Sindh Mcat Nts 2005 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Ringworm is caused by:

• A. Roundworm
• B. Fungus✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Ringworm is a common infection of the skin and nails. It is also called tinea or dermatophytosis.Option A: Nemathelminthes, commonly called roundworms. They cause diseases such as Filariasis, Elephantiasis, etc.Option B: Most fungi imperfecti cause skin diseases in humans, such as ringworm and athlete's foot.Option C: The most common disease caused by protozoans is Malaria.

Q2. Adrenal glands are found adjacent to:

• A. Kidney✓
• B. Heart
• C. Lungs
• D. Liver

Explanation: Option A: The adrenal gland lies immediately above each kidney.Option B: On the front of the heart, the thymus gland lies.Option C: In the upper part of the chest, the thymus gland lies near the lungs.Option D: Gall bladder situated adjacent to the liver

Q3. When a diploid egg is formed without fertilization:

• A. Parthenogenesis✓
• B. Apomixis
• C. Facultative apomixis
• D. Reverse transcription

Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a natural form of asexual reproduction in which the growth and development of embryos occur in a gamete without combining with another gamete. In animals, parthenogenesis means the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell. In plants, parthenogenesis is a component process of apomixis.

Q4. The drastic change in climate over the past century has been illustrated by:

• A. Increase in rainfall
• B. Decrease in rainfall
• C. Colder winter
• D. Warmer winter✓

Explanation: There is an increase in rainfall in some areas and a decrease in others. The temperature of the globe is increasing, so winters are becoming warmer.

Q5. The uptake of minerals in a plant occurs through:

• A. Root hair✓
• B. Root cap
• C. Root tip
• D. Stomata
• E. Guard cells

Explanation: The minerals present in the soil can be absorbed through the root hair cells. However, the concentration of minerals in the soil is very low. While water is absorbed by the plants through osmosis, minerals are absorbed as ions by active transport (transport against the law of diffusion by spending cellular energy).

Q6. Positive geotropism is shown by the

• A. Root✓
• B. Stem
• C. Leaf
• D. Flower

Explanation: When a root grows in the direction of the force of gravity, this is known as a positive geotropism.

Q7. The internal maintenance of humans

• A. Homeostasis✓
• B. Aneuploidy
• C. Excretion
• D. Epistaxis

Explanation: The tendency to maintain a stable, relatively constant internal environment is called homeostasis. The body maintains homeostasis for many factors in addition to temperature. For instance, the concentration of various ions in your blood must be kept steady, along with pH and the concentration of glucose.

Q8. Animal with an open circulatory system:

• A. Cockroach✓
• B. Frog
• C. Snake
• D. Duck and platypus

Explanation: Open circulatory systems are systems where blood, rather than being sealed tight in arteries and veins, suffuses the body and may be directly open to the environment at places such as the digestive tract. Open circulatory systems use hemolymph instead of blood.

Q9. The ability of cells to swell after absorption of water

• A. Inhibition
• B. Deplasmolysis✓
• C. Guttation
• D. Transpiration

Explanation: Deplasmolysis is the opposite process of plasmolysis; when the concentration of the solution external to a plasmolyzed cell is decreased or when solutes permeate from the external solution into the vacuole, water will reenter the vacuole, and the increase in protoplast volume leads to restoration of full turgidity.

Q10. Sensors that receive stimulus:

• A. Receptors✓
• B. Neuron
• C. Effectors
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Receptors are specialized structures that detect and respond to specific stimuli in the environment. They transmit this information to neurons for further processing.

Q11. A lipid molecule is composed of glycerol and fatty acids in the ratio of:

• A. 1:1
• B. 1:3✓
• C. 1:4
• D. 1:2

Explanation: Lipid molecules are composed of one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules, making the ratio 1:3.

Q12. Which of the following is not a reflex action?

• A. Eye blink
• B. Knee jerk
• C. An animal salivating spontaneously as the bell rings without given food✓
• D. Watering of mouth at the sight of food

Explanation: The so-called conditioned reflexes are not reflexes at all but complicated acts of learned behavior. Salivation is one such conditioned reflex; it occurs only when a person is conscious of the presence of food or when one imagines food.

Q13. 50% of blood volume is:

• A. Plasma✓
• B. Formed elements
• C. Cells
• D. Both b and c

Explanation: Plasma constitutes around 50% of the blood volume. It is the liquid component of blood that contains water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, and waste products.

Q14. Plasmodium can be found in mosquitoes at:

• A. Salivary gland✓
• B. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
• C. Stomach
• D. Both salivary gland and CBC

Explanation: During bite, salivary glands release plasmodium, that also enters the victim's bloodstream

Q15. The formula of glyceraldehyde is:

• A. C3H6O4
• B. C3H6O3✓
• C. C6H12O6
• D. C7H14O7

Explanation: Glyceraldehyde is a triose monosaccharide with the chemical formula C3H6O3.

Q16. A green single-celled organism in the protista kingdom:

• A. Algae
• B. Bacteria
• C. Euglena✓
• D. Amoeba

Explanation: Euglena is a genus of single-celled flagellate eukaryotes. It is the best-known and most widely studied member of the class Euglenoidea, a diverse group containing some 54 genera and at least 200 species. Species of Euglena are found in freshwater and saltwater.

