Sindh Mcat Nts 2003 Iba — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. She _an accident last year, she _ driven since.

• A. has , has not
• B. had , has not✓
• C. have , had not
• D. had , had not

Explanation: In the first blank they are talking about the past , so we will put "had". In the second blank, they talked about the present situation so we will put "has not". Hence option B is correct.

Q2. He _a prize last year, since he_his personality.

• A. wins, has change
• B. wins, has changed
• C. won, has change
• D. won , has changed✓

Explanation: The first half of the sentence points towards an event that took place in the past, so the third form of the verb will be used i.e won.Second half if the sentence must contain a verb with third form but with a has proceeded it because it is pointi g to an action that had started in the past but is still going.So, option D is correct.

Q3. He did _ excellent job while among us.

• A. a
• B. an✓
• C. the
• D. None of these

Explanation: Since excellent gives a vowel sound, we will put "an" before it."a" is used when a consonant sound exceeds."The" is used when we point to a definite person or thing.Here all the options except B are incorrect.

Q4. Flee is a/an:

• A. Action✓
• B. Insect
• C. Bird
• D. None of these

Explanation: The term 'flee' is a verb that means to run away from danger. It is not a type of insect, bird, or animal. The word that might be confused with 'flee' is 'flea', which is a small, wingless insect. However, in the context of the question, 'flee' does not refer to any type of living organism, making 'None of these' the correct answer.

Q5. Wander means :

• A. Foolish
• B. Slow
• C. Roam✓
• D. Fly

Explanation: Wander means to move about aimlessly or without any destination. In this context, it means to roam or depart. Therefore, the correct option is 'Roam'. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the meaning of 'Wander'.

Q6. Synonym for "novice" is :

• A. Doyen
• B. Expert
• C. Professional
• D. Neophyte✓

Explanation: Novice is a person who is inexperienced or a beginner. Neophyte means the same.Doyen means a respectable person.Expert is a skillful person.Professional refers to a pro person.Hence options A, B and D are incorrect.

Q7. Synonym for "incendiary" is :

• A. Motive
• B. Goad
• C. Arsonist✓
• D. Insensitive

Explanation: 'Incendiary' means inflammatory and tends to stir up a conflict. The synonym for 'incendiary' is 'arsonist' because an arsonist is a person who starts a fire and is responsible for it. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the act of starting fires or causing conflicts.

Q8. Synonym of "incense" is :

• A. Cause
• B. Exciting
• C. Irritated✓
• D. Enrage

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: 'Irritated'. 'Incense' means to provoke or exasperate, which aligns with the definition of 'Irritated'. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not convey the same meaning as 'incense'.

Q9. The antonym for "extol" is :

• A. Defame✓
• B. Alternate
• C. Conceal
• D. Refrain
• E. Reject

Explanation: Extol means to praise or laud someone or something. Its opposite is to blame or criticise. Hence option A, i.e defame is correct. Option B contains Alternative which could not be the antonym of extol.Similarly options C , D and E also cannot be the antonyms for extol as they are not presenting the same idea as defame .

Q10. Antonym of "Efface" is :

• A. Trust
• B. Restore✓
• C. Embody
• D. Contract
• E. Appreciate

Explanation: The antonym of 'Efface' is 'Restore' because Efface means to erase or rub out, while Restore means to bring back or re-establish, which are opposite actions. Option A (Trust), Option C (Embody), Option D (Contract), and Option E (Appreciate) do not represent opposites of Efface.

Q11. Human liver secretes _.

• A. Bile✓
• B. Pepsin
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Cholecystokinin

Explanation: Bile is secreted by the liver and is stored in the gallbladder. Option B is incorrect because Pepsin is a protease enzyme that is secreted by the chief cells (zymogen cells) of the gastric glands in its inactive form pepsinogen.Option C is incorrect because Vitamin D is produced in the skin through sunlight (UV radiation) and it is also obtained through diet (milk, fish liver oil,etc)Option D is incorrect as Cholecystokinin is a hormone that is released by the small intestine. It stimulates the digestion of proteins and fats in the small intestine.

Q12. Dalbergia sisso is botanical name of _.

• A. Sesbania
• B. Edible pea
• C. Sweet pea
• D. Red wood✓

Explanation: Dalbergia sisso is the botanical name of Red wood.Option A is incorrect because Sesbania is a genus belonging to the family Fabaceae (pea family)Option B is incorrect because Edible pea’s botanical name is Pisum sativum.Option C is incorrect as Lathyrus odoratus is the botanical name of sweet pea.

Q13. Digestion of cell contents by lysosomes Is termed as _.

• A. Endocytosis
• B. Autophagy✓
• C. Immunolysis
• D. Exocytosis

Explanation: Autophagy is the process by which cells break down and recycle their own components, such as damaged organelles and proteins, using lysosomes. This is crucial for cellular maintenance and survival, especially under stress conditions. Endocytosis and exocytosis involve the movement of materials into and out of the cell, respectively, and are not related to internal digestion. Immunolysis is an immune-mediated destruction of cells, not a self-digestion process.

Q14. Coniferous forests are found at _.

• A. High altitudes & latitudes✓
• B. Low altitudes & latitudes
• C. High longitudes & latitudes
• D. High altitude & longitude

Explanation: Coniferous forests are primarily found in regions that are cold, which usually corresponds to high altitudes and latitudes. These environments provide the right conditions for conifers, which have adapted to survive harsh winters and short growing seasons. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either mention low altitudes and latitudes or incorrectly include longitude, which does not influence the distribution of these forests.

Q15. Fungi cause many diseases in humans such as _.

• A. Elephantiasis
• B. Leishmaniasis
• C. Warts
• D. Moniliasis✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Moniliasis. Moniliasis, or Candidiasis, is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, particularly Candida albicans. This differentiates it from other conditions in the options, which are caused by non-fungal pathogens. Elephantiasis is due to roundworm infections, Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites, and Warts stem from a viral infection. Understanding the type of pathogen responsible for these conditions helps in identifying the correct answer.

Q16. Depletion of ozone layer is due to CFC which release _.

• A. Cl atoms✓
• B. CO
• C. F
• D. CCl4

Explanation: CFCs do not easily react with other substances. In fact, they break up only through sunlight, which divides their molecules, causing the release of chlorine (Cl). Once the chlorine is released, it is able to react with ozone (O3), to form chlorine monoxide (ClO) and oxygen (O2).

