Sindh Mcat Nts 2009 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. It is of course a trifle absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the work and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilisations of Christened, and there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, not an endeavour after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not thinking only of politics, but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. NO great civilisation has ever been cosmopolitan. In the view of the author, what is the harm of cultural uniformity?

• A. It will not lead to the formation of a great civilisation✓
• B. It will lead to the formation of a great civilisation
• C. It will lead to the formation of a rich culture
• D. It will lead to the change of environment
• E. It will lead to the destruction of values

Explanation: Read the passage to answer Option A: The last two sentences state so. Option B: Not mentioned in the passage. Option C: Not mentioned in the passage. Option D: Not mentioned in the passage. Option E: Not mentioned in the passage.

Q2. It is of course a trifle absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the work and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilisations of Christened, and there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, not an endeavour after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not thinking only of politics, but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. NO great civilisation has ever been cosmopolitan. The author is in favour of:

• A. Cultural uniformity
• B. Cosmopolitism
• C. Political and cultural independence✓
• D. Unity of Asia
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Option A: Against cultural uniformity. Option B: Mentions that there is no great cosmopolitan civilization. Option C: Talks about political and cultural independence. Option D: Talks about the difference. Option E: C is the answer.

Q3. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below each: Nearly everyone dreams of building _ ideal house.

• A. Its
• B. Their✓
• C. His
• D. Him
• E. Them

Explanation: Option A: “Everyone” is not referred to as an object Option B: 'Their' represents everyone. Option C: 'His' talks about one specific person. Option D: 'Him' shows belonging. Option E: 'Them' also shows belonging.

Q4. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below each: Life _ water, light, a moderate temperature and a variety of chemical elements.

• A. Finds
• B. Reveals
• C. Designs
• D. Calculates
• E. Requires✓

Explanation: Option A: This option is incorrect. Option B: This option is incorrect. Option C: Life is not capable of designing. Option D: Life is not capable of calculating. Option E: For life, water, light, a moderate temperature and a variety of chemical elements are required.

Q5. Identify the word or the phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: The stories that she makes for her children ought to be written down as published.

Q6. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalised one. DISRUPTION

• A. Comfort
• B. Luxury
• C. Trouble✓
• D. Freedom
• E. Calm

Explanation: Problems which interrupt an event, activity, or process. Option A: Disruption is negative, comfort is positive. Option B: Luxury is comfort. Option C: Trouble and disruption are negative. Option D: Freedom is positive Option E: Calm positive and opposite to disruption.

Q7. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalised one. INEVITABLE

• A. Doubtful
• B. Deny
• C. Unexpected
• D. Certain✓
• E. Unusual

Explanation: Certain to happen; unavoidable.

Q8. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letter ERADICATION

• A. Suppression
• B. Termination
• C. Control
• D. Establish✓
• E. Extinction

Explanation: To remove something.

Q9. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letter INTERRUPTION

• A. Break
• B. Continuity✓
• C. Injury
• D. Difference
• E. Crack

Explanation: The action of interrupting or being interrupted.

Q10. The muscles attached to the bones are:

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Muscles attached to the bones are called skeletal muscles. Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated.

Q11. The law of Dominance is illustrated in green pea by:

• A. Homozygous Tall x Heterozygous Tall
• B. Heterozygous Tall x Heterozygous Tall
• C. Homozygous Tall x Homozygous Tall
• D. Pure short x Pure short
• E. Homozygous Tall x Pure short✓

Explanation: The law of dominance cross in green pea is performed between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive.

Q12. In the Hardy-Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, q2 is the frequency of the:

• A. Homozygous dominant
• B. Heterozygous dominant
• C. Heterozygous recessive
• D. Homozygous recessive✓
• E. Standard genes

Explanation: In the Hardy-Weinberg principle, p2 is homozygous dominant, 2pq is heterozygous and q2 is homozygous recessive.

Q13. Fungi do not contain:

• A. Cell wall
• B. Hyphae
• C. Chlorophyll✓
• D. Mycelium
• E. Spores

Explanation: Unlike plant cells, fungal cells do not have chloroplasts or chlorophyll. Many fungi display bright colors arising from other cellular pigments, ranging from red to green to black.

Q14. Identify the incorrect statement about Charles Darwin’s Theory:

• A. The individuals of species have variation among them
• B. There is always a tendency of overproduction in a species
• C. Vast gradual changes result in the origin of a new species
• D. Favourable variations survive and unfavourable will be terminated
• E. Intraspecific competition occurs between different species and interspecific competition occurs among the individuals in a species✓

Explanation: Theory in biology postulates that the various types of plants, animals, and other living things on Earth have their origin in other preexisting types and that the distinguishable differences are due to modifications in successive generations.

Q15. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

• A. Apical growth increases the length of stems and roots.
• B. Xylem is situated on the outer side of the cambium ring and phloem is situated on the inner side✓
• C. Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and root.
• D. The cells in elongation phase don't divide.
• E. The cells in formative regions are closely packed together.

Explanation: A plant grows new tissue from an apical meristem in apical growth which increases the length of stems and roots

Q16. According to _, protein layers are not confined to the surface of the membrane but embedded in lipid layers.

