Sindh Mcat Nts 2005 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Ringworm is caused by:

• A. Round worm
• B. Fungus✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Ringworm is a common infection of the skin and nails. It is also called tinea or dermatophytosis. Option A: Nemathelminthes, commonly called roundworms. They cause diseases such as Filariasis, Elephantiasis, etc. Option B: Most fungi imperfecti cause skin diseases in humans, such as ringworm and athlete's foot. Option C: The most common disease caused by protozoans is Malaria.

Q2. Adrenal glands are found adjacent to:

• A. Kidney✓
• B. Heart
• C. Lungs
• D. Liver

Explanation: Option A: The adrenal gland lies immediately above each kidney. Option B: On the front of the heart, the thymus gland lies. Option C: In the upper part of the chest, the thymus gland lies near the lungs. Option D: Gall bladder situated adjacent to the liver

Q3. When a diploid egg is formed without fertilization:

• A. Parthenogenesis✓
• B. Apomixis
• C. Facultative apomixes
• D. Reverse transcription

Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a natural form of asexual reproduction in which the growth and development of embryos occur in a gamete without combining with another gamete. In animals, parthenogenesis means the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell. In plants, parthenogenesis is a component process of apomixis.

Q4. The drastic change in climate over the past century has been illustrated by:

• A. Increase in rainfall
• B. Decrease in rainfall
• C. Colder winter
• D. Warmer winter✓

Explanation: There is an increase in rainfall in some areas and a decrease in others. The temperature of the globe is increasing, so winters are becoming warmer.

Q5. The uptake of minerals in a plant occurs through:

• A. Root hair✓
• B. Root cap
• C. Root tip
• D. Stomata
• E. Guard cells

Explanation: The minerals present in the soil can be absorbed through the root hair cells. However, the concentration of minerals in the soil is very low. While water is absorbed by the plants through osmosis, minerals are absorbed as ions by active transport (transport against the law of diffusion by spending cellular energy).

Q6. Positive geotropism is shown by the

• A. Root✓
• B. Stem
• C. Leave
• D. Flower

Explanation: When a root grows in the direction of the force of gravity, this is known as a positive geotropism.

Q7. The internal maintenance of humans

• A. Homeostasis✓
• B. Peliploidy
• C. Excretion
• D. Epistaxis

Explanation: The tendency to maintain a stable, relatively constant internal environment is called homeostasis. The body maintains homeostasis for many factors in addition to temperature. For instance, the concentration of various ions in your blood must be kept steady, along with pH and the concentration of glucose.

Q8. Animal with an open circulatory system:

• A. Cockroach✓
• B. Frog
• C. Snake
• D. Duck and platypus

Explanation: Open circulatory systems are systems where blood, rather than being sealed tight in arteries and veins, suffuses the body and may be directly open to the environment at places such as the digestive tract. Open circulatory systems use hemolymph instead of blood.

Q9. The ability of cells to swell after absorption of water

• A. Inhibition
• B. Deplasmolysis✓
• C. Guttation
• D. Transpiration

Explanation: Deplasmolysis is the opposite process of plasmolysis; when the concentration of the solution external to a plasmolyzed cell is decreased or when solutes permeate from the external solution into the vacuole, water will reenter the vacuole, and the increase in protoplast volume leads to restoration of full turgidity.

Q10. Sensors that receive stimulus:

• A. Receptors✓
• B. Neuron
• C. Effectors
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Receptors are specialized structures that detect and respond to specific stimuli in the environment. They transmit this information to neurons for further processing.

Q11. A lipid molecule is composed of glycerol and fatty acids in the ratio of:

• A. 1:1
• B. 1:3✓
• C. 1:4
• D. 1:2

Explanation: Lipid molecules are composed of one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules, making the ratio 1:3.

Q12. Which of the following is not a reflex action?

• A. Eye blink
• B. Knee jerk
• C. An animal salivating spontaneously as the bell rings without given food✓
• D. Watering of mouth at the sight of food

Explanation: The so-called conditioned reflexes are not reflexes at all but complicated acts of learned behavior. Salivation is one such conditioned reflex; it occurs only when a person is conscious of the presence of food or when one imagines food.

Q13. 50% of blood volume is:

• A. Plasma✓
• B. Formed elements
• C. Cells
• D. Both b and c

Explanation: Plasma constitutes around 50% of the blood volume. It is the liquid component of blood that contains water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, and waste products.

