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Sindh Mcat Nts 2004 Iba — Solved Past Paper with Answers

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Q1. Nexus:

A. Shameless
B. Influence
C. Connection✓
D. Love

Explanation: c) Connection: This option is correct. "Nexus" refers to a connection or link between different things or entities. It represents a point of intersection or interaction.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Shameless: This option is not correct. "Shameless" refers to a lack of shame or guilt, often in a negative or disapproving context. It does not accurately capture the meaning of "Nexus."
B. b) Influence: This option is not correct. "Influence" refers to the power or capacity to affect the behavior or decisions of others. While "nexus" can be related to connections and relationships, it is not directly synonymous with "influence."
D. d) Love: This option is not correct. "Love" refers to a strong affection, care, or attachment to someone or something. While relationships and connections can involve love, "nexus" is not specifically about love.

Q2. Bennnett:

A. To seek something
B. A person family name✓
C. To look after
D. Amaze

Explanation: "Bennett" is commonly used as a family name (surname) that identifies a specific individual or their lineage. Many people have the last name "Bennett."

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) To seek something: This option is not correct. "Bennett" is not typically used to mean "to seek something." It is not a verb that denotes an action of seeking.
C. c) To look after: This option is not correct. "Bennett" is not typically used to mean "to look after." It is not a verb that signifies taking care of someone or something.
D. d) Amaze: This option is not correct. "Bennett" is not used to mean "amaze." It does not convey a sense of wonder or astonishment.

Q3. Mob:

A. A web
B. Disorderly Crowd✓
C. Exhaust
D. None of these

Explanation: a) A web: This option is not correct. "Mob" does not generally mean "a web." In the context of the given options, "mob" refers to something different.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) A web: This option is not correct. "Mob" does not generally mean "a web." In the context of the given options, "mob" refers to something different.
C. c) Exhaust: This option is not correct. "Mob" is not commonly used to mean "exhaust." The word "mob" is unrelated to the concept of being tired or drained.
D. d) None of these: This option indicates that none of the provided options accurately describe the meaning of "mob."

Q4. Dabble:

A. Involve one self without serous efforrt✓
B. To train someone for some work
C. Excellent work
D. To enjoy the work

Explanation: a) Involve oneself without serious effort: This option is correct. "Dabble" means to engage or involve oneself in an activity or subject without putting in serious or committed effort. It often implies doing something as a hobby or casually, without becoming deeply proficient or skilled.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) To train someone for some work: This option is not correct. "Dabble" does not mean to train someone for work. It is related to personal involvement in an activity rather than training others
C. c) Excellent work: This option is not correct. "Dabble" is not used to refer to excellent work. It does not imply the quality of the work being done.
D. d) To enjoy the work: This option is not correct. While "dabbling" in an activity might involve enjoying it, the primary meaning of "dabble" is about engaging in something without serious effort, rather than specifically enjoying it.

Q5. Put an appropriate word:_ are used to fund public services and government operations.

A. Took
B. Taxes✓
C. Taken
D. Has taken

Explanation: Option B is the correct option as the statement shows an action happening in present time.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Took: "Took" is the past tense of the verb "take." It indicates an action that was completed in the past. For example, "She took the book from the shelf."
C. c) Taken: "Taken" is the past participle form of the verb "take." It is used in combination with auxiliary verbs like "has," "have," or "had." For example, "She has taken the medicine."
D. d) Has taken: "Has taken" is a present perfect tense construction that indicates an action that started in the past and has continued up to the present or was recently completed. For example, "He has taken the dog for a walk."

Q6. Come in I _(have) a cup of tea.

A. Is
B. Am having✓
C. Have
D. Had

Explanation: Option B is the most appropriate answer according to the sentence. As it is indicating present perfect continuous tense hence I am having is the correct answer.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Is: "Is" is the present tense form of the verb "be." However, it is not the correct choice in this sentence. The sentence requires a verb form that indicates an action related to having a cup of tea.
C. c) Have: "Have" is the base form of the verb. While it is grammatically correct, it doesn't convey the ongoing action or context of the sentence. It lacks the sense of immediacy that "am having" provides.
D. d) Had: "Had" is the past tense form of the verb "have." It indicates an action that occurred in the past. However, in the given sentence, the context is about having a cup of tea in the present or near future.

Q7. Who_that terrible noise.

A. Is making✓
B. Is producing
C. Develops
D. Developing

Explanation: Option A is the correct answer indicating present continuous tense.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Is producing: "Is producing" is the present continuous tense form of the verb "produce." Similar to option (a), it indicates an ongoing action that is happening right now. This option is also a valid choice for the sentence.
C. c) Develops: "Develops" is the present tense form of the verb "develop." However, it doesn't fit the context of the sentence, as it does not convey the idea of making a noise or sound at the present moment.
D. d) Developing: "Developing" is the present participle form of the verb "develop." Similar to option (c), it does not fit the context of the sentence. It doesn't convey the meaning of someone making or producing a noise.

Q8. No one_television, so my father_it off.

A. Watched, turned
B. Was watching, turns
C. Was watching turned✓
D. Watching, turned

Explanation: The correct pair of word is was watching, turned.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Watched, turned: In this option, "watched" is in the past tense and "turned" is in the past tense. This combination suggests that someone watched television in the past and then someone (presumably the father) turned it off.
B. b) Was watching, turns: In this option, "was watching" is in the past continuous tense and "turns" is in the present tense. This combination is not grammatically correct because it mixes different tenses. The past continuous tense "was watching" indicates an ongoing action in the past, while "turns" is in the present tense.
D. d) Watching, turned: In this option, "watching" is in the present participle form, indicating an ongoing action, and "turned" is in the past tense. This combination is not grammatically correct because it mixes different tenses. The present participle "watching" does not match with the past tense "turned."

Q9. Cynic means:

A. Polite
B. Pessimist
C. Disbeliever
D. Skeptic✓

Explanation: Cynic means bad person

Why the other options are wrong

A. 'Polite' refers to showing good manners and respectful behavior, which is generally the opposite of a cynic's skeptical nature.
B. 'Pessimist' is someone who tends to see the worst aspect of things, similar to a cynic who often doubts people's sincerity or goodness.
C. 'Disbeliever' refers to someone who lacks belief. While a cynic may also question beliefs, it's more about skepticism of motives rather than disbelief in concepts.

Q10. Which of the following regarding true fungi is correct:

A. They are autotrophs
B. They have chlorophyll
C. Less number of species
D. They have mycelium and hypae✓

Explanation: True fungi have mycellium and hyphae

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) They are autotrophs: This option is not correct. True fungi are heterotrophic organisms, which means they obtain their nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their environment. They do not produce their own food through photosynthesis like autotrophic organisms.
B. b) They have chlorophyll: This option is not correct. True fungi do not have chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis, which is a process used by plants and some other organisms to convert light energy into chemical energy. Fungi lack chlorophyll and do not photosynthesize.
C. c) Less number of species: This option is not correct. Fungi actually have a vast number of species, estimated to be over 120,000 species described and possibly many more undiscovered. Fungi are a diverse group of organisms that inhabit a wide range of environments.

Q11. The number of chromosomes in man is:

A. 44
B. 48
C. 46✓
D. 23

Explanation: A normal human has 46 chromosome, and 23 pairs.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 44: This option is not correct. Humans do not have 44 chromosomes. The number provided is not accurate.
B. b) 48: This option is not correct. Humans do not have 48 chromosomes. The actual number of chromosomes is different.
D. d) 23: This option is not correct. While humans do inherit 23 chromosomes from each parent, the total number of chromosomes in a human cell is 46, as explained in option (c).

Q12. According to hay flick the aging is due to loss of:

A. Cell function✓
B. Immunity
C. Stability
D. AOT

Explanation: Hayflick hypothesized that the limited replicative capability of the cell related to aging in cells and, consequently, to human aging.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Immunity: While the Hayflick limit primarily focuses on the loss of cell division capacity, it does not specifically emphasize the loss of immunity as a main factor in aging. Immunity can play a role in aging, but it is not the central concept of the Hayflick limit.
C. c) Stability: This option is not directly related to the Hayflick limit. The Hayflick limit is primarily concerned with the limited number of times cells can divide before reaching replicative senescence. "Stability" is not a central aspect of this concept.
D. d) AOT: "AOT" is not a recognizable acronym or term in the context of the Hayflick limit or aging process. It does not accurately relate to the factors contributing to aging according to the Hayflick theory.