• A. Lock and Key model
• B. Induced fit model
• C. Fluid Mosaic model✓
• D. Lotka Volterra model
• E. All of the above

Explanation: The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a tapestry of several types of molecules (phospholipids, cholesterols, and proteins) that are constantly moving.

Q17. In a typical nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to _ carbon of pentose sugar.

• A. 6th
• B. 5th
• C. 4th
• D. 3rd
• E. 1st✓

Explanation: A nucleotide consists of a sugar molecule (either ribose in RNA or deoxyribose in DNA) attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base.

Q18. Binomial nomenclature was first proposed by:

• A. Charles Darwin (1859)
• B. Rudolph Virchow (1855)
• C. Louis Pateur (1862)
• D. Carolus Linnaeus (1707)✓
• E. Robert Brown (1773)

Explanation: The system of nomenclature in which two terms are used to denote a species of a living organism, the first one indicating the genus and the second the specific epithet.

Q19. _ causes amoebic dysentery in humans.

• A. Pelomyxa palustris
• B. Entamoeba histolytica✓
• C. Trichonympha
• D. Trypanosoma
• E. Radiolarian ooze

Explanation: An amebic dysentery is a severe form of amebiasis associated with stomach pain, bloody stools (poop), and fever.

Q20. The main process that occurs in the dark reaction in photosynthesis is:

• A. That water is split.
• B. Light energy is converted into chemical energy.
• C. That glucose is oxidized.
• D. That carbon-dioxide is fixed.✓
• E. None of the above.

Explanation: The main process that occurs in the dark reaction (also known as the Calvin Cycle) in photosynthesis is the synthesis of glucose. The dark reaction takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts and does not directly require light. It follows the light-dependent reactions (such as photosystem I and II) that capture and convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). In the Calvin Cycle, the primary goal is to use the ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose. The key steps of the Calvin Cycle include carbon fixation, reduction, and regeneration of the starting molecule (RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate). The final product is glucose, which can be used by the plant for energy and other metabolic processes.

Q21. _ is commonly known as Hook worm:

• A. Ancylostoma duodenale✓
• B. Ascaris lumbericoides
• C. Enterobius vermicularis
• D. Hirudinaria
• E. Wuchereria

Explanation: Ancylostoma duodenale is known as Hookworm.

Q22. An organism appears to be a segmented worm. Upon observation it is determined that the organism has a closed circulation, a mouth and an anus, and does not have an exoskeleton. The organism most likely belongs to the phylum:

• A. Mollusca
• B. Annelida✓
• C. Echinoderms
• D. Arthropoda
• E. Chordate

Explanation: Segmented worms are Annelids.

Q23. Ileum is about _ long.

• A. 3.6 millimeters
• B. 3.6 centimeters
• C. 3.6 inches
• D. 3.6 meters✓
• E. 3.6 kilometers

Explanation: The ileum is about 3.6 meters.

Q24. The Latin words of the name given to a human being, Homo Sapiens, include the:

• A. Genus and family
• B. Family and order
• C. Order and class
• D. Genus and class
• E. Genus and species✓

Explanation: Homo is the genus and Sapiens is the species.

Q25. In paper chromatography xanthophylls will give _ colour:

• A. Orange
• B. Grey
• C. Yellow✓
• D. Blue - green
• E. Yellow - green

Explanation: Xanthophylls are yellow-coloured.

Q26. The propulsive movement of the gastro-intestinal tract (GI tract) is:

• A. Peristalsis✓
• B. Epiglottis
• C. Antiperistalsis
• D. Anus
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Propulsive movement of the GI tract helps in moving food down the alimentary canal.

Q27. The Calvin Cycle consist of _ main reactions:

• A. 3✓
• B. 6
• C. 9
• D. 13
• E. 16

Explanation: Calvin cycle is the cycle of chemical reactions where the carbon from the carbon cycle is fixed into sugars.

Q28. Identify the incorrect statement about the Bathyal zone:

• A. It ranges from surface to depth of about 2000 metres
• B. It consists o° pelagic and benthic zones
• C. It is aphetic
• D. It contains producers that prepare food for consumers✓
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Sunlight does not reach this zone, meaning primary production, if any, is almost nonexistent. There are no known phytoplankton or aquatic plants in this zone because of the lack of sunlight necessary for photosynthesis. Hence the correct option is D. As it can be seen in the diagram below, the Baythal zone lies in the aphotic zone

Q29. Deamination in the liver initially produces:

• A. Ammonia✓
• B. Arginine
• C. Ornithine
• D. Urea
• E. Uric acid

Explanation: Deamination is the removal of an amino group from a molecule. Enzymes that catalyze this reaction are called deaminases. In the human body, deamination takes place primarily in the liver. The amino group is removed from the amino acid and converted to ammonia.

Q30. The causes of cyanosis include:

• A. Deficiency of vitamin C
• B. Varicella zoster virus
• C. Degeneration of the cartilage of joints
• D. Ventricular septum defect✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Cyanosis is a bluish colour in the skin, lips, and nail beds caused by a shortage of oxygen in the blood.