Q17. Fertilization in mammals takes place in _.

• A. Uterus
• B. Ovary
• C. Vagina
• D. Fallopian tube✓

Explanation: Egg is released into fallopian tubes by one of the ovaries in females, if sperm is reached in the fallopian tube at the time of ovulation, fertilisation takes place there.

Q18. Extremely small amount of yolk are called _.

• A. Alecithal
• B. Polylecithal
• C. Oligolecithal✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Oligolecithal. Oligolecithal eggs are characterized by a small, evenly distributed amount of yolk. The term 'oligo' signifies 'small' or 'few,' which aligns with the question's focus on an 'extremely small amount of yolk.' Alecithal eggs, in contrast, have little to no yolk, while Polylecithal eggs contain a large amount of yolk, making them unsuitable choices for this question.

Q19. Ectoderm give rise to _.

• A. Muscular system
• B. Vascular system
• C. Nervous system✓
• D. Digestive system

Explanation: The correct answer is the nervous system. The ectoderm is the outermost layer of the three primary germ layers in the early embryo. It gives rise to the nervous system, including the brain and spinal cord, as well as the epidermis of the skin. In contrast, the muscular and vascular systems are derived from the mesoderm, while the digestive system originates from the endoderm.

Q20. Science of aging is called _.

• A. Palaeontology
• B. Entomology
• C. Gerontology✓
• D. Parasitology

Explanation: Gerontology is the interdisciplinary study of aging, addressing the biological, psychological, and social changes that occur in individuals as they age. It also explores the challenges and opportunities associated with an aging population. Palaeontology, Entomology, and Parasitology are focused on different scientific areas unrelated to the process of aging.

Q21. The organism in which both extracellular and Intracellular digestion takes place is _.

• A. Hydra
• B. Amoeba
• C. Paramecium
• D. Planaria✓

Explanation: Both intracellular and extracellular digestion occurs in planaria. Food is digested in the intestine, and enzymes are secreted by the glands cells of the intestine to begin the extracellular digestion process. Small particles of food are then engulfed by phagocytic vacuoles, and intracellular digestion is completed.

Q22. Hydra and corals are classified in _.

• A. Coelenterate✓
• B. Porifera
• C. Echinodermata
• D. Mollusca

Explanation: Hydra and corals are classified in Phylum Cnidaria, also known as Coelenterata. This phylum includes organisms like jellyfish, sea anemones, and corals. Therefore, Option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they belong to different phyla that do not include Hydra and corals.

Q23. Snail is included in the class _.

• A. Gastropoda✓
• B. Bivalvia
• C. Arachnida
• D. Myriapoda

Explanation: Snails are classified under the Class Gastropoda, which is a large and diverse class of mollusks that typically have a single, often spirally coiled shell, and a distinct head with tentacles. The other options do not fit the description of snails: Bivalvia includes two-shelled organisms like clams and oysters, Arachnida includes eight-legged arthropods like spiders and scorpions, and Myriapoda includes multi-legged organisms like centipedes and millipedes.

Q24. Ascaris lives in the _ of man.

• A. Intestine✓
• B. Liver
• C. Blood
• D. Bladder

Explanation: Ascaris is an intestinal parasite of humans. It is the most common human worm infection. The larvae and adult worms live in the small intestine and can cause intestinal disease.

Q25. Sea star moves with the help of _.

• A. Pseudopodia
• B. Tube feet✓
• C. Cilia
• D. Flagellum

Explanation: Sea stars, which are echinoderms, move using their tube feet. These tube feet are part of their water vascular system, allowing them to adhere to surfaces and move by alternating suction and release. The incorrect options represent different locomotory structures: pseudopodia are used by amoebae, cilia by paramecia, and flagella by bacteria and other protists.

Q26. Pike and trout are:

• A. Jawless fishes
• B. Bony fishes✓
• C. Cartilaginous fishes
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Pike and trout are classified as bony fishes. They have a skeleton made of bone, which is a distinguishing feature of this group. Jawless fishes, like lampreys and hagfish, are characterized by the absence of jaws and have a different skeletal structure. Cartilaginous fishes, such as sharks and rays, have skeletons made of cartilage. Thus, the only correct classification for pike and trout is that they are bony fishes.

Q27. Defensive cells of cnidarians are called _.

• A. Nematocysts✓
• B. Gonocytes
• C. Oocytes
• D. Gastrocytes

Explanation: The animals of the phylum Cnidaria show the presence of stinging cells called the cnidocytes. These cells have nematocysts that release the toxin, when they catch the prey or when something touches their body. So these are both defensive and offensive cells.

Q28. Growth of pollen tube towards ovary is an example of _ movement.

• A. Phototropic
• B. Chemotactic✓
• C. Sensory
• D. Mechanical

Explanation: Chemotactic movement leads the pollen grains to the embryo sac. It means that the pollen grain is moving towards the ovary in response to a chemical stimulus. Chemotactic movement causes the pollen grains to reach the embryo sac and results in fusion, which is also called syngamy. The pollen tube grows from the tip of pollen grain.

Q29. Cells which are absent in gymnosperms but present In angiosperms are _.

• A. Vessels✓
• B. Tracheids
• C. Collenchyma
• D. Parenchyma

Explanation: Most gymnosperms lack vessel elements in their xylem, unlike angiosperms(flowering plants) which have both vessels and tracheids. The vessel element plays an important role in the flowering plants as they require more amount of water for their growth than gymnosperms (non-flowering plants)

Q30. Under secretion of thyroxine in infants causes _.

• A. Cretinism✓
• B. Dwarfism
• C. Gigantism
• D. Osteoporosis

Explanation: Cretinism or congenital hypothyroidism is generally characterised by stunted growth and mental retardation in infants due to under secretion of thyroxine. Short stature (dwarfism). Mild neurological impairment with reduced muscle tone and coordination. Hearing and speech defects.

Q31. Protein synthesis takes place in _.

• A. Ribosomes✓
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Mesosomes
• D. Golgi bodies

Explanation: Ribosomes are the cellular organelles where proteins are synthesized. They play a crucial role in translating the genetic code into functional proteins by linking amino acids in the order specified by mRNA. In contrast, mitochondria are involved in energy production, mesosomes in bacterial respiration and cell division, and Golgi bodies in modifying, packaging, and transporting proteins and lipids.

