Sindh Mcat Nts 2002 Iba — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. _ child must respect his parents.

• A. A✓
• B. An
• C. This
• D. That

Explanation: The correct answer is 'A'. The indefinite article 'a' is used before words that begin with a consonant sound, such as 'child.' This choice ensures the sentence is grammatically correct. 'An' is incorrect because it is used before vowel sounds. 'This' and 'That' are demonstrative pronouns and do not fit the sentence structure, which requires an article.

Q2. Read the paragraph carefully and gives the best answer of the given questions:College is the practising ground for the student. It is not sufficient that he gives himself up to studies. He must develop the noble qualities of showing respect to elders and teachers create a team spirit and participate in the various extracurricular activities and maintain college discipline to raise the prestige of his college.What part does college life play in the training of the students?

• A. College life groom and prepares a student for life✓
• B. Prepare the student in academics
• C. Develops noble dualities in academics
• D. Help the students to take part in extracurricular activities

Explanation: College is described as a place where the student must not only advance in his studies but improve and develop his skills by participation in various activities, learn to show respect to his seniors and teachers and do things that raise the prestige of his college. These will provide the perfect stage for grooming the student for his life and responsibilities ahead, and he must maintain a balance, only studies or studies or activities alone are not sufficient.

Q3. The branch of biology which deals with the process and the function of processes is known as:

• A. Physiology✓
• B. Pathology
• C. Histology
• D. Evolution

Explanation: The word physiology is derived from Ancient Greek (physis), meaning "nature, origin", and (logia), meaning "study of'" is the scientific study of function in living systems. This branch of biology tells us how organisms, organ systems, organs, cells, and biomolecules function in living organisms

Q4. Read the paragraph carefully and gives the best answer of the given questions:College is the practising ground for the student. It is not sufficient that he gives himself up to studies. He must develop the noble qualities of showing respect to elders and teachers create a team spirit and participate in the various extracurricular activities and maintain college discipline to raise the prestige of his college.What part does college life play in the training of the students?

• A. College life groom and prepares a student for life✓
• B. Prepare the student in academics
• C. Develops noble dualities in academics
• D. Help the students to take part in extracurricular activities

Explanation: College is described as a place where the student must not only advance in his studies but improve and develop his skills by participation in various activities, learn to show respect to his seniors and teachers and do things that raise the prestige of his college. These will provide the perfect stage for grooming the student for his life and responsibilities ahead, and he must maintain a balance, only studies or studies or activities alone are not sufficient.

Q5. Choose the suitable preposition:Rich lady found grate pleasure _ showing off her riches.

• A. In✓
• B. For
• C. At
• D. By

Explanation: A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an object. Some examples of prepositions are words like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to." Option A is correct. The correct sentence is Rich woman found great pleasure in showing off her riches.

Q6. Bane (Synonym)

• A. Banter
• B. Mystery
• C. Exile
• D. Affliction✓

Explanation: The term bane is commonly used to describe something that causes death, ruin, or great distress. The correct synonym in this context is affliction, which conveys a similar meaning of causing harm or suffering. Conversely, the other options do not align with this concept: Banter refers to light-hearted conversation, mystery is about something unknown or puzzling, and exile pertains to being forced out of one's homeland, none of which imply the same sense of harm or destruction.

Q7. _said that protoplasm is the physical basis of life.

• A. Robert Brown
• B. Robert Hooke
• C. Jan Evangelista Purkinje
• D. Thomas Huxley✓

Explanation: Thomas Huxley is credited with the statement that protoplasm is the 'physical basis of life.' He highlighted the importance of protoplasm in the cellular structure and its role in life's processes. Robert Brown discovered the cell nucleus, Robert Hooke is known for inventing the term 'cell', and Jan Evangelista Purkinje identified Purkinje fibers in the heart. None of these scientists are associated with the concept of protoplasm as Huxley is.

Q8. Infoldings in the mitochondrial inner membrane is called :

• A. Cristae✓
• B. Thylakoid
• C. Glyoxysome
• D. Chromatin network

Explanation: The correct answer is Cristae. Cristae are the infoldings in the mitochondrial inner membrane that increase surface area for ATP production and the electron transport chain. The other options are incorrect because they are not related to the structure and function of the mitochondria.

Q9. The bond present between carbohydrate units :

• A. Peptide bond
• B. Covalent bond
• C. Glycosidic bond✓
• D. Electrostatic bond

Explanation: The correct answer is the glycosidic bond, which is a specific type of covalent bond that links carbohydrate molecules. It occurs when the hemiacetal or hemiketal group of one saccharide forms a bond with the hydroxyl group of another, creating a glycoside. Peptide bonds, in contrast, connect amino acids in proteins. Electrostatic bonds are formed by electrical charge interactions and do not connect carbohydrate units.

Q10. _discovered microscopic creatures under the microscope in the blood cells of malarial patients.

• A. Ronald Ross
• B. Leveran✓
• C. Grassy
• D. A.F.A King

Explanation: Our understanding of the malaria parasites began in 1880 with the discovery of the parasites in the blood of malaria patients by Alphonse Laveran. Ronald Ross , A.F.A king and grassy were the contributors to the causes and treatment of malaria.

Q11. The nonliving part of protoplasm is :

• A. Golgi bodies
• B. Inclusion✓
• C. Organelles
• D. E. R

Explanation: Cells consist of various cell organelles like chloroplast, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria etc. which form the living component of the cell which also include the protoplasm of a cell. ∙ The various non-living inclusions are metabolic by-products which are either organic or inorganic in nature. ∙ As they are not included in the protoplasm such non-living components are also called as non-protoplasmic contents/ ergastic substances/ Hyaloplasm. Golgi bodies endoplasmic reticulum and all organelles of the cell are considered living. Hence options A, C and D are incorrect.

Q12. The movement of cytoplasm is called

• A. Exocytosis
• B. Endocytosis
• C. Pinocytosis
• D. Cyclosis✓

Explanation: Cyclosis, or cytoplasmic streaming, is the correct term for the movement of cytoplasm within cells. This process is crucial for the distribution of materials and organelles within the cell. The other options—exocytosis, endocytosis, and pinocytosis—are processes related to the transport of substances into or out of the cell, rather than movement within the cytoplasm itself.

Q13. Some bacteria live on dead organic matter they are called :

• A. Parasites
• B. Phages
• C. Saprophytes✓
• D. Symbionts

Explanation: The correct answer is Saprophytes. These organisms feed on dead and decaying organic matter, recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem. Parasites, on the other hand, feed on living hosts, often harming them in the process. Phages are viruses that infect bacteria and do not feed on dead organic matter. Symbionts engage in mutually beneficial relationships with living organisms, rather than obtaining nutrients from dead matter.