Q14. Plasmodium can be found in mosquitoes at:

• A. Salivary gland✓
• B. CBC
• C. Stomach
• D. Both a and b

Explanation: During bite, salivary glands release plasmodium, that also enters the victim's bloodstream

Q15. The formula of glyceraldehyde is:

• A. C3H6O4
• B. C3H6O3✓
• C. C6H12O6
• D. C7H14O7

Explanation: Glyceraldehyde is a triose monosaccharide with the chemical formula C3H6O3.

Q16. A green single-celled organism in the protista kingdom:

• A. Algae
• B. Bacteria
• C. Euglena✓
• D. Ameoba

Explanation: Euglena is a genus of single-celled flagellate eukaryotes. It is the best-known and most widely studied member of the class Euglenoidea, a diverse group containing some 54 genera and at least 200 species. Species of Euglena are found in freshwater and saltwater.

Q17. Ribosomes are attached to:

• A. One another
• B. ER✓
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Centromeres

Explanation: The ribosome that is synthesizing the protein is directly attached to the ER membrane. These membrane-bound ribosomes coat the surface of the ER, creating regions termed rough endoplasmic reticulum, or rough ER.

Q18. The reproductive structure of ferns is:

• A. Cones
• B. Needles
• C. Sporophylls✓
• D. Gametophylls

Explanation: Sporophylls are the reproductive structures of ferns. They bear sporangia, which produce spores that give rise to the gametophyte generation. These structures are essential for fern reproduction.

Q19. Solanacea is also called:

• A. Legume family
• B. Potato family✓
• C. Night shade family
• D. b and c both

Explanation: The Solanaceae family is also known as the potato family. Around 2000 species of dicotyledonous plants belong to this family.

Q20. In mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell is:

• A. 2n✓
• B. n
• C. 1/2n
• D. None of the above

Explanation: An explanation is given below:

Q21. A purely marine phylum:

• A. Mollusca
• B. Echinodermata✓
• C. Annelida
• D. Arthropoda

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q22. Which animal has highly vascularized skin for respiration?

• A. Fish
• B. Frog✓
• C. Snake
• D. A new-born mammal

Explanation: Most amphibians breathe through their lungs and their skin. Their skin has to stay wet in order for them to absorb oxygen so they secrete mucous to keep their skin moist (lf they get too dry, they cannot breathe and will die).

Q23. The end product of glycolysis is

• A. Citric acid
• B. Pyruvic acid✓
• C. Lactic acid
• D. Acetyl CoA

Explanation: An explanation is given below.

Q24. Process of transferring a bacterium from a donor bacterium to a receiver bacterium:

• A. Conjugation✓
• B. Transduction
• C. Transformation
• D. Regression mutation

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q25. Lamarck identified evolution as:

• A. Natural selection
• B. Acquired characters✓
• C. Disuse or use of organs
• D. Mutation theory

Explanation: Lamarck is best known for his Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics, If an organism changes during life in order to adapt to its environment, those changes are passed on to its offspring.

Q26. The pH of blood is about:

• A. 7.35✓
• B. 7.00
• C. 7.85
• D. 7.66

Explanation: Explanation: The pH of blood is 7.35-7.45, and it is maintained by buffer action.

Q27. An ecosystem is:

• A. Population living together
• B. Species living together
• C. A community with its non-living components
• D. A community with its living and non-living components✓

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q28. Movement due to touch response:

• A. Thermonastic
• B. Photonastic
• C. Seismonastic
• D. Thigmotropism✓

Explanation: An explanation is given below

Q29. The ascent of sap is governed by the activity of the living cell in the form of pulsation. This theory is called

• A. Physical force theory✓
• B. Passive force theory
• C. Vital force theory
• D. Active force theory

Explanation: The physical force theory explains that the ascent of sap in plants occurs through the help of physical force. Pulsating is physical action.

Q30. In coughing, the air is forcibly blown through the larynx, while in sneezing, it is blown through:

• A. Mouth
• B. Nasal cavities
• C. Both of these✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: When you sneeze, droplets are expelled from your nose and mouth which can travel up to two metres away.

Q31. What will make an electrolyte?

• A. Salt dissolved in water✓
• B. Sugar dissolved in water
• C. Salt dissolves in organic solvents.
• D. All of the above

Explanation: salt will ionize when it will get dissolved in water , these ions will be the main cause of flow of electric current forming electrolyte

Q32. Chemistry is the study of:

• A. Chemicals✓
• B. Acid
• C. Base
• D. Water
• E. None of the above

Explanation: All other terms come under the option chemical.

Q33. For Boyle's law to be true, which of the following must be fixed?