Q32. Major oil & gas fields in Pakistan are located in _.

• A. Potohar
• B. Ghotki
• C. D.I. Khan✓
• D. FATA

Explanation: The correct answer is Dera Ismail Khan (D.I. Khan), as it hosts some of the significant oil and gas fields in Pakistan, such as in the D.I. Khan East, West Block, and Khushal Block areas. This region is a focus for investment in the oil and gas sector. In contrast, Potohar, Ghotki, and FATA do not have the same level of established major fields, although they may have some exploration activities or potential.

Q33. The humidity in air is inversely proportional to _ process in plants.

• A. Transpiration✓
• B. Respiration
• C. Photosynthesis
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The difference in water potential decreases between empty spaces of leaf and air when humidity is high, so transpiration rate decreases. Hence, humidity is inversely proportional to transpiration.

Q34. Shrinkage of protoplasm from cell wall under hypertonic solution is called _.

• A. Plasmolysis✓
• B. Endosmosis
• C. Proteolysis
• D. Torsion

Explanation: Plasmolysis is a typical response of plant cells exposed to hyperosmotic stress. The loss of turgor causes the violent detachment of the living protoplast from the cell wall. The plasmolytic process is mainly driven by the vacuole. Plasmolysis is reversible (deplasmolysis) and characteristic toliving plant cells.

Q35. Acetyl CoA loses CoA and combines with a 4-Carbon compound which is:

• A. Oxaloacetic acid✓
• B. Citric acid
• C. Succinic acid
• D. Malic acid

Explanation: In the Krebs cycle, Acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetic acid, a 4-carbon compound, after losing CoA. This forms citric acid, marking the beginning of the cycle. Oxaloacetic acid is regenerated at the end of the cycle, allowing the process to continue. Citric acid is the first product of the cycle, not the initial compound combined with Acetyl CoA. Succinic acid and malic acid are intermediate compounds within the cycle but do not combine with Acetyl CoA.

Q36. Product of anaerobic respiration in animals is _.

• A. Pyruvic acid
• B. Lactic acid✓
• C. Alcohol
• D. NADPH-2

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration in animals produces lactic acid as the end product. When oxygen is lacking, animal cells resort to anaerobic respiration to quickly generate energy. This process produces lactic acid, which is a key component of anaerobic respiration in animals. The other options, such as pyruvic acid, alcohol, and NADPH-2, are not the correct end products of anaerobic respiration in animals.

Q37. Seedless fruits which grow without fertilization are called _.

• A. Angiosperms
• B. Parthenocarpus✓
• C. Ovulatory
• D. Messangial

Explanation: Parthenocarpy is the phenomenon where plants can produce fruits without fertilization, resulting in seedless fruits. This ability depends on genetic factors that maintain a high hormone level in the ovary, allowing fruits to develop without seeds. Many horticultural varieties exhibit parthenocarpy, such as bananas, tomatoes, and oranges. The other options are incorrect as they are unrelated to the concept of seedless fruit production in plants.

Q38. If temperature is reduced to near or below freezing point enzymes become:

• A. Denatured
• B. Dormant✓
• C. Renatured
• D. All of the above

Explanation: At temperatures near or below freezing, enzyme activity is significantly reduced, leading to a dormant state. This dormancy is not permanent, as enzymes can become active again when the temperature is raised to a suitable level. Denaturation occurs at excessively high temperatures, causing the enzyme's structure to unfold, which is not the case at freezing temperatures. Renaturing refers to the restoration of the enzyme's normal structure after denaturation, which is not applicable here. Therefore, the correct answer is that enzymes become dormant at low temperatures.

Q39. The feathers which help the birds in flying are:

• A. Quill feathers
• B. Contour feathers
• C. Down feathers
• D. Flight feathers✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Flight feathers. These feathers are specifically adapted to aid in the mechanics of flight, providing the necessary lift and thrust. Quill feathers, often associated with the term 'flight feathers,' are located on the wings and tail. While down feathers are crucial for insulation, they do not contribute to flying. Contour feathers help streamline the bird's body but are not the primary feathers responsible for flight.

Q40. Sugar is stored in the liver as:

• A. Starch
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Maltose
• D. Cellulose

Explanation: Glycogen is the correct answer because it is the storage form of glucose in animals, including humans. The liver converts excess glucose into glycogen to store it for later use when the body needs energy. This process helps maintain blood sugar levels. Starch, on the other hand, is how plants store glucose. Maltose is not a storage form but a product of starch and glycogen breakdown. Finally, cellulose is a structural component in plants, not a storage form of sugar.

Q41. Platinum or polonium are used as catalysts in:-

• A. Haber process
• B. Contact process
• C. Oxidation of NH3✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the oxidation of NH3. In the Ostwald process, platinum serves as a catalyst for the oxidation of ammonia to produce nitric acid. This process is critical in the industrial synthesis of fertilizers and explosives. The Haber process uses iron as a catalyst for ammonia synthesis, and the Contact process uses vanadium(V) oxide for sulfuric acid production, making them incorrect options for this specific catalyst usage.

Q42. For "f" orbital value of l is:

• A. 3✓
• B. 2
• C. 0
• D. 1

Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number, represented by the symbol l, defines the shape of the orbital. Each type of orbital has a specific l value: s orbitals have l = 0, p orbitals have l = 1, d orbitals have l = 2, and f orbitals have l = 3. Therefore, for an f orbital, the correct value of l is 3. Options B, C, and D correspond to the azimuthal quantum numbers for d, s, and p orbitals, respectively, and thus are incorrect.

Q43. Characteristic of number 1000 (in log) is:-

• A. 3✓
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 0

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: 3. This is because the logarithm of a number represents the power to which the base (10 in this case) must be raised to obtain that number. For 1000, which is 10^3, the logarithm to the base 10 is 3. The other options are incorrect as they correspond to different numbers and their respective logarithms.

Q44. Petrie Curie and Maire Curie isolated a new radioactive element which was:

• A. Radium✓
• B. Thorium
• C. Uranium

Explanation: The correct answer is Radium, which was discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie on December 21, 1898. They isolated it from a mineral called pitchblende, which showed unusual radioactivity even after uranium had been extracted. This discovery was pivotal in the study of radioactivity. Thorium and uranium, while also radioactive, were discovered by other scientists (Morten Thrane Esmark and Martin Klaproth, respectively) and are not related to the Curie's findings of radium.

