Sindh Mcat Nts 2006 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Synonym for the word COMPRISE:

• A. Consists of✓
• B. Forms
• C. To agree
• D. Accumulate

Explanation: Comprise means to contain or to be made up of therefore “consists of” is the correct synonym for Comprise.

Q2. The correct antonym for the word Bliss:

• A. Happiness
• B. Misery✓
• C. Comfort
• D. Pleasure

Explanation: Antonyms mean the opposite of another word. Bliss means perfect happiness or joy. Thus, the opposite of bliss will be “ Misery “ which means unhappiness.

Q3. Choose the correct anytonym for EXHIBIT:

• A. Conceal✓
• B. Showy
• C. To sell
• D. Concieve

Explanation: Exhibit means to display and show. The opposite of exhibit would be hide or conceal thus option A is correct.

Q4. "Inflict pain" on others mean:

• A. To injure
• B. To harness
• C. Feeling pain✓
• D. Giving pain

Explanation: Feeling pain means a feeling of physical suffering caused by injury or illness. Hence, only option C is correct.

Q5. Which is a radioactive Halogen?

• A. I2
• B. Cl2
• C. Br2
• D. None✓

Explanation: Astatine is a radioactive halogen as all its isotopes have half-lives of 8.1 hours or less, decaying into other astatine isotopes, bismuth, polonium, or radon. Most of its isotopes are very unstable, with half-lives of one second or less. Other options are incorrect.

Q6. Which has highest K.E amongst following:

• A. H2
• B. O2✓
• C. CH4
• D. All of these

Explanation: Among the options you provided, O2 (oxygen molecule) has the highest energy per bond due to its double bond configuration.

Q7. Which is not a normal cracking phenomenon:

• A. Thermal Cracking
• B. Cataylatic Cracking
• C. Steam Cracking
• D. Normal Cracking✓

Explanation: Cracking is a reaction in which larger saturated hydrocarbon molecules are broken down into smaller, more useful hydrocarbon molecules, some of which are unsaturated: the original starting hydrocarbons are alkanes There are only four types of cracking which include; Thermal cracking, steam cracking, hydro cracking, and catalytic cracking.

Q8. What is the property of an oxidising agent?

• A. Electron gainer✓
• B. Electron donour
• C. Negative charge
• D. Loose hydrogen

Explanation: An oxidizing agent, or oxidant, gains electrons and is reduced in a chemical reaction. Also known as the electron acceptor, the oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will gain electrons and be reduced.

Q9. H2 + Br → 2HBr The expression rate is: RATE = K[ H2] [Br] 1/2 The order of the reaction is:

• A. 2
• B. 1.5✓
• C. 1
• D. Zero

Explanation: H2+ Br2 -> 2 HBR The order of a chemical reaction with respect to each reactant is defined as the exponent to which the concentration term of that reactant, in the rate law, is raised. for the order the reaction; Rate = K [H2] [Br]^½ Order of reaction = 1+ ½ Order of reaction = 3/2 Order of reaction = 1.5

Q10. The correct synonym for Loathsome:

• A. Handsome
• B. Unpleasant✓
• C. Brilliant
• D. Compare

Explanation: Synonym means a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language. Loathsome means causing hatred or disgust, hence the option which fits perfectly with this word is Unpleasant.

Q11. Different Food Chains interact with each other to form:

• A. Food Pyramid
• B. Energy Graph
• C. Food Web✓
• D. Energy Pyramid
• E. Food Chain Complex

Explanation: A food web is a group of food chains within an ecosystem, it is a network of food chains.

Q12. Physical basis of life is:

• A. Nucleotide and proteins
• B. Nucleus
• C. Cell
• D. Protoplasm✓

Explanation: Protoplasm is a physical basis of life composed of carbohydrates , protein , lipids , nucleic acid, and inorganic salts.

Q13. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum are involoved in:

• A. Protein Synthesis✓
• B. DNA Synthesis
• C. RNA Synthesis
• D. Protein Modifcation

Explanation: Protein synthesis is the process by which cells make proteins. It occurs in two stages: transcription and translation. The RER is associated with many protein synthesis roles, including post-translational modifications, folding, and sorting.

Q14. Many Ribosomes attached to Endoplasmic Reticulum form?

• A. Abnormal Function
• B. Polyribosomes✓
• C. Intense Protein Synthesis
• D. Cell becomes malignant

Explanation: Since many ribosomes can bind to a single mRNA molecule, a polyribosome is usually formed, which becomes attached to the ER membrane, directed there by the signal sequences on multiple growing polypeptide chains.Options A,C & D are incorrect.

Q15. In Earth Worms gaseous exhange occurs through:

• A. Lungs
• B. Skin✓
• C. Blood
• D. Nephridia

Explanation: Earthworms do not have specialized respiratory organs like we do; instead, they take in oxygen and expel carbon dioxide directly through their skin. Options A, C & D are incorrect.