• A. Isothermal✓
• B. Isochoric
• C. Adiabatic
• D. Isobaric

Explanation: Boyle's law holds true for constant temperatures. It stated that pressure is inversely proportional to volume at a given temperature. Option A: Isothermal means at a constant temperature. Option B: Isochoric means at constant pressure. Option C: Adiabatic means in the insulator (no heat moves inside or outside the system) Option D: Isobaric means at constant volume.

Q34. Which of the following statements about flourine is not true?

• A. It is the most electronegative element
• B. 19 protons in nucleus✓
• C. A compound can engage in hydrogen bonds.
• D. Oxidation state, -1
• E. Found in nature as diatomic gas

Explanation: The atomic number of flourine is 9, so it has nine protons in its nucleus.

Q35. Which of the following has the strongest carbon-to-carbon bond?

• A. C2H2✓
• B. C2H4
• C. C2H6
• D. C3H8

Explanation: because it has triple C-C bond with one sigma and two pi bonds so it's strongest

Q36. Gases are good conductors at:

• A. High pressure
• B. Low temperature
• C. Low pressure✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: At room temperature, conductivity is less because of obstruction from other ions. At low pressure, this disturbance is reduced and hence gases become good conductors.

Q37. Which of the following will increase the rate of a reaction?

• A. Lowering the temperature
• B. Increasing the volume
• C. Reducing activation energy✓
• D. Increasing activation energy

Explanation: By reducing activation energy, more molecules will possess enough activation energy, so the rate of reaction will increase.

Q38. Bituminous coal can be produced by destructive distillation.

• A. Coke
• B. Coal gas
• C. Coal tar
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Destructive distillation of bituminous coal produce coal tar along with coal gas and coke. So the answer should be all of the above.

Q39. Period three elements have same:

• A. Atomic number
• B. Atomic mass
• C. Principal quantum number✓
• D. Azumithal

Explanation: Option A: Atomic number is the characteristic property of each element. Option B: No elements of period 3 have same atomic mass. Option C: In a period, electrons enter in the same orbital hence all elements have same value of principal quantum number (n). Option D: The azimuthal quantum number describe the unique quantum state of an electron.

Q40. The tabular arrangement of the _ principle is called the long term of the periodic table:

• A. (n+l) rule
• B. Pauli's exclusion principle
• C. Aufbau principle✓
• D. Hund's rule

Explanation: Aufbua gives us n+l rule It makes us able to find which orbital is going to be filled first Option A: It states that the sun of the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers determines the energy level of the orbital. Option B: It states that two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins. Option C: The Aufbau principle states that electrons fill lower-energy atomic orbitals before filling higher-energy ones. It helps us understand which orbital is going to be filled first. Option D: It states that every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied by an electron with the same spin before any orbital is doubly occupied.

Q41. The kinetic energy of molecules is:

• A. Linearly proportional to temperature✓
• B. Inversely proportional to temperature
• C. Linearly proportional to square root of temperature
• D. Inversely proportional to square root of temperature

Explanation: According to kinetic molecular theory of gases: K.E is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

Q42. The kinetic energy of molecular theory does not state:

• A. There are intermolecular forces within gases✓
• B. There is no volume in gases
• C. The collision course is elastic
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Explanation: Kinetic molecular theory has as one of its points that there are no intermolecular forces between molecules of gases. Option A: Kinetic molecular theory states that there are no intermolecular forces between gas molecules. Option B: This is the characteristic point of KMT: The volume occupied by gas molecules is negligible. Option C: This is also the characteristic point of KMT.

Q43. Capillary action is due to:

• A. Surface tension
• B. Cohesion
• C. Adhesion✓
• D. Viscousity

Explanation: ... Option A: The spherical shape of a liquid drop is due to surface Option B: Capillary action will only occur when cohesive forces are stronger than Option C: Adhesion of water to the walls of a vessel will cause an upward force on the liquid at the edges and result in a meniscus that turns upward. Capillary action occurs when the adhesion to the walls is stronger than the cohesive forces between the liquid

Q44. Which is the most electronegative element?

• A. Cl✓
• B. Br
• C. Ca
• D. K

Explanation: Option A: Chlorine belongs to group 7 and period 3 Option B: Br belongs to group 7 and period 4 Option C: Ca belongs to group 2 and period 3 Option D: K belongs to group 1 and period 3

Q45. The order in which the period 2 gases, in order of increasing atomic weight:

• A. K, Ca, Br, and Kr
• B. Br2, Ca, Kr, Ca
• C. N2, O2, Cl2, Are
• D. Ne,N2, O2,F2✓

Explanation: F2=38 n2=28 o2=32 ne= 20

Q46. What happens when the number of moles of the gas is doubled at a constant volume?