Q31. The Prolactin hormone responsible for activation of mammary glands to start producing milk is a hormone of:

• A. Pituitary gland✓
• B. Pancreas
• C. Thyroid gland
• D. Thymus
• E. Adrenal gland

Explanation: Prolactin promotes the growth of mammary alveoli, which are the components of the mammary gland, where the actual production of milk occurs.

Q32. Which of the following bones are present in the palm of hand?

• A. Carpals
• B. Metacarpals✓
• C. Phalanges
• D. Tarsals
• E. Radius

Explanation: The palm has 5 metacarpals.

Q33. Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed’s or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following best explains the reasons that Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha do not display symptoms of haemophilia, even though their father, Saad, is a haemophiliac?

• A. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and Saad can only pass on his chromosome
• B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Alia and Ayesha received a haemophiliac X chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X chromosome✓
• C. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder, and therefore cannot be displayed in females
• D. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder, and Ahmed and Ali must have received and X-chromosome from Saad
• E. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Ahmed and Ali received a haemophiliac X chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X-chromosome.

Explanation: Haemophilia is usually an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly.

Q34. Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed’s or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. If one of Ali’s daughters marries a normal man, what is the probability that one of their children will display symptoms of haemophilia?

• A. 0%✓
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 5%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Ali has the normal allele for haemophilia XHY. He married a normal female XHXH. Their daughter would have normal alleles XHXH. She married a normal man XHY. Their children will all be normal.

Q35. Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed’s or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following individuals are heterozygous for haemophilia?

• A. Saad, Ahmed and Ali
• B. Ahmed, Ali, Alia and Ayesha
• C. Saad and Sara
• D. Alia and Ayesha✓
• E. Ahmed and Ali

Explanation: Sons can not be heterozygous for the allele as they have only one X chromosome. Daughters receive one chromosome from each parent.

Q36. Which of the following would be most likely to occur in an ecosystem?

• A. As the number of prey decreases, the number of predators increases
• B. As the number of predators increases, the number of prey increases
• C. As the number of prey decreases, the number of predators decreases✓
• D. As the number of prey increases, the number of predators decreases
• E. As the number of predators decreases, the number of prey decreases

Explanation: The ecosystem is a biological community of interacting organisms and their physical environment.

Q37. Which biome contains maples, Oaks, and bears?

• A. Tundra
• B. Tropical rainforest
• C. Temperate grasslands
• D. Taiga
• E. Deciduous forest✓

Explanation: The biome that typically contains maples, oaks, and bears is the temperate deciduous forest biome.

Q38. The major sign and symptom of Microcephaly is:

• A. Sexual defects
• B. Excessive number of toss
• C. Mental retardation
• D. Small skull in proportion to the normal body size✓
• E. Split in upper lip and gap in the roof mouth

Explanation: Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is much smaller than expected.

Q39. The reaction involved in chemotrophic nutrition is:

• A. 6CO2 + 12H2O + light + chlorophyll -> C6H12 + 6H2O + 6CO2
• B. 2H2S + CO2 + light -> (CH2O)n + H2O + 2S
• C. NH4 + 3O2 + light -> 2NO2 + 2H2O + 4H+ + energy✓
• D. CH3COOH + enzyme -> CH3CHO + CO2
• E. 5GA3P + 3ATP -> 3RuBP + 2Pi

Explanation: The word Chemoautotrophic nutrition means energy produced with chemical reactions taking place. The primary work is of inorganic compounds used to synthesise different organic compounds.The reaction involved in chemotrophic nutrition is:NH4 + 3O2 + light -> 2NO2 + 2H2O + 4H+ + energy

Q40. CATENATION is a process in which carbon:

• A. Making single bond
• B. Hybridization
• C. Making long chains or rings of carbon atoms✓
• D. Isomerism
• E. Breaking of bonds

Explanation: CATENATION: Self-bonding of an element.

Q41. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate is /are:

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2✓
• D. 3
• E. 4

Explanation: Option A: No orbital contains zero electrons. Option B: Degenerated orbitals can be singly filled. Option C: Maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate is 2. Option D: No orbital contains 3 electrons. Option E: No orbital contains 6 electron.

Q42. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

• A. NH3
• B. HO
• C. HC = CH
• D. Br2✓

Explanation: The electron rich part of the double bond causes a dipole to form meaning that bromine becomes electron deficient and therefore becomes the electrophile (hence electrophillic addition) hence the answer is D. Rest of the options are incorrect as they have lone pair of electrons or an electron rich double bond (in case of alkenes) which makes them nucleophiles.

Q43. Chlorine is manufactured commercially by the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride (brine). Which other products are made in this process?

• A. Hydrochloric acid and hydrogen
• B. Hydrogen and sodium
• C. Hydrogen and sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Sodium and sodium hydroxide
• E. Hydrochloric acid and sodium

Explanation: Gas extraction: Chlorine can be manufactured by the electrolysis of a sodium chloride solution (brine), whichis known as the Chlor Alkali process. The production of chlorine results in the co-products of caustic soda (sodium hydroxide, NaOH) and hydrogen gas (H2).

Q44. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium because it:

• A. Has a higher atomic weight
• B. Is more electronegative
• C. Is more electropositive✓
• D. Is a metal
• E. Has a high melting point

Explanation: Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium and is more electropositive (below Li in the group) and will give electrons easily.Hence option C is correct.