Q45. Faraday's experiment leads to the discovery of:

• A. Electron✓
• B. Positron
• C. Nucleus
• D. Proton

Explanation: Faraday's experiments led to the discovery of electromagnetic induction, where a change in magnetic flux induces an electric current. While this does not directly discover the electron, it laid foundational work that helped later scientists understand the nature of electric current and the role of electrons as charge carriers. The other options, such as positron, nucleus, and proton, were discovered by other scientists in different experiments and contexts.

Q46. S.I unit of viscosity is:-

• A. Nsm
• B. Nsm-2✓
• C. Ns-1 m2

Explanation: The correct SI unit for dynamic viscosity is newton-second per square meter (N·s/m²), which is equivalent to pascal-second (Pa·s). Dynamic viscosity is defined as the force needed to move a fluid layer over another per unit area and time, hence the dimensional analysis: force × time ÷ area. Option A incorrectly combines the units without proper dimensional consideration, while Option C misrepresents the relationship by inverting the time and incorrectly applying area.

Q47. 1 poise can be fined as:-

• A. 1 g/m
• B. 1 g/cm·s✓
• C. 1 g/mm
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: 1 g/cm·s. Poise is the unit of dynamic viscosity in the centimeter-gram-second (CGS) system. It is defined as the viscosity of a fluid in which a force of one dyne per square centimeter maintains a velocity of one centimeter per second. Therefore, 1 Poise is equal to 1 g/(cm·s). Option A and C are incorrect because they do not correctly incorporate the necessary time component, which is crucial for defining a unit of viscosity. Option D is incorrect because option B provides the correct definition.

Q48. Excited state of C atom can be represented as:

• A. 1s² 2s¹ 2px¹ 2py¹ 2px¹
• B. 1s¹ 2s¹ 2px¹ 2py¹ 2pz¹
• C. 1s² 2s¹ 2px¹ 2py¹ 2pz¹✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The excited-state electronic configuration of a carbon atom is 1s² 2s¹ 2px¹ 2py¹ 2pz¹. In this state, one electron from the 2s orbital gets excited to one of the 2p orbitals by absorbing energy. This is why option C is correct. Option A incorrectly lists the 2px orbital twice, and option B misrepresents the filling of the 1s orbital, which should have two electrons. Option D is incorrect because a correct option exists.

Q49. Except sucrose all oligosaccharides are :-

• A. Reducing✓
• B. Non-reducing
• C. None
• D. Both of these

Explanation: The term 'reducing sugar' refers to sugars that have a free aldehyde or ketone group, allowing them to act as reducing agents. This typically requires a free hydroxyl (OH) group attached to the anomeric carbon (C-1) in the sugar's ring structure. In oligosaccharides like maltose and lactose, this free OH group is present, making them reducing sugars. However, in sucrose, the linkage between glucose and fructose involves the anomeric carbons, leaving no free OH group. Therefore, sucrose is non-reducing. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they misunderstand the structural property that distinguishes sucrose from other oligosaccharides.

Q50. Ketone can be oxidized by using:

• A. Tollen's reagent
• B. Fehling solution
• C. K2Cr2O7 with H2SO4✓
• D. K2Cr2O7 with HNO3

Explanation: Ketones are generally resistant to oxidation due to the lack of a hydrogen atom attached to the carbonyl carbon. Therefore, they require very strong oxidizing conditions to be oxidized. Option C, which involves using K2Cr2O7 with H2SO4, provides such conditions. Tollen's reagent and Fehling's solution (Options A and B) are mild oxidizing agents suitable for aldehydes but not effective for ketones. Similarly, Option D, which involves using K2Cr2O7 with HNO3, is not typically used for oxidizing ketones.

Q51. (BeH2)n is an example of:

• A. Border line Hydride
• B. Covalent Hydride
• C. Ionic hydride
• D. Polymeric hydride✓

Explanation: Polymeric Hydrides are the Hydrides of Beryllium. In polymeric Hydrides, a large number of BeH2 units are joined by hydrogen bonding to produce a long chain of BeH2.The general representation of such chains are:-(BeH2)nWhere "n" is any positive number.Option A is incorrect as borderline hydrides are the hydrides of group 11 and group 12 of the periodic table and indium and thallium. Their properties are intermediate to covalent hydrides and ionic hydrides.

Q52. S- block elements are powerful:

• A. Oxidizing Agents
• B. Reducing Agents✓
• C. Neither
• D. Both

Explanation: S-block elements, which include groups 1 and 2 of the periodic table, are characterized by their large atomic radii and low ionization energies. These properties make them highly electropositive, meaning they readily lose electrons. As a result, they act as reducing agents by donating electrons to other elements, thereby reducing them. Option B is correct because it reflects this behavior. Option A is incorrect because oxidizing agents gain electrons, which is not typical of s-block elements. Option C is incorrect because s-block elements do indeed function as reducing agents. Option D is incorrect because s-block elements do not act as both oxidizing and reducing agents; they primarily serve as reducing agents.

Q53. "The electrons are filled to the orbitals of lowest energy in sequence, two to each orbital", this is statement of:-

• A. Pauli’s exclusion principle
• B. Aufbau Principle✓
• C. (n+l) Rule
• D. Hund's Rule

Explanation: The aufbau principle, states that in the ground state of an atom or ion, electrons fill subshells of the lowest available energy, then they fill subshells of higher energy. For example, the 1s subshell is filled before the 2s subshell is occupied.

Q54. Anomalous behaviour & high boiling point of H2O is due to:

• A. Strong covalent bond
• B. Hydrogen bonding✓
• C. Ionic bonding
• D. Van der Waals forces

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding in H2O is responsible for its high boiling point and anomalous behaviour. Water molecules form a network of hydrogen bonds, which are significantly stronger than other types of intermolecular forces like Van der Waals forces. This network requires a lot of energy to break, resulting in a high boiling point. The other options are incorrect because they describe forces or bonds that are either not present in water or too weak to account for its unique properties.