• A. Pressure doubles✓
• B. Pressure is reduced to 12
• C. Pressure is reduced to 14.
• D. Pressure stays the same

Explanation: According to the general gas equation, PV=nRT If other factors are constant, then P is directly proportional to the number of moles

Q47. Which of these is organic?

• A. SO2
• B. CH4✓
• C. H2O
• D. HCl

Explanation: CH4 is an organic compound Water and SO2 are inorganic. HCl is an inorganic acid

Q48. Alkenes are the first.

• A. Saturated hydrocarbon
• B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon✓
• C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
• D. Super saturated hydrocarbon

Explanation: Alkenes are neither saturated nor aromatic, and they are not even super saturated (that requires three bonds). Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one carbon-carbon double bond, which results in a lower hydrogen-to-carbon ratio compared to saturated hydrocarbons.

Q49. Which of the following has the highest BP?

• A. Ethyl alcohol
• B. Diethyl ether
• C. H2O✓
• D. Acetone

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is the deciding factor in the given options.Hydrogen bonding is not as extensive in ethanol as in water, and so its boiling point is lower than water's, despite its greater molecular weight.

Q50. The first alkane is

• A. Methane✓
• B. Ethane
• C. Propane
• D. Butane

Explanation: The first alkane is methane (CH4) which has the simplest molecular structure with a single carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms.

Q51. The density of Methane at 27oC and 2 atm is

• A. 0.6 gm/dm3
• B. 1.299 gm/dm3✓
• C. 1.8 gm/dm3
• D. 0.91 gm/dm3

Explanation: To take out density we use the formula d=PM/RT. Where, n = number of moles of gas w = mass of gas P = pressure of the gas = 2 atm T = temperature of the gas = M = molar mass of methane gas = 16 g/mole R = gas constant = 0.0821 L atm/mole K D = density of gas

Q52. Which of the following is not a chemical change?

• A. Rusting of iron
• B. Refractive index
• C. Boiling of water✓
• D. Electrolysis of Cu

Explanation: The boiling of water causes a change in the state of water from liquid to gas, which is a physical change.

Q53. What is true about water density?

• A. It is less than that of ice
• B. It is more than that of ice✓
• C. It is equal
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Water density is higher than that of ice. This unique behavior occurs because of the way water molecules arrange themselves in a solid ice lattice, creating open spaces that decrease the overall density compared to the tightly packed molecules in liquid water.

Q54. Periods contain equal elements:

• A. 1st and 2nd
• B. 2nd and 3rd✓
• C. 2nd and 4th
• D. 6th and 7th

Explanation: Option B is correct. Both the 2nd and 3rd periods have 8 elements.

Q55. The elements that have only one valence electron are called:

• A. Coinage metals
• B. Alkaline earth metals
• C. Alkali metals✓
• D. Heavy metal

Explanation: Alkali metals are group 1 elements that have only one valence electron.

Q56. The position of hydrogen in the periodic table is:

• A. I A
• B. IV A
• C. VII A
• D. Still undecided✓

Explanation: D is the correct option. The position of hydrogen doesn't match the properties of any group.

Q57. Liquefying point of N2 gas is:

• A. -252°C
• B. +252°C
• C. -196°C✓
• D. +196°C

Explanation: The liquefying point of N2 gas is -196 °C.

Q58. The M.P. of NaCl is 800oC. Jin-Down's process is reduced to 600oC by using:

• A. MgCl
• B. CaCl✓
• C. MgSo4
• D. CaSo4

Explanation: In Down's process for the manufacture of sodium, the melting point of NaCl is lowered in order to avoid vaporization of Na.Option A: MgCl is used for the manufacture of cement and paper.Option B: CaCl2 is used for lowering the melting point of NaClOption C: MgSo4 reduces striated muscle contractions and blocks peripheral neuromuscular transmission by reducing acetylcholine releaseOption D: CaSo4 is used in the manufacturer of Plaster of Paris

Q59. Which one of the following sets of atomic numbers presents only alkali metals?