Q14. Blue green pigment found only in blue green algae is:

• A. Chlorophyll
• B. Xanthophyll
• C. Carotene
• D. Phycobilin✓

Explanation: Blue-green algae or cyanobacteria also contain chlorophyll a, yellowish carotenoids, and blue-pigment phycobilins. Only the appearance of these pigments causes the blue-green colour of the algae. Chlorophyll is a true green pigment. Xanthophylls are yellow pigments. Carotene are yellow and orange pigments. Hence A, B and C are incorrect.

Q15. Sexual reproduction in bacteria is taken by:

• A. Binary fission
• B. Conidia
• C. Conjugation✓
• D. Zoospore

Explanation: Conjugation is the correct answer because it involves the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through direct contact, usually mediated by a structure known as a pilus. This process allows for genetic variation, which is a key feature of sexual reproduction, although bacteria do not reproduce sexually in the traditional sense. In contrast, binary fission is an asexual process of cell division, conidia are asexual spores of fungi, and zoospores are motile asexual spores found in some other organisms. None of these involve the exchange of genetic material in bacteria.

Q16. Cyanobacteria is a typical example of:

• A. Chlorophyceae
• B. Cyanophyceae✓
• C. Green algae
• D. Fungi

Explanation: Cyanobacteria, also known as Cyanophyta, are a phylum of gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy via photosynthesis. They are classified under Cyanophyceae, a group of prokaryotic organisms capable of photosynthesis. Unlike Chlorophyceae and green algae, which are eukaryotic, cyanobacteria lack a true nucleus. Fungi do not perform photosynthesis and are unrelated to cyanobacteria.

Q17. Saliva in mouth helps in digestion of :

• A. Bread✓
• B. Meat
• C. Fat
• D. Table Salt

Explanation: Saliva contains special enzymes that help digest the starches in your food. An enzyme called amylase breaks down starches (complex carbohydrates) into sugars, which your body can more easily absorb. Saliva amylase in mouth only digests carbs upto 3 to 5%. It cannot digest protein (meat), lipid (fat), and salts.

Q18. Major metabolic factory, detoxification centre and storage organ of body is :

• A. Stomach
• B. Brain
• C. Kidney
• D. Liver✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the liver. It is a vital organ that performs a wide range of functions, including detoxifying chemicals, metabolizing drugs, and storing nutrients like glycogen. It also produces bile, which is essential for digestion. The liver is often referred to as the body's metabolic hub due to its numerous roles in maintaining homeostasis. In contrast, the stomach primarily aids in digestion, the brain controls bodily functions and cognition, and the kidneys focus on filtering blood to produce urine.

Q19. The actual visual receptor of the eye are :

• A. Iris and pupil
• B. Iris and lens
• C. Rods and cones✓
• D. Cornea and retina

Explanation: Cones are active at higher light levels (photopic vision), are capable of colour vision and are responsible for high spatial acuity. Iris is the coloured part, pupil is the central black spot from where light enters the eye. Lens is responsible for focusing light. Cornea is a membrane that protects structures inside eye while retina contains layers of photoreceptors (rods and cones).

Q20. Haemoglobin is :

• A. Respiratory pigment✓
• B. Excretory pigment
• C. Digestive pigment
• D. Storage pigment

Explanation: Haemoglobin is a respiratory pigment found in red blood cells. Its main function is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and return carbon dioxide from the body to the lungs to be exhaled. It is not involved in excretion, digestion, or storage functions, which are associated with other types of pigments and processes in the body or in plants.

Q21. The excretory organ in insects are :

• A. Flame cells
• B. Malpighian tubules✓
• C. Contractile vacuoles
• D. Kidneys

Explanation: In insects, the primary excretory organs are the Malpighian tubules. These tubules play a crucial role in osmoregulation and excretion, helping insects to maintain internal homeostasis by removing metabolic wastes and regulating water balance. The other options are incorrect because flame cells are found in flatworms, contractile vacuoles are found in protozoans, and kidneys are found in vertebrates, none of which apply to insects.

Q22. The kidneys does not perform the function of :

• A. Regulation of blood pressure
• B. Secretion of bile✓
• C. Regulation of pH
• D. Homeostasis

Explanation: The correct answer is Secretion of bile. The kidneys do not secrete bile; this is a function of the liver. The kidneys are responsible for regulating blood pressure, maintaining pH balance, and supporting overall homeostasis through their filtration and excretion processes. Regulation of blood pressure and pH, as well as maintaining homeostasis, are all key functions of the kidneys.

Q23. Which of following statement is true about Euglena:

• A. Autotrophic animal✓
• B. Unicellular Algae
• C. Prokaryotic autotroph
• D. A-cellular animal

Explanation: Euglena is a class of single cell flog eukaryotic. The species Euglena gracilis has been utilised widely in the research centre as a model creature. Most types of Euglena have photosynthesizing chloroplasts inside the body of the cell, which empower them to nourish via autotrophy, similar to plants.

Q24. During inspiration, the path of air is :

• A. Nostril-pharynx-lung-trachea-bronchi
• B. Nostril-bronchi-pharynx-trachea-lungs
• C. Nostril-pharynx-trachea-bronchi-lungs✓
• D. Nostril-pharynx-lungs-trachea-bronchi

Explanation: When you inhale through your nose or mouth, air travels down your pharynx (back of your throat), passes through your larynx (voice box) and into your trachea (windpipe). Your trachea is divided into two air passages called bronchial tubes. One bronchial tube leads to your left lung, the other to your right lung.

Q25. The manufactured food is transported to various regions by a process called:

• A. Translocation✓
• B. Transpiration
• C. Osmosis
• D. Diffusion

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Translocation'. This is the process responsible for moving the products of photosynthesis, such as sugars, from the leaves where they are made to other parts of the plant for growth, storage, or energy. 'Transpiration' is unrelated as it deals with the loss of water. 'Osmosis' and 'Diffusion' are general processes that involve the movement of water and solutes, not specifically the transport of food substances in plants.

Q26. The protoplasm is shrinked in the solution of :

• A. Normal saline solution
• B. Isotonic solution
• C. Hypotonic solution
• D. Hypertonic solution✓

Explanation: When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the environment outside the cell has a higher solute concentration than inside the cell. This causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis to balance the solute concentrations. As a result, the cell loses water, leading to shrinkage of the protoplasm. In contrast, isotonic solutions do not change the cell's size, hypotonic solutions cause swelling, and normal saline is isotonic, hence does not lead to shrinkage.

Q27. The natural clock in the human body :

• A. Pineal body✓
• B. Medulla
• C. Pons
• D. Cerebellum

Explanation: Circadian rhythms are physical, mental, and behavioural changes that follow a 24-hour cycle. These natural processes respond primarily to light and dark and affect most living things, including animals, plants, and microbes. Chronobiology is the study of circadian rhythms.

