrome.

Q43. The menstrual stage lasts for:

• A. 1 to 5 days✓
• B. 14 to 16 days
• C. 25 to 28 days
• D. 8 to 18 days

Explanation: The first phase is the menstrual phase, which is from day 1 to 5. During this stage, the uterus sheds its inner lining through the vagina in the form of fluid. Women generally have cramps caused due to the contraction of the uterine wall during this phase.

Q44. The eyespot in Euglena is sensitive for :

• A. Dark
• B. Light✓
• C. Red light
• D. Blue light

Explanation: :In the green one-celled organism Euglena, the eyespot is located in the gullet, at the base of the flagellum (a whiplike locomotory structure). A cup-shaped mass of pigment rods shields a sensitive area of the flagellar base from light coming from the direction of the opposite end of the organism.

Q45. The whole tail of the tadpole and its gills are lost during metamorphosis . The change is :

• A. Progressive
• B. Retroactive✓
• C. Organisational
• D. None of these

Explanation: Tadpoles hatch from the eggs and live in the pond. The tadpoles turn into Froglets. The body shrinks and legs form. The Froglets' tail shrinks, the lungs develop and the back legs grow and then we have a Frog. Retroactive changes are those that take effect from a date in the past

Q46. _no of ATP are produced during Aerobic respiration in prokaryotes :

• A. 32 ATP
• B. 34 ATP
• C. 36 ATP
• D. 38 ATP✓

Explanation: Without oxygen, organisms can split glucose into just two molecules of pyruvate. This releases only enough energy to make two ATP molecules. With oxygen, organisms can break down glucose all the way to carbon dioxide. This releases enough energy to produce up to 38 ATP molecules. 36 ATPs is produced by eukaryotes during Aerobic respiration.

Q47. The dark band in muscle fibres is due to :

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin and Actin✓
• C. Tropomyosin
• D. I band

Explanation: The arrangement of the thick myosin filaments across the myofibrils and the cell causes them to refract light and produce a dark band known as the A Band. In between the A bands is a light area where there are no thick myofilaments, only thin actin filaments. These are called the I Bands.

Q48. Neurospora is a fungus which is used to understand the principle of :

• A. Reproduction
• B. Locomotion
• C. Inheritance✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Neurospora - an ascomycetes fungus has been used as a biological tool to understand the mechanism of plant genetics much in the same way as Drosophila has been used to study animal genetics. Hence option C is correct.

Q49. The total autosomes in human are :

• A. 44✓
• B. 46
• C. 22
• D. 23

Explanation: These chromosomes are present in equal pairs and they can be defined as the thread-like structure found inside the nucleus of every cell. Out of which 22 pairs are autosomes and remaining 1 pair is a sex chromosome. So there will be 44 autosomes

Q50. The result of nondisjunction are :

• A. Down's Syndrome
• B. Turner's Syndrome
• C. Klinefelter's Syndrome
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Nondisjunction causes abnormal number chromosomes in all the cells called aneuploidy or in some cells called mosaicism. Some of the important examples are: Down's syndrome, Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome.

Q51. The process during which solid is directly converted into gaseous state is called :

• A. Boiling
• B. Evaporation
• C. Sublimation✓
• D. Freezing

Explanation: conversion of a substance from the solid to the gaseous state without its becoming liquid. An example is the vaporisation of frozen carbon dioxide (dry ice) at ordinary atmospheric pressure and temperature. The phenomenon is the result of vapour pressure and temperature relationships.

Q52. The number of atoms of nitrogen represented in the formula NH4NO is :

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: The molecule of ammonium nitrate is formed by the union of 2 nitrogen atoms, 4 hydrogen atoms and 3 oxygen atoms. Ammonium has a chemical formula NH4+ and nitrate has the chemical formula NO3-.

Q53. Which of the following techniques could be used to separate the colored dyes from black ink :

• A. Chromatography✓
• B. Filtration
• C. Fractional distillation
• D. Precipitation

Explanation: chromatography is the method used for the separation of the mixture of dye from black ink.

Q54. The crystalline form of allotropes are called:

• A. Chemically same✓
• B. Chemically different
• C. Some time same and sometime different
• D. Depend upon substance

Explanation: Allotropes are the crystalline forms of an element that exist in more than one crystalline form with varying physical properties but comparable chemical properties. Diamond and graphite are the two most popular allotropes of carbon. Carbon is a nonmetallic element that is required for life to exist.