Q17. Ribosomes are attached to:

• A. One another
• B. ER✓
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Centromeres

Explanation: The ribosome that is synthesizing the protein is directly attached to the ER membrane. These membrane-bound ribosomes coat the surface of the ER, creating regions termed rough endoplasmic reticulum, or rough ER.

Q18. The reproductive structure of ferns is:

• A. Cones
• B. Needles
• C. Sporophylls✓
• D. Gametophylls

Explanation: Sporophylls are the reproductive structures of ferns. They bear sporangia, which produce spores that give rise to the gametophyte generation. These structures are essential for fern reproduction.

Q19. Solanacea is also called:

• A. Legume family
• B. Potato family
• C. Nightshade family
• D. Both b and c✓

Explanation: The Solanaceae family is also known as the potato family. Around 2000 species of dicotyledonous plants belong to this family.

Q20. In mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell is:

• A. 2n✓
• B. n
• C. 1/2n
• D. None of the above

Explanation: An explanation is given below:

Q21. A purely marine phylum:

• A. Mollusca
• B. Echinodermata✓
• C. Annelida
• D. Arthropoda

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q22. Which animal has highly vascularized skin for respiration?

• A. Fish
• B. Frog✓
• C. Snake
• D. A new-born mammal

Explanation: Most amphibians breathe through their lungs and their skin. Their skin has to stay wet in order for them to absorb oxygen so they secrete mucous to keep their skin moist (lf they get too dry, they cannot breathe and will die).

Q23. The end product of glycolysis is

• A. Citric acid
• B. Pyruvic acid✓
• C. Lactic acid
• D. Acetyl CoA

Explanation: An explanation is given below.

Q24. Process of transferring a bacterium from a donor bacterium to a receiver bacterium:

• A. Conjugation✓
• B. Transduction
• C. Transformation
• D. Regression mutation

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q25. Lamarck identified evolution as:

• A. Natural selection
• B. Acquired characteristics✓
• C. Disuse or use of organs
• D. Mutation theory

Explanation: Lamarck is best known for his Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics, If an organism changes during life in order to adapt to its environment, those changes are passed on to its offspring.

Q26. The pH of blood is about:

• A. 7.35✓
• B. 7.00
• C. 7.85
• D. 7.66

Explanation: Explanation: The pH of blood is 7.35-7.45, and it is maintained by buffer action.

Q27. An ecosystem is:

• A. A population living together
• B. Species living together
• C. A community with its non-living components
• D. A community with its living and non-living components✓

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q28. Movement due to touch response:

• A. Thermonastic
• B. Photonastic
• C. Seismonastic
• D. Thigmotropism✓

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q29. The ascent of sap is governed by the activity of the living cell in the form of pulsation. This theory is called

• A. Physical force theory
• B. Passive force theory
• C. Vital force theory✓
• D. Active force theory

Explanation: The physical force theory explains that the ascent of sap in plants occurs through the help of physical force. Pulsating is physical action.

Q30. In coughing, the air is forcibly blown through the larynx, while in sneezing, it is blown through:

• A. Mouth
• B. Nasal cavities
• C. Both of these✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: When you sneeze, droplets are expelled from your nose and mouth which can travel up to two metres away.

Q31. What will make an electrolyte?

• A. Salt dissolved in water✓
• B. Sugar dissolved in water
• C. Salt dissolves in organic solvents.
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is that salt dissolved in water forms an electrolyte. This occurs because the salt dissociates into ions, which are capable of carrying an electric current through the solution. In contrast, when sugar dissolves in water, it does not form ions, so it cannot conduct electricity and is not an electrolyte. Similarly, while salt can dissolve in some organic solvents, it typically does not dissociate into ions, and thus does not form an electrolyte.

Q32. Chemistry is the study of:

• A. Chemicals and their interactions✓
• B. Acids
• C. Bases
• D. Water
• E. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is that chemistry is the study of chemicals and their interactions. This field encompasses the properties, composition, and reactions of all chemical substances. While acids, bases, and water are part of this study, they are specific examples of chemicals, and do not encompass the entire scope of chemistry.

Q33. For Boyle's law to be true, which of the following must be fixed?

• A. Isothermal✓
• B. Isochoric
• C. Adiabatic
• D. Isobaric

Explanation: Boyle's law states that for a given mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure and volume of the gas are inversely proportional. This means that if the temperature is held constant, any increase in volume will lead to a decrease in pressure and vice versa. Therefore, the condition of being isothermal (constant temperature) is essential for Boyle's law to apply.Other options like Isochoric, which means constant volume, Adiabatic, which involves no heat transfer, and Isobaric, which means constant pressure, do not satisfy the conditions required for Boyle's law.

Q34. Which of the following statements about flourine is not true?

• A. It is the most electronegative element
• B. 19 protons in nucleus✓
• C. A compound can engage in hydrogen bonds.
• D. Oxidation state, -1
• E. Found in nature as diatomic gas

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: Fluorine does not have 19 protons; it has 9 protons, which corresponds to its atomic number. This makes Option B the only false statement. The other options correctly describe fluorine's properties: it is the most electronegative element (Option A), can engage in hydrogen bonding (Option C), generally exhibits an oxidation state of -1 (Option D), and exists as a diatomic gas (Option E).

Q35. Which of the following has the strongest carbon-to-carbon bond?