Q45. The crystals formed as a result of Van Der Waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Crystal in which molecules are bonded through weak forces called Van Der Waals forces.

Q46. Which of the following statements about H2S is false?

• A. It is a covalent compound
• B. It is a gas with bad smell
• C. It is a stronger reducing agent than H2O
• D. It is a weak base in water✓

Explanation: H2S acts as weak acid in water, not as a weak base. In H2S, the influence of the nucleus is less and hence, it can give away its electrons.

Q47. The raindrop acquires spherical shape and ink spreads over blotting paper due to:

• A. Surface tension✓
• B. Adhesive forces
• C. Viscosity
• D. Polarity
• E. Latent heat of vaporization

Explanation: Surface Tension: "The property of the surface of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force, due to the cohesive nature of its molecules."

Q48. 950 torr corresponds to:

• A. 3.5 atm
• B. 1 atm
• C. 3 atm
• D. 1.25 atm✓
• E. 2.25 atm

Explanation: 1 atm = 760 torr To convert torr into atm Value of torr is divided by 760 950/760 = 12.5.

Q49. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form negative ion is called:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Lattice energy
• E. Potential energy

Explanation: Electron affinity is defined as the enthalpy of a neutral atom (in the gaseous phase) when an electron is added to the atom to form a negative ion.

Q50. Sigma bond is formed by?

• A. Transferring the electrons
• B. Head on overlapping✓
• C. Mutual but unequal sharing of electrons
• D. Parallel overlapping
• E. All of the above

Explanation: Hybridization: Electron cloud overlaps at the time of bonding at the atomic level to form new orbitals called hybrid orbitals. Two types of bonds can be observed between hybrid orbitals: the Sigma bond and the Pi bond.

Q51. The heat of reaction of reaction can be calculated by using :

• A. Joule's law
• B. Ohm's law
• C. Hess's law✓
• D. Faraday's law
• E. Boyle's law

Explanation: There are several steps involved in a chemical reaction to produce any product sometimes the same reaction takes place in a single step but the total amount of heat involved in both reactions remains the same.

Q52. According to law of mass action,"The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to:

• A. Products
• B. Product of molar concentration of reactants✓
• C. Catalyst
• D. Pressure

Explanation: Law of mass action,"The rate at which reaction takes place is directly proportional to the product of molar concentration of reactants."

Q53. For the reaction N2+ 3H2 —-->2NH3 The production of NH3 will be favored at:

• A. High pressure and catalyst✓
• B. Low pressure only
• C. Low pressure and catalyst
• D. High pressure only
• E. Catalyst only

Explanation: When pressure is applied on a system that contains gasses then the reaction will shift in the direction that contains less number of molecules. High Pressure will shift the reaction towards the right-hand side which is favored to attain more product and Catalyst helps to obtain a new equilibrium faster.

Q54. The sum of exponents of molar concentration of reactants is equal to:

• A. Molecular
• B. Polarity
• C. Activation energy
• D. Rate of reaction
• E. Order of reaction✓

Explanation: "Order of reaction may be defined as sum of all the exponents in terms of molar concentration in the rate equation."

Q55. Nascent hydrogen used in formation of methane, is obtained from the reaction of:

• A. NaHCO3 with Zn
• B. HCl with Zn✓
• C. KOH with Zn
• D. H2O with Zn
• E. CH3I with Zn

Explanation: Zn + HCl = ZnCl + H2

Q56. "Zymase" a group of 14 enzymes used in the fermentation of starch, is present in:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Yeast✓
• C. Fungi
• D. Algae
• E. Virus

Explanation: Alcohol is derived by fermentation of starch present in rice or potato. Yeast contains two enzymes 1. maltase which converts maltose into glucose 2. Zymase converts glucose into ethanol.

Q57. The general formula for aldehydes is:

• A. R-OH
• B. R-COOH
• C. R-CO-R
• D. R-X
• E. R-CHO✓

Explanation: R–CHO is a general formula for aldehydes.

Q58. When an element exists in more than one crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as:

• A. Isomorphism
• B. Allotropy✓
• C. Isomerism
• D. Anisotropy
• E. Enthalpy

Explanation: Property of some chemical elements to exist in two or more different forms, in the same physical state is known as allotropy.

Q59. The formula of "Plaster of Paris" is:

• A. CuSO4.5H2O
• B. CaSO2.1/2H2O
• C. (CaSO4).2H2O✓
• D. MgSO4.7H2O
• E. Na2SO4.H2O

Explanation: (CaSO4).1/2H2O is the formula of "Plaster of Paris" also known as gypsum.

Q60. Linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO) results in the formation of:

• A. Sigma bond
• B. Pi bond
• C. Bonding molecular orbitals only
• D. Bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals✓
• E. All of these options

Explanation: According to Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT), two atomic orbitals overlap resulting in the formation of molecular orbitals. Number of atomic orbitals overlapping together is equal to the molecular orbital formed. The two atomic orbital thus formed by LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbital) in the same phase or in the different phase are known as Bonding Molecular Orbital (BMO) and Antibonding Molecular Orbitals (ABMO) respectively.