Q16. Amoeba is:

• A. Acellular
• B. Prokaryote
• C. Multinucleated
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: lAmoeba is a unicellular organism that has the ability to change its shape. Amoebae are eukaryotic microorganisms of great diversity. They do not form a single taxonomic group and are found among the protozoa, fungi, and algae.

Q17. Nostoc contains the following except:

• A. Cellulose
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Golgi Apparatus✓
• D. Chloroplasts

Explanation: This is the only correct option because prokaryotic cells such as nostoc do not contain any membrane-bound organelles. These include the Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and lysosomes.

Q18. Mitochondria can be found in:

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Protozoans✓
• D. Nostoc
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Almost all protozoans contain double-membrane mitochondria as they are eukaryotic cells having a distinct nucleus as well as endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, mitochondria in the cytoplasm. Thus, only option C is correct.

Q19. Echinoderms have a brain:

• A. Well Developed
• B. Rudimentary
• C. Absent✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Echinoderms are marine invertebrates comprising starfish, brittle stars, sea cucumbers, sea urchins, and sea lilies. Animals in this phylum lack any centralized brain and instead possess a nerve ring that is present around the pharyngeal region. Therefore, options A, B, and D are not correct.

Q20. Male honey bees are?

• A. Diploid
• B. Haploid✓
• C. Triploid
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Female honey bees have a full complement of chromosomes (one set from each parent) and are diploid. Males, however, are formed from unfertilized eggs and are haploid; they contain only one copy of each chromosome. Thus only option B is correct.

Q21. Spores are:

• A. Diploid
• B. Haploid✓
• C. Triploid
• D. None of the above.

Explanation: The sporophyte is diploid, but the spores are haploid. The spores disperse and germinate into new gametophytes, repeating the process.

Q22. Most optimum environment for the growth of a fungus is:

• A. Dry
• B. Moist
• C. Shady
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include microorganisms such as yeasts, moulds, and mushrooms. These organisms are classified under kingdom fungi. Fungi require adequate temperature, nutrients, and moisture to grow . They also remain active and grow under extremely dry conditions. Fungi usually need dark and moist environments to thrive as higher temperatures and sunlight are fatal to them. Options A,B & C are incorrect

Q23. Maize Endosperm is:

• A. Diploid
• B. Haploid
• C. Triploid✓
• D. None of the above.

Explanation: The maize endosperm is generally described as having a triploid origin.

Q24. Which of the following have an edible seed coat?

• A. Guava
• B. Mango
• C. Pomogranate✓
• D. Watermelon

Explanation: Pomegranate has many seeds. Each seed is covered by a water-laden pulp, and the edible sarcotesta forms from the seed coat varying in colour from white to deep red or purple embedded in a white, spongy, astringent membrane. This seed coat is the edible part of a pomegranate. Options A,B & D are incorrect.

Q25. Malaria is caused by:

• A. Mosquito
• B. Virus
• C. Protozoa✓
• D. Bacteria

Explanation: Malaria is caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium.

Q26. Which of this is not a bacterial disease:

• A. Typhoid and T B
• B. Rabies and Polio✓
• C. Diptheria and Cholera
• D. Dysentra diarrhea

Explanation: Rabies and Polio both are viral diseases which are caused by Rhabdovirus and Poliovirus respectively.

Q27. How many mitotic divisions produce 12 cells?

• A. 3 Divisons
• B. 6 Divisons✓
• C. 4 Divisons
• D. 12 Divison

Explanation: 6 Divisions mitotic divisions produce 12 cells. In other words, all cells in a generation create twice as many daughter cells following each mitotic division cycle. Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are these stages.

Q28. Chloroplast can be traced in:

• A. Root
• B. Stem
• C. Leaf✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Chloroplasts are plant cell organelles that convert light energy into relatively stable chemical energy via the photosynthetic process. Chloroplast are found in all green plants and algae. They are the food producers of the cell. Hence only option C is correct.

Q29. Guttation is due to:

• A. High Transpiration
• B. Low Relative Humidity
• C. Negative Root Pressure
• D. Positive Root Pressure✓

Explanation: The loss of water as droplets from the margin or tip of leaves of some plants is known as guttation. It takes place through small stomata-like pores called hydathodes. It is mainly due to positive root pressure which causes a positive pressure to be formed in the xylem, causing the guttation process to occur.

Q30. When your hand touches a hot body, what step is taken by a stimulus to withdraw your hand?

• A. Sensory Neurons → Spinal Cord → Brain → Muscle
• B. Sensory Neurons → Spinal Cord → Muscle✓
• C. Sensory Neurons → Brain → Spinal Cord → Motor Neuron
• D. Hot Object → Spinal Cord → Hand

Explanation: The pathway followed when our hand touches a hot body and then withdrawal takes place is ; Sensory neurons -> Spinal cord -> Muscle The hand taken back immediately after touching a hit object is called reflex action, which is an immediate , automatic, and involuntary response to external and internal environment changes When we touch a hot object, the sense organs feel the temperature, and the hand is withdrawn. The stimulus is carried to the brain by the sensory neuron while it is carried back to effector organs by motor neurons. Thus, only option B is correct.