Q28. The forebrain is divisible into two components :

• A. Cerebrum and cerebral hemispheres
• B. Medulla and pons
• C. Telencephalon and diencephalon✓
• D. Telencephalon and medulla

Explanation: Weighing at just 2% of the total body weight, the human brain is probably the most complex structure. It is the centre of control of all the body functions and senses. The average weight of the human brain is around 1.5 kg and it contains about 86 billion nerve cells (neurons) that control every action you take. Medulla and pons are part of the hindBrain.

Q29. Sugar level in blood is maintained by :

• A. Liver
• B. Kidney
• C. Adrenal gland
• D. Islets of Langerhans✓

Explanation: The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon, which releases glucose from the liver and fatty acids from fat tissue. Liver performs detoxification, the kidney makes urine, while adrenal glands secrete hormones that control mineral and glucose levels and combat emergency situations. Hence options A, B and C are incorrect.

Q30. In meiosis I , crossing over takes place in :

• A. Pachytene✓
• B. Diplotene
• C. Zygotene
• D. Diakinesis

Explanation: Crossing over occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I in meiosis. It is a critical process where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic segments, resulting in new combinations of alleles. This enhances genetic diversity in gametes. The other stages have distinct roles: in zygotene, chromosomes pair up but do not yet exchange material; diplotene is characterized by the visible chiasmata post-crossing over; and diakinesis is marked by complete chromosome condensation and preparation for metaphase, with crossing over already finished.

Q31. Vertebral column is the part of _ skeleton :

• A. Axial✓
• B. Appendicular
• C. Exoskeleton
• D. Hydrostatic

Explanation: The correct answer is the axial skeleton, which is the central part of the human skeleton. It includes the vertebral column, which supports the body and protects the spinal cord. The axial skeleton also consists of the skull and rib cage. In contrast, the appendicular skeleton involves limbs and girdles, the exoskeleton pertains to external skeletons in some invertebrates, and the hydrostatic skeleton is found in certain invertebrates, relying on fluid pressure for support.

Q32. The science of ageing is called :

• A. Ethnology
• B. Gerontology✓
• C. Embryology
• D. Genetics

Explanation: Gerontology is the study of ageing and older adults. The science of gerontology has evolved as longevity has improved. Researchers in this field are diverse and are trained in areas such as physiology, social science, psychology, public health, and policy.

Q33. The possible result of crossing over between heterozygous tall (Tt)and homozygous dwarf (tt) is :

• A. 50 %tall and 50%dwarf✓
• B. 100% tall
• C. 100%dwarf
• D. 75%tall and 25% dwarf

Explanation: a) 50% tall and 50% dwarf: This is the correct answer. When crossing over occurs between a heterozygous tall (Tt) and a homozygous dwarf (tt), the possible outcomes of the offspring are half tall (Tt) and half dwarf (tt).

Q34. _muscle pulls the limb outward away from the body :

• A. Adductor
• B. Protractor
• C. Abductor✓
• D. Extensor

Explanation: The correct answer is Abductor. Abductor muscles are responsible for moving limbs away from the midline of the body, such as when you raise your arms or legs to the side. In contrast, Adductor muscles do the opposite by pulling limbs toward the body’s midline. Protractor is not a relevant term in this context, as it is not used to describe muscle functions. Extensor muscles are involved in straightening limbs or increasing the angle between body parts, not moving them outward.

Q35. _hormone stimulates mammary gland to secrete milk and process of labour :

• A. Oxytocin✓
• B. F.S.H
• C. L.H
• D. T.S.H

Explanation: Oxytocin is the hormone that facilitates both the process of labor by causing uterine contractions and the secretion of milk by stimulating the mammary glands. During childbirth, it induces contractions of the uterine muscles, which are essential for delivery. In terms of lactation, it enables the milk ejection reflex, allowing milk to be released from the mammary glands. The other hormones mentioned, such as F.S.H, L.H, and T.S.H, have different roles in the body related to reproductive health and thyroid function, and do not directly influence labor or lactation.

Q36. _germinal layer gives rise to all the body muscles.

• A. Ectoderm
• B. Endoderm
• C. Mesoderm✓
• D. Chorion

Explanation: The three germ layers are the endoderm, the ectoderm, and the mesoderm. Cells in each germ layer differentiate into tissues and embryonic organs. The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and the epidermis, among other tissues. The mesoderm gives rise to the muscle cells and connective tissue in the body.

Q37. The tendency of gene in chromosome to remain together is called :

• A. Crossing over
• B. Synapsis
• C. Terminalization
• D. Linkage✓

Explanation: Genetic linkage is the tendency of DNA sequences that are close together on a chromosome to be inherited together during the meiosis phase of sexual reproduction. Crossing is the exchange of genetic material . Synapsis is the fusion of chromosome pairs at the start of meiosis. Terminalization is the movement of bonds towards the ends of paired chromosomes

Q38. The bond between adenine and thymine is :

• A. Single
• B. Double✓
• C. Triple
• D. Covalent

Explanation: The bases of one strand bond to the bases of the second strand with hydrogen bonds. Adenine always bonds with thymine, and cytosine always bonds with guanine. The bonding causes the two strands to spiral around each other in a shape called a double helix. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a second nucleic acid found in cells.

Q39. _mono consists of deeper layer of water :

• A. Lentic
• B. Littoral
• C. Limnetic
• D. Profundal✓

Explanation: The profundal zone is correctly identified as the deeper layer of water in an inland body of water like a lake or pond. It is located below the limnetic zone and is beyond the reach of sunlight, making it colder and darker. This zone is typically below the thermocline, where the temperature drops rapidly. Other zones like the lentic, littoral, and limnetic zones are either not specific to deeper layers or refer to areas closer to the shore or surface of the water.

Q40. Lichen is associated between:

• A. Fungus and Algae✓
• B. Algae and Bacteria
• C. Bacteria and Fungus
• D. Bacteria and Virus

Explanation: Lichens are commonly recognized as a symbiotic association of a fungus and a chlorophyll containing partner, either green algae or cyanobacteria, or both. The fungus provides a suitable habitat for the partner, which provides photosynthetically fixed carbon as energy source for the system. Bacteria can never be a part of lichen. Hence all options except A are incorre

Q41. Extra circular chromosome present in bacteria is called :

• A. Centrosome
• B. Centromere
• C. Plasmid✓
• D. DNA

Explanation: Plasmids carry only a few genes and exist independently of chromosomes, the primary structures that contain DNA in cells. Able to self-replicate, plasmids can be picked up from the environment and transferred between bacteria. Plasmids are used by their host organism to cope with stress-related conditions.