Q55. Alpha rays are :

• A. Single negatively charged particles
• B. Single positively charged particles
• C. Double negatively charged particles
• D. Double positively charged particles✓

Explanation: Alpha particles have a positive charge and are identical with helium nuclei and consist of two protons and two neutrons. They result from the radioactive decay of heavy elements such as radium, thorium, uranium, and plutonium.

Q56. Which is the lightest among following:

• A. An atom of hydrogen
• B. An electron✓
• C. A neutron
• D. A proton

Explanation: Electron, lightest stable subatomic particle known. It carries a negative charge of 1.602176634 × 10−19 coulomb, which is considered the basic unit of electric charge.

Q57. In an atom no two electrons can have same set of quantum numbers”, this statement was given by:

• A. Uncertainty principle
• B. Pauli’s exclusion principle✓
• C. Hund’s rule
• D. Aufbau’s principle

Explanation: Pauli's Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have identical values for all four of their quantum numbers. In other words, (1) no more than two electrons can occupy the same orbital and (2) two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins.

Q58. The bond formed by the electrostatic attraction between negative end of one molecule and positive end of other is called:

• A. Covalent bond
• B. Hydrogen bond
• C. Ionic bond✓
• D. Coordinate covalent bond

Explanation: According to the Lewis theory, ionic bond is formed by the complete transfer of electrons or electrons from an atom with low ionisation energy to another atom with high electron affinity. In energy terms, the electropositive elements are at a higher energy state than the electronegative elements. The energy difference will be responsible for the transfer of electrons from a higher energy state to a lower energy state.

Q59. The bond angle in a molecule having Sp3 hybridization with no lone pair is:

• A. 120 Angle
• B. 180 Angle
• C. 109 Angle✓
• D. 90 angle

Explanation: According to the hybridization theory, atomic orbitals differ slightly in energy intermix to form new orbitals, which are called hybrid atomic orbitals. They differ from the parent atomic orbitals in shape and possess specific geometry. The atomic orbital hybridization gives a satisfactory explanation for the valency of the elements. In some cases, the electrons belonging to the ground state are promoted to the excited state as a result of which there is an increase in the number of unpaired electrons.energy changes occur in hybridization.

Q60. Properties of system, which depend upon the amount of substance present in the system are called:

• A. Chemical properties
• B. Intensive properties
• C. Extensive properties✓
• D. Physical properties

Explanation: An extensive property of a system depends on the system size or the amount of matter in the system. If the value of the property of a system is equal to the sum of the values for the parts of the system then such a property is called extensive property. Volume, energy, and mass are examples of extensive properties

Q61. Enthalpy is the expression for the:

• A. Reaction rate
• B. Heat content✓
• C. Energy state
• D. Activation state

Explanation: Enthalpy is the measurement of energy in a thermodynamic system. The quantity of enthalpy equals the total content of heat of a system, equivalent to the system’s internal energy plus the product of volume and pressure. A change in enthalpy of a system can be written as: ∆ H = ∆E + ∆(PV) ∆ H = ∆E + V∆ P + P ∆V Since, the gas is kept at constant pressure, = 0 Hence ∆ H =∆ E + P ∆V …….(4) In case of liquids and solids, the changes in state do not cause significant volume change i.e. ∆V = 0 For such process, ∆H and ∆E are approximately the same i.e. ∆E ≈∆ H According to first law of thermodynamics: ∆E = q + wIf w is pressure - volume work done by the system, then: w = - P∆ V So ∆ E = q - P ∆V Putting the value of ∆E in equation 4 we get: ∆ H = q - P∆ V + P ∆V ∆H = q Since the pressure is constant, therefore, ∆H = qp......... (5) This shows that change in enthalpy is equal to heat of reaction at constant pressure. The reactions are carried out at constant pressure more frequently than at constant volume. So, working with ∆H is more convenient than ∆E .