Q55. Two substances having same crystal structure are said to be:-

• A. Polymorphous
• B. Isomorphous✓
• C. Homomorphous
• D. Synmorphous

Explanation: The correct answer is Isomorphous. The prefix 'Iso-' means 'same', and 'morph-' means 'shape' or 'form'. Therefore, isomorphous substances have the same crystal structure. Polymorphous substances have multiple crystalline forms, homomorphous refers to similar external appearances, and synmorphous is not a recognized term in this context.

Q56. Molarity of 10 gm of NaOH dissolved in 1dm3 of solution is:-

• A. 7 M
• B. 0.25 M✓
• C. 10 M
• D. 20 M

Explanation: The molarity of a solution is calculated by dividing the number of moles of solute by the volume of the solution in liters. For this problem, the mass of NaOH is 10 g. The molar mass of NaOH is 40 g/mol, so the number of moles is 10 g / 40 g/mol = 0.25 moles. The volume of the solution is given as 1 dm3 (which is equivalent to 1 liter). Thus, the molarity is 0.25 moles / 1 L = 0.25 M. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they incorrectly calculate the moles of NaOH, leading to wrong molarity values.

Q57. Which one is correct:-

• A. Glass is not a true solid because its molecules are not arranged in a definite pattern.✓
• B. Glass is a true solid because its molecules are not arranged in a definite pattern.
• C. Both A and B are correct.
• D. None of the above.

Explanation: The correct answer is that glass is not a true solid because its molecules are not arranged in a definite pattern. Unlike crystalline solids, which have a regular and repeating structure, glass is an amorphous solid with a disordered arrangement of molecules. Option B is incorrect because it falsely claims that the lack of molecular arrangement makes glass a true solid. Option C is incorrect because it suggests both contradictory statements can be true. Option D is incorrect because a correct statement exists among the options.

Q58. A solution which tends to resist change in pH is:-

• A. Baric solution
• B. Basic solution
• C. Buffer solution✓
• D. Neutral solution

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Buffer solution. A buffer solution is capable of resisting changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added, due to its composition of a weak acid and its conjugate base or a weak base and its conjugate acid. This characteristic is known as the buffer action. In contrast, baric, basic, and neutral solutions do not possess this property. A baric solution is not related to pH stability, a basic solution has a pH greater than 7 but does not resist changes in pH, and a neutral solution has a pH of 7 but can be altered by the addition of acids or bases.

Q59. A substance which does not lower energy of activation but combines with reactant molecule is called:

• A. Catalyst
• B. Negative catalyst✓
• C. Positive catalyst
• D. None

Explanation: The correct answer is a Negative catalyst. This type of catalyst increases the activation energy required for a reaction, thus reducing the rate at which it occurs. In contrast, a positive catalyst decreases the activation energy and enhances the reaction rate. A general catalyst can be either positive or negative, depending on its effect on the reaction.

Q60. Which one is incorrect:

• A. Alpha particles are positively charged
• B. Alpha particles are helium nuclei
• C. Alpha particles are not neutral
• D. Alpha particles move towards anode✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer because it contains the incorrect statement. Alpha particles, which are positively charged, do not move towards the anode. Instead, they are attracted to the cathode, the negative electrode. Option A is correct as it states the charge of alpha particles accurately. Option B correctly identifies alpha particles as helium nuclei. Option C is true as it states that alpha particles are not neutral due to their positive charge.

Q61. Which one shows alpha decay :

• A. 2XA ➡️ + 3He4
• B. 2XA ➡️ + 2He4✓
• C. 2XA ➡️ + 3He4
• D. 2XA ➡️ + He4

Explanation: In alpha decay, an atomic nucleus emits an alpha particle (2He4), resulting in a decrease in atomic mass by 4 units and a decrease in atomic number by 2 units. Option B accurately describes this process. Options A, C, and D do not reflect the changes associated with alpha decay, as they either increase the atomic mass or atomic number, which is inconsistent with the characteristics of alpha decay.

Q62. MgCl2 is surrounded by _ number of water molecules :

• A. 2
• B. 6✓
• C. 5
• D. 8

Explanation: The correct answer is 6. Magnesium chloride forms a hexahydrate structure known as magnesium chloride hexahydrate (MgCl2·6H2O). This means that each magnesium ion is coordinated with six water molecules, forming a stable hydrated compound. The incorrect options (2, 5, and 8) represent numbers of water molecules that do not correspond to the typical hydration structure of magnesium chloride.

Q63. Gas constant "R" is independent of :

• A. Pressure of gas
• B. Volume of gas
• C. Nature of gas✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The gas constant R is a universal constant in the ideal gas law equation PV = nRT, where P is pressure, V is volume, n is the amount of substance in moles, R is the gas constant, and T is temperature. This constant is independent of the nature of the gas, meaning it remains the same regardless of the type of gas being measured. The other options are incorrect because the gas constant is directly involved in the relationships with pressure, volume, and temperature when considering the ideal gas law. Therefore, R is not independent of these variables.

Q64. Which has shortest C-C bond length:

• A. C2H2✓
• B. C2H4
• C. CCl4
• D. C2H5OH

Explanation: In Ethyne (C2H2), the C-C bond is the shortest because both C atoms form a triple bond with each other, increasing bond energy and decreasing bond length. The bond length in alkynes is 1.20 Angstroms. This makes option A the correct answer. Options B, C, and D have longer bond lengths compared to the triple bond in ethyne, making them incorrect choices.

Q65. Cyclohexane is an example of :

• A. Acyclic Aromatic Compound
• B. Alicyclic Aromatic Compound
• C. Alicyclic Homocyclic Compound✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Cyclohexane is classified as an alicyclic homocyclic compound. Alicyclic compounds are cyclic but lack the electron delocalization seen in aromatic compounds. Homocyclic indicates that the ring is composed entirely of carbon atoms. Cyclohexane fits this description as it is a saturated ring of six carbon atoms without any aromatic character. Option A is incorrect because cyclohexane is not acyclic or aromatic. Option B is incorrect because cyclohexane, though cyclic, is not aromatic. Option D is incorrect as option C provides the correct classification.