Q42. The person with down's syndrome has :

• A. One extra chromosome✓
• B. One less chromosome
• C. Two extra chromosome
• D. Two less chromosome

Explanation: Down syndrome results when abnormal cell division involving chromosome 21 occurs. These cell division abnormalities result in an extra partial or full chromosome 21. This extra genetic material is responsible for the characteristic features and developmental problems of Down syndrome.

Q43. The menstrual stage lasts for:

• A. 1 to 5 days✓
• B. 14 to 16 days
• C. 25 to 28 days
• D. 8 to 18 days

Explanation: The first phase is the menstrual phase, which is from day 1 to 5. During this stage, the uterus sheds its inner lining through the vagina in the form of fluid. Women generally have cramps caused due to the contraction of the uterine wall during this phase.

Q44. The eyespot in Euglena is sensitive for :

• A. Dark
• B. Light✓
• C. Red light
• D. Blue light

Explanation: In the green one-celled organism Euglena, the eyespot is located in the gullet, at the base of the flagellum (a whiplike locomotory structure). A cup-shaped mass of pigment rods shields a sensitive area of the flagellar base from light coming from the direction of the opposite end of the organism.

Q45. The whole tail of the tadpole and its gills are lost during metamorphosis . The change is :

• A. Progressive
• B. Retroactive✓
• C. Organisational
• D. None of these

Explanation: Tadpoles hatch from the eggs and live in the pond. The tadpoles turn into Froglets. The body shrinks and legs form. The Froglets' tail shrinks, the lungs develop and the back legs grow and then we have a Frog. Retroactive changes are those that take effect from a date in the past

Q46. _no of ATP are produced during Aerobic respiration in prokaryotes :

• A. 32 ATP
• B. 34 ATP
• C. 36 ATP
• D. 38 ATP✓

Explanation: Without oxygen, organisms can split glucose into just two molecules of pyruvate. This releases only enough energy to make two ATP molecules. With oxygen, organisms can break down glucose all the way to carbon dioxide. This releases enough energy to produce up to 38 ATP molecules. 36 ATPs is produced by eukaryotes during Aerobic respiration.

Q47. The dark band in muscle fibres is due to :

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin and Actin✓
• C. Tropomyosin
• D. I band

Explanation: The arrangement of the thick myosin filaments across the myofibrils and the cell causes them to refract light and produce a dark band known as the A Band. In between the A bands is a light area where there are no thick myofilaments, only thin actin filaments. These are called the I Bands.

Q48. Neurospora is a fungus which is used to understand the principle of :

• A. Reproduction
• B. Locomotion
• C. Inheritance✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Neurospora is an ascomycete fungus and a classic model for genetic research. It was crucial in the early studies of genetics, especially in formulating the 'one gene-one enzyme' hypothesis. Neurospora's simple life cycle and clear genetic traits make it ideal for studying inheritance. Other options like Reproduction and Locomotion do not align with its primary use in scientific research, as there are more specialized organisms for those studies. 'None of these' is incorrect because 'Inheritance' is the correct principle associated with Neurospora.

Q49. The total autosomes in human are :

• A. 44✓
• B. 46
• C. 22
• D. 23

Explanation: These chromosomes are present in equal pairs and they can be defined as the thread-like structure found inside the nucleus of every cell. Out of which 22 pairs are autosomes and remaining 1 pair is a sex chromosome. So there will be 44 autosomes

Q50. The result of nondisjunction are :

• A. Down's Syndrome
• B. Turner's Syndrome
• C. Klinefelter's Syndrome
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Nondisjunction is a cell division error where chromosomes do not separate properly, leading to disorders like Down's Syndrome, Turner's Syndrome, and Klinefelter's Syndrome. Each of these conditions is caused by an abnormal number of sex chromosomes or autosomes due to nondisjunction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of these.' The individual syndromes listed (Down's, Turner's, and Klinefelter's) are specific examples of nondisjunction outcomes, but they are not the only possible results, hence selecting 'All of these' encompasses all scenarios.

Q51. The process during which solid is directly converted into gaseous state is called :

• A. Boiling
• B. Evaporation
• C. Sublimation✓
• D. Freezing

Explanation: The correct answer is Sublimation. Sublimation is a phase transition in which a substance goes directly from a solid to a gaseous state without passing through the liquid phase. For instance, dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) sublimates into carbon dioxide gas. Boiling and Evaporation involve the phase change from liquid to gas, not directly from solid to gas. Freezing is the transition from liquid to solid, which is unrelated to the process described in the question.

Q52. The number of atoms of nitrogen represented in the formula NH4NO is :

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: The compound NH4NO consists of ammonium (NH4) and a nitrate (NO) group. The ammonium part contributes one nitrogen atom, and the nitrate part contributes another nitrogen atom. Thus, the total number of nitrogen atoms in NH4NO is two. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not account for the correct number of nitrogen atoms in the compound.

Q53. Which of the following techniques could be used to separate the colored dyes from black ink :

• A. Chromatography✓
• B. Filtration
• C. Fractional distillation
• D. Precipitation

Explanation: Chromatography is the correct method for separating colored dyes from black ink. It works by exploiting the different rates at which the components of a mixture move through a stationary phase. This allows the dyes to be separated based on their affinities to the stationary phase and their solubility in the solvent. Filtration is not suitable as it separates particles based on size, not solubility or chemical properties. Fractional distillation is used for mixtures of liquids based on boiling points, not for dyes. Precipitation involves solid formation from a solution, which is not applicable in separating dye components.

Q54. The crystalline form of allotropes are called:

• A. Chemically identical✓
• B. Chemically distinct
• C. Varies between being the same and different
• D. Depends on the element

Explanation: Allotropes are different structural forms of the same element that exist in more than one crystalline form. They have the same chemical properties because they consist of the same type of atoms, but their physical properties differ due to the distinct arrangement of these atoms. For example, carbon exists as diamond and graphite, which are allotropes. Although they have vastly different physical properties, their chemical properties are the same because they are both forms of carbon. The other options are incorrect because they suggest variability or dependency that does not exist in the chemical properties of allotropes of the same element.

Q55. Alpha rays are :

• A. Single negatively charged particles
• B. Single positively charged particles
• C. Double negatively charged particles
• D. Double positively charged particles✓

Explanation: Alpha particles have a positive charge and are identical with helium nuclei and consist of two protons and two neutrons. They result from the radioactive decay of heavy elements such as radium, thorium, uranium, and plutonium.

