Sindh Mcat Nts 2010 Duhs And Jsmu — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:Disruption

• A. Comfort
• B. Luxury
• C. Trouble✓
• D. Freedom

Explanation: Disruption means disturbance or problems which interrupt an event, activity, or process. "Trouble" has similar meanings of difficulty or problems. Hence, this is the most suitable option.

Q2. Choose the word most similar In meaning to the given word :Inevitable

• A. Doubtful
• B. Deny
• C. Unexpected
• D. Unusual✓

Explanation: Inevitable means that something is completely certain, bound to happen and can not be avoided.Unusual means to be uncommon or something out of the ordinary. Hence it is the most suitable option.

Q3. Choose the correct antonym of the given word:Eradication

• A. Suppression
• B. Termination
• C. Control
• D. Establish✓

Explanation: To establish something means to begin it or bring it about. It means the complete opposite of eradication.

Q4. Choose the correct antonym to the given word:Interruption

• A. Break
• B. Continuity✓
• C. Injury
• D. Difference

Explanation: The unbroken and consistent existence or operation of something over time is continuity. It is the opposite of interruption.

Q5. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The stories that she makes out for her children ought to be written down and published.

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: "That" is correctly placed as a demonstrative pronoun.To "make out" means to manage with some difficulty to see or hear someone or something so it is incorrectly used here. "Makes" would be the correct word for the blank."Ought to" can be used to indicate light responsibility or urgency. It is correctly used in the sentence.It means to record something by writing down.An error was present in the sentence.

Q6. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:We are expecting to go abroad this summer.

• A. Are
• B. Expecting
• C. To go
• D. This
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The above sentence has no error.

Q7. Read the passage to answer the given question:It is of course a little absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism which has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the world and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilization of Christened, there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, an endeavor after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not only thinking of politics but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan.What can cultural uniformity not lead to?

• A. It will not lead to the formation of a great civilization✓
• B. It will lead to the formation of a great civilization
• C. It will lead to the formation of rich culture
• D. It will to the change of environment
• E. It will lead to the destruction of values

Explanation: “There is great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan”As mentioned in the extraction from the passage above, cultural uniformity can not lead to the formation of a great civilization.

Q8. Read the passage to answer the given question:It is of course a little absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism which has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the world and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilization of Christened, there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, an endeavor after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not only thinking of politics but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan.What can cultural uniformity not lead to?

• A. It will not lead to the formation of a great civilization✓
• B. It will lead to the formation of a great civilization
• C. It will lead to the formation of rich culture
• D. It will to the change of environment
• E. It will lead to the destruction of values

Explanation: “There is great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan”As mentioned in the extraction from the passage above, cultural uniformity can not lead to the formation of a great civilization.

Q9. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices A to E below:Nearly everyone dreams of building _ ideal house.

• A. Its
• B. Their✓
• C. His
• D. Him
• E. Them

Explanation: In the sentence, 'Nearly everyone dreams of building _ ideal house,' the word 'everyone' is a singular noun. Traditionally, a singular pronoun would follow, such as 'his' or 'her'. However, in modern English, 'their' is often used to maintain gender neutrality. This makes 'their' the most appropriate choice in this context. Other options like 'its' and 'him' do not fit the possessive context, and 'them' is an object pronoun, not a possessive one.

Q10. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices A to E below:Life _ water, light, a moderate temperature, and a variety of chemical elements.

• A. Finds
• B. Reveals
• C. Designs
• D. Calculates
• E. Requires✓

Explanation: All entities mentioned above are those that are required for us to sustain and survive. Hence the best verb here would be “requires”.

Q11. Read the passage below to answer the question: Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children displays the symptoms of Haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following best explains the reason that Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha and Alia do not display symptoms of haemophilia, even though their father, Saad, is a haemophiliac?

• A. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and Saad can only pass on his Y chromosome
• B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Alia and Ayesha received a hemophiliac X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X-chromosome✓
• C. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder, and therefore cannot be displayed in females
• D. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder ,and Ahmed and Ali must have received an X Chromosome from Saad
• E. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Ahmed and All received a Hemophilia X chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X chromosome

Explanation: Haemophilia is an X-linked chromosome, not a Y-linked chromosome. Daughters of Sara and Saad, Alia and Ayesha receive an X chromosome from both of their parents. Even though hemophilia X-chromosome is received by these daughters from Saad they received normal X from their mother, because of which they do not show any symptoms. Option A is wrong because Saad can pass X as well as Y chromosomes to his offspring. Options C and D are wrong because it is not a Y-linked but an X-linked disease. Option E is wrong because Ahmed and Ali can not receive an X chromosome from Saad (their father), they should receive a Y chromosome, for them to be male.