Q31. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. Which Blood group is their child most likely to have?

• A. A and B
• B. B and AB
• C. A and AB
• D. A, B, AB or O✓

Explanation: Consider the parents have heterozygous alleles. The father with A blood group has the genotype IAi and the mother with B blood group has the genotype IBi. The cross would be ; Thus A, B, AB, and O are the possible blood groups of offspring when a man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with blood group 'B'.

Q32. In a population, 36% of people have "Blue Eyes."Allele frequency for Blue Eyes is?

• A. 36%✓
• B. 40%
• C. 60%
• D. 64%

Explanation: Allele frequency refers to how common an allele is in a population. It is determined by counting how many times the allele appears in the population and then dividing by the total number of copies of the gene. If both parents have blue eyes, the children will also have blue eyes, and since the blue eye allele is recessive, the allele frequency for blue eyes will be 36%. Hence, options B, C & D are incorrect.

Q33. Which of the following is not a requirment for seed germination?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Water
• C. Abscisic acid✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: This is the only correct option because Abscisic acid (ABA) is an essential repressor of seed germination. The plant hormone gibberellins are necessary for seed germination. All seeds need water, oxygen, and proper temperature in order to germinate. Some seeds require proper light also. Some germinate better in full light while others require darkness to germinate.

Q34. Reduction division in Meiosis is:

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Anaphase I✓
• C. Diakinesis
• D. Diplotene

Explanation: Anaphase I, the homologous sister chromatids, pull apart and then enter into the telophase I stage where two new daughter cells are created. In Meiosis I, the homologous chromosome segregates at the anaphase I stage, and that's why it is called reductional division. As each pole receives half of the total number of chromosomes , it's called a reduction phase.

Q35. Where was life evolved first:

• A. On Earth
• B. In Water✓
• C. In the Sky
• D. On the hills

Explanation: Life is believed to have originated in sea water because sea water contained all the essential elements that were required for the origin of first life. Secondly, at the time of origin of life, the ozone layer was not formed, so terrestrial origin of life was not feasible. Hence options A, C & D are incorrect.

Q36. The _ structure was propsosed first by Robertson:

• A. Cellulo Protein✓
• B. Star Protein
• C. Cyto Protein
• D. Lipo Protein

Explanation: The unit membrane model was given by Robertson in 1959. According to this model, plasma membrane has a trilaminar structure in which transparent lipid bilayer is surrounded on either side by dense proteins with a difference in type for the outer and inner side. Therefore other options are incorrect.

Q37. Enzymes associated with Kreb's cycle are found in?

• A. Outer layer of Mitochondrion
• B. Inner layer of Mitochondrion
• C. Inner membrane space of Mitochondrion
• D. Matrix of Mitochondrion✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer because The Krebs cycle enzymes are membrane proteins found within the matrix of the mitochondria except for succinate dehydrogenase which is an integral membrane protein locked to the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Q38. Xanthophyl is a pigment having?

• A. Yellow color✓
• B. Red color
• C. Green Color
• D. Blue color

Explanation: Xanthophylls are yellow pigments that are one of the important divisions of the carotenoid group.

Q39. Outer membrane of Mitochondrion and Endoplasmic Reticulum are similar in having?

• A. Similiar structures and constituents substance✓
• B. The enzyme monamine oxidase
• C. The enzyme NADH cytochrome reductase
• D. Identical Metabolic Function

Explanation: The outer membrane of mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum have similar structure and constitute substances. They both are tubular organelles with a network structure that ease the formation of inter organellar connections. Therefore only option A is correct.

Q40. There are different types of Chlorophyll such as: Chlorophyll A , and:

• A. B, C, D and E
• B. B✓
• C. Xantnophyll
• D. Only C

Explanation: There are four main types of chlorophyll (i.e. chlorophyll a,b,c,d) Chlorophyll a is found in higher plants , algae, and Cyanobacteria, and chlorophyll b is found in higher plants and algae. Absorption spectra of the chlorophyll a and b pigments in the visible light range, measured in a solvent. Both types barely absorb green light. Chlorophyll c is found in diatoms and brown algae. Chlorophyll d is found in red algae Hence, the other options are incorrect.

Q41. Which has hign M.P and B.P amongst VI-A given:

• A. Po
• B. Te✓
• C. Se
• D. S

Explanation: Group 6A (or VIA) of the periodic table are the chalcogens: the nonmetals oxygen (O), sulfur (S), and selenium (Se), the metalloid tellurium (Te), and the metal polonium (Po). As we go down the group the melting point increases for the group as metallic character increases. But Te has the highest melting point which is 449.5 degree C due to less shielding of its electrons and more packed solid structure. It also has the highest boiling point which is 987 degree C.