• A. 2,4,10
• B. 3,11,10✓
• C. 2,10,18
• D. 9,17,35

Explanation: Alkali metals belong to Group (I) having 1 valence electronOption A: First two elements have two valence electrons, while the third element has eight valence electronsOption B: All the elements have only one valence electronOption C: The first element has 2 valence electrons and the last two have 8 valence electrons Option D: First two elements have 7 valence electrons, while the third element has 17 valence electrons

Q60. The I.U.P.A.C. name of K4[Fe(CN)6]:

• A. Potassium hexacyano ferrate (II)✓
• B. Potassium hexacynano terrate (III)
• C. Potassium terrocyanate
• D. Prtassium terricynaide

Explanation: The oxidation number of iron is 2 and there are six cyanide ligandsOption A: This complex shows six cyanide ligands and an II oxidation number for IronOption B: This complex shows six cyanide ligands but the oxidation state is III for IronOption C: This is not the IUPAC name but the common nameOption D: This is also the common name for Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Q61. In a NPN transistor, work as a:

• A. Collector
• B. Base✓
• C. Emittor
• D. None of these

Explanation: A NPN transistor is produced when a P-type semiconductor is sandwiched between two N-type semiconductors. The base is the middle element, which is a P-type semiconductor. Option A: N type acts as a collector in an NPN transistor Option B: P-type acts as a base in the NPN transistor Option C: N type acts as an emitter in the NPN transistor Option D: Not true

Q62. A transformer works according to:

• A. Mutual Induction✓
• B. Lonz's law
• C. Faraday's law
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Mutual induction is the ability of an inductor in one circuit to induce a voltage in another circuit. When a transformer primary has alternating current flowing in the conductor, magnetic flux surrounds the conductor in proportion to the amount of the current.Option A: Mutual induction is the ability of an inductor in one circuit to induce a voltage in another circuit. When a transformer primary has alternating current flowing in the conductor, magnetic flux surrounds the conductor in proportion to the amount of the current.Option B: The force exerted on a charged particle when it moves with velocity through an electric and magnetic field This electromagnetic force F on the charged particle is known as Lorentz forceOption C: When the magnetic flux in a circuit changes, an EMF is induced in the circuit that is directly proportional to the rate of change of the flux linkage.Option D: The transformer strictly follows mutual induction

Q63. Work has the same units as:

• A. Torque✓
• B. Power
• C. Momentum
• D. Angular momentum

Explanation: SI unit for work is joule and the SI unit for toque is the newton meter and mathematically joule is equal to the newton meter.Option A: 1 Joule equals 1 Newton meterOption B: The SI unit for power is Watt, which is Joule per secondOption C: The SI unit of momentum will be kg-m/sOption D: SI units for angular momentum are kg-m2/sec

Q64. Two maas each of 60g are attached to a fiction-less pulley. When 10g are added to one of the masses. what is it downward in cm/s?2.

• A. 32
• B. 80✓
• C. 160
• D. 320

Explanation: Formula: F= ma Mass (m) added = 10 g Taking g = 9.8 m/s2 = 981 cm/s2 F = 10 x 981 = 9810 The total mass being accelerated is Mass (m) = 60 + 60 + 10 = 130 g Given that, Two blocks of mass 60 g We know that. Formula: acceleration = force/mass Option A: Incorrect answerOption B: This is the closest to 75.46, thus this is the right answerOption C: Incorrect answerOption D: Incorrect answer

Q65. The Compten effect describes the nature of light as:

• A. Photon✓
• B. Wavo
• C. Dual nature
• D. Longitudinal waves

Explanation: Compton is the scattering of a high-frequency photon after an interaction with a charged particle, which is usually an electron. If it results in a decrease in the energy of the photon, it is known as the Compton EffectOption A: The energy of the photon changed due to a change in wavelength after the collision. This is the behavior of the particle or Corpuscle nature of light as revealed by the discovery of the Compton EffectOption B: The wave nature of particles is explained by PolarizationOption C: Dual nature of particles is explained by the photoelectric effect.Option D: Light is not a longitudinal wave but a transverse wave

Q66. A bomb blasts on the moon. Its sound will be heard on earth after:

• A. Sound will not be heard✓
• B. 11-2 minutes after
• C. 138 minutes later
• D. 88 minutes later

Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium to travel.Option A: No sound would be produced.Option B: Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no particles to carry the vibrations.Option C: Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no particles to carry the vibrations.Option D: Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no particles to carry the vibrations.

Q67. Longitudinal waves cannot travel in:

• A. Water
• B. Solid
• C. Vaccum✓
• D. Air

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are like mechanical waves which need the medium to propagate. These waves cannot travel through a vacuumOption A: Water is a medium through which waves can travelOption B: Solids are a medium through which waves can travel Option C: Since a vacuum is an area where no solids, liquids, or gases exist, the waves can’t travel.Option D: Water is a medium through which waves can travel

Q68. By changing the temperature of the air, which of the following quantities will not change?