Q66. Which of the following is an example of decrease in entropy :

• A. Evaporation of water
• B. Sublimation of ice
• C. Condensation of steam✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Entropy is a measure of disorder or randomness in a system. When a substance changes from a more ordered state to a less ordered state, such as from a liquid to a gas (evaporation) or directly from a solid to a gas (sublimation), entropy increases. Conversely, when a substance changes from a less ordered state to a more ordered state, such as from a gas to a liquid (condensation), entropy decreases. Therefore, the correct answer is condensation of steam, as it represents a decrease in entropy. The other options involve transitions that increase entropy.

Q67. Which indicator has green colour in neutral solution :

• A. Phenolphthalein
• B. Universal indicator✓
• C. Methyl Orange
• D. Litmus

Explanation: The correct answer is the Universal indicator. It is specifically designed to show a range of colors across the pH scale. In a neutral solution (pH 7), a universal indicator typically shows a green color. Phenolphthalein remains colorless in neutral solutions, Methyl Orange changes from red to yellow indicating acidic to basic, and Litmus shows purple in neutral conditions, not green.

Q68. An example of covalent hydride is :

• A. NaH
• B. SrH2
• C. AsH3✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Covalent hydrides are formed when hydrogen bonds with nonmetals. AsH3 is an example of a covalent hydride because arsenic (a nonmetal) shares electrons with hydrogen, forming a covalent bond. In contrast, NaH and SrH2 are ionic hydrides because they involve metals (sodium and strontium, respectively) forming ionic bonds with hydrogen. Option D is incorrect because it includes SrH2, which is not a covalent hydride.

Q69. Which is the most basic of the following oxides:

• A. Na2O✓
• B. BaO
• C. As2O3
• D. Al2O3

Explanation: Na2O is the most basic oxide among the options given. This is because it contains the oxide ion, O2-, which has a strong tendency to react with hydrogen ions to form hydroxide ions. Alkali metal oxides like Na2O are known for their strong basicity because they react readily with water to produce alkaline solutions (e.g., NaOH). BaO is also basic, but as an alkaline earth metal oxide, it is less basic than Na2O. As2O3 and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxides, meaning they can act as both acids and bases, but they do not have the pronounced basic characteristics of Na2O.

Q70. Corrosion of a metal produces :

• A. Chloride
• B. Sulphate
• C. Oxide✓
• D. Nitrite

Explanation: Corrosion is a chemical reaction where metal reacts with oxygen, often in the presence of moisture, leading to the formation of metal oxides. This is why rust, which is iron oxide, forms on iron or steel. The other options, chlorides, sulphates, and nitrites, are not typical products of metal corrosion as they require specific chemical reactions involving chlorine, sulfur, or nitrogen, respectively.

Q71. A car starts from rest and gains an acceleration of 4m/s2. Find the final velocity after 5 sec.

• A. 25 m/s
• B. 1.5 m/s
• C. 20 m/s✓
• D. 15 m/s

Explanation: The correct answer is 20 m/s. To find the final velocity (vf), use the first equation of motion: vf = vi + at. Here, the initial velocity (vi) is 0 m/s because the car starts from rest. The acceleration (a) is 4 m/s2, and the time (t) is 5 seconds. Therefore, vf = 0 + (4 * 5) = 20 m/s. Option A (25 m/s) assumes incorrect values for time or acceleration. Option B (1.5 m/s) miscalculates the effect of the given acceleration over time. Option D (15 m/s) results from a calculation error.

Q72. 1kwh =_ :

• A. 36 x 106 J
• B. 36 x 105 J✓
• C. 3.6 x 10-5 J
• D. 3.6 x 10-6 J

Explanation: 1 kilowatt hour (kWh) is the energy consumed by a device with a power of 1 kilowatt (1000 watts) running for 1 hour. To convert kWh to joules, use the conversion: 1 kWh = 1 kW x 1 hour = 1000 watts x 3600 seconds = 3.6 x 106 J. Thus, the correct expression is 36 x 105 J.Options A, C, and D present incorrect conversions. Option A misplaces the decimal point, while options C and D use negative exponents, which are not applicable in this energy conversion context.

Q73. A field in which work done along a close path is zero is called:

• A. Gravitational field
• B. Conservative field✓
• C. Electric field
• D. Magnetic field

Explanation: In coservative field work done does not depend on the path followed so in a closed loop work done will be zero. While gravitational, electric and magnetic fields are all path dependent, so work done in such fields is never zero. Hence all options except B are incorrect.

Q74. Absolute potential energy of a mass "m" lying at surface of earth is :

• A. -GMem/Re✓
• B. GMem/Re2
• C. GMe/Re
• D. -ReMem/G

Explanation: The correct answer is -GMem/Re, which represents the gravitational potential energy of mass 'm' at the Earth's surface. The formula includes the gravitational constant (G), the mass of the Earth (Me), the radius of Earth (Re), and the mass 'm'. The negative sign indicates that the energy is negative, meaning the mass is bound to the Earth. Other options are incorrect due to either omitting necessary components, like the mass 'm', or incorrect arrangements of the formula components.

Q75. Work done by centripetal force is:

• A. Maximum
• B. Minimum
• C. Zero✓
• D. Negative

Explanation: The work done by centripetal force is zero because centripetal force acts perpendicular to the displacement of an object in circular motion. Mathematically, work is given by W = Fd cos θ, where θ is the angle between the force and displacement. In the case of centripetal force, θ = 90°, and cos 90° = 0, leading to W = 0. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Zero.Option A is incorrect because maximum work occurs when force and displacement are aligned (0°), not perpendicular. Option B is incorrect as minimum non-zero work occurs at 180°, not applicable here. Option D is incorrect because negative work requires force opposing displacement, not perpendicular.

Q76. The two vectors are lying at x and y planes. Their resultant will be directed along :

• A. x-axis
• B. y-axis
• C. z-axis
• D. None of these✓

Explanation: The resultant of two vectors lying in the x and y planes will also lie within the x-y plane. It cannot align solely along the x-axis, y-axis, or z-axis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of these'. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest a resultant vector aligned along a single axis, which is not possible in this scenario.

Q77. A boy standing in a free falling lift drops a ball. The ball will :

• A. Fall down
• B. Go up
• C. Remain stationary relative to the boy✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The acceleration of the body "does not" depend on the mass (for freely falling). Hence both man and ball have same acceleration. Hence their velocities at everybpoint would be same. So "Relative" velocity is zero. Hence the ball will always remains stationary as seen by him. So option C is correct.