Q42. Which is a radioactive Halogen?

• A. I2
• B. Cl2
• C. Br2
• D. None✓

Explanation: Astatine is the radioactive halogen as all its isotopes have half-lives of 8.1 hours or less, decaying into other astatine isotopes, bismuth, polonium, or radon. Most of its isotopes are very unstable, with half-lives of one second or less. Other options are incorrect.

Q43. Which has highest K.E amongst following

• A. H2
• B. O2
• C. CH4
• D. All of these.✓

Explanation: Since the average kinetic energy depends only on temperature so both H2 and CH4 will have the same average kinetic energy and the required ratio will be 1:1. As the temperature of both gases is the same. Therefore, the average kinetic energy of O2 and H2 is the same. Since all of the following gases have high and same kinetic energy, options A, B & C are incorrect.

Q44. Which is not a normal cracking phenomenon:

• A. Thermal Cracking
• B. Catayalic Cracking
• C. Steam Cracking
• D. Normal Cracking✓

Explanation: Cracking is a reaction in which larger saturated hydrocarbon molecules are broken down into smaller, more useful hydrocarbon molecules, some of which are unsaturated: the original starting hydrocarbons are alkanes There are only four types of cracking which includes; Thermal cracking , steam cracking , hydro cracking and catalytic cracking.

Q45. What is the property of an oxidising agent?

• A. Electron gainer✓
• B. Electron donor
• C. Negative charge
• D. Lose hydrogen

Explanation: An oxidizing agent, or oxidant, gains electrons and is reduced in a chemical reaction. Also known as the electron acceptor, the oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will gain electrons and be reduced.

Q46. H2 + Br → 2HBr The expression rate is: RATE = K[ H2] [Br] 1/2 The order of the reaction is:

• A. 2
• B. 1.5✓
• C. 1
• D. Zero

Explanation: H2+ Br2 -> 2 HBR The order of a chemical reaction with respect to each reactant is defined as the exponent to which the concentration term of that reactant, in the rate law, is raised. for the order the reaction; Rate = K [H2] [Br]^½ Order of reaction = 1+ ½ Order of reaction = 3/2 Order of reaction = 1.5 Mathematically other options are incorrect.

Q47. What is not a nucleophile?

• A. H20
• B. H2S
• C. BF3✓
• D. NH3
• E. All of these

Explanation: BF3 is electron deficient compound. It does not have lone pair of electrons to donate. So it is not nucleophilic. On the other hand , H2O, H2S and NH3 are nucleophiles as they are electron pair donors. (Fact)

Q48. Which alcohol can form a ketone?

• A. Primary alcohol
• B. Secondary alcohol✓
• C. Tertiary alcohol
• D. Methanol
• E. None of these

Explanation: Secondary alcohols are oxidized to produce ketones, while primary alcohols give aldehydes, and tertiary alcohols are usually not affected by oxidations.

Q49. Which is not an allotrope of carbon?

• A. Diamond
• B. Coke
• C. Methane✓
• D. Graphite

Explanation: Methane is not an allotrope of carbon. It is a hydrocarbon compound with the formula CH4. An allotrope can not be a compound, and hence, methane is the right answer. However , diamond , Coke, and graphite are allotropes of carbon (Fact)

Q50. What are the raw materials in the formation of urea?

• A. Steam, Methane and Ammonia
• B. Steam and Ammonia
• C. Methane and Steam
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: For use in industry, urea is produced from synthetic ammonia and carbon dioxide. As large quantities of carbon dioxide are produced during the ammonia manufacturing process as a by-product from hydrocarbons (predominantly natural gas, less often petroleum derivatives), or occasionally from coal, urea production plants are almost always located adjacent to the site where the ammonia is manufactured Hence, the other options are incorrect.

Q51. In a reactor: NO + O2 → NO3 + Heat Le Chattlier's Principle can be favored by:

• A. High Pressure ------- High Temperature
• B. High Pressure -------- Low Temperature✓
• C. Low Pressure --------- Low Temperature
• D. Low Pressure -------- High Temperature

Explanation: Le Chatelier's Principle states that if you disturb a system in equilibrium, it will shift its position to counteract that disturbance. In the given reaction:NO + O2 ⇌ NO3 + HeatTo favor the formation of NO3, you can apply Le Chatelier's Principle by:Increasing pressure: This would favor the side with fewer moles of gas, which is the left side (NO + O2). As a result, it promotes the formation of NO3.Lowering temperature: Lowering the temperature favors the exothermic direction (the right side with the "Heat" term), which is the formation of NO3.