• A. C2H2✓
• B. C2H4
• C. C2H6
• D. C3H8

Explanation: The correct answer is C2H2 because it features a carbon-to-carbon triple bond, which is the strongest type of covalent bond between two carbon atoms. This bond consists of one sigma and two pi bonds, providing greater strength compared to other bond types. C2H4 has a double bond, which is weaker as it includes only one sigma and one pi bond. C2H6 and C3H8 contain only single bonds, characterized by one sigma bond, making them the weakest among the options.

Q36. Gases are good conductors at:

• A. High pressure
• B. Low temperature
• C. Low pressure✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Gases generally conduct electricity poorly at standard conditions due to low ion densities. However, when pressure is reduced, the density of gas molecules decreases, minimizing collisions and allowing free electrons to move more freely. This increased mobility leads to better conductivity. In contrast, at high pressures, increased collisions hinder electron flow, and at low temperatures, reduced molecular motion diminishes conductivity. Therefore, the correct answer is low pressure.

Q37. Which of the following will increase the rate of a reaction?

• A. Lowering the temperature
• B. Increasing the volume
• C. Reducing activation energy✓
• D. Increasing activation energy

Explanation: By reducing activation energy, more molecules will possess enough activation energy, so the rate of reaction will increase.

Q38. Bituminous coal can be produced by destructive distillation.

• A. Coke
• B. Coal gas
• C. Coal tar
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Destructive distillation of bituminous coal produce coal tar along with coal gas and coke. So the answer should be all of the above.

Q39. Period three elements have same:

• A. Atomic number
• B. Atomic mass
• C. Principal quantum number✓
• D. Azimuthal quantum number

Explanation: Option A: Atomic number is the characteristic property of each element.Option B: No elements of period 3 have same atomic mass.Option C: In a period, electrons enter in the same orbital hence all elements have same value of principal quantum number (n).Option D: The azimuthal quantum number describe the unique quantum state of an electron.

Q40. The tabular arrangement of the _ principle is called the long term of the periodic table:

• A. (n+l) rule
• B. Pauli's exclusion principle
• C. Aufbau principle✓
• D. Hund's rule

Explanation: The correct answer is the Aufbau principle. This principle dictates that electrons fill atomic orbitals starting from the lowest to the highest energy levels, which is reflected in the long form of the periodic table. It is essential for understanding the order in which elements are arranged based on their electronic configuration.The (n+l) rule is a component of the Aufbau principle but does not directly relate to the tabular arrangement of the periodic table. Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule, while important in understanding electron configuration, do not explain the overall order of the periodic table.

Q41. The kinetic energy of molecules is:

• A. Linearly proportional to temperature✓
• B. Inversely proportional to temperature
• C. Linearly proportional to square root of temperature
• D. Inversely proportional to square root of temperature

Explanation: The correct answer is that the kinetic energy of molecules is linearly proportional to temperature. This relationship is rooted in the kinetic molecular theory of gases, which states that the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature measured in Kelvin. Thus, as temperature increases, the kinetic energy increases linearly. The other options are incorrect because they suggest an inverse relationship or a proportionality to the square root of temperature, neither of which aligns with the kinetic molecular theory.

Q42. The kinetic energy of molecular theory does not state:

• A. There are intermolecular forces within gases✓
• B. The volume occupied by gas molecules is negligible
• C. The collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: 'There are intermolecular forces within gases.' This statement is contrary to the kinetic molecular theory, which posits that gas particles do not exert forces on each other, except during momentary collisions. This assumption allows gases to expand indefinitely and fill their containers. Option B is a correct statement of the kinetic molecular theory because it assumes the volume occupied by gas molecules is negligible compared to the overall volume of the gas. Option C is also correct, as the theory assumes that collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic, meaning that total kinetic energy is conserved. Option D is incorrect since not all options are false according to the kinetic molecular theory.

Q43. Capillary action is due to:

• A. Surface tension
• B. Cohesion
• C. Adhesion✓
• D. Viscosity

Explanation: Capillary action is primarily due to adhesion. When a liquid comes into contact with a solid surface, the adhesive forces between the liquid molecules and the surface can pull the liquid upward against gravity if these forces are stronger than the cohesive forces between the liquid molecules. This is what causes the liquid to climb up the walls of a narrow tube or form a meniscus. Surface tension and cohesion play roles in the behavior of liquids, but they are not the primary factors in capillary action. Viscosity, on the other hand, is unrelated to the phenomenon as it concerns the flow resistance within the liquid.

Q44. Which is the most electronegative element?

• A. F✓
• B. Cl
• C. Br
• D. O

Explanation: Option A: Chlorine belongs to group 7 and period 3Option B: Br belongs to group 7 and period 4Option C: Ca belongs to group 2 and period 3Option D: K belongs to group 1 and period 3

Q45. The order in which the period 2 gases, in order of increasing atomic weight:

• A. K, Ca, Br, and Kr
• B. Br2, Ca, Kr, Ca
• C. N2, O2, Cl2, Ar
• D. Ne, N2, O2, F2✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Ne, N2, O2, F2. This option correctly lists the period 2 gases in order of increasing atomic weight: Neon (Ne) has an atomic weight of 20, Nitrogen (N2) has an atomic weight of 28, Oxygen (O2) has an atomic weight of 32, and Fluorine (F2) has an atomic weight of 38. Other options either include elements not in period 2 or are incorrectly ordered.

Q46. What happens when the number of moles of the gas is doubled at a constant volume?