Q13. Locomotion by pseudopodium is found in:

A. Amoeba✓
B. Chlamydomonas
C. Cillates
D. Euglena

Explanation: Locomotion is pseudopodium is found in amoeba.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Chlamydomonas: This option is not correct. Chlamydomonas is a type of unicellular green algae that moves using two whip-like structures called flagella, not by pseudopodia.
C. c) Ciliates: This option is not correct. Ciliates are another group of unicellular organisms that move using hair-like structures called cilia, not by pseudopodia.
D. d) Euglena: This option is not correct. Euglena is a unicellular organism that moves using a whip-like structure called a flagellum, not by pseudopodia.

Q14. In catkin inflorescence the fkowers are:

A. Motile
B. Sessile✓
C. Stalked
D. Branched

Explanation: Catkin inflorescence is a type of racemose inflorescence with indefinite growth of the main axis. The main axis is unbranched and drooping. It bears sessile flowers close to the peduncle in an acropetal manner. Flowers are unisexual and often have scaly bracts and inconspicuous petals.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Motile: This option is not correct. In catkin inflorescence, the flowers are not motile. "Motile" refers to the ability to move or be mobile, which is not a characteristic of flowers in a catkin inflorescence.
C. c) Stalked: This option is not correct. Catkin inflorescence is characterized by flowers that are sessile, meaning they do not have individual stalks or pedicels.
D. d) Branched: This option is not correct. Catkin inflorescence refers to a type of inflorescence in which the flowers are arranged along a central stem (axis) without any branching of the axis itself.

Q15. Eggs of amphioxus:

A. Alecithal✓
B. Telolecithal
C. Melolecithal
D. Mesolecithal

Explanation: Amphioxus eggs have very small amount of yolk, which means they will be classified as alecithal eggs.

Why the other options are wrong

B. An egg that has a large quantity of yolk, where the yolk is unevenly distributed all through the cytoplasm, is referred to as a telolecithal egg.
C. no term exists like this.
D. medium-sized eggs with some yolk are called mesolecithal,

Q16. The condition in which there is one extra choromosome is:

A. Monosomic
B. Trisomic✓
C. Disomic
D. Nullisomic

Explanation: The presence of an extra chromosome in some or all of the body's cells. This results in a total of three copies of that chromosome instead of the normal two copies. For example, Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is caused by having three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two copies.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The term "monosomy" is used to describe the absence of one member of a pair of chromosomes. Therefore, there are 45 chromosomes in each cell of the body instead of the usual 46
C. The resulting abnormal gametes contain either two copies of a chromosome (disomic).
D. The resulting abnormal gametes contain no copy of that chromosome (nullisomic).

Q17. The plants and animals of an area which live sucessfully and reproduce particular surrounding constitute.

A. Community✓
B. Population
C. Ecology
D. Biosphere

Explanation: The plants and animals of area which live successfully and reproduce in particular surrounding constitute a community.

Why the other options are wrong

B. population is all the inhabitants of a particular place.
C. Ecology is the study of organisms and how they interact with the environment around them.
D. The biosphere is a global ecosystem made up of living organisms (biota) and the nonliving (abiotic) factors that provide them with energy and nutrients.

Q18. The temperature deciduous forest are characterterized by plant:

A. Maple✓
B. Pine
C. Fir
D. Space

Explanation: The temperature of deciduous forest are characterized by maple plant.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Pine: This option is not correct. Pine trees are more commonly associated with coniferous forests, also known as boreal or taiga forests. Coniferous forests are characterized by evergreen trees like pine, spruce, and fir, whereas temperate deciduous forests are characterized by deciduous trees like maple, oak, and beech.
C. c) Fir: "Fir" is not one of the provided options. However, fir trees are commonly found in coniferous forests, similar to pine trees.
D. d) Space: This option is not correct. "Space" is not a characteristic plant of temperate deciduous forests. The question is asking about plant species that are characteristic of this type of forest ecosystem.

Q19. The proportion of different alleles of a gene in a population is termed as:

A. Allele frequency✓
B. Genetic drift
C. Gene frequency
D. Allelomorph

Explanation: Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a specific allele within a population, calculated by considering the total number of alleles contributed by individuals with different genotypes at a particular locus

Why the other options are wrong

B. Genetic drift is the change in frequency of an existing gene variant in the population due to random chance.
C. The proportion of different allele of a gene in population is termed as gene frequency.
D. Allelomorph is another term used for allele. It is a synonym of allele

Q20. The primitive vascular plant rhynia is:

A. Pterodophyte✓
B. Bryophyte
C. Spermatophyte
D. Gametophyte

Explanation: The primitive vascular rhynia is pteridophyte

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Bryophyte: This option is not correct. Bryophytes are non-vascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts. Rhynia is a vascular plant and does not belong to the bryophyte group.
C. c) Spermatophyte: This option is not correct. Spermatophytes are seed-bearing vascular plants, which include gymnosperms and angiosperms. Rhynia is a primitive vascular plant but is not classified as a spermatophyte.
D. d) Gametophyte: This option is not correct. A gametophyte is the haploid phase in the life cycle of plants with alternation of generations. Rhynia is not a gametophyte; it is considered a vascular plant and belongs to a different phase of the life cycle.

Q21. The number of chromosomes in sporophytic ulva:

A. 13
B. 26
C. 24
D. 14✓

Explanation: The number of chromosomes in the sporophytic generation of Ulva, commonly known as sea lettuce, is 14. This means that the sporophyte of Ulva is diploid with a chromosome number of 2n = 14.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 13: This option is not correct. The number of chromosomes in sporophytic Ulva is not 13.
B. b) 26: This option is not correct. The number of chromosomes in sporophytic Ulva is not 26.
C. c) 24: This option is not correct. The number of chromosomes in sporophytic Ulva is not 24.

Q22. The botancial name of mustard is:

A. Brassica cleracea
B. Brassica compestris✓
C. Brassica napus
D. Raphanus sativus

Explanation: The botanical name of mustard is brassica compestris,

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Brassica cleracea: This option is not correct. "Brassica cleracea" is not the correct botanical name for mustard. It does not correspond to any known species of mustard.
C. c) Brassica napus: This option is not correct. "Brassica napus" is the botanical name for rapeseed, another member of the Brassicaceae family. While closely related to mustard, rapeseed is a distinct plant species.
D. d) Raphanus sativus: This option is not correct. "Raphanus sativus" is the botanical name for radish, another plant in the Brassicaceae family. It is not the botanical name for mustard.

Q23. Some plants from embryo without fertilization called:

A. Apomixi✓
B. Epirnixis
C. Apomixes
D. Endomixis

Explanation: The plants which form embryo without fertilization is called apomixis.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Epirnixis: This option is not correct. "Epirnixis" is not a recognized term in the context of plant reproduction.
C. c) Apomixes: This option is not correct. The correct term is "Apomixis," as explained in option (a). "Apomixes" is not a recognized term.
D. d) Endomixis: This option is not correct. "Endomixis" is not a recognized term in the context of plant reproduction.

Q24. Circulatory system in grass hopper is of:

A. Hemi open type
B. Open type✓
C. Close type
D. Hemi close type

Explanation: The circulatory system of grass hopper is open type.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Hemi open type: This option is not correct. The circulatory system in grasshoppers is not a hemi "open type" system. In an open circulatory system, blood is pumped into a body cavity, and the blood is not always enclosed within vessels.
C. c) Closed type: This option is not correct. The circulatory system in grasshoppers is not a "closed type" system. In a closed circulatory system, blood is contained within vessels at all times, and it does not come into direct contact with tissues in the body cavity.
D. d) Hemi closed type: This option is not correct. The correct term is "open," as explained in option (b). "Hemi closed type" is not a recognized term in the context of circulatory systems.

Q25. When solid particles are ingested by cell through plasms membrane:

A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis✓
C. Endosermosis
D. Exomisis

Explanation: The solid particles are ingested through cell membrane by phagocytosis, also termed as cell eating.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The englufment of liquid particles is called pinocytosis, also termed as cell drinking.
C. Endosmosis is the opposite of exosmosis; it is the movement of water and other molecules from a lower concentration to a higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
D. Exosmosis is the movement of water and other molecules from a higher concentration to a lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.

Q26. Who discovered protozoan in the red blood cells of human:

A. Leveran✓
B. King
C. Ronald ross
D. Grassi

Explanation: Levaran discovered protozoan in red blood cell of human.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) King (Option b): "King" is not a recognized individual in the context of the discovery of protozoans in red blood cells.
C. c) Ronald Ross (Option c): Sir Ronald Ross, a British physician, is known for his work on the transmission of malaria through mosquitoes. He demonstrated the role of mosquitoes in transmitting the malaria parasite, but he did not discover protozoans in red blood cells.
D. d) Grassi (Option d): Giovanni Battista Grassi, an Italian physician, is known for his contributions to the understanding of malaria, particularly its transmission by mosquitoes. He did not discover protozoans in red blood cells, but his work was significant in advancing the knowledge of malaria transmission.