Q12. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. If one of Ali's daughters marries a normal man, what is the probability that one of their children will display symptoms of hemophilia:

• A. 0%✓
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Ali and Ahmed are normal males because they receive a Y chromosome from their father and Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder. Ali marries a normal female and will therefore have a normal daughter. If this normal daughter marries a normal male, the probability that they will have haemophiliac children is 0%.

Q13. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following individuals are heterozygous for hemophilia:

• A. Saad, Ahmed, and Ali
• B. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha
• C. Saad and Sara
• D. Alia and Ayesha✓
• E. Ahmed and Ali

Explanation: Male can’t be heterozygous or homozygous because they can only have one allele. Females can possibly be homozygous or heterozygous. Heterozygous are those females that are carriers as we know that Alia and Ayesha do not show any symptoms.

Q14. The propulsive movement of the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract) is:

• A. Peristalsis✓
• B. Epiglottis
• C. Antiperistalsis
• D. Anus
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Peristalsis is the contraction of muscle tissue that helps move and break down foodstuffs. The walls of the alimentary canal include layers of smooth muscle controlled by the autonomic nervous system. The alternating contraction and relaxation of these muscles is called peristalsis.

Q15. Choose the correct combinations of labeling the carbohydrate molecule involved in the Calvin cycle.

• A. A - RuBP, B - Triose phosphate, C - PGA
• B. A - PGA, B - RuBP, C - Triose Phsophate
• C. A - PGA, B - Triose Phosphate, C - RuBP
• D. A - RuBP, B - PGA, C - Triose Phosphate✓
• E. A - Triose Phosphate, B - PGA, C - RuBP

Explanation: The Calvin cycle is a metabolic pathway found in the stroma of the chloroplast in which carbon enters in the form of CO2 and leaves in the form of sugar. The cycle spends ATP as an energy source and consumes NADPH2 as reducing power for adding high energy electrons to make the sugar. In the first phase, carboxylation of RUBP takes place, which leads to the formation of 1,3-bis phosphoglycerate (PGA). PGA then gets reduced to triose phosphate (glyceraldehyde phosphate). Thus, the labelled molecules in the diagram are A- RUBP, B- PGA, C- triose phosphate. Thus, the correct answer is option D.

Q16. Identify the incorrect statement about the Bathyal zone:

• A. It ranges from surface to depth of about 2000 metres
• B. It consists o° pelagic and benthic zones
• C. It is aphetic
• D. It contains producers that prepare food for consumers✓
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Sunlight does not reach this zone, meaning primary production, if any, is almost nonexistent. There are no known phytoplankton or aquatic plants in this zone because of the lack of sunlight necessary for photosynthesis. Hence the correct option is D. As it can be seen in the diagram below, the Baythal zone lies in the aphotic zone

Q17. Deamination in the liver initially produces:

• A. Ammonia✓
• B. Arginine
• C. Ornithine
• D. Urea
• E. Uric acid

Explanation: Deamination is the removal of an amino group from a molecule. Enzymes that catalyze this reaction are called deaminases. In the human body, deamination takes place primarily in the liver. The amino group is removed from the amino acid and converted to ammonia.

Q18. The causes of Cyanosis include:

• A. Deficiency of vitamin C
• B. Varicella-zoster virus
• C. Degeneration of the cartilage of joints
• D. Ventricular septum defect✓
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Cyanosis occurs when oxygen-depleted (deoxygenated) blood, which is bluish rather than red, circulates through the skin. This occurs when there is the mixing of blood which takes place when there is a septal defect in the heart, e.g Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

Q19. The prolactin hormone, responsible for the activation of mammary glands to start producing milk, is a hormone of the:

• A. Pituitary gland✓
• B. Pancreas
• C. Thyroid gland
• D. Thymus gland
• E. Adrenal gland

Explanation: In humans, prolactin is produced both in the front portion of the pituitary gland (anterior pituitary gland) and in a range of sites elsewhere in the body. Lactotroph cells in the pituitary gland produce prolactin, where it is stored and then released into the bloodstream.