Q78. The point at which whole mass of the body is concentrated is called:

• A. Centre of gravity
• B. Centre of mass✓
• C. Centre of action
• D. Centre of body

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Centre of mass,' which is the point where the entire mass of an object can be thought to be concentrated. This concept is crucial in physics for simplifying the analysis of motion and dynamics. While the centre of gravity and centre of mass coincide in uniform gravitational fields, they differ in non-uniform fields. The centre of action and centre of body are not relevant to the concentration of mass.

Q79. Stokes observed that an upward retarding force acts on a body falling in liquid is given by :

• A. F = 6πnr2v
• B. F = 6πnrv2
• C. F = 6πnrv3
• D. F = 6πnrv✓

Explanation: According to Stokes Law, the viscous force acting on a body falling under gravity in a viscous fluid with viscosity n is given by F = 6πnrv where vis the velocity and r is the radius of the spherical body. So all the options except D are incorrect.

Q80. Unit of electric intensity is :

• A. J/C
• B. N/C✓
• C. J/kg
• D. N/kg

Explanation: Electric intensity, also known as electric field strength, is defined by the formula E = F/q, where E is the electric field, F is the force experienced by the charge, and q is the charge. Therefore, the unit of electric intensity is Newton per Coulomb (N/C), making option B correct. Option A (J/C) relates to electric potential, option C (J/kg) is for energy per mass, and option D (N/kg) is for gravitational field strength, none of which pertain to electric intensity.

Q81. Alpha particles are:

• A. Hydrogen nuclei
• B. Helium nuclei✓
• C. Oxygen nuclei
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Alpha particles are helium nuclei, meaning they consist of two protons and two neutrons, and carry a +2 charge (He++). They are a common type of particle emitted during radioactive decay. The other options are incorrect because hydrogen nuclei are single protons, oxygen nuclei have more protons and neutrons than an alpha particle, and none of the above is not applicable as helium nuclei are the correct answer.

Q82. e/m ratio of an electron is :

• A. 1.75x1011 C/kg✓
• B. 1.75x105 C/kg
• C. 1.75x1019 C/kg
• D. None of these

Explanation: The e/m ratio of an electron is calculated using the formula: e/m = charge of electron / mass of electron. The charge of an electron is approximately 1.6022 x 10-19 C, and its mass is approximately 9.1093 x 10-31 kg. Dividing the charge by the mass gives us 1.758820 x 1011 C/kg, which matches Option A. The other options are incorrect because they either understate or overstate the e/m ratio by several orders of magnitude, making them inconsistent with the known physical constants.

Q83. Vector product of a vector by itself is :

• A. Unity
• B. Zero✓
• C. 90°
• D. Depends on the vector

Explanation: The vector product, or cross product, of a vector with itself is always zero. This is because the angle between the vector and itself is zero degrees, and the sine of zero degrees is zero. Therefore, the magnitude of the cross product, which is determined by the product of the magnitudes of the vectors and the sine of the angle between them, is zero. Option B is correct. Other options are incorrect as they do not reflect the mathematical properties of the cross product.

Q84. The frictional force of a car taking turn on a circular track is equal to :

• A. Centripetal force✓
• B. Centrifugal force
• C. Magnetic force
• D. Gravitational force

Explanation: When a car takes a turn on a circular track, the frictional force between the tires and the road provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving along the circular path. This force acts towards the center of the circle, allowing the car to maintain its curved trajectory. In contrast, the other forces such as centrifugal, magnetic, and gravitational do not contribute to this specific requirement for circular motion. The centrifugal force is not an actual force but a perceived effect in a rotating frame, magnetic force is unrelated to this scenario, and gravitational force acts vertically downwards without aiding in lateral circular movement.

Q85. 1hp =_Watt :

• A. 750 Watt
• B. 746 Watt✓
• C. 758 Watt
• D. 756 Watt

Explanation: One horsepower (hp) is defined as 746 watts (W) in the British measurement system, which is a standard used to quantify power. Hence, option B is correct. Option A (750 Watt) is a rounded approximation often used for simplicity. Options C (758 Watt) and D (756 Watt) are incorrect because they exceed the actual conversion value of 746 watts.

Q86. Two forces equal in magnitude , opposite in direction and not acting along same time , constitute a :

• A. Torque
• B. Couple✓
• C. Moment of arm
• D. None

Explanation: The correct answer is a Couple. A couple consists of two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action do not coincide, resulting in a rotational effect without any translational movement. The vector sum of a couple is zero, but it creates a pure rotational motion. Torque is related to a single force causing rotation, not a pair of forces. Moment of arm refers to the distance in the calculation of torque, not a force interaction itself. None is incorrect as the description fits the definition of a couple.

Q87. Points of zero amplitude are called :

• A. Nodes✓
• B. Antinodes
• C. Both
• D. None

Explanation: In a standing wave, nodes are points where the wave has zero amplitude, meaning there is no movement at these points. These occur at regular intervals along the wave and are essential for the formation of standing waves. For example, on a vibrating guitar string, nodes are the fixed ends where the string does not move. Antinodes, on the other hand, are points of maximum amplitude, where the wave exhibits the most movement. Therefore, option A is correct because it accurately describes nodes as points of zero amplitude. Option B is incorrect because antinodes represent the opposite characteristic—maximum amplitude. Option C is incorrect because nodes and antinodes have different properties and cannot both represent zero amplitude. Option D is incorrect as nodes specifically refer to the concept in question.

Q88. Two waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite direction give rise to :

• A. Transverse waves
• B. Longitudinal waves
• C. Standing waves✓
• D. Electromagnetic waves

Explanation: When two waves of the same frequency and amplitude travel in opposite directions, they interfere with each other to form standing waves. This results in a pattern with fixed nodes where there is no displacement and antinodes where the displacement is maximum. Standing waves are characterized by their stationary pattern, as opposed to traveling waves. Transverse and longitudinal waves describe the direction of oscillation relative to wave propagation, while electromagnetic waves refer to a different type of wave phenomenon. Therefore, the correct answer is the formation of standing waves.