Q27. Chloroplast contain substational amount of_and are capable of programming synthesis of some of their new structural components:

A. Chlorophyll
B. DNA✓
C. RNA
D. Chromophyll

Explanation: Chlorplast contain substantial amount of dna which is capable of synthesizing new structural componenents of cell.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Chlorophyll: This option is not correct. While chlorophyll is a pigment present in chloroplasts that plays a crucial role in photosynthesis by capturing light energy, it is not responsible for programming the synthesis of new structural components in chloroplasts.
C. c) RNA: This option is not correct. While RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is involved in protein synthesis and other cellular processes, it is not the main component responsible for programming the synthesis of new structural components within chloroplasts.
D. d) Chormophyll: "Chormophyll" is not a recognized term. It appears to be a typo or misspelling of "chlorophyll," which was already mentioned as an option (a).

Q28. Centres of cellular respiration in a cell is:

A. Mitochondrian✓
B. Cytoplasm
C. Golgi bodies
D. Ribosome

Explanation: Mitochondria are centers of cellular respiration in a cell.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Cytoplasm: This option is not correct. While some steps of cellular respiration, such as glycolysis, occur in the cytoplasm, the majority of aerobic respiration takes place in the mitochondria.
C. c) Golgi bodies: This option is not correct. Golgi bodies, also known as the Golgi apparatus, are involved in processes such as protein modification, sorting, and packaging, but they are not the centers of cellular respiration.
D. d) Ribosome: This option is not correct. Ribosomes are cellular structures involved in protein synthesis (translation), but they are not directly associated with the process of cellular respiration.

Q29. In earthworm the absorptive ridge which runs along the dorsal side of intestine is:

A. Villi
B. Typhlosole✓
C. Vessel
D. None

Explanation: In earthworms the absorptive ridge which runs along dorsal side of intestine is typhlosole.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Villi: This option is not correct. Villi are finger-like projections found in the small intestine of vertebrates, such as humans, and are involved in increasing the surface area for nutrient absorption. Earthworms do not have villi.
C. c) Vessel: This option is not correct. "Vessel" is not a relevant term in this context. It does not refer to the absorptive ridge in earthworms.
D. d) None: This option is not correct. The correct term for the absorptive ridge in earthworms is "typhlosole." It is a distinctive feature of the earthworm's digestive system.

Q30. Movement in peotozoan specially in sarcodinians is:

A. Amoebid✓
B. Euglenoid
C. Flagellary
D. Brachiation

Explanation: Sarcodina have streaming cytoplasm and use temporary cytoplasmic extensions called pseudopodia in locomotion (called amoeboid movement).

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Euglenoid: This option is not correct. Euglenoids are a different group of protozoans that move using a whip-like tail called a flagellum, not by amoeboid movement.
C. c) Flagellary: This option is not correct. "Flagellary" is not a recognized term. Protozoans that move using flagella (singular: flagellum) are called flagellates, but this is not the characteristic movement of sarcodinians.
D. d) Brachiation: This option is not correct. "Brachiation" refers to a mode of movement used by some primates (like swinging from tree branches), and it is not relevant to protozoans, especially sarcodinians.

Q31. Rods and cones (photoreceptors cells) are present in:

A. Iris
B. Pupil
C. Cornea
D. Retina✓

Explanation: Rods and cones are present in retina.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Iris: This option is not correct. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil by adjusting its diameter. It does not contain rods and cones.
B. b) Pupil: This option is not correct. The pupil is the black circular opening in the center of the iris that allows light to enter the eye. It is not a location where rods and cones are found.
C. c) Cornea: This option is not correct. The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that covers the iris and the pupil. It does not contain rods and cones.

Q32. An automatics preprogrammed and geneticaly Inherited behavior is:

A. Learning
B. Instinctive✓
C. Parental
D. Genetical

Explanation: An automated, programmed and genetically inherited behaviour is instinctive.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Learning: This option is not correct. Learning refers to the process of acquiring new knowledge, skills, or behaviors through experience and interactions with the environment. It involves a change in behavior based on previous experiences.
C. c) Parental: This option is not correct. "Parental" refers to behaviors related to parenting or caring for offspring. It may involve nurturing, protecting, and providing for the needs of the young.
D. d) Genetical: This option is not correct. "Genetical" is not a recognized term. The correct term is "genetically," which relates to traits or behaviors that are determined by an organism's genetic makeup.

Q33. A division without formation of spindle is:

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Amitosis✓
D. Karyokiness

Explanation: A division without formation of spindle is amitosis

Why the other options are wrong

A. Mitosis produces two genetically identical “daughter” cells from a single “parent cell.
B. Meiosis produces cells that are genetically unique from the parent and contain only half as much DNA.
D. Karyokinesis means the process of division of the nucleus.

Q34. In pond ecosystem the macronutrient include:

A. Iron
B. Manganese
C. Copper
D. Magnessium✓

Explanation: In pond ecosystem the macronutrient is magnessium.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Iron: This option is not correct. Iron is a micronutrient, not a macronutrient. It is required in smaller amounts by plants and organisms in a pond ecosystem.
B. b) Manganese: This option is not correct. Manganese is also a micronutrient, not a macronutrient. Like iron, it is needed in smaller quantities by plants and organisms.
C. c) Copper: This option is not correct. Copper is another micronutrient that is essential in trace amounts for various biological processes. It is not considered a macronutrient.

Q35. The % of lipids in protoplasm is about:

A. 2 to 3 %✓
B. 2 to 4%
C. 2 to 5%
D. 10%

Explanation: The percentage of lipids in protoplasm is 2 to 3%.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 2 to 4%: This option suggests that the percentage of lipids in protoplasm is between 2% and 4%. This range is also quite close to the actual percentage of lipids in protoplasm. Lipids are essential components of cell membranes and play a crucial role in various cellular processes.
C. c) 2 to 5%: This option suggests that the percentage of lipids in protoplasm is between 2% and 5%. This range covers a slightly broader spectrum and is still within a reasonable approximation of the actual percentage of lipids in protoplasm.
D. d) 10%: This option suggests that the percentage of lipids in protoplasm is 10%. This percentage is significantly higher than the actual amount of lipids found in protoplasm. Lipids are important components, but they do not make up such a large proportion of the protoplasm.

Q36. Flowering plants which cell contents exert on cell wall:

A. Angiosperms✓
B. Gymosperms
C. Cryptogams
D. Plandophytes

Explanation: Angiosperms are plants that produce flowers and bear their seeds in fruits. They are the largest and most diverse group within the kingdom Plantae.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Gymnosperm is any vascular plant that reproduces by means of an exposed seed, or ovule. The seeds of many gymnosperms (literally, “naked seeds”) are borne in cones and are not visible until maturity
C. A cryptogam is a plant or plant-like creature that reproduces through spores rather than seeds or blooms. The algae, bryophytes, and pteridophytes are considered cryptogams.
D. Pteridophytes are also called vascular cryptogams. Pteridophytes are types of plants without seeds or flowers.

Q37. The pressure which cell contents exert on cell wall:

A. Turgor pressure✓
B. Wall pressure
C. Suction pressure
D. Osmotic pressure

Explanation: The pressure exerted by cell contents on cell wall is turgor pressure.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Wall pressure: This option is not correct. "Wall pressure" is not a recognized term. The pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall is primarily referred to as turgor pressure.
C. c) Suction pressure: This option is not correct. "Suction pressure" is not the term commonly used to describe the pressure exerted by cell contents on the cell wall. Turgor pressure is the more appropriate term.
D. d) Osmotic pressure: This option is related to the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane due to differences in solute concentration. It is not specifically used to describe the pressure exerted by cell contents on the cell wall.

Q38. The muscles which rotate the whole or part of limb at one of its joint:

A. Protractor
B. Retractor
C. Rotractor
D. Rotator✓

Explanation: The muscles which rotate the whole part of limb at one of its joints is rotator muscle example include: rotator cuff muscle.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Protractor: This option is not correct. A "protractor" is a measuring instrument used to measure angles, and it is not related to muscle movement.
B. b) Retractor: This option is not correct. A "retractor" is a muscle or device used to pull or retract tissues or structures, often in surgical procedures. It is not specifically involved in rotating a limb at a joint.
C. c) Rotractor: This option is not correct. "Rotractor" is not a recognized term. The correct term for a muscle involved in rotating a limb at a joint is "rotator."