Q20. Which of the following would be most likely to occur in an ecosystem:

• A. As the number of prey decreases, the number of predators increases.
• B. As the number of predators increases, the number of prey increases.
• C. As the number of prey decreases, the number of predators decreases.✓
• D. As the number of prey increases, the number of predators decreases.
• E. As the number of predators decreases, the number of prey decreases.

Explanation: Option C is correct because as the prey decreases, the food for predators decreases thus decreasing their numbers.

Q21. The Law of Dominance Is illustrated in the garden pea by:

• A. Homozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• B. Heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• C. Homozygous tall x homozygous tall
• D. Pure short x pure short
• E. Homozygous tall x pure short✓

Explanation: The Law of Dominance states that in a heterozygous individual, the dominant allele will determine the phenotype while the recessive allele is masked. In this case, the cross between a homozygous tall plant (TT) and a pure short plant (tt) clearly illustrates this law, as all offspring (Tt) will be tall, demonstrating that the dominant allele 'T' expresses itself over the recessive 't'.The other options do not adequately illustrate the Law of Dominance: the first option shows both parents expressing the tall phenotype, while the second option leads to a mix of phenotypes. The third option results in only tall offspring, but both parents are homozygous dominant, failing to demonstrate dominance. The fourth option produces only short offspring, which lacks any dominant allele.

Q22. Identify the incorrect statement about Charles Darwin’s theory:

• A. The individual of species have variations among them.
• B. There is always a tendency of over reproduction in a species.
• C. Vast gradual changes result in the origin of a new species.
• D. Favorable variations survive and unfavorable will be exterminated.
• E. Intra-specific competition occurs between different species and interspecific competition occurs among the individuals in a species.✓

Explanation: Option E has a factually incorrect statement. “Intraspecific” competition means competition between individuals of the same species.” Interspecific” competition means competition between two different species.

Q23. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

• A. Apical growth increases the length of stems and roots
• B. Xylem is situated on the outer side of the cambium ring and the phloem on the inner side✓
• C. Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots
• D. The cells in the elongation phase don't divide
• E. The cells informative regions are closely packed together

Explanation: In a vascular cambium, the xylem is placed on the inner side while the phloem is placed on the outer side, option B states the opposite.

Q24. In which model do proteins float in membrane like icebergs in sea:

• A. Lock and key model
• B. Induced fit model
• C. Fluid mosaic model✓
• D. Lotka volterra model
• E. All of these

Explanation: As per the fluid mosaic model cell membranes have proteins as icebergs in a sea of lipids (lipid). Hence option C is correct.

Q25. In the Hardy - Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. q2 represents the frequency of the:

• A. Homozygous dominant
• B. Heterozygous dominant
• C. Heterozygous recessive
• D. Homozygous recessive✓
• E. Blended genes

Explanation: q2 represents the homozygous recessive trait in the Hardy-Weinberg principle.It is calculated by squaring the frequency of the recessive allele q, where q is the frequency of the recessive allele and p is the frequency of the dominant allele. The entire equation is p2+2pq+q2 where p2 is the homozygous dominant frequency and 2pq is the heterozygous frequency.

Q26. Fungi do not contain:

• A. Cell wall
• B. Hyphae
• C. Chlorophyll✓
• D. Mycelium
• E. Spores

Explanation: Unlike plant cells, fungal cells do not have chloroplasts or chlorophyll. Many fungi display bright colours arising from other cellular pigments, ranging from red to green to black.

Q27. In a typical nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to _ carbon of pentose sugar.

• A. 5th
• B. 4th
• C. 3rd
• D. 1st✓

Explanation: A nucleotide consists of a sugar molecule (either ribose in RNA or deoxyribose in DNA) attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base.

Q28. Binomial nomenclature was proposed for the first time by:

• A. Charles Darwin (1859)
• B. Rudolph virchow (1855)
• C. Louis Pasteur (1862)
• D. Carolus Linnaeus (1707)✓

Explanation: Tyrannosaurus rex is probably the most widely known binomial. The formal introduction of this system of naming species is credited to Carl Linnaeus, effectively beginning with his work Species Plantarum in 1753.

Q29. _ causes amoebic dysentery in humans:

• A. Pelomyxa palustris
• B. Entamoeba histolytica✓
• C. Trichonympha
• D. Trypanosoma
• E. Radiolarian ooze

Explanation: Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica. It is transmitted in areas where poor sanitation allows contamination of drinking water and food with feces. In these areas, up to 40% of people with diarrhea may have amoebic dysentery.