• A. Wavelength
• B. Frequency✓
• C. Intensity
• D. Amplitude

Explanation: Intensity is the rate of energy flow unaffected by temperatureOption A: The higher the object's temperature, the faster the molecules will vibrate and the shorter the wavelength will beOption B: A change in the temperature doesn't effect the frequency as the frequency is only effected when medium is change Option C: Change in temperature causes changes in intensity Option D: A change in the temperature of the medium will cause a change in amplitude

Q69. Torque describes:

• A. Acceleration
• B. Angular acceleration✓
• C. Linear acceleration
• D. Direction of moment

Explanation: Torque is a force that tends to cause rotation Just as force is what causes an object to accelerate in linear kinematics, torque is what causes an object to acquire angular acceleration. Torque is a vector quantity.Option A: Acceleration is caused by forceOption B: Angular acceleration is caused by torqueOption C: Linear acceleration is caused by Linear forceOption D: The direction of the moment is caused by the direction of the Force

Q70. Which of the following is not an adiabatic process?

• A. Rapid expansion of air
• B. Burst of tire
• C. Cloud formation
• D. Freezing of liquid water into ice✓

Explanation: An adiabatic process is defined as one in which no heat transfer takes placeOption A: In the expansion of air, no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings, thus it's an adiabatic processOption B: In bursting of fire,is no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings, thus its is an adiabatic processOption C: In cloud formation, no heat is exchanged between the system and the surroundings; thus, it is an adiabatic processOption D: The Conversion of water into ice is an isothermal process where heat is transferred.

Q71. A radicactive element will not emit:

• A. Electron
• B. Proton✓
• C. Beta panticlo
• D. Helium

Explanation: Protons are not emitted by a radioactive substance; It emits Alpha particles (He nuclei), beta particles (electrons), or gamma particles.Option A: A radioactive element can emit an electron, also known as a beta particle. This process is called Beta emission.Option B: It’s impossible for a proton to be emitted Option C: A radioactive element can emit an electron, also known as a beta particle. This process is called Beta emission.Option D: A radioactive element can emit Alpha particles, also known as Helium nuclei. This process is called alpha emission.

Q72. A 20 ohm and a 60 ohm resistors are connected in series to a DC generator. The I = 4.0A, What will be the voltage at the 60 ohm resister?

• A. 100
• B. 120
• C. 240✓
• D. 24

Explanation: In series, the current is the same across both resistors, So the formula to find out the voltage is: V=IR V = 4×60 =240 VOption A: Incorrect AnswerOption B: Incorrect AnswerOption C: V = 4×60 =240 V Option D: Incorrect Answer

Q73. The definition of velocity (anguier) by linear velocity of an object moving in a circle is always

• A. 90°✓
• B. 180°
• C. 270°
• D. 100°

Explanation: The linear velocity’s direction is the direction of the tangent of the circle at the body’s position. The angular velocity’s direction is perpendicular to the surface of the circle. Thus 90 degrees.Option A: The angle between the linear velocity and the angular velocity of a body moving in a circle is 90°.Option B: The angle between the linear velocity and the angular velocity of a body moving in a circle is never 180°.Option C: The angle between the linear velocity and the angular velocity of a body moving in a circle is never 270°.Option D: The angle between the linear velocity and the angular velocity of a body moving in a circle is never 100°.

Q74. Doppler's effect applies to:

• A. Sound waver only
• B. Light waves only
• C. Both sound waves and light waves✓
• D. Magnetic Waves only

Explanation: The Doppler Effect, or Doppler shift, describes the changes in the frequency of any kind of sound or light wave produced by a moving source with respect to an observerOption A: Doppler Effect doesn’t only work on Sound WavesOption B: Doppler Effect doesn’t only work on Light WavesOption C: The Doppler Effect works on both sound and Light waves.Option D: Doppler waves doesn’t work on Magnetic Waves

Q75. When the distance of a menochromatic source of light is tripled from the surface, what happens to intensity?

• A. Doubled
• B. Tripled
• C. Reduced to 1/3
• D. Reduced to 1/9✓

Explanation: Intensity is I ∝ 1/ R2Option A: Intensity decreases with an increase in distanceOption B: Intensity decreases with an increase in distanceOption C: If the distance is increased 3 times then it becomes 9, and times, intensity can’t be 1/3rdOption D: If distance is increased 3 times, then it becomes 9, thus intensity will become 1/9th

Q76. α-rays are:

• A. Hydrogen nuclei
• B. Helium nuclei✓
• C. Hydregen alectrons
• D. negatively charged electrons

Explanation: An alpha ray is a stream of alpha particles. Which consists of two protons and two neutrons bound together into a particle identical to a helium nucleus.Option A: The hydrogen nucleus is called a proton.Option B: Alpha rays called helium nuclei.Option C: The hydrogen atom consists of one electron, which can be called hydrogen electron.Option D: Negatively charged electrons are called Anions.