Q39. Leucoplast are:

A. Found in underground parts of the plant✓
B. Found in ariel parts of plants
C. They have chloroplast
D. They are found exogenously

Explanation: Leucoplasts are found in underground part of plants.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Found in aerial parts of plants: This option is not correct. Leucoplasts are primarily found in underground parts of plants, as mentioned above. They are not typically found in aerial parts of the plant like leaves or stems.
C. c) They have chloroplast: This option is not correct. Leucoplasts do not contain chlorophyll and are not involved in photosynthesis. Instead, they are responsible for storing various substances, including starch, oils, and proteins.
D. d) They are found exogenously: This option is not correct. Leucoplasts are not typically found externally on the surface of plant cells. They are internal organelles within plant cells.

Q40. Electronic configuration, 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, is of:

A. Sodium✓
B. Magnesium
C. Neon
D. Calcium

Explanation: This electronic configuration is of sodium

Why the other options are wrong

B. electronic configuration of magnesium is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s²
C. Ne electron configuration will be 1s2,2s2,2p6
D. Calcium electron configuration will be 1s22s22p63s23p64s2

Q41. In borax Na2B4O7.X H2O4 Where X=_?

A. 10✓
B. 12
C. 14
D. 8

Explanation: in borax NA2B4O7.XH2O, the X is 10

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 12: This option is incorrect. The correct value of X for borax is 10, not 12.
C. c) 14: This option is not correct. The correct value of X for borax is 10, as explained above.
D. d) 8: This option is not correct. The correct value of X for borax is 10, not 8.

Q42. NaBH4 Is_hybride:

A. Polymeric
B. Complex✓
C. Covalent
D. Metalic

Explanation: Sodium borohydride (NaBH4) is a reagent that transforms aldehydes and ketones to the corresponding alcohol, primary or secondary, respectively. It iis an example of complex hydride.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Polymeric: This option is not correct. "Polymeric" refers to compounds that consist of repeating units linked together to form a larger molecule. NaBH4 (sodium borohydride) is not a polymeric compound; it is a molecular compound.
C. c) Covalent: This option is partially correct. NaBH4 (sodium borohydride) is a covalent compound. It consists of covalent bonds between the atoms of sodium (Na), boron (B), and hydrogen (H). Covalent compounds are formed when atoms share electrons.
D. d) Metallic: This option is not correct. "Metallic" refers to the properties and behavior of metals. NaBH4 is not a metallic compound; it is a covalent compound.

Q43. The properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number called:

A. Moseley law
B. Periodic law✓
C. Doberniers law
D. Newlands law

Explanation: According to definition of periodic law : the properties of periodic function of their atomic number.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Moseley's law is an empirical law concerning the characteristic X-rays emitted by atoms.
C. Dobereiner's law of triads: When elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic masses,groups of three elements(triads), having similar chemical properties are obtained.
D. Newland's Law of Octaves states that when Elements are arranged in increasing order of Atomic Mass, the properties of every eighth Element starting from any Element are a repetition of the properties of the starting Element.

Q44. Hydrogen is placed in various groups sometimes in IV-A, by diffdrent authors, its actual position is:

A. Unknown
B. Undetected
C. Undecided✓
D. None

Explanation: The actual position of Hydrogen is undecides because of its variable properties.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Unknown: This option suggests that the actual position of hydrogen in the periodic table is unknown. Different authors and scientists have proposed various placements for hydrogen due to its unique properties and characteristics. Its classification has been a subject of debate and discussion in the field of chemistry.
B. b) Undetected: This option is not correct. Hydrogen's presence and properties are well-known; however, its exact placement in the periodic table has been a topic of debate.
D. d) None: This option is not correct. While the placement of hydrogen in the periodic table may be undecided, it is not accurate to say that there is no information or discussion about its placement.

Q45. S-blocks elements are highly:

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent✓
C. Low reaction metalloids
D. Dehydrating

Explanation: S block elements are highly reducing agents. The reducing agent donates its electron during bond formation and has low electronegativity. Thus, these elements are strong reducing agents.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Oxidizing agent: This option is not correct. S-block elements are generally not known for their strong oxidizing properties. Oxidizing agents are substances that tend to gain electrons, causing other substances to lose electrons.
C. c) Low reaction metalloids: This option is not correct. S-block elements are not typically categorized as metalloids. Metalloids have properties that are intermediate between metals and nonmetals.
D. d) Dehydrating: This option is not correct. S-block elements are not typically known for their dehydrating properties. Dehydrating agents are substances that can remove water molecules from compounds.

Q46. D-blocks elements are:

A. Outer transition
B. Inner transition
C. Transition✓
D. Reactive metals

Explanation: The transition elements, also known as d-block elements, are called outer transition elements because they are located in the outermost (or valence) electron shell of the atom. The d-block elements are located in the d-subshell of the atom, which is the outermost electron subshell in the atom.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Outer transition: This option is not correct. The term "outer transition" is not commonly used to describe d-block elements. D-block elements are often referred to as transition metals, but the term "outer transition" is not a standard term in this context.
B. b) Inner transition: This option is not correct. Inner transition elements are a separate set of elements, specifically the lanthanides and actinides, which are located below the main body of the periodic table. D-block elements are not considered inner transition elements.
D. d) Reactive metals: This option is not correct. While some d-block elements can be reactive, it is not a defining characteristic of all d-block elements. Some transition metals are indeed highly reactive, while others are relatively stable and less reactive.

Q47. According to I.U.P.A.C the CH3CH2OH is:

A. Acetaldehyde
B. Ethanol✓
C. Methanol
D. Alcohol

Explanation: The IUPAC name of CH3CH2OH is ethyl alcohol or ethanol.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Acetaldehyde (IUPAC systematic name ethanal) is an organic chemical compound with the formula CH3CHO
C. The formula of methanol or methyl alcohol is CH3OH
D. The generic IUPAC name for alcohol is alkanols, and they are represented in reactions by the general formula R-OH.

Q48. The rate at unity 1mol/1dm3, 1sec than K is known as:

A. Rate of reaction
B. Specific rate constant✓
C. Rate constant
D. Velocity of reaction

Explanation: The rate at unity 1 mol/dm3.1sec then K is called specific rate constant. The specific rate constant (k) is the proportionality constant relating the rate of the reaction to the concentrations of reactants.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The rate of reaction or reaction rate is the speed at which reactants are converted into products
C. The constant which defines the relationship between the molar concentration of the reactants and the rate of the chemical reaction is known as the rate constant.
D. The velocity of reaction is the speed at which a chemical reaction takes

Q49. 2NO+ O2 _2NO2 Where as dx/dt=k(NO)2(O2) then reaction is:

A. 1st order reaction
B. 2nd order reaction
C. 3rd order reaction✓
D. 0 order reaction

Explanation: c) 3rd order reaction: This option is correct. In a third-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is proportional to the concentration of a single reactant raised to the power of 3. The rate equation for this reaction is R = [NO]2[O2]. As the sum of concentrations is 2+1 = 3, so the order of reaction is 3rd order.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 1st order reaction: This option is not correct. In a first-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is proportional to the concentration of a single reactant raised to the power of 1.
B. b) 2nd order reaction: This option is incorrect. In a second-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is proportional to the concentration of one reactant raised to the power of 2.
D. d) 0 order reaction: This option is not correct. In a zero-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants. The given rate equation includes concentration terms, so it is not indicative of a zero-order reaction.

Q50. In a reactionCa(OH)2 + CI2--------->_H2O

A. CaOCI
B. HCI
C. CaOCI2✓
D. HOCI

Explanation: c) CaOCI2: This option is correct. The correct formula for calcium hypochlorite is CaOCI2, not CaOCI.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) CaOCI: This option is correct. CaOCI (calcium hypochlorite) is the compound formed when calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) reacts with chlorine gas (Cl2). The reaction produces calcium hypochlorite and water.
B. b) HCI: This option is not correct. Hydrochloric acid (HCI) is not formed in this reaction.
D. d) HOCI: This option is not correct. Hypochlorous acid (HOCI) is not formed in this reaction.

Q51. In M-shell maximum number of electrons:

A. 16
B. 18✓
C. 12
D. 14

Explanation: In M shell maximum number of electrons is 18.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 16: This option is not correct. The M-shell can hold a maximum of 18 electrons.
C. c) 12: This option is not correct. The M-shell can hold more than 12 electrons.
D. d) 14: This option is not correct. The M-shell can hold a maximum of 18 electrons, not 14.