Q56. Which is the lightest among following:

• A. An atom of hydrogen
• B. An electron✓
• C. A neutron
• D. A proton

Explanation: The electron is the lightest stable subatomic particle, making it the correct answer. Electrons have a much smaller mass compared to protons and neutrons, which are subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. A hydrogen atom, while the lightest atom, still contains a proton and an electron, making it heavier than a standalone electron. Neutrons and protons are significantly heavier than electrons, with protons being about 1,836 times and neutrons about 1,839 times as heavy.

Q57. In an atom no two electrons can have same set of quantum numbers”, this statement was given by:

• A. Uncertainty principle
• B. Pauli’s exclusion principle✓
• C. Hund’s rule
• D. Aufbau’s principle

Explanation: Pauli's Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have identical values for all four of their quantum numbers. In other words, (1) no more than two electrons can occupy the same orbital and (2) two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins.

Q58. The bond formed by the electrostatic attraction between negative end of one molecule and positive end of other is called:

• A. Covalent bond
• B. Hydrogen bond
• C. Ionic bond✓
• D. Coordinate covalent bond

Explanation: According to the Lewis theory, ionic bond is formed by the complete transfer of electrons or electrons from an atom with low ionisation energy to another atom with high electron affinity. In energy terms, the electropositive elements are at a higher energy state than the electronegative elements. The energy difference will be responsible for the transfer of electrons from a higher energy state to a lower energy state.

Q59. The bond angle in a molecule having Sp3 hybridization with no lone pair is:

• A. 120°
• B. 180°
• C. 109.5°✓
• D. 90°

Explanation: In sp3 hybridization, one s and three p orbitals combine to form four equivalent hybrid orbitals. These orbitals arrange themselves in a tetrahedral geometry to minimize electron repulsion, resulting in bond angles of approximately 109.5°. Option C correctly identifies this angle. Options A and B describe bond angles for other types of hybridization (sp2 and sp, respectively), while Option D suggests an angle typical of different molecular shapes not associated with sp3 hybridization.

Q60. Properties of system, which depend upon the amount of substance present in the system are called:

• A. Chemical properties
• B. Intensive properties
• C. Extensive properties✓
• D. Physical properties

Explanation: An extensive property of a system depends on the system size or the amount of matter in the system. If the value of the property of a system is equal to the sum of the values for the parts of the system then such a property is called extensive property. Volume, energy, and mass are examples of extensive properties

Q61. Enthalpy is the expression for the:

• A. Reaction rate
• B. Heat content✓
• C. Energy state
• D. Activation state

Explanation: Enthalpy is the measurement of energy in a thermodynamic system. The quantity of enthalpy equals the total content of heat of a system, equivalent to the system’s internal energy plus the product of volume and pressure. A change in enthalpy of a system can be written as: ∆ H = ∆E + ∆(PV) ∆ H = ∆E + V∆ P + P ∆V Since, the gas is kept at constant pressure, = 0 Hence ∆ H =∆ E + P ∆V …….(4) In case of liquids and solids, the changes in state do not cause significant volume change i.e. ∆V = 0 For such process, ∆H and ∆E are approximately the same i.e. ∆E ≈∆ H According to first law of thermodynamics: ∆E = q + wIf w is pressure - volume work done by the system, then: w = - P∆ V So ∆ E = q - P ∆V Putting the value of ∆E in equation 4 we get: ∆ H = q - P∆ V + P ∆V ∆H = q Since the pressure is constant, therefore, ∆H = qp......... (5) This shows that change in enthalpy is equal to heat of reaction at constant pressure. The reactions are carried out at constant pressure more frequently than at constant volume. So, working with ∆H is more convenient than ∆E .

Q62. The heat require to change 1 mole of Iodine (solid) to Iodine (gas) is called:

• A. Heat of vaporisation
• B. Heat of sublimation✓
• C. Heat of fusion
• D. Melting point

Explanation: The heat absorbed by one gram or unit mass of a substance in the process of changing, at a constant temperature and pressure, from a solid to a gaseous state.Like vaporisation, the process of sublimation requires an input of energy to overcome intermolecular attractions. The enthalpy of sublimation, ΔHsub, is the energy required to convert one mole of a substance from the solid to the gaseous state.

Q63. In the electrolysis of CuCl2 (Copper Chloride) the substance liberated at the anode:

• A. Copper
• B. Chlorine Gas✓
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Copper Chloride

Explanation: In the electrolysis of CuCl2, the anode is the positive electrode that attracts negatively charged ions, such as chloride ions (Cl-). At the anode, these chloride ions lose electrons (are oxidized) to form chlorine gas (Cl2), which is liberated.The correct answer is 'Chlorine Gas' because the anode facilitates oxidation reactions, and chlorine gas is the result of chloride ions losing electrons.Other options are incorrect because:Copper: This is deposited at the cathode, not the anode.Hydrogen: Hydrogen is not involved in the anode reaction during CuCl2 electrolysis.Copper Chloride: It dissociates in solution and is not a product of the anode reaction.

Q64. Factors affecting the balance of a chemical equilibrium are following except:

• A. Concentration
• B. Temperature
• C. Enthalpy✓
• D. Pressure

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Enthalpy'. Enthalpy is a thermodynamic property that represents heat content, but it does not directly affect the position of a chemical equilibrium. In contrast, changes in concentration, temperature, and pressure can shift the equilibrium according to Le Châtelier's principle. Concentration changes affect the availability of reactants or products. Temperature changes can shift the equilibrium, especially if the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. Pressure changes affect equilibria involving gases, as they can change the volume and thus the concentration of gaseous reactants or products.

Q65. The formula for general gas equation is:

• A. P1 V1 = P2V2
• B. V1/T1 = V2/T2
• C. E = mc2
• D. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2✓

Explanation: The ideal gas equation is formulated as: PV = nRT. In this equation, P refers to the pressure of the ideal gas, V is the volume of the ideal gas, n is the total amount of ideal gas that is measured in terms of moles, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the temperature.

Q66. The electronic configurations of the noble gases are:

• A. ns2, np5
• B. ns2, np6✓
• C. ns2, np4 , nd8
• D. ns2, np5, nd10

Explanation: Noble gases are characterized by having a completely filled outer electron shell, typically with the configuration ns2np6. This full valence shell makes them exceptionally stable and chemically inert. Helium is a special case with a 1s2 configuration due to its position in the periodic table. Option B correctly represents this configuration. Options A, C, and D do not represent the electronic configurations of noble gases and are thus incorrect. Option A corresponds to halogens, group 17 elements, while Options C and D do not represent valid configurations for any known element.

Q67. The electro-negativity of the element is increased:

• A. Down the group
• B. Across the period from right to left
• C. Across the period from left to right✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Electronegativity refers to the ability of an atom to attract shared electrons in a chemical bond. Across a period from left to right, electronegativity increases due to increasing nuclear charge and decreasing atomic radius, which enhances the atom's ability to attract electrons. Option C correctly describes this trend. In contrast, down a group, electronegativity decreases because of the increased atomic radius and electron shielding, making Option A incorrect. Option B is incorrect because it reverses the trend, suggesting a decrease across the period from right to left. Option D is incorrect as there is a correct option provided.