Q61. Given the equation: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)—--> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g) At STP, how many liters of O2(g) are needed to completely burn 5.0 liters of C3H8 (g)?

• A. 5.0
• B. 10
• C. 10.5
• D. 15
• E. 25✓

Explanation: Volume -Volume stoichiometric relationship is shown which states that gasses always react in the ratio of small whole numbers by volume Solution: Molecules of C3H8= 1 Molecules of oxygen=5 Litres of C3H8 were given=5 Litres of oxygen given= x C3H8 5O2 1 5 5 X (Cross multiply) X=25 litres of oxygen is required.

Q62. If NaCl produced in the equation: FeCl3 + NaOH —-->Fe(OH)3 + NaCl was dissolved in water to make a liter of solution, the molarity would be:

• A. 0.1M
• B. 3M✓
• C. 8M
• D. 0.5M
• E. 1.5M

Explanation: To get the molarity we need to divide the number of moles of NaCl by the volume of the solution Molar mass of NaCl= 23+35.5= 58.5 Molar mass of H2O= 2+16=18 18/58.5 = 0.30 Ans= 3M

Q63. When 18 ×10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react with 22×10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40×10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40×10-3 moles/dm3 of water Find the value of equilibrium constant (Kc)

• A. 4.04✓
• B. 3.14
• C. 3.04
• D. 2.02
• E. 1.04

Explanation: Kc= Concentration of products / Concentration of Reactants. Reactants = acetic acid and ethyl alcohol Products = ethyl acetate and water Multiplication product of products (40 × 40 =1600) Divide by multiplication product of reactants (18× 22= 396) 1600/396= 4.04.

Q64. Harmful and undesirable reaction of metal when exposed to atmosphere or any chemical agent is known as:

• A. Allotropy
• B. Electroplating
• C. Collision
• D. Cracking
• E. Corrosion✓

Explanation: Gradual deterioration of metals caused by the action of air, moisture, or a chemical reaction (such as an acid) on their surface.

Q65. What is the product of both fermentation reactions and fractional distillation?

• A. An ester
• B. An acid
• C. An alcohol✓
• D. A soap
• E. As base

Explanation: Ethyl alcohol can be obtained by fermentation of starch, fermentation of molasses and fractional distillation of pyroligneous acid (obtained through destructive distillation of wood) gives Methyl alcohol.

Q66. During Condensation of polymerization, two monomers may be joined by the removal of a molecule of:

• A. Carbon Dioxide
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Oxygen
• D. Water✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Condensation is the process where water vapor becomes liquid.

Q67. Which gas is likely to deviate most from ideal gas behavior?

• A. HCl✓
• B. He
• C. CH4
• D. N2
• E. O2

Explanation: No gas is ideal because they show deviations. But those gasses that have more molecular mass than others will deviate the most from ideal gas behavior.

Q68. Purification of bauxite whose major impurity is Silica(SiO2) is carried out through:

• A. Baeyer's method
• B. Hall's method
• C. Serpek's method✓
• D. Contact method
• E. Electrolytic method

Explanation: Aluminum is extracted from its ore bauxite (Al2O3.nH20) which contains iron and silica as chief impurities.

Q69. The range of pH below_ and above _of soil represents its sterility.

• A. 5…..10
• B. 10…5
• C. 3….10✓
• D. 10…3
• E. 5…3

Explanation: Soil's highly acidic and hence sterile.

Q70. Due to the magnetic force, a positively charged particle executes uniform circular motion within a uniform magnetic field "B". If the charge is "q" and the radius is path "r", which of the following expression gives the magnitude of momentum?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: Momentum= mvFor a charged particle in a uniform circular motion, the required centripetal force is provided by a magnetic force equal to B*q*v.So, mv2/r = BqvWhich simplifies to mv=qBrHence Option A is the correct answer.

Q71. A transverse wave on a long horizontal rope with a wavelenght of 8m 2m/s. At t = 0, a particular point on the rope has a vertical displacement of where A is the amplitude of the wave. At what time the vertical displacement of same point on the rope be —A?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓
• E. Option E

Explanation: The first thing to do while approaching this question is to figure out the period.v=λ/TT=8/2=4sGoing from amplitude ‘A’ to ‘-A’ takes half the period.So 4/2=2 seconds hence the correct answer is D.

Q72. An object Is placed 60 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror whose focal lenght is 40cm. which of the folowing best described the image?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓
• E. Option E

Explanation: Substituting values into the formula 1/f= 1/v - 1/u1/-40= 1/v - 1/601/v= 1/60 - 1/401/v= -1/120v= -120 cmSince the object is placed between f and 2f, the image formed will be real (refer to the table) and 120 cm from the mirror. Therefore option D is correct.

Q73. An object is placed 60cm from a spherical convex mirror. If the mirror forms a virtual image 20 cm from the mirror, what is the magnitude of the mirror's radius of curvature?

• A. 7.5 cm
• B. 15 cm
• C. 30 cm✓
• D. 60 cm
• E. 120 cm

Explanation: Substituting values into the formula 1/f= 1/do + 1/di1/f= 1/60 + 1/20f= 15 cmThe radius of curvature= 2f = 30 cmHence the correct option is C.