Q52. The heat absorbed or evolved in a given reaction must be independent or particular mnner in which reaction takes place:

A. Hess law✓
B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Law of thermodynamics
D. Law of mass action

Explanation: Hess’ law, also known as Hess’s law of constant heat summation, states, “at constant temperature, heat energy changes (enthalpy – ΔHrec) accompanying a chemical reaction will remain constant, irrespective of the way the reactants react to form product”.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. Although, it may be transformed from one form to another
C. The laws of thermodynamics are a set of scientific laws which define a group of physical quantities, such as temperature, energy, and entropy,
D. law of mass action, law stating that the rate of any chemical reaction is proportional to the product of the masses of the reacting substances, with each mass raised to a power equal to the coefficient that occurs in the chemical equation.

Q53. The change of emthalpy when 1gm mol of substance is formed from its elements is:

A. Heat of reaction
B. Heat of compulsion
C. Heat of formation✓
D. Heat of condensation

Explanation: HF, also known as enthalpy of formation, is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of compound is formed at standard state (25°C, 1 atm) from its constituting elements in their standard state. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are stable in their elemental form, so their enthalpy of formation is zero.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The Heat of Reaction (also known and Enthalpy of Reaction) is the change in the enthalpy of a chemical reaction that occurs at a constant pressure.
B. The heat of combustion (energy content) of natural gas is the amount of energy that is obtained from the burning of a volume of natural gas
D. Heat of condensation is heat evolved when a vapor changes to a liquid. specifically : the quantity of heat that is evolved when unit mass of a vapor is changed at a specified temperature to a liquid and that equals the heat of vaporization.

Q54. ZnSO4 and NISO4 _crystals:

A. Cubic
B. Trigonol
C. Orthorhombic✓
D. Hexagonal

Explanation: They both are orthorhombic crystals.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Cubic: This option is not correct. Neither ZnSO4 nor NiSO4 typically form cubic crystals.
B. b) Trigonal: This option is not correct. Trigonal crystal structures have three-fold rotational symmetry, which is not a common characteristic of ZnSO4 or NiSO4 crystals.
D. d) Hexagonal: This option is not correct. Hexagonal crystal structures have a six-fold rotational symmetry, which is not a common characteristic of ZnSO4 or NiSO4 crystals.

Q55. The temperatire at which rhombic and monoclinic are in equilibrium called:

A. Critical temperature
B. Transition temperature✓
C. Absolute temperature
D. None

Explanation: The temperature at which rhombic and monoclinic are at equilibrium is transition temperature

Why the other options are wrong

A. The critical temperature of a substance can be defined as the highest temperature at which the substance can exist as a liquid
C. Absolute temperature is a temperature measured from absolute zero in kelvin.
D. It cannot be correct option as option B is the answer.

Q56. The percentage of HCI in gastric juice is:

A. 15%
B. 2%
C. 0.5%✓
D. 3%

Explanation: The percentage of HCl in gastric juice is 0.5%

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 15%: This option is not correct. The percentage of HCl in gastric juice is not typically as high as 15%.
B. b) 2%: This option is incorrect. The percentage of HCl in gastric juice is not 2%.
D. d) 3%: This option is not correct. The percentage of HCl in gastric juice is generally lower than 3%.

Q57. A group of water soluble vitamin obtained from liver znd yast called:

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B complex✓
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin A

Explanation: The vitamin B complex is water-soluble (can dissolve in water) and is found in yeast, seeds, eggs, liver, meat, and vegetables. Members of the vitamin B complex are being studied in the prevention and treatment of some types of cancer.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Vitamin C: This option is not correct. Vitamin C is ascorbic acid and is not typically obtained from the liver or yeast. It is found in fruits and vegetables.
C. c) Vitamin K: This option is not correct. Vitamin K is important for blood clotting and is not typically associated with being obtained from liver and yeast.
D. d) Vitamin A: This option is not correct. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is not typically obtained from liver or yeast. It is found in foods such as carrots and sweet potatoes.

Q58. Inorganic salts which contain some elements like N<P<K which are very essential for growth of plants are:

A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fertilizers✓
D. Minerals

Explanation: Fertilizers are inorganic salts which contains elements like N,P,K which are essential for growth of plants

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Proteins: This option is not correct. Proteins are organic compounds composed of amino acids and are essential for various cellular functions, but they are not inorganic salts.
B. b) Carbohydrates: This option is not correct. Carbohydrates are organic compounds that serve as a source of energy for plants and other organisms. They are not inorganic salts.
D. d) Minerals: This option is not correct. While minerals play a role in plant nutrition, the specific inorganic salts containing elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are typically provided through fertilizers.

Q59. The number of elements essential for life is about:

A. 23✓
B. 22
C. 18
D. 37

Explanation: The number of elements essential for life are 23.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 22: This option is not correct. While there are many elements that are found in living organisms, not all of them are considered essential for life.
C. c) 18: This option is not correct. The number of elements essential for life is greater than 18.
D. d) 37: This option is not correct. While there are more than 37 elements that have been detected in living organisms, not all of them are essential for life.

Q60. In which compound co-ordinate covalent bond is present:

A. CH3OH
B. POCI3✓
C. H2O
D. CHCI3

Explanation: In POCl3 Coordinate covalent bond is present.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) CH3OH: This compound, methanol, contains a covalent bond between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom. However, this bond is a typical covalent bond rather than a coordinate covalent bond. A coordinate covalent bond (also known as a dative bond) is formed when one atom donates a lone pair of electrons to another atom.
C. c) H2O: This compound, water, contains a coordinate covalent bond between the oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms. Oxygen donates a pair of electrons to each hydrogen atom to form the O-H bonds.
D. d) CHCI3: This compound, chloroform, does not typically form coordinate covalent bonds.

Q61. Atoms pf group of atoms present in an organic compound confers the properties of organic compound to that atom or group of atoms called:

A. Sulphonating group
B. Nitrating group
C. Functional group✓
D. Hydrating group

Explanation: A functional group is defined as an atom or group of atoms within a molecule that has similar chemical properties whenever it appears in various compounds. Even if other parts of the molecule are quite different, certain functional groups tend to react in certain ways.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Sulphonating group: This option is not correct. A sulphonating group typically refers to a group that can introduce a sulfonic acid (SO3H) functional group into a compound. It is not a term commonly used to describe the atoms or groups of atoms that confer properties to organic compounds.
B. b) Nitrating group: This option is not correct. A nitrating group typically refers to a group that can introduce a nitro group (NO2) into a compound. It is not a term commonly used to describe the atoms or groups of atoms that confer properties to organic compounds.
D. d) Hydrating group: This option is not correct. "Hydrating group" is not a recognized term in organic chemistry for describing the atoms or groups of atoms that confer properties to organic compounds.

Q62. The molecular mass of SO2 is 64 and molecular mass of He is 4 than He diffuses how many times greater than SO2

A. 2 times
B. 4 times✓
C. 16 times
D. 12 times

Explanation: The He diffuses 4 times greater than SO2.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 2 times: This option is not correct. The relative rate of diffusion between helium and sulfur dioxide is not 2 times.
C. c) 16 times: This option is not correct. The relative rate of diffusion between helium and sulfur dioxide is not 16 times.
D. d) 12 times: This option is not correct. The relative rate of diffusion between helium and sulfur dioxide is not 12 times.

Q63. Co(en)3(NO3)3) is:

A. Triamine trintro cobalt III
B. Tris (ethylene diamine) Cobalt III nitrate✓
C. Diamine tetra ethyl Cobalt III
D. Tri Nitro Trisethylene diamine cobalt III

Explanation: The correct option is Tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt III nitrate.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Triamine trinitro cobalt III: This option does not accurately describe the compound. It suggests the presence of both amine and nitro groups, which is not reflective of the ligands present.
C. c) Diamine tetraethyl Cobalt III: This option is not correct. It suggests the presence of tetraethyl groups, which is not accurate.
D. d) Tri Nitro Trisethylene diamine cobalt III: This option is not correct. It suggests the presence of both nitro groups and ethylenediamine ligands, which is not accurate.

Q64. The method was Is used purification of Bauxite containing excess of silica:

A. Habers process
B. Halls method
C. Bayers method
D. Serpex method✓

Explanation: The purification of bauxite containing excess of silica is done by serpex method.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Haber's process: This option is not correct. The Haber process is used for the synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gases, and it is not related to the purification of bauxite.
B. b) Hall's method: This option is not correct. The Hall-Héroult process is used for the extraction of aluminum from bauxite ore, but it does not specifically address the purification of bauxite containing excess silica.
C. c) Bayer's method: This option is incorrect.