Q52. The compounds which appose enzyme activity are:

• A. Co-Enzymes
• B. Catalysts
• C. Inhibitors✓
• D. Negative Enzymes
• E. C and D

Explanation: An enzyme inhibitor is a molecule that binds to an enzyme and blocks its activity.

Q53. Decaying of a metal due to interaction with it's surroundings is called:

• A. Radioactivity
• B. Corrosion✓
• C. Alloying
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Corrosion is the process of decay on a material caused by a chemical reaction to its environment. The reaction is typically in the form of oxidation.

Q54. 18g of glucose in 1000 gm of solution of glucose. The molar concentration of glucose is?

• A. 1M
• B. 0.1M✓
• C. 0.02M
• D. 2M

Explanation: Glucose mass=18g Molar mass of glucose =180 g/mol Molarity = 18/ 180 x 1000/1000 = 1/10 Molar concentration of glucose = 0.1 M Mathematically, other options are incorrect

Q55. 1 gm of Hydrogen contains, how many numbers of molecules?

• A. 6.02 x 1023 molecules
• B. 3.01 x 1023 molecules✓
• C. 0 molecules
• D. 1.04 x 1023 molecules

Explanation: Since hydrogen is a diatomic molecule, its atoms are found in pairs. ∴ 3. 02 × 1023 molecules are present in one gram or one mole of hydrogen. (Fact)

Q56. Alkanes are also known as:

• A. Saturated Hydrocarbons
• B. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
• C. Parrafins
• D. Both A and C✓

Explanation: A saturated hydrocarbon is a hydrocarbon in which all the carbon-carbon bonds are single bonds. Therefore, alkanes are also called saturates or saturated hydrocarbons. Alkanes are called paraffins because they have a little affinity towards a general reagent. In other words, alkanes are inert substances. They undergo reactions under drastic conditions.

Q57. Isotopes differ in:

• A. Proton Number
• B. Neutron Number✓
• C. Atomic Number
• D. Electron Number

Explanation: Isotopes are members of a family of an element that all have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.

Q58. Benzene doesn't show any of the following:

• A. Oxidation
• B. Addition✓
• C. Elimination
• D. Substiution

Explanation: There is no such evidence of elimination reaction in Benzene since it completely destroys the stability of Benzene. Hence, only option C is correct.

Q59. Noble gases have electronic configuration of:

• A. ns2 np4
• B. ns1 np6
• C. ns2 np6✓
• D. ns np

Explanation: Noble gases are present in the last column of the periodic table, which is group 18. They are inert in nature due to their completely filled octet Noble gases have electronic configuration ns2 np6 in their outer most orbit. (Fact)

Q60. Which of the followings are electropositve elements?

• A. Alkali Metals
• B. Alkaline Earth Metals
• C. Halogens
• D. Both 'A' and 'B'✓

Explanation: Electropositive elements are those elements whose electrode potential is more positive than that of a standard hydrogen electrode which is assigned an arbitrary value of zero. Both Alkali and Alkaline earth metals are electro positive elements.

Q61. The ore of aluminium is?

• A. Pyrite
• B. Bauxite✓
• C. Galena
• D. Azurite

Explanation: Bauxite is the most common aluminum ore. Approximately 98% of primary aluminum production is based on bauxite. Thus only option B is correct.

Q62. The correct sequence of high power vapour pressure is:

• A. Water > Ethanol > Acetone > Ether
• B. Ether > Acetone > Ethanol > Water✓
• C. Ether > Ethanol > Acetone > Water
• D. Water > Ethanol > Acetone > Ether

Explanation: Higher the boiling point lower will be the vapour pressure. The lowest boiling point will have high power vapour pressure Ether > Acetone > Ethanol > Water Boiling points = 34.6 > 56> 78.37> 100 (Fact)

Q63. Boric Acid cannot be used as:

• A. Antiseptic
• B. Eye Washer
• C. Soda Bottle Formula✓
• D. Glazing tiles and Ceramics

Explanation: Boric acid cannot be used as Soda bottle formula. Options A,B&D are uses of boric acid

Q64. At constant temperature the volume of the gas i s 95cm3 at a pressure of 9.961 x104 N/m. What would its volume be at 10.13 x 104 N/m?

• A. 1 cm3
• B. 94 cm3
• C. 93 cm3✓
• D. 10 cm3

Explanation: Formula used : P1V1 = P2V2 Where , P1= 9.961 x 10⁴ N/m² P2 = 10.13 x 10⁴ N/m² V1 = 95 cm³ V2 = ? Th, s the equation becomes , = (9.961 x 10⁴ ) x 95 / (10.13 x 10⁴) = 9.961 x 95 / 10.13 = 93 cm³ Mathematical, y other options are incorrect.

Q65. Which of the following are a water soluble vitamin?

• A. Biotin✓
• B. Vit A
• C. Vit D
• D. Vit K

Explanation: Biotin is often recommended for strengthening hair and nails, and it's found in many cosmetic products for hair and skin. Like all B vitamins, it is a water soluble, meaning the body does not store in it. Whereas Vitamin A, D & K are Fat soluble vitamins (Fact)

Q66. Honey is a mixture of _?