• A. Pressure doubles✓
• B. Pressure is reduced to 1/2
• C. Pressure is reduced to 1/4
• D. Pressure stays the same

Explanation: According to the general gas equation, PV=nRTIf other factors are constant, then P is directly proportional to the number of moles

Q47. Which of these is organic?

• A. SO2
• B. CH4✓
• C. H2O
• D. HCl

Explanation: The correct answer is CH4, which is methane. Organic compounds are primarily characterized by the presence of carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms. Methane, with its C-H bonds, fits this definition. In contrast, SO2 (sulfur dioxide) and H2O (water) do not contain carbon-hydrogen bonds, making them inorganic. Similarly, HCl (hydrochloric acid) is also inorganic as it lacks the carbon necessary to be classified as organic.

Q48. Alkenes are the first.

• A. Saturated hydrocarbon
• B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon✓
• C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
• D. Super saturated hydrocarbon

Explanation: Alkenes are neither saturated nor aromatic, and they are not even super saturated (that requires three bonds).Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one carbon-carbon double bond, which results in a lower hydrogen-to-carbon ratio compared to saturated hydrocarbons.

Q49. Which of the following has the highest BP?

• A. Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol)
• B. Diethyl ether
• C. H2O (Water)✓
• D. Acetone

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is the deciding factor in the given options.Hydrogen bonding is not as extensive in ethanol as in water, and so its boiling point is lower than water's, despite its greater molecular weight.

Q50. The first alkane is

• A. Methane✓
• B. Ethane
• C. Propane
• D. Butane

Explanation: The first alkane is methane (CH4), which is the simplest member of the alkane series. It consists of a single carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms. Alkanes are a group of hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2. The naming order of alkanes starts with methane, followed by ethane, propane, and butane, each increasing by one carbon atom. Therefore, methane is the correct choice as it is the simplest and first in the series.

Q51. The density of Methane at 27oC and 2 atm is

• A. 0.6 gm/dm3
• B. 1.299 gm/dm3✓
• C. 1.8 gm/dm3
• D. 0.91 gm/dm3

Explanation: To take out density we use the formula d=PM/RT. Where,n = number of moles of gasw = mass of gasP = pressure of the gas = 2 atmT = temperature of the gas = M = molar mass of methane gas = 16 g/moleR = gas constant = 0.0821 L atm/mole KD = density of gas

Q52. Which of the following is not a chemical change?

• A. Rusting of iron
• B. Refractive index
• C. Boiling of water✓
• D. Electrolysis of Cu

Explanation: The correct answer is the boiling of water, which is a physical change. During boiling, water changes from a liquid state to a gaseous state, but its molecular structure remains H2O, indicating no chemical change. In contrast, rusting of iron, electrolysis of copper, and the concept of refractive index involve chemical changes or properties related to changes in substances. Rusting and electrolysis are examples of chemical reactions that alter the substances involved.

Q53. What is true about water density?

• A. It is less than that of ice
• B. It is more than that of ice✓
• C. It is equal
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Water density is higher than that of ice. This unique behavior occurs because of the way water molecules arrange themselves in a solid ice lattice, creating open spaces that decrease the overall density compared to the tightly packed molecules in liquid water.

Q54. Periods contain equal elements:

• A. 1st and 2nd
• B. 2nd and 3rd✓
• C. 2nd and 4th
• D. 6th and 7th

Explanation: Option B is correct because both the 2nd and 3rd periods of the periodic table have 8 elements each. This makes them equal in terms of the number of elements they contain. Option A is incorrect as Period 1 has only 2 elements. Option C is incorrect because Period 4 contains 18 elements. Option D mentions the 6th and 7th periods, which have 32 elements each, but the question focuses on periods with 8 elements.

Q55. The elements that have only one valence electron are called:

• A. Coinage metals
• B. Alkaline earth metals
• C. Alkali metals✓
• D. Heavy metals

Explanation: Alkali metals, located in group 1 of the periodic table, have a single valence electron, which makes them very reactive and eager to lose that electron to achieve a full outer shell. This characteristic distinguishes them from other groups. For instance, alkaline earth metals have two valence electrons, while coinage and heavy metals do not fit this category based on their valence electron configuration or chemical properties.

Q56. The position of hydrogen in the periodic table is:

• A. I A
• B. IV A
• C. VII A
• D. Unique Position✓

Explanation: D is the correct option. The position of hydrogen doesn't match the properties of any group.

Q57. Liquefying point of N2 gas is:

• A. -252°C
• B. +252°C
• C. -196°C✓
• D. +196°C

Explanation: The liquefying point of N2 gas is -196 °C.

Q58. The M.P. of NaCl is 800oC. Jin-Down's process is reduced to 600oC by using:

• A. MgCl
• B. CaCl2✓
• C. MgSO4
• D. CaSO4

Explanation: In Down's process for the manufacture of sodium, the melting point of NaCl is lowered in order to avoid vaporization of Na.Option A: MgCl is used for the manufacture of cement and paper.Option B: CaCl2 is used for lowering the melting point of NaClOption C: MgSo4 reduces striated muscle contractions and blocks peripheral neuromuscular transmission by reducing acetylcholine releaseOption D: CaSo4 is used in the manufacturer of Plaster of Paris

Q59. Which one of the following sets of atomic numbers presents only alkali metals?