Q62. The heat require to change 1 mole of Iodine (solid) to Iodine (gas) is called:

• A. Heat of vaporisation
• B. Heat of sublimation✓
• C. Heat of fusion
• D. Melting point

Explanation: The heat absorbed by one gram or unit mass of a substance in the process of changing, at a constant temperature and pressure, from a solid to a gaseous state.Like vaporisation, the process of sublimation requires an input of energy to overcome intermolecular attractions. The enthalpy of sublimation, ΔHsub, is the energy required to convert one mole of a substance from the solid to the gaseous state.

Q63. In the electrolysis of CuCl2 (Copper Chloride) the substance liberated at the anode:

• A. Copper
• B. Chloride✓
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Copper Chloride

Explanation: Electrolysis is a process by which electrical energy is used to produce a chemical change.The electrolysis cell consists of two metallic rods known as electrodes that are connected to a battery and dipped into molten electrolyte or electrolyte solution.The electrode connected to the positive side of the battery is called the anode.The electrode connected to the negative side of the battery is called the cathode.The electrically charged cations and anions present in the electrolyte move towards the respective electrodes.That is, positively charged cations move toward the cathode and negatively charged anions move towards the anode.When the anions reach the anode, they are discharged through electron removal(oxidation), liberating neutral atoms or molecules at the electrode.When cations reach the cathode, they are neutralised through electron addition(reduction).

Q64. Factors affecting the balance of a chemical equilibrium are following except:

• A. Concentration
• B. Temperature
• C. Enthalpy✓
• D. Pressure

Explanation: temperature, pressure, and concentration of the system are all factors that affect equilibrium. When one of these factors changes, the equilibrium of the system is disrupted, and the system readjusts itself until it returns to equilibrium.Le Châtelier's principle states that if a dynamic equilibrium is disturbed by changing the conditions, the position of equilibrium shifts to counteract the change to reestablish an equilibrium.The change in ENTHALPY doesn't effect the dynamic equilibrium.

Q65. The formula for general gas equation is:

• A. P1 V1 = P2V2
• B. V1/T1 = V2/T2
• C. E = mc2
• D. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2✓

Explanation: The ideal gas equation is formulated as: PV = nRT. In this equation, P refers to the pressure of the ideal gas, V is the volume of the ideal gas, n is the total amount of ideal gas that is measured in terms of moles, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the temperature.

Q66. The electronic configurations of the noble gases are:

• A. ns2, np5
• B. ns2, np6✓
• C. ns2, np4 , nd8
• D. ns2, np5, nd10

Explanation: The electronic configuration of noble gases will have 8 electrons in the outermost shell except helium. Therefore they are the most stable. (b) Atoms form chemical bonds to achieve stability by acquiring inert gas electron configuration ( to fulfil the octet rule)A noble gas configuration of an atom consists of the elemental symbol of the last noble gas prior to that atom, followed by the configuration of the remaining electrons.

Q67. The electro-negativity of the element is increased:

• A. Down the group
• B. Across the period from right to left
• C. Across the period from left to right✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In a bond between dissimilar atoms such as in HF the electron density of the bonding electrons lies more towards the fluorine atom than towards the hydrogen atom. The tendency of an atom to attract a shared electron pair towards itself is called its electronegativity.

Q68. Which of the following is the most suitable alotropy of sulphur:

• A. Plastic sulphur
• B. Monoclinic sulphur
• C. Rhombic sulphur✓
• D. Laughing gas

Explanation: Rhombic sulphur is crystalline in nature and has an octahedral shape.Octahedral sulphur:- this is also known as rhombic sulphur and is the most stable form as it is insoluble in water and is prepared by evaporating the solution of roll sulphur in carbon disulphide.. On heating the solution of roll sulphur in CS2 we get rhombic sulphur. It is yellow with a melting point of 385.8K and specific gravity of 2.06. Rhombic sulphur cannot be dissolved in water but can be dissolved in benzene, ether, alcohol etc

Q69. S — black element have the folowing properties except:

• A. Reaction with water gives hydroxides
• B. Reaction with water gives different oxides
• C. Reaction with metals to give binary ionic salts✓
• D. Reaction with non-metals to give binary ionic salts

Explanation: Alkali and alkaline metals are reducing in natureThey have low ionisation enthalpies They lose the outermost electron(s) to form cation .Group 1 elements lose 1 electron while the group 2 elements loses 2 electrons .Metallic character increases down the group .Because of high reactivity they are never found pure in nature .Reactivity increases down the group .Compounds of s-Block are ionic in nature.They form binary ionic compounds with non metals .Exception to this is beryllium and lithium