• A. Glusocse + Fructose✓
• B. Vitamins
• C. Mineral
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Honey is a natural mixture of 40% fructose and 30% glucose along with some oligosaccharides, proteins, vitamins and minerals.

Q67. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of two gases is 1:3, the ratio of their molecular w is:

• A. 1:0
• B. 3:1
• C. 1.9
• D. 9:1✓

Explanation: The mathematical relation between the rate of diffusion and the density ρ of the given gas is: Rate ∝ 1/√ρ The given ratio of the rate of diffusion of the gases is Rate 1 / Rate 2 = ⅓ ( eq1) According to the modified ideal gas equation (PM=ρRT) we have , M∝ρ Substituting the values we get Rate ∝ 1/ √ρ we get , Rate ∝ 1/ √M Squaring both sides, we get Rate ²= 1/M From equation 1, we have, (Rate1)² / (Rate2)² = M2/M1 (Rate 1/Rate2)² = M2/M1 Now , according to the given ratio (⅓)² = M2/M1 1/9 = M2/M1 M1/M2 = 9/1 Ratio of molecular weight = 9:1 Mathematically, other options are incorrect

Q68. Which of the following has the most polar character:

• A. C-O
• B. C-F✓
• C. C-Br
• D. C-S

Explanation: As fluorine has high electronegativity compared to other atoms, thus C−F bond is most polar. Electronegativity order = F>O>N>Cl (Fact)

Q69. Point the incorrect statement in case of equillibrium state:

• A. It is dynamic in nature
• B. It readjusts itself in changing conditions
• C. It can be attained from the side of reactants only.✓
• D. It can be attained from either side of the reaction

Explanation: Chemical equilibrium can be obtained from either side, the reactants and products both and not only the reactants side. Thus, option C is incorrect, and Options A, B & D are correct for equilibrium state.

Q70. A catalyst can't initiate the reaction but speeds up a reaction which is?

• A. Physically
• B. Thermodynamically
• C. Chemically✓
• D. In a laboratory

Explanation: A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction by providing an alternative reaction mechanism of lower activation energy but not getting consumed by the reaction. It also does not change the heat absorbed or liberated in the reaction as well as the rate constant. Thus, other options are incorrect.

Q71. Special theory of relativity solves problems with?

• A. Inertial Frame✓
• B. Accelerating Frame
• C. Both
• D. None

Explanation: Special theory of relativity solves problems with inertial frame of reference only.

Q72. Object displaced from 5m height reaches the ground at a distance of 10m. What is it's final velocity?

• A. 10 m/s
• B. 10 √2 m/s✓
• C. 20 m/s
• D. 20 √2 m/s

Explanation: S= Vit+ ½ gt² Where , S= 10 m Vi= 0m/s Therefore, the equation becomes , 10 = (0)t + ½ x 10t² 10x2 = 10t² t² = 20/10 = √2 To find the final velocity (Vf), we will use the formula ; Vf= Vi + at , here (a=g) Vf = (0) + (10) √2 Vf = 10√2 Mathematically, other options are incorrect.

Q73. Temperature of a gas is diretionally proportional to?

• A. Vibrational K.E of molecules
• B. Rational K.E of molecules
• C. Angular transitional K.E of molecules
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: Temperature is not directly proportional to Vibrational, Rotational, and Angular translational KE of molecules, but instead, the average kinetic energy of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature When the temperature increases, the speed at which the gas molecules move also increases. Lighter gas molecules move faster than the heavier molecules.

Q74. Gamma-rays are:

• A. Longitudinal Waves
• B. Transverse Waves✓
• C. Mechanical Waves
• D. None

Explanation: This is the correct answer because the gamma wave and light wave which are electromagnetic waves and follow the transverse motion. Hence, only sound waves have the characteristic of longitudinal motion.

Q75. In electrostatics, Newton's Laws are:

• A. All applicable✓
• B. 1st Law is not applicable
• C. 2nd Law is not applicable
• D. 3rd Law is not applicable

Explanation: Electrostatics is a branch of physics that deals with the phenomena and properties of stationary or slow-moving electric charges In Electrostatics, all three laws of Newton are applicable. Newton's 1st law states that the object will not change its motion until an external force is applied. This law is called the Law of Inertia. This law is applicable in electrostatics as a charged object will not move and will remain at rest until any external force acts on it Newton’s 2nd law states that the force acting on the body is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration. This law is applicable in electrostatics because the net force acting on the body is directly proportional to the magnitude of charges and inversely proportional to the square of distance between them. Newton’s 3rd Law states that for every action there’s an equal and opposite reaction. This law is applicable as force between two charges is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction

Q76. What angle would it require to have for vectors of the same length to achieve a resultant of twice the amount in either.