• A. 2, 4, 10
• B. 3, 11, 31
• C. 2, 10, 18
• D. 3, 11, 19✓

Explanation: Alkali metals are located in Group 1 of the periodic table and are characterized by having exactly one valence electron. Option D (3, 11, 19) correctly identifies the atomic numbers of lithium, sodium, and potassium, which are all alkali metals. Options A (2, 4, 10) and C (2, 10, 18) contain atomic numbers of elements that are not alkali metals, such as helium, beryllium, neon, and argon, which have full valence shells rather than a single valence electron. Option B (3, 11, 31) includes gallium, which is not an alkali metal, despite lithium and sodium being correct.

Q60. The I.U.P.A.C. name of K4[Fe(CN)6]:

• A. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)✓
• B. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
• C. Potassium ferrocyanide
• D. Potassium ferricyanide

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for K4[Fe(CN)6] is Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II). In this complex, iron is in the +2 oxidation state, indicated by (II), and is coordinated with six cyanide ligands, as reflected by the 'hexacyano' prefix.Option B is incorrect because it suggests an oxidation state of 3 for iron, not 2. Option C refers to the common name, Potassium ferrocyanide, which is not the IUPAC name. Option D is also incorrect as it denotes Potassium ferricyanide, which corresponds to a different compound with iron in a +3 oxidation state.

Q61. In a NPN transistor, P-type work as a:

• A. Collector
• B. Base✓
• C. Emitter
• D. None of these

Explanation: An NPN transistor consists of two N-type semiconductors with a P-type semiconductor in between. In this configuration, the P-type semiconductor acts as the base. The base is crucial for controlling the transistor's operation by regulating the flow of electrons between the emitter and collector. Option A is incorrect because the collector is an N-type semiconductor. Option C is incorrect because the emitter, like the collector, is also an N-type semiconductor. Option D is incorrect because the P-type indeed has a defined role as the base in an NPN transistor.

Q62. A transformer works according to:

• A. Mutual Induction✓
• B. Lorentz's Law
• C. Faraday's Law
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Mutual induction is the ability of an inductor in one circuit to induce a voltage in another circuit. When a transformer primary has alternating current flowing in the conductor, magnetic flux surrounds the conductor in proportion to the amount of the current.Option A: Mutual induction is the ability of an inductor in one circuit to induce a voltage in another circuit. When a transformer primary has alternating current flowing in the conductor, magnetic flux surrounds the conductor in proportion to the amount of the current.Option B: The force exerted on a charged particle when it moves with velocity through an electric and magnetic field This electromagnetic force F on the charged particle is known as Lorentz forceOption C: When the magnetic flux in a circuit changes, an EMF is induced in the circuit that is directly proportional to the rate of change of the flux linkage.Option D: The transformer strictly follows mutual induction

Q63. Work has the same units as:

• A. Torque✓
• B. Power
• C. Momentum
• D. Angular momentum

Explanation: The correct answer is Torque. Both work and torque share the same unit of a newton meter (N·m). This is because work is the product of force and displacement, while torque is the product of force and lever arm distance, both resulting in the same dimensional unit. Option B: Power is measured in watts (W), which is equivalent to joules per second (J/s), indicating a rate of work done over time. Option C: Momentum is measured in kilogram meters per second (kg·m/s), representing mass in motion, which is unrelated to work. Option D: Angular momentum involves rotational motion and is measured in kg·m²/s, which is distinct from the linear units of work.

Q64. Two maas each of 60g are attached to a fiction-less pulley. When 10g are added to one of the masses. what is it downward in cm/s?2.

• A. 32
• B. 80✓
• C. 160
• D. 320

Explanation: Formula: F= maMass (m) added = 10 gTaking g = 9.8 m/s2 = 981 cm/s2F = 10 x 981 = 9810The total mass being accelerated isMass (m) = 60 + 60 + 10 = 130 gGiven that,Two blocks of mass 60 gWe know that.Formula: acceleration = force/massOption A: Incorrect answerOption B: This is the closest to 75.46, thus this is the right answerOption C: Incorrect answerOption D: Incorrect answer

Q65. The Compten effect describes the nature of light as:

• A. Photon✓
• B. Wave
• C. Dual nature
• D. Longitudinal waves

Explanation: The Compton Effect describes the scattering of high-frequency photons when they interact with electrons, leading to a change in the photon's energy and wavelength. This phenomenon provides strong evidence of the particle (photon) nature of light. Option A is correct because it captures this essence of the Compton Effect. Option B is incorrect because it confuses the wave nature of light, which is demonstrated by different phenomena such as interference. Option C is incorrect as the dual nature of light is a generalized concept that includes both wave and particle characteristics, not specifically explained by the Compton Effect alone. Option D is incorrect because light is a transverse wave, not a longitudinal one.

Q66. A bomb blasts on the moon. Its sound will be heard on earth after:

• A. Sound will not be heard✓
• B. 11-2 minutes after
• C. 138 minutes later
• D. 88 minutes later

Explanation: The correct answer is that the sound will not be heard. Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a medium (such as air, water, or solids) to travel. Since the space between the moon and Earth is a vacuum, there are no particles to transmit sound waves. Therefore, the sound of the explosion on the moon cannot reach Earth. The other options incorrectly suggest that sound could be heard after a certain time, which is not possible due to the lack of a medium in space.