Q70. Melting and Boiling points of transitive elements is high because:

• A. Half filled d-orbit
• B. Metabolic bond✓
• C. Small atomic size and valence electrons
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Transition metals have very high melting and boiling points due to strong binding forces present between their atoms Melting points increase up to the middle of the series and the Transition metals tend to have particularly high melting points and boiling points. The reason is that they can involve the 3d electrons in the delocalisation as well as the 4s. The more electrons you can involve, the stronger the attractions tend to be.Transition elements have a high melting point because of the presence of metallic properties. They also have large ionisation enthalpies that increase their melting and boiling points. Transition elements can also form covalent bonds with other elements

Q71. The compound formed by the action of the water on the Calcium carbide is

• A. Ethane
• B. Ethene
• C. Acetylene✓
• D. Methane

Explanation: On industrial scale ethyne is prepared by the reaction of calcium carbide (CaC2 ) with water Calcium carbide is prepared by heating lime (CaO) and coke (C) at a very high temperature in an electric furnace at 2000 C CaO+3C—--> CaC +CO CaC2+2H2O→AcetyleneCH≡CH+Ca(OH)2 ​The reaction of calcium carbide and water produces acetylene gas (C2H2) and calcium hydroxide.

Q72. The fat soluble vitamins is:

• A. Vitamin A✓
• B. Vitamin B-12
• C. Niacin
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Vitamins A are called the fat-soluble vitamins, because they are soluble in organic solvents and are absorbed and transported in a manner similar to that of fats.Vitamin A is an essential nutrient for humans. It is a group of organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids.

Q73. The formula which indicates the relative numbers of different kinds of the atoms in a molecule is called:

• A. Structural formula
• B. Empirical formula
• C. Molecular formula✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The molecular formula is an expression that defines the number of atoms of each element in one molecule of a compound. It shows the actual number of each atom in a molecule. For example, the molecular formula of propane is C4H10. In this formula, there are 4 carbon atoms and 10 hydrogen atoms in the given compound

Q74. Methane is obtained by which following method:

• A. Electrolysis of sodium acetate
• B. Electrolysis of aluminium carbide
• C. Heating sodium acetate with soda lime✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: When sodium acetate(CH3COONa)reacts with soda lime(NaOH + CaO), it undergoes a decarboxylation reaction and gives methane (CH4) and sodium carbonate.

Q75. The following reactions is an example of C.H8 + → heat → C3H6Cl2 + 2HCL

• A. Addition reaction
• B. Reduction reaction
• C. Oxidation reaction
• D. Substitution reaction✓

Explanation: Alkanes react with chlorine and bromine in the presence of sunlight or UV light or at high temperature resulting in the successive replacement of hydrogen atoms with halogens called halogenation. Extent of halogenation depends upon the amount of halogen used. Reaction of alkanes with fluorine is highly violent and results in a mixture of carbon, fluorinated alkanes and hydrofluoric acid. Iodine does not substitute directly because the reaction is too slow and reversible. The order of reactivity of halogens is F2 >Cl2 >Br2 >I2. CH4+Cl2→CH3Cl+HCl.

Q76. In which of the following reaction the rate of nucleophilic substitution depend upon the concentration of the alkyl halide only:

• A. SN1✓
• B. SN2
• C. SN3
• D. Addition reaction

Explanation: the bond breaks first followed by the formation of a new bond, the mechanism is called SN1.Since the first step involves the breakage of a covalent bond, it is a slow step as compared to the second step which involves the energetically favourable combination of ions. The first step is, therefore, called the rate-determining step. The mechanism is called unimolecular because only one molecule takes part in the rate determining step.In SN1 mechanism, the nucleophile attacks when the leaving group has already gone, so the question of the direction of the attack does not arise. Moreover, the intermediate carbocation is a planar species allowing the nucleophile to attack it from both directions with equal ease. We, therefore, observe 50% inversion of configuration and 50% retention of configuration. Reactions involving SN1 mechanism show first order kinetics and the rates of such reactions depend only upon the concentration of the alkyl halide. The rate equation of such reactions can be written as follows. Rate = k [Alkyl halide] Tertiary alkyl halides when attacked by a nucleophile always follow SN1 mechanism R