• A. 30°
• B. 0°✓
• C. 60°
• D. 45°

Explanation: Both the vectors must be parallel when the resultant is twice either. Therefore, the angle must be zero. At 120 degrees, the two vectors are equal to their magnitude. Hence, only option B is correct.

Q77. When we move from a pole to the equator, the weight of the body:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remains the same
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity decreases from poles to the equator. Hence, when a body is taken from poles to the equator on the earth, its weight decreases.

Q78. Loudness of a sound is?

• A. Inversely proprotional to amplitude
• B. Directly proportional to amplitude✓
• C. Inversely proportional to frequency
• D. Directly porportional to frequency

Explanation: The loudness of a sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude. The larger the amplitude, the louder the sound. Therefore, all the other options are incorrect

Q79. In Newton's Rings Experiment the width of the air film:

• A. Gradually increases✓
• B. Gradually decreases
• C. Suddenly increases
• D. Suddenly decreases

Explanation: Newton's rings, in optics, a series of concentric light - and dark-coloured bands observed between two pieces of glass when one is convex and rests on its convex side on another piece having a flat surface. The width of the air film gradually increased. The thickness of the air film is zero at the point of contact and gradually increases. Hence, only option A is correct.

Q80. An object from a bridge falls, at the end of the 3rd second of motion its velocity is:

• A. 2 m/s
• B. 10000 mm/s
• C. 3000 cm/s✓
• D. 10 m/s

Explanation: Time = t = 3s Acceleration due to gravity = g = 10 m/s^2 Since the rock is dropped, hence its initial speed (u) would be zero. Let the speed of the rock after 3 s be v. From the kinematic equation, v = u + gt Plugging in values, v = 0+ 10 x 3 v = 30 m/ s We know that 1m = 100 cm Thus , v= 3000 cm/s Mathematically, other options are incorrect.

Q81. Induced e.m.f is directionally proportional to?

• A. Change in e.m.f
• B. Change in inertial flux
• C. Rate of change of flux✓
• D. Both 'A' and 'B'
• E. None of the above

Explanation: The emf induced in a circuit is directly proportional to the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit. Therefore, options A, B, and D are not correct.

Q82. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction is?

• A. Δ Φ / Δ t
• B. N Δ Φ / Δ t
• C. -N Δ Φ / Δ t✓
• D. -N Δ Φ / t

Explanation: E = -N(ΔQ/Δt) E=induced voltage N=number of loops ΔQ=change in magnetic flux Δt =change in time Negative sign is very important as it has to do with the direction of induced emf (Fact)

Q83. A/C current can be produced by:

• A. Turbine
• B. Motor
• C. Generator✓
• D. Transformer
• E. None

Explanation: Generator is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy for use in external circuits. The rotor generates a moving magnetic field around the stator, which induces a voltage difference between the windings of the stator. This produces the alternating current (AC) output of the generator. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Q84. The graph formed by Ohm's law is:

• A. A straight line✓
• B. Parabola
• C. Hyperbola
• D. Sigmoid

Explanation: If the resistor obeys Ohm's law, the ratio of the voltage and current remains the same, and the graph would be a straight line. If the current is on the x-axis and the voltage on the y-axis, the slope of the line is equal to R. Thus, options B, C & D are incorrect.

Q85. Red cloth seems red because:

• A. It absorbs red light
• B. It reflects red light✓
• C. It absorbs white light
• D. Annuls red light

Explanation: The colours we see are the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted. Red light is the only light that is reflected from the shirt. Thus, red objects reflect red light. Hence, only option B is correct.

Q86. 1st Law of thermodynamics can be given by:

• A. ΔE = θ + AW
• B. ΔH = E
• C. ΔQ= AE
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is given as ΔU = q - ΔW Where , ΔU = change in internal energy q = heat Δ W= work done (Fact)

Q87. Two vectors A and B make an angle θ between them, the projection of B and A can be given as:

• A. A cos9
• B. A|B/A
• C. A|B/θ
• D. Bcosθ✓

Explanation: The projection of B onto A is just a vector in the direction of a that has this magnitude. So, the component of b along a is just the length of the vector we've labelled projab in the figure to the right below. The easiest way to find this is to use trig: |projab| = |b| cosθ Where as |a| cos θ will be the projection of A on B. Hence, only option D is correct.

Q88. If 42 J heat is supplied to a system and work done by the system is 32 J. What is the change in thermal energy?

• A. 1 J
• B. 70 J
• C. 10 J✓
• D. 8 J

Explanation: The equation of the first law of thermodynamics is ΔU = q + W Where , ΔU = change in internal energy q= heat = 42J ( it will be positive as the heat is supplied to the system ) W = work done = -32J ( it will be taken negative as work is done by the system ) By substituting the values we get , ΔU = 42 + (-32) ΔU = 42-32 ΔU = 10 J Mathematically, other options are incorrect.