Q67. Longitudinal waves cannot travel in:

• A. Water
• B. Solid
• C. Vacuum✓
• D. Air

Explanation: Longitudinal waves, such as sound waves, need a material medium to propagate, meaning they require particles to compress and rarefy as they travel. In a vacuum, there is no medium or particles to support the propagation of these waves, making it impossible for them to travel. Therefore, the correct answer is a vacuum.Option A: Water is a medium capable of transmitting longitudinal waves.Option B: Solids provide a medium for the transmission of longitudinal waves.Option D: Air, being a gaseous medium, supports the travel of longitudinal waves.

Q68. By changing the temperature of the air, which of the following quantities will not change?

• A. Wavelength
• B. Frequency✓
• C. Intensity
• D. Amplitude

Explanation: The correct answer is Frequency. Frequency is determined by the source of the sound and remains constant regardless of changes in the medium or temperature. In contrast, the wavelength depends on the speed of sound, which increases with temperature, thus altering the wavelength. Intensity is related to the energy carried by the wave, which can be affected by temperature changes. Similarly, amplitude can also vary with temperature as it affects the wave's energy.

Q69. Torque describes:

• A. Acceleration
• B. Angular acceleration✓
• C. Linear acceleration
• D. Direction of moment

Explanation: Torque is a force that tends to cause rotation Just as force is what causes an object to accelerate in linear kinematics, torque is what causes an object to acquire angular acceleration. Torque is a vector quantity.Option A: Acceleration is caused by forceOption B: Angular acceleration is caused by torqueOption C: Linear acceleration is caused by Linear forceOption D: The direction of the moment is caused by the direction of the Force

Q70. Which of the following is not an adiabatic process?

• A. Rapid expansion of air
• B. Burst of tire
• C. Cloud formation
• D. Freezing of liquid water into ice✓

Explanation: An adiabatic process is defined as one in which no heat transfer takes placeOption A: In the expansion of air, no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings, thus it's an adiabatic processOption B: In bursting of fire,is no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings, thus its is an adiabatic processOption C: In cloud formation, no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings; thus, it is an adiabatic processOption D: The Conversion of water into ice is an isothermal process where heat is transferred.

Q71. A radicactive element will not emit:

• A. Electron
• B. Proton✓
• C. Beta particle
• D. Helium

Explanation: Protons are not emitted by a radioactive substance; It emits Alpha particles (He nuclei), beta particles (electrons), or gamma particles.Option A: A radioactive element can emit an electron, also known as a beta particle. This process is called Beta emission.Option B: It’s impossible for a proton to be emitted Option C: A radioactive element can emit an electron, also known as a beta particle. This process is called Beta emission.Option D: A radioactive element can emit Alpha particles, also known as Helium nuclei. This process is called alpha emission.

Q72. A 20 ohm and a 60 ohm resistors are connected in series to a DC generator. The I = 4.0A, What will be the voltage at the 60 ohm resister?

• A. 100
• B. 120
• C. 240✓
• D. 24

Explanation: In series, the current is the same across both resistors, So the formula to find out the voltage is: V=IRV = 4×60 =240 VOption A: Incorrect AnswerOption B: Incorrect AnswerOption C: V = 4×60 =240 VOption D: Incorrect Answer

Q73. The definition of velocity (anguier) by linear velocity of an object moving in a circle is always

• A. 90°✓
• B. 180°
• C. 270°
• D. 100°

Explanation: The correct answer is 90° because in circular motion, the linear velocity vector is always tangent to the path of the circle, while the angular velocity vector is perpendicular to the plane of the circle. This geometric relationship ensures that the angle between the two vectors is 90°. Other angles such as 180°, 270°, and 100° do not align with the fundamental properties of circular motion.

Q74. Doppler's effect applies to:

• A. Sound waves only
• B. Light waves only
• C. Both sound waves and light waves✓
• D. Magnetic Waves only

Explanation: The Doppler Effect, or Doppler shift, describes the changes in the frequency of any kind of sound or light wave produced by a moving source with respect to an observerOption A: Doppler Effect doesn’t only work on Sound WavesOption B: Doppler Effect doesn’t only work on Light WavesOption C: The Doppler Effect works on both sound and Light waves.Option D: Doppler waves doesn’t work on Magnetic Waves

Q75. When the distance of a menochromatic source of light is tripled from the surface, what happens to intensity?

• A. Doubled
• B. Tripled
• C. Reduced to 1/3
• D. Reduced to 1/9✓

Explanation: Intensity is I ∝ 1/R2Option A: Intensity decreases with an increase in distanceOption B: Intensity decreases with an increase in distanceOption C: If the distance is increased 3 times then it becomes 9, and times, intensity can’t be 1/3rdOption D: If distance is increased 3 times, then it becomes 9, thus intensity will become 1/9th

Q76. α-rays are:

• A. Hydrogen nuclei
• B. Helium nuclei✓
• C. Hydrogen electrons
• D. Negatively charged electrons

Explanation: An alpha ray is a stream of alpha particles. Which consists of two protons and two neutrons bound together into a particle identical to a helium nucleus.Option A: The hydrogen nucleus is called a proton.Option B: Alpha rays called helium nuclei.Option C: The hydrogen atom consists of one electron, which can be called hydrogen electron.Option D: Negatively charged electrons are called Anions.

Q77. The things needed in the medium for light wave propagation are:

• A. Elasticity
• B. Resistance
• C. Density
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: Some sort of elastic behavior, in the sense of an ability to rebound, is required for all wave motion, whether transversal or longitudinal. The wave medium must be able to oscillate around some intermediate state, so it must keep returning to this intermediate state. Thus, the medium must be able to restore itself (rebound) in order for any kind of wave to propagate through it.Elasticity is the ability of a deformed material body to return to its original shape and size when the forces causing the deformation are removed, which helps the wave propagate.