Q77. In the phenol:

• A. Alcoholic group attached on ring structure
• B. Hydroxyl group attached on benzene ring✓
• C. Alcoholic group attached on benzene ring
• D. All of the above

Explanation: It consists of a phenyl group ( −C 6H 5) bonded to a hydroxyl group ( −OH). Mildly acidic, it requires careful handling because it can cause chemical burns.:The hydroxyl group in phenol is involved in the formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Thus, hydrogen bonds are formed between water and phenol molecules which make phenol soluble in water. However, the aryl group attached to the hydroxyl group is hydrophobic in nature

Q78. P.V.C. prepared from:

• A. Ethene and hydrogen chloride✓
• B. Ethane and hydrogen chloride
• C. Methane and hydrogen chloride
• D. Acetylene and hydrogen chloride

Explanation: It is an addition polymer obtained by polymerizing vinyl chloride at 52°C and 9 atmospheric pressure.Ethene reacts with hcl to form vinyl chloride. The electrolysis of salt water produces chlorine. The chlorine is then combined with ethylene that has been obtained from oil. The resulting element is ethylene dichloride, which is converted at very high temperatures to vinyl chloride monomer. These monomer molecules are polymerized forming polyvinyl chloride resin.

Q79. Methyl alcohol is also known as:

• A. Wood spirit
• B. Wood naphtha
• C. Methanol
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Methanol (also called methyl alcohol and wood spirit, amongst other names) is an organic chemical and the simplest aliphatic alcohol, with the formula CH3OH (a methyl group linked to a hydroxyl group, often abbreviated as MeOH). It is a light, volatile, colourless, flammable liquid with a distinctive alcoholic odour similar to that of ethanol (potable alcohol).A polar solvent, methanol acquired the name wood alcohol because it was once produced chiefly by the destructive distillation of wood. Today, methanol is mainly produced industrially by hydrogenation of carbon monoxide.Methanol consists of a methyl group linked to a polar hydroxyl group. With more than 20 million tons produced annually, it is used as a precursor to other commodity chemicals, including formaldehyde, acetic acid, methyl tert-butyl ether, methyl benzoate, anisole, peroxyacids, as well as a host of more specialised chemicalsUseful search terms for methyl alcohol include “methanol,” “carbinol,” “columbian spirits,” “pyroligneous spirits,” “wood alcohol,” “wood naphtha,” and “wood spirits.”

Q80. Commercially nitric acid is prepared by the:

• A. Oxidation of ammonia by Bayer's method
• B. Oxidation of ammonia by Oswald’s method✓
• C. Reduction of ammonia by Oswald’s method
• D. Oxidation of ammonia by Hoop's process

Explanation: Nitric oxide is a colourless liquid that is used in the manufacture of inorganic and organic nitrates and nitro compounds for fertilisers, dye intermediates, explosives, and many different organic chemicals. Nitric acid is most commonly manufactured by the Ostwald process. The Ostwald process converts ammonia to nitric acid and involves two steps. In step 1,NH3 is oxidised to form nitric oxide and also NO2. Then in step 2, the nitrogen dioxide that was formed is absorbed in water. This in-turn forms nitric acid. The Ostwald process has many well-known uses in both the industrial and health field. Through the Ostwald process, nitric acid is commonly used in fertilisers and pharmaceuticals, and because of its chemical reaction with some compounds, it is used in rocket fuel and explosives like trinitrotoluene (TNT). OSTWALD PROCESS FOR MAKING NITRIC ACID: Step 1 - Primary oxidation (formation of nitric acid) Oxidation of ammonia is carried out in a catalyst chamber in which one part of ammonia and eight parts of oxygen by volume are introduced. The temperature of the chamber is about 600oC. This chamber contains a platinum gauze which serves as the catalyst. Oxidation of ammonia is a reversible and exothermic process. Therefore according to Le- chatelier’s principle, a decrease in temperature favours reaction in forwarding direction. In primary oxidation, 95 percent of ammonia is converted into nitric oxide (NO). 4NH3 + 5O2 ↔ 4NO + 6H2O ?H -24.8 Kcal/mol Step 2 - Secondary oxidation (formation of nitrogen dioxide) Nitric oxide gas obtained by the oxidation of ammonia is very hot. In order to reduce its temperature, it is passed through a heat exchanger where the temperature of nitric oxide is reduced to 150oC NITRIC OXIDE after cooling is transferred to another oxidising tower where at about 50oC it is oxidised to nitrogen dioxide (NO2). 2NO + O2 ↔2 NO2 Step 3 - Absorption of NO2 (formation of HNO3) Nitrogen dioxide from the secondary oxidation chamber is introduced into a special absorption tower. NO2 gas passes through the tower and water is showered over it. By the absorption, nitric acid is obtained. 3NO2 + H2O -> 2HNO3 + NO Nitric acid obtained is very dilute. It is recycled in the absorption tower so that more and more NO2 gets absorbed. HNO3, after recycling, becomes about 68 percent concentrated. Step 4 - Concentration In order to increase the concentration of HNO3, vapours of HNO3 are passed over concentrated H2SO4. Being a dehydrating agent, H2SO4 absorbs water from HNO3 and concentrated HNO3 is obtained.