Q68. Which of the following is the most suitable alotropy of sulphur:

• A. Plastic sulphur
• B. Monoclinic sulphur
• C. Rhombic sulphur✓
• D. Laughing gas

Explanation: Rhombic sulphur is crystalline in nature and has an octahedral shape.Octahedral sulphur:- this is also known as rhombic sulphur and is the most stable form as it is insoluble in water and is prepared by evaporating the solution of roll sulphur in carbon disulphide.. On heating the solution of roll sulphur in CS2 we get rhombic sulphur. It is yellow with a melting point of 385.8K and specific gravity of 2.06. Rhombic sulphur cannot be dissolved in water but can be dissolved in benzene, ether, alcohol etc

Q69. S — black element have the folowing properties except:

• A. Reaction with water gives hydroxides
• B. Reaction with water gives different oxides
• C. Reaction with metals to give binary ionic salts✓
• D. Reaction with non-metals to give binary ionic salts

Explanation: Alkali and alkaline metals are reducing in natureThey have low ionisation enthalpies They lose the outermost electron(s) to form cation .Group 1 elements lose 1 electron while the group 2 elements loses 2 electrons .Metallic character increases down the group .Because of high reactivity they are never found pure in nature .Reactivity increases down the group .Compounds of s-Block are ionic in nature.They form binary ionic compounds with non metals .Exception to this is beryllium and lithium

Q70. Melting and Boiling points of transitive elements is high because:

• A. Half filled d-orbit
• B. Metallic bond✓
• C. Small atomic size and valence electrons
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Transition metals have high melting and boiling points primarily due to the strong metallic bonds formed by the involvement of delocalized 3d and 4s electrons. This delocalization allows for stronger attractions between metal atoms, resulting in higher energy requirements to break these bonds during melting and boiling. Option B is correct because it addresses the role of metallic bonding and electron delocalization in transition metals. Option A incorrectly focuses on d-orbital filling, which affects other properties but not directly the melting and boiling points. Option C incorrectly attributes these high points to atomic size, which is not the primary factor. Option D is incorrect as a correct explanation exists.

Q71. The compound formed by the action of the water on the Calcium carbide is

• A. Ethane
• B. Ethene
• C. Acetylene✓
• D. Methane

Explanation: The correct answer is Acetylene. When calcium carbide (CaC2) reacts with water, it produces acetylene gas (C2H2) and calcium hydroxide. This is a well-known industrial process for producing acetylene, which is used in welding and as a building block for organic synthesis. The other options, such as ethane, ethene, and methane, are not products of this reaction. Ethane and ethene are different hydrocarbons, while methane is a simple alkane, none of which are produced from the reaction of calcium carbide with water.

Q72. The fat soluble vitamins is:

• A. Vitamin A✓
• B. Vitamin B-12
• C. Niacin
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is Vitamin A, which is a fat-soluble vitamin. Fat-soluble vitamins, like Vitamin A, D, E, and K, dissolve in fats and are stored in the body's fatty tissue and liver. Vitamin B-12 and Niacin (Vitamin B-3) are water-soluble vitamins, meaning they dissolve in water, are not stored in the body, and need to be consumed more regularly. Therefore, options B and C are incorrect as they describe water-soluble vitamins.

Q73. The formula which indicates the relative numbers of different kinds of the atoms in a molecule is called:

• A. Structural formula
• B. Empirical formula
• C. Molecular formula✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The molecular formula specifies the exact number of each kind of atom in a molecule, making it the correct choice for defining the relative numbers of different atoms. The structural formula gives more information about the arrangement and bonding of atoms, not just their counts. The empirical formula provides a simplified ratio of atoms rather than the actual count, and 'None of the above' is incorrect because the molecular formula is the type of formula described in the question.

Q74. Methane is obtained by which following method:

• A. Electrolysis of sodium acetate
• B. Electrolysis of aluminium carbide
• C. Heating sodium acetate with soda lime✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: The correct method for obtaining methane is by heating sodium acetate with soda lime. This process involves a decarboxylation reaction where sodium acetate reacts with soda lime to produce methane (CH4) and sodium carbonate. The other options are incorrect: Electrolysis of sodium acetate produces ethane, not methane, due to the formation of methyl radicals. Electrolysis of aluminium carbide is not used for methane production, as it involves different reactions consuming carbon electrodes.

Q75. The following reactions is an example of C.H8 + → heat → C3H6Cl2 + 2HCL

• A. Addition reaction
• B. Reduction reaction
• C. Oxidation reaction
• D. Substitution reaction✓

Explanation: Alkanes react with chlorine and bromine in the presence of sunlight or UV light or at high temperature resulting in the successive replacement of hydrogen atoms with halogens called halogenation. Extent of halogenation depends upon the amount of halogen used. Reaction of alkanes with fluorine is highly violent and results in a mixture of carbon, fluorinated alkanes and hydrofluoric acid. Iodine does not substitute directly because the reaction is too slow and reversible. The order of reactivity of halogens is F2 >Cl2 >Br2 >I2. CH4+Cl2→CH3Cl+HCl.

Q76. In which of the following reaction the rate of nucleophilic substitution depend upon the concentration of the alkyl halide only:

• A. SN1✓
• B. SN2
• C. SN3
• D. Addition reaction

Explanation: In nucleophilic substitution reactions, the SN1 mechanism is characterized by its dependence on the concentration of the alkyl halide only. This is due to its unimolecular rate-determining step, where the leaving group departs first, forming a carbocation. The nucleophile then attacks this intermediate, but since this step is not rate-determining, the nucleophile's concentration doesn't affect the rate, resulting in first-order kinetics. In contrast, SN2 reactions depend on the concentrations of both the alkyl halide and the nucleophile due to its bimolecular, concerted mechanism. SN3 is not a recognized mechanism in this context, and addition reactions are a different type of reaction altogether.

Q77. In the phenol:

• A. Alcoholic group attached on ring structure
• B. Hydroxyl group attached on benzene ring✓
• C. Alcoholic group attached on benzene ring
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Phenol is an aromatic organic compound characterized by a hydroxyl group (−OH) bonded to a benzene ring. This specific arrangement classifies it as a phenolic compound, not an alcohol, which typically involves hydroxyl groups attached to saturated carbon atoms. The hydroxyl group in phenol allows for intermolecular hydrogen bonding, contributing to its solubility in water. Options A and C incorrectly describe the functional group as 'alcoholic,' which applies to aliphatic alcohols, not aromatic structures like phenol. Option D is incorrect as only option B accurately describes phenol's structure.