Q74. Find the unit vector paralel to the vector: B = 6i + 12j - 4k.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: For the unit vector, we have to simply divide the vector by its magnitude.The magnitude of a vector parallel to B = √ 6²+12²+4² = 14

Q75. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160m/s. Calculate the greatest distance to which it could be projected and the height to which it would rise? (g=10m/s2).

• A. 1560m, 540m
• B. 2560m, 640m✓
• C. 3560m. 740m
• D. 4560m, 840m
• E. 9595m, 348m

Explanation: R= u²sin2θ/gFor maximum range θ=45So 160²/10= 2650This alone is sufficient to enable us to narrow our answer to just B (do not waste time finding height while attempting the actual exam!)For height, H= u²sin²θ/2gat θ=45 H=u²/4g160²/4*10=640Which again confirms option B to be correct.

Q76. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed V1 and the second half, with a speed V2. Find the average speed during the whole journey?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: Average speed= total distance/total timeThe car’s journey can be divided into two equal parts of distance ‘d’. Since both distances are equal,Total distance= 2dTotal time= d/v1 (for first part) and d/v2 (for second part)Average speed= 2d / d(1/v1+1/v2)d cancels out leaving 2 / (v1+v2/v1v2)Which can be written as 2v1v2 / v1+v2That is consistent with option B.

Q77. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance through 1K, and its units are J - mole-1 K-1 is called:

• A. Carnot Engine
• B. Molar specific heat✓
• C. Kinetic specific heat
• D. General Gas Law
• E. Boyle's Law

Explanation: The question describes the definition of molar specific heat, which matches option B.

Q78. A rescue helicopter drops a package of emergency ration to a stranded party on the ground. If the helicopter is traveling horlzontaly at 40m/s at height 100m above the ground, where does the package strike the ground relative to the point at which it was release.

• A. 120m
• B. 130m
• C. 140m
• D. 180.7m✓
• E. 200.3m

Explanation: This is a case of half-projectile motion.First, let’s find out the time taken for the package to strike the ground.s=ut+1/2at²100=0 + ½ (10) t² (vertical velocity is 0 at the highest point in full projectile & starting point in half-projectile)100=5t²t²=20 so t=√20Now, assuming there is no horizontal force, horizontal velocity stays constant So distance= velocity x timeOr 40x√20= 180.7 That gives option D as the correct answer.

Q79. The radius of the moon is 27% of the earth's radius and it's mass is 1.2% earth's mass. Find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon.

• A. 0.431 m/s2
• B. 1.615 m/s2✓
• C. 2.431 ms2
• D. 3.615 m/s2
• E. 4.431 m/s2

Explanation: Acceleration due to gravity on Earth= GMe/Re² = 9.81 (Me= mass of Earth, Re= radius of Earth)For moon g(moon)= G(0.012Me)/(0.27Re)²g(moon)= GMe/Re² * 0.1646g(moon)= 9.81 x 0.1646 = 1.615 m/s² This makes option B to be the correct choice for this question.

Q80. Two capacitors C1 = 2µ and C2 = 4µ F are connected in series across in a 100V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. ½ µF
• B. 3/2 µF
• C. 5/2 µF
• D. 4/3 µF✓
• E. 2 µF

Explanation: Recall that the effective capacitance of capacitors in series is the reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of individual capacitors (just like resistors in parallel)Therefore,1/Ceffective = 1/C1 + 1/C21/Ceffective = ½ +¼ 1/Ceffective = ¾C effective= 4/3 µF Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q81. A sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume "V" at pressure "p" and absolute temperature "T". The mass of each molecule is 'm'. If "k" is the Boltzmann constant then the density of the gas is:

• A. mkT
• B. P/KT
• C. P/kTV
• D. mP/kT✓
• E. 2mPT/k

Explanation: PV= NkTV= NkT/PThe mass of one molecule of gas is ‘m’So total mass= N*mThe density of the gas is = total mass/ total volumeDensity= N*m/ (NkT/P)Which simplifies to mP/kT That is consistent with option D.

Q82. A car is waiting at a traffic signal and when the signal turns green, the car starts ahead with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2. At the same time as a bus traveling with a constant speed of 10 m/s overtakes and passes the car. How far beyond its starting point will the car overtake the bus?

• A. 40M
• B. 30M
• C. 90M
• D. 120M
• E. 100M✓

Explanation: To approach this question, remember that at the point when the car overtakes the bus, both vehicles be at the same distance from the starting point (ie have the same displacement)Now, s=ut + ½ at²For bus Sв=10t (since speed is constant, a=0)For car Sc= ½ (2) t² (u=0 as car starts from rest)Equating the two displacements, we get t²=10tWhich gives t=0 t=10 secondsThis means that 10 seconds after the journey, the car overtakes the bus.Simply substitute the time to find displacement of the car/bus (both will have the same displacement at this point)Sв=10t S= 10*10 = 100M Hence option E is correct.