Q81. Which of the following quantities are vector:

• A. Time and Mass
• B. Force and Displacement✓
• C. Length and Weight
• D. Temperature and Density

Explanation: A vector is a quantity or phenomenon that has two independent properties: magnitude and direction. Vector quantities refer to the physical quantities characterised by the presence of both magnitude as well as direction.The term also denotes the mathematical or geometrical representation of such a quantity. For example, displacement, force, torque, momentum, acceleration, velocity, etc.

Q82. momentum of the body increase by 20% what is the % increase in it’s K.E.:

• A. 36
• B. 44✓
• C. 52
• D. 60

Explanation: The percentage increase in the KE is 44 %.

Q83. Which one of the following statement is incorrect:

• A. A body has a constant velocity but varying speed✓
• B. A body has a constant speed but varying acceleration
• C. A body has a constant speed can not has a acceleration
• D. Body has a constant speed can has varying velocity

Explanation: A body's velocity cannot be constant while its speed fluctuates.

Q84. Centripetal force ‘FC' is given by:

• A. mv2/r✓
• B. mv/r
• C. m2v/r
• D. mv/l

Explanation: The centripetal force has the formula mv2\r.

Q85. Value of 'G' is:

• A. 6.667 x 1011 N-m2/Kg
• B. 6.667 x 10-11 Nm/Kg2
• C. 6.667 x 1013 Nm2/Kg
• D. 6.667 x 10-11 Nm2/Kg2✓

Explanation: The universal gravitational constant (G) relates the magnitude of the gravitational attractive force between two bodies to their masses and the distance between them. Its value is extremely difficult to measure experimentally.

Q86. If we go away from the surface of the earth at a distance equal to radius of the earth then the value of 'g' will be:

• A. 1/4✓
• B. 1/8
• C. 1/2
• D. 1/9

Explanation: If we go away from the earth surface equal to the radius of earth the value of G becomes ¼ of it. Acceleration due to gravity = g=GM earth \R2 R = distance from the centre of the earth At a height = R above earth's surface g=GMearth\(R+R)2 GM earth\4R2=g\4

Q87. The energy of a body at height 'h' from the center of earth to the which g = 0 is called:

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Potential energy
• C. Gravitational energy
• D. Absolute potential energy✓

Explanation: Absolute potential energy is defined as the amount of work that needs to be done on an object to bring an object to its current location from a point of infinite distance. It can also be defined as the energy needed for an object to reach escape velocity So the absolute potential energy is the correct answer and has a non zero value .

Q88. Which one of the following is not regarded as a fundamental quantity in physics:

• A. Length
• B. Time
• C. Mass
• D. Force✓

Explanation: Any physical quantity can be measured and expressed in terms of magnitude and a unit. The physical quantities which do not depend on any other physical quantities for their measurements are known as fundamental quantities or base quantities.Following are the seven fundamental quantities:Length (metre),Mass (kilogram),Time (second),Electric current (ampere),Thermodynamic temperature (kelvin),Amount of substance (mole),Luminous intensity (candela.