Q30. The main process that occurs in the dark reaction in photosynthesis is:

• A. That water is split
• B. Light energy is converted into chemical energy
• C. That glucose is oxidized
• D. That carbon-dioxide is fixed✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: The main process that occurs in the dark reaction (also known as the Calvin Cycle) in photosynthesis is the synthesis of glucose. The dark reaction takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts and does not directly require light. It follows the light-dependent reactions (such as photosystem I and II) that capture and convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). In the Calvin Cycle, the primary goal is to use the ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose. The key steps of the Calvin Cycle include carbon fixation, reduction, and regeneration of the starting molecule (RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate). The final product is glucose, which can be used by the plant for energy and other metabolic processes.

Q31. _ is commonly known as hook worm:

• A. Ancyclostoma duodenale✓
• B. Ascaris lumbericoides
• C. Enteroblus vermicularis
• D. Hirudinaria
• E. Wuchereria

Explanation: Ancylostoma duodenale is a species of the roundworm genus Ancylostoma. It is a parasitic nematode worm and commonly known as the Old World hookworm.

Q32. Ileum is about _ long:

• A. 3.6 centimeters
• B. 3.6 millimeters
• C. 3.6 inches
• D. 3.6 meters✓
• E. 3.6 kilometers

Explanation: The ileum is about 3.6 meters (11.5 feet) long (or about three-fifths the length of the small intestine) and extends from the jejunum (the middle section of the small intestine) to the ileocecal valve, which empties into the colon (large intestine).

Q33. The Latin words of the name given to a human being, Homo Sapiens, include the:

• A. Genus and family
• B. Family and order
• C. Order and class
• D. Genus and class
• E. Genus and species✓

Explanation: The scientific name for humans, Homo sapiens, follows the binomial nomenclature system, which consists of two parts: the genus and the species. In this system, the genus name is capitalized and the species name is lowercase, both in italics. The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the components of this naming system. 'Genus and family', 'family and order', 'order and class', and 'genus and class' do not align with the binomial naming convention.

Q34. In paper chromatography xanthophyll will give _ color:

• A. Orange
• B. Grey
• C. Yellow✓
• D. Blue-Green

Explanation: In paper chromatography, xanthophylls are pigments that are often responsible for giving a yellow color. Xanthophylls are a type of carotenoid pigment found in plants, and they contribute to the yellow, orange, and red colors in various plant tissues. In paper chromatography, these pigments can be separated based on their different affinities for the paper and the mobile solvent. During paper chromatography, a sample containing xanthophylls is spotted onto a piece of filter paper. As the solvent travels up the paper, it carries the pigments along with it. Xanthophylls, being yellow pigments, will manifest as yellow bands or spots on the paper when the chromatography is complete.

Q35. Which of the following bones are present in the palm of the hand:

• A. Carpals
• B. Metacarpals✓
• C. Phalanges
• D. Tarsal
• E. Radius

Explanation: The human forelimbs each consist of 30 bones: The humerus, which forms a ball and socket joint with the scapula, and two long parallel bones, the radius and ulna, at its distal end. The radius and ulna join the wrist with eight small carpal bones, which articulate with five metacarpals of the palm. From the palm extend the fingers containing 14 small bones called phalanges, arranged in 5 rows, one row in each finger. The relevant detail for this question is that the bones of the palm are called metacarpals, hence option B is correct.

Q36. Which biome contains maples, oaks, and bears:

• A. Tundra
• B. Tropical rainforest
• C. Temperate grasslands
• D. Taiga
• E. Deciduous forest✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the Deciduous forest. This biome is known for its four distinct seasons, rich soil, and trees like maples and oaks that shed their leaves annually. It supports a variety of wildlife, including black bears that feed heavily in preparation for hibernation. The other options are incorrect because:Tundra: Characterized by cold climates and limited vegetation, mainly mosses and lichens, not maples or oaks.Tropical rainforest: Known for its biodiversity and constant warm temperatures, but it does not support maples, oaks, or bears.Temperate grasslands: Dominated by grasses and lack significant tree cover, including maples and oaks.Taiga: A biome with coniferous forests, primarily pines and spruces, unlike the broadleaf trees of the deciduous forest.