Q78. P.V.C. prepared from:

• A. Ethene and hydrogen chloride✓
• B. Ethane and hydrogen chloride
• C. Methane and hydrogen chloride
• D. Acetylene and hydrogen chloride

Explanation: PVC, or polyvinyl chloride, is primarily manufactured through the polymerization of vinyl chloride. The process starts with ethene, which reacts with chlorine to form ethylene dichloride. This compound is then converted to vinyl chloride monomer at high temperatures. The vinyl chloride monomers are subsequently polymerized to form PVC resin. Option A is correct as it accurately reflects this industrial synthesis route.Option B is incorrect because ethane does not have the necessary double bond to react with hydrogen chloride to form vinyl chloride. Option C is incorrect because methane, being a simple alkane with no double bonds, cannot participate in this process. Option D, while technically possible, is not the industrial standard due to higher costs and safety concerns associated with using acetylene.

Q79. Methyl alcohol is also known as:

• A. Wood spirit
• B. Wood naphtha
• C. Methanol
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Methanol (also called methyl alcohol and wood spirit, amongst other names) is an organic chemical and the simplest aliphatic alcohol, with the formula CH3OH (a methyl group linked to a hydroxyl group, often abbreviated as MeOH). It is a light, volatile, colourless, flammable liquid with a distinctive alcoholic odour similar to that of ethanol (potable alcohol).A polar solvent, methanol acquired the name wood alcohol because it was once produced chiefly by the destructive distillation of wood. Today, methanol is mainly produced industrially by hydrogenation of carbon monoxide.Methanol consists of a methyl group linked to a polar hydroxyl group. With more than 20 million tons produced annually, it is used as a precursor to other commodity chemicals, including formaldehyde, acetic acid, methyl tert-butyl ether, methyl benzoate, anisole, peroxyacids, as well as a host of more specialised chemicalsUseful search terms for methyl alcohol include “methanol,” “carbinol,” “columbian spirits,” “pyroligneous spirits,” “wood alcohol,” “wood naphtha,” and “wood spirits.”

Q80. Commercially nitric acid is prepared by the:

• A. Oxidation of ammonia by Bayer's method
• B. Oxidation of ammonia by Ostwald’s method✓
• C. Reduction of ammonia by Ostwald’s method
• D. Oxidation of ammonia by Hoopes process

Explanation: The Ostwald process is the commercial method for producing nitric acid, starting with the oxidation of ammonia. In this process, ammonia is oxidized to form nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide, which is then absorbed in water to produce nitric acid. This process is efficient and widely used in the industrial production of nitric acid, which is essential for fertilizers and explosives.Other options are incorrect because they either describe processes unrelated to nitric acid production, such as the Bayer and Hoopes processes, or incorrectly describe the Ostwald process as involving reduction instead of oxidation.

Q81. Which of the following quantities are vector:

• A. Time and Mass
• B. Force and Displacement✓
• C. Length and Weight
• D. Temperature and Density

Explanation: A vector is a quantity that has both magnitude and direction. In this question, Force and Displacement are vector quantities because they involve direction; force has a direction in which it is applied, and displacement involves movement from one point to another in a specific direction. The other options include scalars: Time and Mass are scalars as they have no directional component. Length is scalar, though Weight is a vector as it represents gravitational force. Temperature and Density are purely scalar, having magnitude but no direction.

Q82. momentum of the body increase by 20% what is the % increase in it’s K.E.:

• A. 36
• B. 44✓
• C. 52
• D. 60

Explanation: The correct answer is 44%. The relationship between kinetic energy (KE) and momentum (p) is given by the formula KE = p²/2m. When momentum increases by 20%, the new momentum is p' = 1.2p. Substituting this into the kinetic energy formula, we get KE' = (1.2p)²/2m = 1.44p²/2m. This shows the kinetic energy increases by 44% (since 1.44 - 1 = 0.44 or 44%). Option A (36%), Option C (52%), and Option D (60%) are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated increase in kinetic energy when momentum increases by 20%.

Q83. Which one of the following statement is incorrect:

• A. A body has a constant velocity but varying speed✓
• B. A body has a constant speed but varying acceleration
• C. A body has a constant velocity and same speed
• D. A body has a constant speed but can have varying velocity

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: A body cannot have a constant velocity yet varying speed because velocity is a vector that includes speed (a scalar) as its magnitude. If the velocity is constant, both the speed and direction of motion must remain unchanged. In contrast, it's possible to have constant speed with varying acceleration (as in circular motion), constant speed with varying velocity (again in circular motion), or constant speed without acceleration (uniform motion in a straight line).

Q84. Centripetal force ‘FC' is given by:

• A. mv2/r✓
• B. mv/r
• C. m2v/r
• D. mv/l

Explanation: Centripetal force is the force required to keep an object moving in a circular path. The correct formula is FC = mv2/r, where m is the mass of the object, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the circle. This formula arises from the requirement that the force must change the direction of the velocity without changing its magnitude. Option A is correct because it includes all the necessary components: mass, velocity squared, and radius. Option B is incorrect because it lacks the velocity squared term. Option C is incorrect because it incorrectly squares the mass rather than the velocity. Option D is incorrect because it uses an incorrect denominator (l instead of r) and lacks the velocity squared term.

Q85. Value of 'G' is:

• A. 6.667 x 1011 N-m2/Kg
• B. 6.667 x 10-11 Nm/Kg2
• C. 6.667 x 1013 Nm2/Kg
• D. 6.667 x 10-11 Nm2/Kg2✓

Explanation: The universal gravitational constant (G) relates the magnitude of the gravitational attractive force between two bodies to their masses and the distance between them. Its value is extremely difficult to measure experimentally.

Q86. If we go away from the surface of the earth at a distance equal to radius of the earth then the value of 'g' will be:

• A. 1/4✓
• B. 1/8
• C. 1/2
• D. 1/9

Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the Earth is given by the formula g = GM/R^2, where R is the radius of the Earth. If you move to a distance equal to the Earth's radius above the surface, the total distance from the Earth's center becomes 2R. Therefore, the new value of 'g' will be GM/(2R)^2 = GM/4R^2 = g/4. This means the acceleration due to gravity becomes one-fourth of its original value. The other options are incorrect because they do not correctly apply the inverse square law of gravitation, which dictates that gravitational force decreases with the square of the distance from the source.

Q87. The energy of a body at height 'h' from the center of earth to the which g = 0 is called:

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Potential energy
• C. Gravitational energy
• D. Absolute potential energy✓

Explanation: Absolute potential energy is defined as the amount of work that needs to be done on an object to bring an object to its current location from a point of infinite distance. It can also be defined as the energy needed for an object to reach escape velocity So the absolute potential energy is the correct answer and has a non zero value .