Q65. In the reaction SO2+O2 _2SO H=45Kcal is:

A. Endothermic reaction✓
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Consitutional reaction
D. Both A and B

Explanation: The above reactiion is exothermic reaction.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Exothermic reaction: This option is correct. An exothermic reaction releases heat into its surroundings, causing an increase in temperature. The given reaction releases heat (H = -45 kcal), indicating that it is an exothermic reaction.
C. c) Constitutional reaction: This term is not relevant to the context of the question. "Constitutional reaction" is not a commonly used term in chemistry.
D. d) Both A and B: This option is not correct. While the reaction is exothermic (option b), it is not endothermic (option a), so both options cannot be correct.

Q66. In a reaction NaCI+NH4HCO2_+NH4CI.

A. NaHCO3✓
B. Na2CO3
C. H2CO3
D. (NH4)2CO3

Explanation: The product formed by above reaction is NaHCO3.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) Na2CO3 (Sodium carbonate): This option is not correct. Sodium carbonate is not a product of the given reaction.
C. c) H2CO3 (Carbonic acid): This option is not correct. Carbonic acid is not a product of the given reaction.
D. d) (NH4)2CO3 (Ammonium carbonate): This option is not correct. Ammonium carbonate is not a product of the given reaction.

Q67. In reaction 2MnO4 +5HC2O4+6H_2Mn+_+8H2O

A. 10MnCO3
B. 10H2CO3
C. 10CO2✓
D. 10MnO4

Explanation: The product formed by above reaction is 10CO2.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 10MnCO3 (Manganese(II) carbonate): This option is not correct. Manganese(II) carbonate is not a likely product of the given reaction.
B. b) 10H2CO3 (Carbonic acid): This option is not correct. Carbonic acid is not a likely product of the given reaction.
D. d) 10MnO4^- (Permanganate ion): This option is not correct. Permanganate ion is not a likely product of the given reaction.

Q68. Maaximum number of electrons try to occupy orbitals singly only when all the orbitals are singly occupied only then pairing of electrons commences is :

A. Hunds rule✓
B. Hauls excusion principle
C. N-L rule
D. Aufbau principle

Explanation: Hund's rule states that:Every orbital in a sublevel is singly occupied before any orbital is doubly occupied.All of the electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin (to maximize total spin).

Why the other options are wrong

B. Pauli's Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have identical values for all four of their quantum numbers. In other words, (1) no more than two electrons can occupy the same orbital and (2) two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins
C. The energy of an orbital depends upon the sum of values of the principal quantum number (n) and the azimuthal quantum number (l). This is called (n + l) rule . According to this rule, ” In neutral isolated atom, the lower the value of (n+ l) for an orbital, lower is its energy.
D. aufbau principle states that electrons are filled into atomic orbitals in the increasing order of orbital energy level. According to the Aufbau principle, the available atomic orbitals with the lowest energy levels are occupied before those with higher energy level.

Q69. The diameter of molecule considered to be sphere is:

A. 3x10-10 m✓
B. 5x1010m
C. 4x1010m
D. 7x1010m

Explanation: The diameter of a molecule, assuming it to be spherical; has a numerical value of 3 x 10−10 m.As we know, No. of molecules in one mole= 6.02x10^23 Volume of each cell= 22.4 x 10^-3 m3/ 6.02x10^23 = 3.75x10^-25.NOW, Side of each cubic cell= (V) ^1/3 = (3.7 x 10^-25) ^1/3 =3.3x10^-9 mHence, diameter of a molecule is d= 3x10^-10 m

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 5x10^-10 m: This option is not correct. While this value is also close to the diameter of a molecule, the generally accepted value is closer to 3x10^-10 m.
C. c) 4x10^-10 m: This option is not correct. The generally accepted value for the diameter of a molecule is closer to 3x10^-10 m.
D. d) 7x10^-10 m: This option is not correct. The generally accepted value for the diameter of a molecule is closer to 3x10^-10 m.

Q70. When 100w bulb is operated at 240 volts the current flows through is:

A. 0.416A✓
B. 0.466A
C. 0.49A
D. 0.455A

Explanation: P= VI Option A: P/V = I 100/240=I I=0.416 AHence, Option B,C and D are incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong

B. This option is incorrect. It results from an incorrect calculation of the current using the given power and voltage.
C. This option is incorrect. It does not match the current calculated using the formula I = P/V with the given values.
D. This option is incorrect. It does not accurately represent the current determined by dividing the power by voltage.

Q71. Wheat stone bridge Is used to measure:

A. Resistance✓
B. Current
C. Voltage
D. Emf

Explanation: The Wheatstone bridge is an electrical bridge circuit used to measure resistanceOption A: The Wheatstone bridge consists of a common source of electrical current (such as a battery) and a galvanometer or a multimeter that connects two parallel branches, containing four resistors, three of which are known.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Current is measured by a device called Ammeter.
C. Voltage is measured by a device called Voltmeter.
D. Emf is measured by using Potentiometer.

Q72. A process in which of conservation momentum of system is conserved the law Is known as:

A. Law of conversation of energy
B. Law of conversation of momentum✓
C. Law of inertia
D. Elestic collision

Explanation: The law is called as law of conservation of momentum.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed - only converted from one form of energy to another.
C. Laws of inertia, also called Newton’s first law states that, if a body is at rest or moving at a constant speed in a straight line, it will remain at rest or keep moving in a straight line at constant speed unless it is acted upon by a force.
D. An elastic collision is a collision in which there is no net loss in kinetic energy in the system as a result of the collision. Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved quantities in elastic collisions.

Q73. Magnetic lines of is equal to:

A. A. Magnetic flux density (B)✓
B. B. Magnetic permeability (μ)
C. C. Magnetic field strength (H)
D. D. Magnetic susceptibility (χ)

Explanation: = φ/AOption A: Magnetic Lines of Force is a an imaginary line representing the direction of magnetic field such that the tangent at any point is the direction of the field vector at that point. Equations in option B, C and D are incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong

B. This option is incorrect. Magnetic permeability (μ) is a measure of how much a material can support the formation of a magnetic field within itself. It is not directly related to magnetic flux per unit area.
C. This option is incorrect. Magnetic field strength (H) is a measure of the magnetizing force and is different from magnetic flux density. It does not represent magnetic flux per unit area.
D. This option is incorrect. Magnetic susceptibility (χ) quantifies how much a material will become magnetized in an applied magnetic field. It is not related to the concept of magnetic flux per unit area.

Q74. The distance between two consecutive dark or bright fringes Is called:

A. λ
B. λ/2
C. λ/4
D. Fringe spacing✓

Explanation: Distance between two adjacent bright (or dark) fringes is called the fringe width. If the apparatus of Young's double slit experiment is immersed in a liquid of refractive index (μ), then the wavelength of light and fringe width decreases 'μ' times.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The distance between successive crests of a wave, especially points in a sound wave or electromagnetic wave
B. λ/2 is the distance between two consecutive nodes or antinodes in stationary waves
C. λ/4 is the distance between two nodes and antinodes in stationary waves.

Q75. Electromagnetic waves are:

A. Transverse✓
B. Longitudinal
C. Mechanical
D. Material dependent

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves. That means the electric and magnetic fields change (oscillate) in a plane that is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Also, the velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic properties of the medium

Why the other options are wrong

B. In a longitudinal wave the particles are displaced parallel to the direction the wave travels. An example of longitudinal waves is compressions moving along a slinky.
C. A mechanical wave is a wave that is an oscillation of matter and is responsible for the transfer of energy through a medium.
D. EM waves are independent of the material.

Q76. Dopped semiconductors are also known as:

A. Extrinsic✓
B. Intrinsic
C. Mixed
D. None of these.

Explanation: Extrinsic semiconductors are also called impurity semiconductors or doped semiconductors. The process of adding impurities deliberately is termed as doping and the atoms that are used as an impurity are termed as dopants.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Semiconductors that are chemically pure, in other words, free from impurities are termed as intrinsic semiconductors.
C. A semiconductor cannot be mixed, either it will be pure or impure. No intermediate state.
D. Option A is correct.

Q77. A material consisting of fissionable isotope ca:

A. Coolants
B. Reactor fuel✓
C. Moderator
D. Control rods

Explanation: Uranium is the only fissionable material occurring in nature. It is useful in explosive devices and in the generation of power. Thorium isotope (Th232) must be converted into fissionable isotope U233 to be utilized as a source of power. These are mainly called as reactor fuel.

Why the other options are wrong

A. A nuclear reactor coolant is used to remove heat from the nuclear reactor core and transfer it to electrical generators and the environment.
C. A moderator is a material used in a nuclear reactor to slow down the neutrons produced from fission. By slowing the neutrons down the probability of a neutron interacting with 235U nuclei is greatly increased thereby maintaining the chain reaction. A material such as ordinary water, heavy water, or graphite is used in a reactor to slow down high-velocity neutrons, thus increasing the likelihood of fission.
D. Control rods are used in nuclear reactors to control the rate of fission of the nuclear fuel – uranium or plutonium.