Q89. The unit of angular acceleration is:

• A. Radian s-1
• B. Radian-3 s-1
• C. Radian s-2✓
• D. Radian

Explanation: Unit of angular acceleration is = rad/s^2 ; radian ^-2.

Q90. Which of the following quantities have the same dimensions ? I)Power II) Energy III) Torque

• A. I and II
• B. I and III
• C. II and III✓
• D. I, II and III

Explanation: Energy and torque have the same dimensions, which are ML^2T^-2 Whereas Power has the dimension , ML^2T^-3 For torque : T= Fxd = newton meter T = ML^2T^-2 For energy or work W= F.d = newton meter W = ML^2T^-2

Q91. If A B = 0, we conclude that;

• A. Either of the two vectors is a null.
• B. Both of the vectors are null.
• C. The vectors are mutually perpendicular
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Option D is correct because all of the mentioned statements are correct regarding the conclusion of AB=0. A null vector is a directionless vector whose magnitude is zero. Thus, when the dot product of A&B is zero, then both of them are null vectors. Similarly, when the dot or cross product of two vectors is zero, then both of them are mutually perpendicular to each other. Hence, options A, B, and C are incorrect.

Q92. The scalar product of two vectors A and B at an angle θ with each other is:

• A. A B sin θ
• B. AB
• C. AB cosθ✓
• D. AB secθ

Explanation: The scalar product of two vectors a and b of magnitude |a| and |b| is given as |a||b| cos θ, where θ represents the angle between the vectors a and b taken in the direction of the vectors. Hence, only option C is correct.

Q93. The cross product of a vector a with itself (A x A) is equal to:

• A. A
• B. 1
• C. 2A
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: The cross product of a vector with itself is a null vector, which is equal to zero. (fact)

Q94. Which of the following obeys Boyle's Law?

• A. Isothermal✓
• B. Isochoric
• C. Adiabatic
• D. Nonadiabatic

Explanation: Boyle's law states that the product of pressure and volume is a constant for a given mass of confined gas as long as the temperature is constant. When gas expands or compresses isothermally, the product of its pressure and volume remains constant Therefore, isothermal processes obey Boyle's law. An isothermal process is one that maintains a constant temperature.

Q95. Charge on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor is 6uC and capacitance is 4uf. What is the potential difference between plates?

• A. 2.5 Coulomb
• B. 3.8 Farad
• C. 1.8 Volt
• D. 1.5 Volt✓
• E. 3.5 Joule

Explanation: The amount of charge that moves into the plates depends upon the capacitance and the applied voltage according to the formula Q=CV, where Q is the charge in Coulombs, C is the capacitance in Farads, and V is the potential difference between the plates in volts. Here , Q= 6uC = 6x10^-6 C C = 4uF = 4x10^-6 F Formula: V = Q/C V = 6x10^-6 / 4x10^-6 V = 1.5 Volt Mathematically other options are incorrect.

Q96. Lenz Law is in accordance with law of conservation of:

• A. Momentum
• B. Charge
• C. Angular Momentum
• D. Energy✓
• E. Mass

Explanation: Lenz's law is based on the law of conservation of energy. From the definition of Lenz's law, we know that the induced current is always opposed by the cause that produces it. Therefore, there is extra work done against the opposing force.

Q97. Which of the following purpose is served by the transformer?

• A. Converts allternating current into direct current
• B. converts direct current into allternating current
• C. Changes the voltage of A/C✓
• D. Decreased the power supply
• E. Increase the power supply

Explanation: A transformer is an electrical device that uses electromagnetic induction to pass an alternating current (AC) signal from one electric circuit to another, often changing the voltage and electric current. It can convert between high and low voltages, but not between AC and DC.

Q98. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in perspective to modern physics?

• A. Energy has inertia
• B. Time dilation phenomenon does not occur in daily life
• C. Light is electromagnetic radiation
• D. Universe is continiously contracting.✓

Explanation: "Universe is continuously contracting" is incorrect because it is not in the perspective of modern physics The other options are the correct statements in perspective of modern physics.

Q99. Visible spectrum of light lies in:

• A. Paschen series
• B. Balmer series✓
• C. Lyman series
• D. Brackett series
• E. Pfund series

Explanation: Balmer series lies in the visible light region, whereas; OPTION A : Paschen series lies in Infrared region OPTION C : Lyman series lies in Ultraviolet region OPTION D : Brackett series lies in Infrared region OPTION E : Pfund series lies in Infrared region

Q100. In which do we add more impurity in transistor?

• A. Base
• B. Emitter✓
• C. Collector
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The transistor has three regions, namely emitter, base, and collector. The emitter is heavily doped so that it can inject a large number of charge carriers (electrons or holes) into the base. The emitter junction is forward biased. Therefore, emitter has the largest impurities.