Q77. The things needed in the medium for light wave propagation are:

• A. Elasticity
• B. Resistance
• C. Density
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: Some sort of elastic behavior, in the sense of an ability to rebound, is required for all wave motion, whether transversal or longitudinal. The wave medium must be able to oscillate around some intermediate state, so it must keep returning to this intermediate state. Thus, the medium must be able to restore itself (rebound) in order for any kind of wave to propagate through it.Elasticity is the ability of a deformed material body to return to its original shape and size when the forces causing the deformation are removed, which helps the wave propagate.

Q78. An ideal current has consistency.

• A. Zero
• B. Finite but zero
• C. Infinite✓
• D. 1 Ohm

Explanation: An ideal constant-current source can supply the same amount of current indefinitely regardless of the voltage across its terminals, thus making it an independent source. This, therefore, implies that current sources have infinite internal resistance (R = ∞). An ideal current has infinite resistance.

Q79. An emf introduced in the C generator depends on:

• A. Thickness of armor
• B. Thickness of Shaft
• C. The strength of magnetic field✓
• D. Capacitance of...

Explanation: The generated EMF depends on the strength of the magnetic field. The generated EMF depends on the number of armature coil turns, the magnetic field strength, and the speed of the rotating field.

Q80. The unit of Conductance is:

• A. Ohm
• B. MHO
• C. Diopes
• D. Siemens✓

Explanation: The unit of conductance is the "siemens" (symbol: S), which is equivalent to one ampere per volt (A/V). Conductance measures how easily an electrical current can pass through a substance or a circuit, and it is the reciprocal of electrical resistance. The higher the conductance, the easier it is for electric current to flow through a material. The siemens (symbolized S) is the Standard International (SI) unit of electrical conductance. The archaic term for this unit is the mho (ohm spelled backwards).

Q81. An object is placed 30cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 15cm. What is the height of the image as compared to the object?

• A. Same✓
• B. Smaller
• C. Larger
• D. Double the size

Explanation: A convex lens forms an image of the same size as the object only when the object is placed at a distance of 2F from the lens. In this case, the image is also equal to 2F from the lens The distance of the object from the lens is also 2F = 30cm.

Q82. A convex lens produces virtual image when the object is placed

• A. At focus
• B. b+w principle focus and centre of curvature
• C. and b+..... be principle focus and Optical center✓
• D. Beyond 2f

Explanation: A convex lens can form both real and virtual images. When the object is placed beyond the focus, it forms a real and inverted image, and when it is placed between the focus and the optical center, it forms a virtual and erect image. When an object is placed in focus, a real image is formed at infinity. The size of the image is much larger than that of the object.

Q83. In SHM, the velocity is maximum.

• A. Extreme position
• B. Mean position✓
• C. In the middle
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In SHM, velocity is maximum at the mean position, which is why it moves toward the extreme position. Velocity at the mean position will be maximum.

Q84. Capacitance depends on:

• A. Density of wire
• B. Thickness of wire✓
• C. Resistance of wire
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Capacitance Depends on the Area, Thickness, and Dielectric Constant. Hence, Option B is correct.

Q85. The vector addition follows:

• A. Commutative law
• B. Associativo law
• C. Distributive law
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: The addition of vectors satisfies two important properties along with distributive law. Hence, all of the above options are true.

Q86. A current that flows from the high concentration towards a low concentration of the charge is called:

• A. Conventional current✓
• B. Electric Current
• C. Fluctuating Current
• D. Alternating Current

Explanation: Current that flows from positive terminal to the negative terminal is called conventional current.Positive terminal side is also called the terminal where there is a high concentration of charge.

Q87. ABA = BAB is according to which property?

• A. Closure property of multiplication
• B. Commutative property of multiplication✓
• C. Distributive property of multiplication.
• D. Associative property of multiplication

Explanation: The commutative property states that the numbers on which we operate can be moved or swapped from their position without making any difference to the answer, hence ABA is the same as BAB.The distributive property lets you multiply a sum by multiplying each addend separately and then add the products. The associative property states that you can add or multiply regardless of how the numbers are grouped. By 'grouped' we mean 'how you use parentheses'.The closure property means that a set is closed for some mathematical operation.