Q83. When a car moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph is a:

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation: The slope of the velocity - time graph is equal to acceleration. As body moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph will be a straight line. Slope = Constant

Q84. When the switch is closed, the potential difference between the terminals of the battery is, in volts:

• A. 0
• B. 0.8
• C. 2.6
• D. 5.2✓
• E. 6.0

Explanation: Firstly, find the current that flows through the circuit.Using V=IR6= I(0.4+2.6)I= 6/3I= 2ANow, the potential difference through the battery will be less than emf due to internal resistance. The potential drop due to the internal resistance will be V=2*0.4= 0.8VTherefore, the potential difference between the battery terminals will beEMF - potential drop due to internal resistance= 6-0.8= 5.2 V Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Q85. Assume that you two balls of identical volume, one weighing 2 newtons and the other 10 newtons. Both are falling freely after being released from the same simultaneously. Which of the following will then be true? I- The 10-N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2-N ball. II- At the end of 4s of free fall, the 10-N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2-N ball. III- At the end of 4s free fall, the 10-N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2-N ball. IV- The 10-N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2-N ball.

• A. I, II and III only
• B. I and III only
• C. II and IV only✓
• D. IV only
• E. None of th above

Explanation: For this question, let us analyze each of the statements.Statement I is incorrect because the question clearly states that both balls are falling freely. Acceleration under free fall is constant and approximately equal to 9.81 m/s².Statement II is correct because momentum= mv. Since the mass of the 10N ball is 5 times the mass of the 2N ball, therefore, the momentum will also be 5 times that of the 2N ball.Statement III is incorrect because kinetic energy = ½ mv² This shows the KE is directly proportional to mass and because the masses are unequal, they will possess different kinetic energies.Statement IV is correct because inertia is the property of an object to resist change in motion and it is proportional to the mass of the object. The greater the mass, the greater the inertia, hence the 10N object has more inertia than the 2N ball. Now that we know that only statements II and IV are correct, we can deduce that the correct answer is option C.

Q86. A bal moving horizontally with speed 'v' strikes the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The mass of a the bob is equal to that of the ball. If the collision is elasticity bob will rise to a height:

• A. v2/g
• B. v2/2g✓
• C. v2/4g
• D. v2/8g
• E. v2/7g

Explanation: Recall the cases of conservation of momentum. In an elastic collision of equal masses, the velocities of the masses are simply interchanged. So the pendulum bob will acquire a velocity ‘v’ while the ball will come to rest upon collision.At the highest point, all the initial KE of the bob will be converted to potential energy.Equating the two ½ mv²=mgMaking h the subject, we get h=v²/2g Hence option B is the correct answer.

Q87. A point source of light is placed at the principal focus of a concave lens. Which of the following will be true of the refracted light? I- I will diverge. II- It will be paralel to be principle axis. III- It will seem to come from a point 1/2 of the radius of curvature from the lens. IV- It will converage.

• A. I, II and III Only
• B. I and III only
• C. II and IV only
• D. IV only
• E. None of the above✓

Explanation: Statement I is correct because a concave lens is diverging.Statement II is incorrect because the refracted rays will not be parallel to the principal axis.Statement III is incorrect because this is not true.Statement IV is incorrect because a concave lens is diverging while a convex lens is converging. Judging from our deductions about the statements, none of the options A, B, C, or D are correct. Hence option E is the right answer.

Q88. The dimensions of volume and acceleration (respectively) are:

• A. LT1 and LT2
• B. LT2 and LT-1
• C. L3 and LT-2✓
• D. L4T-1 and LT
• E. LT3 and T2

Explanation: The volume is simply a product of three dimensions of length. Therefore, the dimensions should be L³.Acceleration=change in velocity/timeThe dimensions of velocity and time are LT-1 and T respectively.LT-1/T = LT-2. This is consistent with option C.

Q89. A vector such as the velocity of a body undergoing uniform translational motion, which can be displaced parallel to itself and applied to any point known as:

• A. Unit vector
• B. Free vector✓
• C. Null vector
• D. Position vector
• E. Resultant vector

Explanation: Option B is the correct answer because a free vector is one whose action is not confined or associated with a unique line in space. For a body in uniform translational motion, the velocity of any point in the body may be taken as a vector and this vector will equally well describe the velocity of all points in the body. Hence, the velocity of such a body may be represented by a free vector.

Q90. What is the flux density at a point 3 cm from the long straint wire, when there is a current of 25A in the wire? (μo = 4π x 10-7)

• A. 0 .23 x 10-1 T
• B. 1.67 x 10-4 T✓
• C. 2.99 x 10-6 T
• D. 3.63 x 10-8 T
• E. 9.99 x 10-7 T

Explanation: The flux density B from a straight current-carrying wire = μI/2πr4πx10-7 x 252πx0.03= 1.67 x 10-4 Thus option B is the correct answer.

Q91. If an object is placed 30 cm from a convex loin whose local enuth is 15 cm, the size of the image compared to the size of the object will be approximately:

• A. Twice as large
• B. More than twice as large
• C. 1.5 times as large
• D. Smaller
• E. The same size✓

Explanation: For an object placed at twice the focal length of a convex lens, the image will be inverted, real, and the same size. So the correct answer here should be E. This can be confirmed using a ray diagram.

Q92. When a conductor of cross-sectional area 5.0 x 104m2 carries a current of 6.0A,the drift velocity of the conduction electrons is 1.2x10-4 ms-1 . What is the number density (number per unit volume) of the conduction electrons?