Q88. Which one of the following is not regarded as a fundamental quantity in physics:

• A. Length
• B. Time
• C. Mass
• D. Force✓

Explanation: A fundamental quantity is a basic measure that is not derived from other quantities. Force is a derived quantity because it is calculated using the formula F = ma, where m is mass and a is acceleration. On the other hand, length, time, and mass are fundamental quantities as they are independent and form the basis for other measurements. Fundamental quantities are part of the International System of Units (SI) and include length (metre), mass (kilogram), and time (second), among others.

Q89. Acoustics is the study:

• A. The production of sound
• B. The production and properties of sound✓
• C. The source of sound
• D. The intensity, frequency, and quality of sound

Explanation: Acoustics is the science that deals with the study of mechanical waves in various media, including gases, liquids, and solids. It covers the production, control, transmission, reception, and effects of sound. Therefore, the correct answer is the study of the production and properties of sound. Options that focus only on production, source, or specific characteristics like intensity and frequency do not fully encompass the breadth of the field of acoustics.

Q90. Which of the given condition is not a possible to discuss the Doppler's effect:

• A. When the listener is at moving and the source as at rest
• B. When the listener is at rest and the source is at moving
• C. When the listener and the source are at rest✓
• D. When the listener and source are at moving

Explanation: Doppler effect in physics is defined as the increase (or decrease) in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move towards (or away from) each other. Waves emitted by a source travelling towards an observer get compressed.Doppler Effect is applicable only when the velocities of the source of the sound and the observer are much less than the velocity of sound. The motion of both source and the observer should be along the same straight line.

Q91. Michelson interferometer is the instrument used to record the interference pattern of the light used to calculate:

• A. Interaction of light
• B. Wavelength of light✓
• C. Refraction of light
• D. Diffraction of light

Explanation: The Michelson interferometer is a precise instrument used mainly for measuring the wavelength of light through interference patterns. When light waves are split and then recombined in the interferometer, they produce an interference pattern that can be analyzed to determine wavelengths. This makes it a critical tool in optical research and applications. The other options, such as interaction, refraction, and diffraction of light, represent different phenomena that the Michelson interferometer is not specifically designed to measure.

Q92. The specific heat time the mass of a body is called:

• A. Specific heat mass✓
• B. Thermal capacity
• C. Internal energy
• D. Heat capacity

Explanation: The specific heat times the mass of a body is referred to as the specific heat mass. This term represents the product of the specific heat and the mass of the body, which is essential in understanding the thermal behavior of a substance. The other options, such as thermal capacity, internal energy, and heat capacity, do not directly relate to the specific heat mass and represent different concepts in thermodynamics.

Q93. The electric field intensity at a distance of 1m from a point of charge to 1 micro coulomb is:

• A. A: 1/4 N/C
• B. B: 9 x 109 N/C
• C. C: 9 x 106 N/C
• D. D: 9 x 103 N/C✓

Explanation: The electric field intensity E at a distance r from a point charge Q is given by the formula: E = KQ/r², where K is the Coulomb's constant (9 x 109 Nm²/C²). For a charge Q = 1 microcoulomb (1 x 10-6 C) at a distance of 1 meter, the calculation is: E = (9 x 109)(1 x 10-6) / 12 = 9 x 103 N/C. Options A, B, and C do not correctly apply this formula, leading to incorrect values.

Q94. The unit of rate of change of momentum is:

• A. N✓
• B. NC
• C. NS2
• D. N/S

Explanation: Rate of change in momentum is newton(N).

Q95. Dot product of force and displacement is:

• A. Momentum
• B. Moment
• C. Power
• D. Work✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Work, which is calculated as the dot product of force and displacement (W = F · S). This means work is done when a force causes displacement in the direction of the force. The other options do not fit this definition: Momentum is a vector related to mass and velocity, Moment involves rotational forces and uses the cross product, and Power relates to the rate of doing work, involving force and velocity, not displacement.

Q96. Work done in unit time is:

• A. Pressure
• B. Work
• C. Energy
• D. Power✓

Explanation: Power is defined as the rate of doing work or the amount of work done per unit time. It is crucial in understanding how quickly or efficiently work can be performed. The SI unit of power is the watt (W), which is equivalent to one joule per second. Other options such as pressure, work, and energy do not account for the time factor in the context of doing work. Pressure is about force over an area, work is the energy transfer by force, and energy is the capacity to perform work, none of which directly relate to the rate at which work is done.

Q97. Erg is unit of energy in:

• A. MKS
• B. SI
• C. FPS
• D. CGS✓

Explanation: The CGS system is a coherent system of units based on the fundamental units of centimetre for distance, gram for mass, and second for time. It was superseded by the MKS system, which was based on the fundamental units of metre for distance, kilogram for mass, and second for time.The erg (symbol, erg, i.e. the same as the unit) is the unit of energy in the cgs system, where one erg represents the work done when a force of one dyne is acting over a distance of one cm and is equivalent to 1 x 10-7 joules.

Q98. Number of vibration in 1 sec is:

• A. Time period
• B. Frequency✓
• C. Amplitude
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is Frequency. Frequency is defined as the number of complete cycles of a periodic signal occurring per unit time, typically one second. It is measured in hertz (Hz), which is equivalent to one cycle per second. The time period refers to the duration of one complete cycle, and amplitude measures the height or strength of the wave, neither of which indicate the number of vibrations in one second. Option D is incorrect because the correct term is provided among the choices.

Q99. Total energy of vibrating body is:

• A. Increase
• B. Decrease
• C. Constant✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: In an ideal oscillating system, such as a mass-spring system or a simple pendulum, the total mechanical energy remains constant. This is due to the continuous exchange between kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE). When KE is at its maximum, PE is at its minimum, and vice versa. This energy transformation is a hallmark of oscillatory motion. External forces, such as friction, can cause energy dissipation, but in an ideal case, these are negligible. Options A and B describe scenarios where energy would change, which is not accurate for a closed system without external forces. Option D is incorrect as the constant nature of total energy applies to ideal vibrating systems.

Q100. The waves in which motion of particles of medium and propagation of wave are in same direction are called :

• A. Longitudinal✓
• B. Transverse
• C. Electromagnetic
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is Longitudinal waves. These waves are characterized by the displacement of the medium's particles in the same direction as the wave's travel, resulting in areas of compression and rarefaction. In contrast, Transverse waves have particle motion perpendicular to the wave's direction. Electromagnetic waves differ as they are not mechanical and involve oscillating electric and magnetic fields. The option None of these is incorrect as longitudinal waves match the description given.