Q88. In x-ray Production L,M,N come into K the rays formed are:

• A. Lα, Lβ, Lµ✓
• B. Mα, Mβ, Mµ
• C. Nα, Nβ, Nµ
• D. Kα, Kβ, Kγ

Explanation: According to the diagram below answer is D.

Q89. A current of 3 Amp is passing through a galvanometer. If a high resistance is connected in series to it, the total current that will pass through the resistance will be?

• A. 6 Amp
• B. 1.5 Amp✓
• C. 3 Amp
• D. 4 Amp

Explanation: Current is always the same in the series circuit but attaching new resistance in a circuit would decrease current overall.By how much? This is for the amount of resistance to decide.Only option B has decreased current relative original current.

Q90. A massive ball collides with a light ball. What will be the velocity of the light ball after the collision?

• A. Doubled✓
• B. Halved
• C. It will remain stationary
• D. Lighter ball will rebound with double velocity

Explanation: There is a way to solve this question by deriving the whole equation which is not the smart way to solve questions in exam.Just use common sense,if a massive ball collides with a lighter ball obviously that ball will move at a higher velocity than the larger ball.Only option A has increased velocity,all other don’t.OR(if you are okay with this big derivation;this is how it will be:)Using the conservation of momentum and KE, the velocities of the balls after collision is derived.m1= mass of the 1st ballm2= mass of the 2nd ballv1= velocity of the 1st ball before collision=v;v2= velocity of the 2nd ball before collision=0m1>>m2;Substituting v1=v and v2=0,we get v2=2v.

Q91. Precise antonym:

• A. Concize
• B. Comprehensive
• C. Exaggerate✓
• D. Explanatory

Explanation: It's actually precise which means exact not exaggerated so antonym is exaggerated.

Q92. We heard on tv that the weather is not fine. We say that we should not go out? What must be changed in order to make the sentences correct?

• A. We in the first sentence
• B. We in the second sentence✓
• C. That the weather
• D. We should not go out

Explanation: We is replaced by it because they are talking about broadcast.

Q93. We have not to smoke because smoking can harm out lungs.

• A. Have not✓
• B. To smoke
• C. Smoking
• D. Can harm

Explanation: Correct statement is "we not have to smoke".

Q94. Many businessmen waste their time in checking their competitors businesses. Instead what they should do is try to improve their own style of working and bring the amendments that are required to make their business prosper.

• A. Businessmen need to look after their competitors business as well
• B. Many businessmen waste their time by poking into their competitors businesses
• C. Businessmen can improve their business by improving their business strategies✓
• D. Hard Work can make any business successful

Explanation: By reading the paragraph the only appropriate answer.

Q95. The reason they gave was — , and they explained it —

• A. Correct, correct
• B. Correct, correctly✓
• C. Correctly, correct
• D. Correctly, correctly

Explanation: Option B is correct because it maintains parallelism in the sentence. Parallelism is a grammatical principle where elements in a sentence that are similar in function should also be similar in grammatical form. In this case, the parallelism is between the two adverbs "Correct" and "correctly" that modify the verbs "gave" and "explained" respectively.

Q96. Monotonous Synonym:

• A. Limited✓
• B. Conclusive
• C. Extremist
• D. Repeatedly

Explanation: Option A, "Limited," is the correct synonym for "Monotonous." Monotonous refers to something that is repetitive and lacks variation, often causing boredom. "Limited" shares the idea of restriction or lack of diversity, aligning closely with the concept of monotony.

Q97. Intensive antonym:

• A. Casual✓
• B. Regressive
• C. Progressive
• D. Attentive

Explanation: Intensive means with high intensity so casual is opposite.

Q98. The word closest in meaning to competent is?

• A. Skillful: Having a set of skills required.✓
• B. Experienced: Having knowledge in a specific field gained over a period of time.
• C. Knowledgeable: Being well informed
• D. Dynamic: constant change or progress

Explanation: Competent means to possess sufficient skills for a task. Hence it shows that only skillful has the closest meaning to competent.

Q99. People get tensed during difficult situations. But this condition is not only with common people but also the very experienced psychologists get worried during the problems. The idea that the author is producing in this passage is?

• A. Everyone gets worried during their problems✓
• B. Even psychologists get worried during their personal problems
• C. Difficult situations are faced by everyone
• D. Common people face a lot of problems

Explanation: The author is talking about the stress felt by everyone and not talking specifically about psychologists only or common people but rather in general overall.

Q100. Synonym of the word Loathsome:

• A. Handsome
• B. Unpleasant✓
• C. Brilliant
• D. Compare

Explanation: Synonym means a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language. Loathsome means causing hatred or disgust,hence the option which fits perfectly with this word is Unpleasant.