Q78. a - particles when shoot up from nucleus with speed of:

A. 0.1x108m/s✓
B. 0.4x108m/s
C. 0.9x108m/s
D. 0.6x108m/s

Explanation: Alpha particles are relatively slow and heavy compared with other forms of nuclear radiation. The particles travel at 5 to 7 % of the speed of light or round about 20,000,000 meters per second and have a mass approximately equivalent to 4 protons.Hence, Options B, C and D are incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 0.4x10^8 m/s: This option is not correct. While this speed is higher than the previous option, it is still not the typical speed of alpha particles when emitted from the nucleus.
C. c) 0.9x10^8 m/s: This option is not correct. The speed of alpha particles when emitted from the nucleus is even higher than this value.
D. d) 0.6x10^8 m/s: This option is incorrect. The speed of alpha particles when they are emitted from the nucleus is typically around 0.1x10^8 meters per second. Alpha particles are emitted in certain types of radioactive decay and have a characteristic speed associated with their emission.

Q79. Isobaric process takes place at constant:

A. Pressure✓
B. Temperature
C. Volume
D. Heat

Explanation: An isobaric process is a process occurring at constant pressure. In thermodynamics, an isobaric process is a type of thermodynamic process in which the pressure of the system stays constant: ΔP = 0. The heat transferred to the system does work, but also changes the internal energy of the system.

Why the other options are wrong

B. In thermodynamics, an isothermal process is a type of thermodynamic process in which the temperature T of a system remains constant: ΔT = 0. This typically occurs when a system is in contact with an outside thermal reservoir, and a change in the system occurs slowly enough to allow the system to be continuously adjusted to the temperature of the reservoir through heat exchange.
C. In thermodynamics, an isochoric process, also called a constant-volume process, an isovolumetric process, or an isometric process, is a thermodynamic process during which the volume of the closed system undergoing such a process remains constant. An isochoric process is exemplified by the heating or the cooling of the contents of a sealed, inelastic container:
D. An adiabatic process is defined as a process in which no heat transfer takes place. This does not mean that the temperature is constant, but rather that no heat is transferred into or out from the system.

Q80. Electromagnetic waves speed depends upon:

A. Permeability of medium
B. Permeability of medium
C. Permeability of free space✓
D. Both a and b

Explanation: c) Permeability of free space: This option is correct. The speed of electromagnetic waves, such as light, is determined by the permeability of free space (also known as vacuum permeability) and the permittivity of free space (also known as vacuum permittivity). These constants are fundamental properties of space itself and play a crucial role in the speed of electromagnetic waves.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Permeability of medium: This option is not correct. The speed of electromagnetic waves does not depend on the permeability of the medium through which they are propagating. Permeability is a property that affects the behavior of electromagnetic waves in a material but does not determine their speed.
B. b) Permeability of medium: This option is not correct. Similar to option (a), the speed of electromagnetic waves is not dependent on the permeability of the medium.
D. d) Both a and b: This option is not correct. The correct answer is option (c) – the speed of electromagnetic waves depends on the permeability of free space, not the permeability of a medium.

Q81. Electric flux is zero when angle is:

A. Angle > 90o
B. Angle < 90o
C. Angle = 90o✓
D. Angle = 0o

Explanation: When the electric field is parallel to the surface. Angle between the vector E and vector area A is 90 and cos 90 =0 and hence the Flux is zero.Option A: Flux is not zero but has some value.Option B: Flux is not zero but has some value.Option C:SOLUTION; As we know, Φ=B.A COS θ When, Θ= 90 degrees Φ=B.A (0) =0*Option D: When θ= 0 degrees than flux will be; Cos0= 1And hence, flux will be maximum.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option is incorrect. Electric flux is not necessarily zero when the angle is greater than 90 degrees. The flux depends on the cosine of the angle, which can still result in a non-zero value for obtuse angles.
B. This option is incorrect. When the angle is less than 90 degrees, the cosine of the angle is positive, resulting in non-zero electric flux.
D. This option is incorrect. When the angle is 0 degrees, the electric flux is at its maximum because cos(0) = 1.

Q82. Natural earths heat is reffered as:

A. Tidal energy
B. Geothermal energy✓
C. Mechanical energy
D. Heat energy

Explanation: Geothermal energy is heat that is generated within the Earth. It is a renewable resource that can be harvested for human use.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Tidal energy is power produced by the surge of ocean waters during the rise and fall of tides. Tidal energy is a renewable source of energy.
C. Mechanical energy (kinetic energy or potential energy) is the energy of either an object in motion or the energy that is stored in objects by their position. Mechanical energy is also a driver of renewable energy.
D. Heat, energy that is transferred from one body to another as the result of a difference in temperature. If two bodies at different temperatures are brought together, energy is transferred—i.e., heat flows—from the hotter body to the colder.

Q83. In step up transformer the condition is:

A. Ns<Np
B. Ns>Np✓
C. Ns=Np
D. None of these

Explanation: Hence, in a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the primary is less than the number turns in the secondary.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This is in case of step down transformer where number of turns of primary is greater than secondary.
C. Ns cannot be equal to Np. Hence, this statement is wrong.
D. A transformer cannot be step-up and step-down simultaneously.

Q84. 1 Tesla is equal to:

A. 100 N/Am
B. 1 N/Am✓
C. 0.1 N/Am
D. 10 N/Am

Explanation: Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field strength.The magnetic induction will be on Tesla if 1m long wire carrying a current of 1A are placed perpendicular to each other and the force between them is 1N.In SI,B= 1T = NA-1m-11T = 1 N/AmIn CGS, 1G = 10-4 THence, B is the correct option

Why the other options are wrong

A. Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field strength.The magnetic induction will be on Tesla if 1m long wire carrying a current of 1A are placed perpendicular to each other and the force between them is 1N.In SI,B= 1T = NA-1m-11T = 1 N/AmIn CGS, 1G = 10-4 THence, B is the correct option
C. Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field strength.The magnetic induction will be on Tesla if 1m long wire carrying a current of 1A are placed perpendicular to each other and the force between them is 1N.In SI,B= 1T = NA-1m-11T = 1 N/AmIn CGS, 1G = 10-4 THence, B is the correct option
D. Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field strength.The magnetic induction will be on Tesla if 1m long wire carrying a current of 1A are placed perpendicular to each other and the force between them is 1N.In SI,B= 1T = NA-1m-11T = 1 N/AmIn CGS, 1G = 10-4 THence, B is the correct option

Q85. Maximum no of beats heard by human ear is:

A. 7 beats/min
B. 12 beats/sec
C. 16 beats/sec
D. 7 beats/sec✓

Explanation: d) 7 beats/sec: This option indicates that the maximum number of beats heard by the human ear is 7 beats per second. This is a direct measure in Hertz (Hz).

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) 7 beats/min: This option indicates that the maximum number of beats heard by the human ear is 7 beats per minute. It's important to note that beats are typically measured in units of cycles per second (Hertz or Hz), so this answer doesn't provide a direct measure in Hertz.
B. b) 12 beats/sec: This option indicates that the maximum number of beats heard by the human ear is 12 beats per second. This is a direct measure in Hertz (Hz), which is a standard unit for measuring frequency.
C. c) 16 beats/sec: This option indicates that the maximum number of beats heard by the human ear is 16 beats per second. Like the previous option, this is also a direct measure in Hertz (Hz).

Q86. According to leplace the compressions and rarefactions of sound waves takes place:

A. Isothermally
B. Adiabatically✓
C. Isobarically
D. Isochlorically

Explanation: Laplace suggested that the sound waves consist of compressions and rarefactions. At compressions the temperature of sound increased as the particles moved close together. While, at the rarefactions the temperature decreased as particles moved farther apart. But this process occurred so rapidly that the energy couldn’t escape and hence he stated the process to be adiabatic. Using his assumption he calculated the speed of the sound 333 m/s which is very close to the actual value of speed of sound i.e. 332 m/s.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Newton assumed that sound waves travel under isothermal conditions, but his assumption was wrong as illustrated by Laplace’s correction.
C. Speed of sound is independent of pressure. Hence, there is no effect whether the pressure is constant or not.
D. Laplace calculations do not discuss effect of volume. Hence, this option is also incorrect.