Q37. The major sign and symptoms of microcephaly is:

• A. Sexual defects
• B. Excessive number of toes
• C. Mental retardation
• D. Small skull in proportion to the normal body size✓
• E. Split in upper lip and gap in the roof of mouth

Explanation: Microcephaly is a neurological condition in which a baby's head is much smaller than expected for the baby's age. The head circumference is typically below the third percentile for the baby's sex and age. Microcephaly can be caused by a variety of genetic and environmental factors, and it can be associated with a range of developmental disabilities.

Q38. The reaction involved in chemotrophic nutrition is:

• A. 6CO2 + 12H2O + light + chlorophyll -> C6H12 + 6H2O + 6CO2
• B. 2H2S + CO2 + light -> (CH2O)n + H2O + 2S
• C. NH4 + 3O2 + light -> 2NO2 + 2H2O + 4H+ + energy✓
• D. CH3COOH + enzyme -> CH3CHO + CO2
• E. 5GA3P + 3ATP -> 3RuBP + 2Pi

Explanation: The word Chemoautotrophic nutrition means energy produced through chemical reactions taking place. The primary work is on inorganic compounds used to synthesise different organic compounds. The reaction involved in chemotrophic nutrition is: NH4 + 3O2 + light -> 2NO2 + 2H2O + 4H+ + energy

Q39. The muscles attached to the bones are

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Voluntary muscles are under conscious control, allowing us to move our bodies intentionally. Striated muscles have a striped appearance under a microscope due to the organization of their contractile proteins, giving them the name "striated." These muscles are also known as skeletal muscles and are responsible for body movements.

Q40. An organism appears to be a segmented worm. Upon observation, it is determined that the organism has a closed circulation, a mouth, and an anus and does not have an exoskeleton. The organism most likely belongs to the phylum:

• A. Mollusca
• B. Annelida✓
• C. Echinodermata
• D. Arthropoda
• E. Chordate

Explanation: Annelida: This phylum includes segmented animals like; earthworms, leech, etc Their body is soft and bilaterally symmetrical Their body is divided into the ring like grove(segments) called annuli. They have a complete digestive system from the mouth to anus Excretion is by nephridia. They have a closed circulatory system. Sexes may be separate or united (sexual reproduction ). The true body cavity is present. Eg; Pheretima, leech.

Q41. What is the product of both fermentation reactions and fractional distillation?

• A. An ester
• B. An acid
• C. An alcohol✓
• D. A soap
• E. As base

Explanation: Ethyl alcohol can be obtained by fermentation of starch, fermentation of molasses and fractional distillation of pyroligneous acid (obtained through destructive distillation of wood) gives Methyl alcohol.

Q42. The basic functional unit of human kidney is

• A. Nephridia
• B. Loop of Henle
• C. Pyramid
• D. Nephron✓

Explanation: A nephron is a unit of structure and function in a kidney. A kidney contains about a million nephrons, each approximately 3 cm long. A nephron is a long tubule differentiated into four regions having different anatomical features and physiological role : Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The latter opens into one of the collecting ducts. Nephridia are the excretory organs of annelids.

Q43. Given the reaction: C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O At STP , how many litres of O2 are needed to completely burn 5.0 litres of C3H8?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 10.5
• D. 15
• E. 25✓

Explanation: Consider that no. of moles of reactants = volume of the reactants.As the molar ratio between C3H6 and O2 is 1:5, the volume ratio is also the same. For 1L of C3H6 we need 5L of O2. Since the volume of C3H6 is 5L now, to burn this, we require 25L of O2.All other options are incorrect because they do not follow the exact mole-volume relationship required in this case.

Q44. For the reaction: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 .The production of NH3 will be favored at:

• A. High pressure and catalyst✓
• B. Low pressure only
• C. Low pressure and catalyst
• D. High pressure only
• E. Catalyst only

Explanation: The forward reaction forms fewer moles of gas (4 → 2), so high pressure shifts equilibrium toward NH₃. A catalyst increases the reaction rate but does not change equilibrium position. Therefore, maximum ammonia production is achieved using high pressure along with a catalyst.

Q45. The range of pH below _ and above _ of soil represent its sterilIty.

• A. 5....10
• B. 10....15
• C. 3....10✓
• D. 10....3
• E. 5....3

Explanation: pH below 3 and pH above 10 results in soil infertility. Hence the answer is C.