Q78. An ideal current has consistency.

• A. Zero
• B. Finite but zero
• C. Infinite✓
• D. 1 Ohm

Explanation: An ideal constant-current source can maintain a stable current output regardless of the voltage across its terminals, which is possible due to its infinite internal resistance. This means that even with changes in voltage, the current remains constant, classifying it as independent. The other options suggest internal resistances that would not allow for this consistent current output, thus they are incorrect.

Q79. An emf introduced in the C generator depends on:

• A. Thickness of the armature
• B. Thickness of the shaft
• C. Strength of the magnetic field✓
• D. Capacitance of the circuit

Explanation: The generated EMF in a generator primarily depends on the strength of the magnetic field, the number of armature coil turns, and the speed of the rotating field. A stronger magnetic field increases the induced EMF, as it enhances the interaction between the magnetic field and the moving coils. This is the basis of electromagnetic induction. Other factors, such as the thickness of the armature or shaft, and the capacitance of the circuit, do not influence the generation of EMF.

Q80. The unit of Conductance is:

• A. Ohm
• B. MHO
• C. Diopter
• D. Siemens✓

Explanation: The unit of conductance is the "siemens" (symbol: S), which is equivalent to one ampere per volt (A/V). Conductance measures how easily an electrical current can pass through a substance or a circuit, and it is the reciprocal of electrical resistance. The higher the conductance, the easier it is for electric current to flow through a material.The siemens (symbolized S) is the Standard International (SI) unit of electrical conductance. The archaic term for this unit is the mho (ohm spelled backwards).

Q81. An object is placed 30cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 15cm. What is the height of the image as compared to the object?

• A. Same✓
• B. Smaller
• C. Larger
• D. Double the size

Explanation: A convex lens forms an image of the same size as the object only when the object is placed at a distance of 2F from the lens. In this case, the image is also equal to 2F from the lens The distance of the object from the lens is also 2F = 30cm.

Q82. A convex lens produces virtual image when the object is placed

• A. At the focal point (focus)
• B. Between the principal focus and the center of curvature
• C. Between the principal focus and the optical center (CORRECT)✓
• D. Beyond twice the focal length (2f)

Explanation: A convex lens can form both real and virtual images depending on the object's position. The correct answer is when the object is placed between the principal focus and the optical center. In this position, the lens produces a virtual, erect, and magnified image on the same side of the lens as the object.Other options result in real images: placing the object at the focal point results in an image at infinity; between the principal focus and center of curvature forms a real, inverted image beyond the center of curvature; and beyond twice the focal length forms a real, diminished image between the focus and center of curvature.

Q83. In SHM, the velocity is maximum.

• A. Extreme position
• B. Mean position✓
• C. In the middle
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In SHM, velocity is maximum at the mean position, which is why it moves toward the extreme position. Velocity at the mean position will be maximum.

Q84. Capacitance depends on:

• A. Density of wire
• B. Thickness of wire✓
• C. Resistance of wire
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is that capacitance depends on the thickness of the wire or the area of the plates, as well as the dielectric material between them. This is because capacitance is a measure of a capacitor's ability to store charge, which is influenced by these physical properties. Density and resistance of the wire do not directly impact capacitance. Thus, option B is correct, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.

Q85. The vector addition follows:

• A. Commutative law
• B. Associativo law
• C. Distributive law
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: The addition of vectors satisfies two important properties along with distributive law. Hence, all of the above options are true.

Q86. A current that flows from the high concentration towards a low concentration of the charge is called:

• A. Conventional Current✓
• B. Electric Current
• C. Fluctuating Current
• D. Alternating Current

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Conventional Current'. This term describes the flow of positive charge from the positive terminal (high concentration of charge) to the negative terminal (low concentration of charge) in a circuit. Although in reality, electrons (negative charges) flow from negative to positive, the concept of conventional current is based on the historical assumption of positive charge flow. The other options are incorrect: 'Electric Current' is a general term without specifying direction; 'Fluctuating Current' implies variability over time without direction; and 'Alternating Current' refers to current that periodically reverses direction, unrelated to high-to-low concentration flow.

Q87. ABA = BAB is according to which property?

• A. Closure property of multiplication
• B. Commutative property of multiplication✓
• C. Distributive property of multiplication
• D. Associative property of multiplication

Explanation: The commutative property states that the numbers on which we operate can be moved or swapped from their position without making any difference to the answer, hence ABA is the same as BAB.The distributive property lets you multiply a sum by multiplying each addend separately and then add the products. The associative property states that you can add or multiply regardless of how the numbers are grouped. By 'grouped' we mean 'how you use parentheses'.The closure property means that a set is closed for some mathematical operation.

Q88. In x-ray Production L,M,N come into K the rays formed are:

• A. Lα, Lβ, Lµ
• B. Mα, Mβ, Mµ
• C. Nα, Nβ, Nµ
• D. Kα, Kβ, Kγ✓

Explanation: According to the diagram below answer is D.

Q89. A current of 3 Amp is passing through a galvanometer. If a high resistance is connected in series to it, the total current that will pass through the resistance will be?