• A. 4.0 x 10-28 m-3
• B. 1.6 x 10-27 m-3
• C. 2.5 x 1027 m-3
• D. 6.3 x 1028 m-3✓
• E. 1.3 x 1034 m-3

Explanation: Recall that the formula for the drift velocity of charged particles isv= I/nAqMaking n (number density) the subject we get n= I/ AqvSubstituting the valuesn= 6/ 0.0005x1.6x10-19 * 0.00012n= 6.25 x 1026 The closest answer to this value would therefore be D.

Q93. A thermocouple is connected cross a galvanometer of resistance 30Ω. One junction is immersed in water at 373 K and the other in ice at 273K. The e.m.f of the thermocouple is 90μ V for each 1K difference in temperature between the junctions, and the thermocouple resistance is 6Ω. What current will flow in the galvanometer?

• A. 1.8μA
• B. 250μA✓
• C. 300μA
• D. 1.5mA
• E. 1.8mA

Explanation: For every 1K difference in temperature, the emf of the thermocouple is 90µV.The difference in temperature between the junctions= is 373-273=100K.So the emf would be equal to 9000μV.The thermocouple resistance is 6Ω and the galvanometer resistance is 30Ω. Hence total resistance is 36ΩSo current through galvanometer I=V/RI=9000/36=250μA. Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q94. The first law of thermodynamics may be written as ∆U = Q+W. Where '∆U' is the increase in internal energy of the system, "Q" is the heat transfer to the system and "W" is the external work done on the system. Which of the following is correct for the case of an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas?

• A. W > 0
• B. W = 0
• C. ∆U = 0✓
• D. ∆U > 0
• E. Q = 0

Explanation: The internal energy of an ideal gas= 3/2NkT This shows that the internal energy depends upon the temperature of a gas since all other variables are constant. As long as the temperature does not change, the internal energy is constant. Now, for an isothermal expansion, the temperature is kept unchanged. This means that the change in internal energy is 0. Therefore option C is correct.

Q95. A body of mass 5kg, initially at rest, is moved by a horizontal force of 2N on a smooth horizontal surface. Find the work done by the force in 10s?

• A. 40J✓
• B. 30J
• C. 50J
• D. 20J
• E. 10J

Explanation: Firstly let's find out the acceleration of the body using F=ma (Newton's 3rd law)Now 2=5aa=⅖s= ut + ½ at²s= ½ * ⅖ * 10²s= 20 mNow work done= F * d2x20= 40 J This corresponds to option A.

Q96. A body of mass 5kg, initially at rest, is moved by a horizontal force of 2N on a smooth horizontal surface. Find the work done by the force in 10sec?

• A. 50 units
• B. 75 units
• C. 125 units
• D. 155 units
• E. 40 units✓

Explanation: a = F/m a = 2/5 m/s² S=1/2at² (on the grounds that u is zero) S=1/2*2/5*10² S = 2/10*100 S = 20m W=F.S W=2*20 W=40 J.

Q97. A body start sliding on a rough horizontal surface with a speed of 10 m/s. If the coeficient of friction is 0.2, find the distance travelled by the body before coming to rest. (g = 10 m/s2)

• A. 15m
• B. 25m✓
• C. 35m
• D. 40m
• E. 55m

Explanation: f= μFn = μmgf= 0.2x10mUsing newton’s 3rd law, f=maa=f/mHere the m cancels out and a=2 m/s²Now, using the equation of motion v²=u²+2as0²= 10²+2(-0.2x10)sMaking s the subject, s= 100/4 = 25 m. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Q98. A battery whose e.m.f. Is 40V has an Internal resistance of 5Ω. If this battery is connected to a 15Ω resistor "R", what will be the voltage drop across 'R'?

• A. 10V
• B. 30V✓
• C. 40V
• D. 50V
• E. 70V

Explanation: First, let us calculate the current that flows through the circuit.I=V/R= 40/ (15+5)I= 2 AThe voltage drop across R will be V= 2x15=30 V Therefore option B is the correct answer.

Q99. A particle of charge -0.04C is projected with speed 2 x 104 m/s into a uniform magnetic field "B" of strength 0.5T. If the particle's velocity as it enters the field is perpendicular tp "B", what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on this particle?

• A. 4N
• B. 8N
• C. 40N
• D. 80N
• E. 400N✓

Explanation: Magnetic force on a charged particle in a magnetic field B is equal toFв= Bqv sinΘ=0.5 -0.04x2x104xsin90=400 N Thus the correct answer is E.

Q100. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the following: AVOID

• A. Reduce
• B. Insist
• C. Compel
• D. Ignore✓
• E. Get

Explanation: Avoid means to stay away from someone or something, or prevent something from happening; to refrain; ignoring something. Option A is incorrect: Reduce means to make smaller or in less amount or size. Option B is incorrect: Insist means to demand something forcefully. Option C is incorrect: Compel means to drive or urge forcefully or irresistibly. Option D is correct: Ignore has the same meaning as that of the word avoid. It means to refuse to take notice of or acknowledge, or disregard something intentionally. Option E is incorrect: Get means to receive or attain/obtain something.