Q89. Two vectors of magnitude 3 & 4 have a resultant of 5. The angle between vectors is :

• A. 90°✓
• B. 45°
• C. 180°
• D. 270°

Explanation: The problem involves finding the angle between two vectors with magnitudes 3 and 4, resulting in a magnitude of 5 for their resultant vector. Applying the law of cosines to the vectors: |R|2 = |P|2 + |Q|2 + 2|P||Q|cos∅, we substitute in the given magnitudes: 52 = 32 + 42 + 2(3)(4)cos∅. Simplifying gives 25 = 9 + 16 + 24cos∅. Solving for cos∅, we find cos∅ = 0, which means ∅ = 90°. Thus, the vectors are perpendicular. Other options such as 45°, 180°, and 270° do not satisfy the geometric and trigonometric constraints of the problem.

Q90. Layer of soap looks coloured due to :

• A. Interference✓
• B. Polarization
• C. Transmission
• D. None

Explanation: The colors observed in a soap layer are due to light wave interference. When light hits the soap film, some of it is reflected off the top surface while some travels through and reflects off the bottom surface. These reflected waves overlap, leading to constructive and destructive interference that produces different colors depending on the film's varying thickness.Option A is correct because it accurately describes this process. Option B is incorrect because polarization affects light's direction rather than producing colors. Option C is incorrect as transmission alone does not result in color formation in thin films. Option D is incorrect because interference is indeed the phenomenon responsible for the observed colors.

Q91. 8n Young's double slit experiment , two waves interfere constructively , if path difference is :

• A. (m+½) λ
• B. m λ✓
• C. (m-½) λ
• D. None of these

Explanation: In Young's double slit experiment, constructive interference occurs when the path difference between the two waves is an integral multiple of the wavelength, expressed as m λ (where m is an integer: 0, 1, 2, ...). This ensures that the crests of the waves align, resulting in maximum intensity. Option B correctly represents this condition. Options A and C represent conditions for destructive interference, where the path difference is a half-integral multiple of the wavelength. Option D is incorrect because Option B provides the correct condition for constructive interference.

Q92. If length of pendulum becomes four times, time period will be :

• A. T/2
• B. 4T
• C. 2T✓
• D. T/2

Explanation: The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π √L/g, where L is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The time period is directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum. Therefore, if the length of the pendulum becomes four times its original length, the time period becomes √4 times, or 2 times, its original time period. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: 2T.Option A and Option D: T/2 are incorrect because they suggest the time period decreases, which is not the case as length increases. Option B: 4T is incorrect because it implies a linear relationship, whereas the relationship is actually based on the square root.

Q93. A projectile is launched at an angle theta to the horizontal with initial velocity v. In the absence of air resistance , which one of the following statements is correct?

• A. The horizontal velocity increase during flight.
• B. The horizontal velocity remains constant throughout flight.✓
• C. The horizontal velocity decreases during flight.
• D. Vertical acceleration increases during flight.

Explanation: "If air resistance is ignored , then there is no acceleration in horizontal direction in projectile motion.Hence the particle move with constant velocity in horizontal direction."So option B is correct.

Q94. 228U nucleus differs from 225U nucleus in that it combines three more :

• A. Neutrons✓
• B. Protons
• C. Electrons
• D. Alpha particles

Explanation: Isotopes of an element differ in their mass numbers due to a difference in the number of neutrons. The atomic number, which equals the number of protons, remains constant. In this case, 228U and 225U are isotopes of uranium, having the same number of protons (92) but differing in their mass numbers by 3. Hence, 228U has three more neutrons than 225U, making option A correct. Options B and C are incorrect because protons and electrons do not differ between isotopes of the same element. Option D is incorrect because alpha particles are a type of radiation, not a component of atomic structure in this context.

Q95. Motor operates from a 120 volts electrical source and uses 4 amperes of electrical current. What is the power generated by the motor?

• A. 30 Watt
• B. 42 Watt
• C. 120 Watt
• D. 480 Watt✓

Explanation: The power generated by the motor can be calculated using the formula P = VI, where P is the power in watts, V is the voltage in volts, and I is the current in amperes. Given V = 120 volts and I = 4 amperes, the power is calculated as follows:P = 120 volts x 4 amperes = 480 watts.Therefore, Option D is correct. The other options are incorrect as they result from either misusing the formula or incorrect calculations.

Q96. The vector quantity in following is :

• A. Distance
• B. Impulse✓
• C. Energy
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The product of vector and scalar is always a vector, so impulse is a vector quantity with S.I. unit kilogram metre per second. In a nutshell, we can say that Impulse is a vector quantity as it has both magnitude as well as direction.Mathematically, impulse is equal to the change of momentum of the body. So option B is correct.

Q97. The angle of projection of projectile for which its maximum height is equal to 1/4th of horizontal range :

• A. 30°
• B. 45°✓
• C. 50°
• D. 70°

Explanation: This option B suggests that if a projectile is launched at an angle of 45 degrees, its maximum height will be equal to 1/4th of the horizontal range. A 45-degree angle of projection often results in the maximum range for a projectile. Refer to the picture below

Q98. Reactions in which heavy nuclei split into nuclei of intermediate mass number are called :

• A. Fusion reaction
• B. Fission reaction✓
• C. Pair production
• D. Pair annihilation

Explanation: Nuclear fission is a reaction in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei. The fission process often produces gamma photons. So the option B is correct.

Q99. Two vectors each of magnitude F make angle 0° and 270° with x-axis. Their resultant is:

• A. 0
• B. 2F
• C. 2/F
• D. F√2✓

Explanation: This option D suggests that the magnitude of the resultant vector is F√2. This is a possibility since when you add two vectors at right angles to each other, the magnitude of the resultant vector is given by the square root of the sum of the squares of the magnitudes of the original vectors. In this case, if the vectors make angles of 0° and 270° with the x-axis, they are at right angles. Refer to the picture below

Q100. Chose the relation which is not correct :

• A. Ampere = Coulomb per second
• B. Volt = Coulomb per Joule✓
• C. Ohm = Volt per Ampere
• D. One Coulomb = charge of 6.24x1018 electrons

Explanation: Option B is the correct answer because the relation given is incorrect. The correct relationship is Volt = Joule per Coulomb, meaning that one Volt is the potential difference that will move one Joule of energy per one Coulomb of charge. The other options are correct: Option A accurately describes an Ampere as a Coulomb per second, Option C correctly defines Ohm's resistance as Volt per Ampere, and Option D provides the correct approximation of the charge of one Coulomb.