• A. 6 Amp
• B. 1.5 Amp✓
• C. 3 Amp
• D. 4 Amp

Explanation: Current is always the same in the series circuit but attaching new resistance in a circuit would decrease current overall.By how much? This is for the amount of resistance to decide.Only option B has decreased current relative original current.

Q90. A massive ball collides with a light ball. What will be the velocity of the light ball after the collision?

• A. Velocity is doubled✓
• B. Velocity is halved
• C. It will remain stationary
• D. The light ball will rebound with double velocity

Explanation: There is a way to solve this question by deriving the whole equation which is not the smart way to solve questions in exam.Just use common sense,if a massive ball collides with a lighter ball obviously that ball will move at a higher velocity than the larger ball.Only option A has increased velocity,all other don’t.OR(if you are okay with this big derivation;this is how it will be:)Using the conservation of momentum and KE, the velocities of the balls after collision is derived.m1= mass of the 1st ballm2= mass of the 2nd ballv1= velocity of the 1st ball before collision=v;v2= velocity of the 2nd ball before collision=0m1>>m2;Substituting v1=v and v2=0,we get v2=2v.

Q91. Precise antonym:

• A. Concise
• B. Comprehensive
• C. Exaggerate✓
• D. Explanatory

Explanation: It's actually precise which means exact not exaggerated so antonym is exaggerated.

Q92. Which part is incorrect in the following sentence?We heard on TV that the weather is not fine. We said that we should not go out?What must be changed in order to make the sentences correct?

• A. We [in the first sentence]
• B. We [in the second sentence]
• C. That the weather
• D. We should not go out?✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: "We should not go out?" The second sentence is a statement and should end with a period instead of a question mark. The other options are incorrect because they do not contain any grammatical errors or issues with sentence structure. "We" is correctly used in both sentences, and "that the weather" fits perfectly within the context of the sentence structure.

Q93. We have not to smoke because smoking can harm out lungs.

• A. Do not✓
• B. To smoke
• C. Smoking
• D. Can harm

Explanation: Correct statement is "we not have to smoke".

Q94. Many businessmen waste their time in checking their competitors businesses.Instead what they should do is try to improve their own style of working and bringthe amendments that are required to make their business prosper.What is the major takeaway point from the above paragraph?

• A. Businessmen should keep a close watch on their competitors' businesses.
• B. Many businessmen waste their time by overly focusing on competitors.
• C. Improving internal business strategies can lead to prosperity.✓
• D. Hard work alone guarantees business success.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: 'Improving internal business strategies can lead to prosperity.' The paragraph emphasizes that businessmen should focus on enhancing their own business practices and making necessary amendments to succeed. While Options A and B mention competitor observation, they miss the core message of self-improvement. Option D incorrectly attributes success solely to hard work without acknowledging the need for strategic changes.

Q95. The reason they gave was — , and they explained it —

• A. Correct, correct
• B. Correct, correctly✓
• C. Correctly, correct
• D. Correctly, correctly

Explanation: Option B is correct because it maintains parallelism in the sentence. Parallelism is a grammatical principle where elements in a sentence that are similar in function should also be similar in grammatical form. In this case, the parallelism is between the two adverbs "Correct" and "correctly" that modify the verbs "gave" and "explained" respectively.

Q96. What is the synonym of the following word:Monotonous:

• A. Limited
• B. Conclusive
• C. Extremist
• D. Repetitive✓

Explanation: The correct synonym for 'monotonous' is 'repetitive,' as both terms convey the idea of something that is dull, tedious, and lacking variety due to its repetitive nature. The other options are incorrect because they describe concepts unrelated to repetition: 'Limited' pertains to constraints, 'Conclusive' refers to decisiveness, and 'Extremist' relates to radicalism.

Q97. What is the antonym of the following word: Intensive:

• A. Casual✓
• B. Regressive
• C. Progressive
• D. Attentive

Explanation: The word 'intensive' refers to activities that require deep focus, effort, and thoroughness. 'Casual,' on the other hand, implies a relaxed, unconcerned, or superficial approach, making it the antonym. The other options—'regressive,' 'progressive,' and 'attentive'—do not capture the essence of being opposite to 'intensive' as they either refer to direction or a different kind of focus.

Q98. The word closest in meaning to competent is?

• A. Skillful: Having a set of skills required.✓
• B. Experienced: Having knowledge in a specific field gained over a period of time.
• C. Knowledgeable: Being well-informed.
• D. Dynamic: Constant change or progress.

Explanation: Competent means to possess sufficient skills for a task. Hence it shows that only skillful has the closest meaning to competent.

Q99. People get tensed during difficult situations. But this condition is not only with common people, but also the very much experienced psychologists get worried during their problems.The idea that the author is producing in this passage is:

• A. Everyone gets worried during their problems✓
• B. Even psychologists get worried during their personal problems
• C. Difficult situations are faced by everyone
• D. Common people face a lot of problems

Explanation: The correct answer is that everyone gets worried during their problems. The passage illustrates that tension during difficult situations is not exclusive to common people; even experienced psychologists experience this, highlighting it as a universal human response. Other options are incorrect as they either assume details not provided in the passage or misinterpret the focus on emotional response rather than the occurrence of difficult situations.

Q100. Synonym of the word Loathsome:

• A. Handsome
• B. Unpleasant✓
• C. Brilliant
• D. Compare

Explanation: Synonym means a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language. Loathsome means causing hatred or disgust,hence the option which fits perfectly with this word is Unpleasant.