Q87. According to Newton's speed of sound waves depends upon:

A. Compressibility and inertia✓
B. Pressure
C. Mass and energy
D. Density of medium

Explanation: The speed of sound in a medium is determined by a combination of the medium's rigidity (or compressibility in gases) and its density. The more rigid (or less compressible) the medium is the faster will be the speed of sound. The greater the density of a medium, the slower the speed of sound.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The speed of sound waves is independent of the pressure.At a constant temperature, the gas pressure has no effect on the speed of sound, since the density will increase, and since pressure and density (also proportional to pressure) have equal but opposite effects on the speed of sound, and the two contributions cancel out exactly.
C. Speed of sound is independent of mass and energy as well.
D. It also does not depend on density of medium according to Newton’s equation.

Q88. Single isolated disturbance traveling in a system:

A. Wave length
B. Wave fonts
C. Wave pulses✓
D. Wave frequency

Explanation: Wave pulse is a short, non-periodic, wave formed by a single input of energy rather than a continuous or repeated input of energy.

Why the other options are wrong

A. the distance between successive crests of a wave, especially points in a sound wave or electromagnetic wave.
B. A wave front is defined as a surface over which the phase of the wave is constant. In a particular wave front, at a given moment of time, all particles of the medium are undergoing the same motion.
D. Frequency describes the number of waves that pass a fixed place in a given amount of time.

Q89. Unit of power of lens:

A. Capacitance
B. Diopeter✓
C. Watt
D. Horse power

Explanation: Hence the SI unit of power of the lens is Diopter.Option A: Capacitance is used for the capacitor having unit of Farad. It is not related to the power of lens. Option B: Diopter, in optics, unit of magnifying power of a lens or lens system. It is a unit of refractive power, which is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length (in meters) of a given lens.Option C: Electricity is measured in units of power called Watts, named to honor James Watt, the inventor of the steam engine. A Watt is the unit of electrical power equal to one ampere under the pressure of one volt.Option D: Horsepower is a unit of power. Power describes how fast energy is exchanged; a use of energy divided by how long it takes to use that energy.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Capacitance is used for the capacitor having unit of Farad. It is not related to the power of lens.
C. Electricity is measured in units of power called Watts, named to honor James Watt, the inventor of the steam engine. A Watt is the unit of electrical power equal to one ampere under the pressure of one volt.
D. Horsepower is a unit of power. Power describes how fast energy is exchanged; a use of energy divided by how long it takes to use that energy.

Q90. Time of upward motion of projectile when reached at maximum height:

A. T=Vo sin20/g2
B. T=Vosin0/g2
C. T=Vosin0/g✓
D. T=Vocos0/g

Explanation: T= (v0sinθ) /g.Option A: The formula mentioned is incorrect as sin2theta is not used in Time of flight in projectile motion. Rather it is used in formula of Range of a Option B: This formula is also incorrect as gravitational acceleration is not squared.Option C: Since the formula for time of flight is; T=2(v0sinθ) /But in the question they’ve asked about TIME OF UPWARD MOTION OF PROJECTILE i.e. the time taken to reach the summit. And it is half of the time of flight. Therefore, the formula will be as, T= (v0sinθ) /g.Option D: This option is also incorrect as cos theta will not be used in the formula since the horizontal component Vx is constant throughout the flight.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The formula mentioned is incorrect as sin2theta is not used in Time of flight in projectile motion. Rather it is used in formula of Range of a projectile.
B. This formula is also incorrect as gravitational acceleration is not squared.
D. This option is also incorrect as cos theta will not be used in the formula since the horizontal component Vx is constant throughout the flight.

Q91. The process in which the momentum and energy of system remains constant:

A. Elastic collision✓
B. Inelastic collision
C. Both
D. None

Explanation: The process in which momentum and K.E remains constant is elastic collision.

Why the other options are wrong

B. An inelastic collision is such a type of collision that takes place between two objects in which some energy is lost. In the case of inelastic collision, momentum is conserved but the kinetic energy is not conserved.
C. It is not possible for a system to undergo elastic and inelastic collision simultaneously.
D. Since, Option A is correct hence ‘’none’’ does not follow.

Q92. Si unit of luminous intensity is:

A. Kelvin
B. Candela/sec
C. Candela✓
D. Watt/sec

Explanation: The SI unit of luminous intensity is candela.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Kelvin is the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature, and one of the seven SI base units.
B. There is no such unit.
D. Watt-second is the unit of power.

Q93. The distance between node and antinode in standing wave is:

A. λ/2
B. λ/4✓
C. λ/3
D. λ

Explanation: The approximate distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is actually one-fourth of a given wavelength (λ/4). In other words, the total distance or gap between two consecutive node and an antinode in a given current wave is usually represented as the half the length of the wave of the entire waves produced.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The points of maximum amplitudes are called antinodes. The distance between two successive nodes is λ/2. At nodes air pressure and density both are low. The distance between a node (N) and adjoining antinode (A) is λ/4.Option A: λ/2 is the distance between two consecutive nodes or antinodes.
C. λ/3 is not the appropriate measurement.
D. λ is the distance covered by the entire wave and is given as one wavelength.

Q94. Vector which can displaced to itself:

A. Free vector✓
B. Null vector
C. Position vector
D. Zero vector

Explanation: A vector that can be displaced parallel to itself and applied at any point is known as a FREE VECTOR.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The null vector is defined to have zero magnitude and no particular direction.
C. A position vector is a straight line having one end fixed to a body and the other end attached to a moving point and used to describe the position of the point relative to the body. As the point moves, the position vector will change in length or in direction or in both length and direction.
D. A zero vector or null vector is a vector that has a zero magnitude and no direction.

Q95. When two vector are in a plan than their vector product so formed is:

A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular✓
C. Y-axis
D. X- axis

Explanation: The vector product of two vectors is a vector perpendicular to both of them. Its magnitude is obtained by multiplying their magnitudes by the sine of the angle between them.

Why the other options are wrong

A. They cannot be parallel.
C. It cannot be along y-axis.
D. It cannot be along x-axis

Q96. Total energy of osciliating body is:

A. 1/2 Kxo2✓
B. 1/2 Kxo-xo2
C. 1/2Kxo
D. 1/2(Kxo+2xo)

Explanation: Energy = ½ Kx2

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 1/2 Kxo - xo^2: This option seems to have a mistake. The correct formula for total energy should include both potential energy and kinetic energy terms.
C. c) 1/2 Kxo: This option only accounts for the potential energy component of the total energy of the oscillating body. It's missing the kinetic energy term.
D. d) 1/2 (Kxo + 2xo): This option seems to be a combination of potential and kinetic energy terms, but the formula is not correct for the total energy of a simple harmonic oscillator.

Q97. The exact number of molecules in 1 mole of substance:

A. 6.022x1023 molecules/mol✓
B. 6.029x1023 molecules/mol
C. 6.024x1024 molecules/mol
D. 6.032x1024 molecules/mol

Explanation: The mole, abbreviated mol, is an SI unit which measures the number of particles in a specific substance. One mole is equal to 6.02214179×10^23 atoms, or other elementary units such as molecules.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 6.029x10^23 molecules/mol: This value is not the standard Avogadro's number. It appears to be a variation with a slightly different value.
C. c) 6.024x10^24 molecules/mol: This value is significantly larger than Avogadro's number and is not accurate.
D. d) 6.032x10^24 molecules/mol: Similar to option c, this value is also much larger than Avogadro's number and is not accurate.

Q98. In a photoactive cell infrared radiation have wavelength of the order of:

A. 10-6m✓
B. 107m
C. 108m
D. 109m

Explanation: a) 10^-6 m: This represents a wavelength of 1 micrometer, which is in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. Infrared radiation with longer wavelengths than visible light is often used in various applications, such as remote sensing, thermal imaging, and communication.

Why the other options are wrong

B. b) 10^7 m: This value represents 10 million meters, which is a very large length and not relevant to the wavelength of infrared radiation.
C. c) 10^8 m: This value represents 100 million meters, which is also not relevant to the wavelength of infrared radiation.
D. d) 10^9 m: This value represents 1 billion meters, which is still not relevant to the wavelength of infrared radiation.

Q99. In acylation and alkylation of benzene the process involved is:

A. Substitution
B. Addition
C. Fredel crafts reaction✓
D. None of these

Explanation: In acylation and alkylation of benzene the process involved is Friedel crafts reaction.

Why the other options are wrong

A. a) Substitution: This option is partially correct. Both inhalation and alkylation of benzene involve substitution reactions. Inhalation of benzene involves the substitution of hydrogen atoms in the benzene ring by halogen atoms. Alkylation of benzene involves the substitution of a hydrogen atom in the benzene ring with an alkyl group (such as a methyl or ethyl group) through a Friedel-Crafts reaction.
B. b) Addition: This option is not correct. Inhalation and alkylation reactions do not involve addition reactions, where atoms or groups are added to the reactant molecule.
D. d) None of these: This option is not correct. The correct answer is option a, as explained above.

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