Q89. Acoustics is the study:

• A. Production of sound
• B. Production and properties of the sound✓
• C. Source of sound
• D. Intensity, Frequency and quality of sound

Explanation: Acoustics deal with production and properties of the sound

Q90. Which of the given condition is not a possible to discuss the Doppler's effect:

• A. When the listener is at moving and the source as at rest
• B. When the listener is at rest and the source is at moving
• C. When the listener and the source are at rest✓
• D. When the listener and source are at moving

Explanation: Doppler effect in physics is defined as the increase (or decrease) in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move towards (or away from) each other. Waves emitted by a source travelling towards an observer get compressed.Doppler Effect is applicable only when the velocities of the source of the sound and the observer are much less than the velocity of sound. The motion of both source and the observer should be along the same straight line.

Q91. Michelson interferometer is the instrument used to record the interference pattern of the light used to calculate:

• A. Interaction of light
• B. Wave length✓
• C. Refraction of light
• D. Diffraction of light

Explanation: A Michelson interferometer is an instrument used to measure the wavelength of light or to observe interference patterns generated by light waves. It is a valuable tool in the field of optics and interferometry, allowing for precise measurements of wavelengths and other optical phenomena.

Q92. The specific heat time the mass of a body is called:

• A. Specific heat mass✓
• B. Thermal capacity
• C. Internal energy
• D. Heat capacity

Explanation: The specific heat time the mass of the body is specific heat mass.

Q93. The electric field intensity at a distance of 1m from a point of charge to 1 micro coulomb is:

• A. 1/4
• B. 9 x 109 N/C
• C. 9 x 106 N/C
• D. 9 x 103 N/C✓

Explanation: AS we know F=KQ\r2Q=1 MICRO C r=1m K=9X10 ^9 Nm2\C2 F=(9x10⁹) x( 1 x 10-⁶) \1 F=9x10 ⁹-⁶F=9x10 ³F=9000N

Q94. The unit of rate of change of momentum is:

• A. N✓
• B. NC
• C. NS2
• D. N/S

Explanation: Rate of change in momentum is newton(N).

Q95. Dot product of force and displacement is:

• A. Momentum
• B. Moment
• C. Power
• D. Work✓

Explanation: Work is defined as the dot product of force and displacement.(F.S)

Q96. Work done in unit time is:

• A. Pressure
• B. Work
• C. Energy
• D. Power✓

Explanation: Power, (P) is defined as the rate of doing work or work done, W per unit time, (t). ⟹P=Wt. The SI unit of power is watt and is represented by W.

Q97. Erg is unit of energy in:

• A. MKS
• B. SI
• C. FPS
• D. CGS✓

Explanation: The CGS system is a coherent system of units based on the fundamental units of centimetre for distance, gram for mass, and second for time. It was superseded by the MKS system, which was based on the fundamental units of metre for distance, kilogram for mass, and second for time.The erg (symbol, erg, i.e. the same as the unit) is the unit of energy in the cgs system, where one erg represents the work done when a force of one dyne is acting over a distance of one cm and is equivalent to 1 x 10-7 joules.

Q98. Number of vibration in 1 sec is:

• A. Time period
• B. Frequency✓
• C. Amplitude
• D. none of these

Explanation: The number of vibrations made by the vibrating body in one second is called frequency.It is measured in hertz[Hz]

Q99. Total energy of vibrating body is:

• A. Increase
• B. Decrease
• C. Constant✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The total energy of the vibrating mass and spring is constant. When the KE of the mass is maximum, the PE of the spring is zero. Conversely, when the PE of the spring is maximum, the K.E. of the mass is zero The interchange occurs continuously from one form to the other as the spring is compressed and released alternately The variation of PE and KE with displacement is essential for maintaining oscillations. This periodic exchange of energy is a basic property of all oscillatory systems. In the case of simple pendulum gravitational PE of the mass, when displaced, is converted into K.E at the equilibrium position. The K.E. is converted into PE as the mass rises to the top of the swing. Because of the frictional forces, energy is dissipated and consequently, the systems do not oscillate indefinitely.

Q100. The waves in which motion of particles of medium and propagation of wave are in same direction are called :

• A. Longitudinal✓
• B. Transverse
• C. Electromagnetic
• D. None of these

Explanation: Longitudinal waves, also known as l-waves, are waves in which the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as the direction of travel of the wave. Longitudinal waves are also called compressional waves or compression waves, because they produce compression and rarefaction when travelling through a medium