Q46. Consider NaCl produced in the equation: FeCl3+ NaOH → Fe(OH)3 + NaCl 175.5g of NaCl was dissolved in water to make a liter of solution, the molarity would be:

• A. 0.1 M
• B. 3 M✓
• C. 8 M
• D. 12 M
• E. 16 M

Explanation: Molarity = number of moles/volume in dm3 or liters 175.5 g make up 3 moles of NaCl 175.5/58.5 = 3 mol That means 3 mole of NaCl is dissolved in 1 liter of solution that makes the NaCl solution 3M.

Q47. Harmful and undesirable reaction of a metal when exposed to the atmosphere or any chemical agent is known as:

• A. Allotropy
• B. Electroplating
• C. Collision
• D. Cracking
• E. Corrosion✓

Explanation: The harmful and desirable reaction which occurs due to oxidation of the metal exposed to the surrounding air is called corrosion.

Q48. Catenation is a process in which carbon shows the properties of:

• A. Making single bond
• B. Hybridization
• C. Making chains or rings of carbon atoms✓
• D. Isomerism
• E. Breaking of bonds

Explanation: Catenation is the process by which an atom is able to form a bond with another atom of its kind. Carbon possesses this ability hence is able to form ringed structures.

Q49. When does a gas deviate the most from its ideal behavior?

• A. At low pressure and high temperature
• B. At high pressure and high temperature
• C. At low pressure and low temperature
• D. At high pressure and low temperature✓

Explanation: At high pressure and low temperature, a gas deviates the most from its ideal behavior. Under these conditions, the gas molecules are close to each other and they exert significant intermolecular forces on each other. Also, the volume of gas molecules becomes a significant portion of the total volume and cannot be neglected. Hence, the correct option is D.

Q50. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate is/are:

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2✓
• D. 3
• E. 4

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in a single orbital is two. The maximum number of electrons an orbital can accommodate is 2. As in an orbital two electrons can never have the same values of all 4 quantum no.s according to Pauli’s exclusion principle. So to follow this rule, an orbital can accommodate 2 electrons only.

Q51. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

• A. HO-
• B. None of these
• C. BF3✓
• D. CN-
• E. NH3

Explanation: Nucleophiles are electron donors as they have an extra pair of electrons to attack an electron-deficient electrophile. All of the options shown above are nucleophiles, having an extra pair of electrons except BF3.

Q52. Purification of bauxite whose major impurity Is silica (SiO2) is carried out through:

• A. Baeyer’s Method
• B. Hall’s Method
• C. Serpek’s Method✓
• D. Contact Method
• E. Electrolytic Method

Explanation: Serpek's method is used for the purification of bauxite if it contains an excess amount of silica (SiO2). The powdered bauxite is mixed with carbon and heated up to 1800˚C and a current of nitrogen is passed, aluminum nitride is obtained. Silica is converted into silicon (Si).

Q53. Chlorine is manufactured commercially by the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride (brine). Which other products are made in this process?

• A. Hydrochloric acid and hydrogen
• B. Hydrogen and sodium
• C. Hydrogen and sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Sodium and sodium hydroxide
• E. Hydrochloric acid and sodium

Explanation: Gas extraction: Chlorine can be manufactured by the electrolysis of a sodium chloride solution (brine), whichis known as the Chlor Alkali process. The production of chlorine results in the co-products of caustic soda (sodium hydroxide, NaOH) and hydrogen gas (H2).

Q54. The crystals formed as a result of vander Waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals
• E. None of these

Explanation: Molecular crystals have Vander Waal forces between them. Covalent crystals have strong covalent bonds between their structures. Ionic crystals are bound by ionic bonding. Metallic bonds are bound by strong electrostatic attraction between positively charged ions and electrons dispersed in the matrix.

Q55. Which factor does affect the equilibrium constant Kc for a reaction?

• A. Temperature✓
• B. Pressure
• C. Catalyst
• D. Initial concentrations

Explanation: Changing the temperature shifts the equilibrium position based on whether the reaction is endothermic (absorbs heat) or exothermic (releases heat), according to Le Chatelier's Principle.3 Since the ratio of products to reactants changes, the value of K must also change.

Q56. Nascent hydrogen used in the formation of methane is obtained from the reaction of:

• A. NaHCO3 with Zn
• B. HCl with Zn✓
• C. KOH with Zn
• D. H2O with Zn
• E. CH3I with Zn

Explanation: The correct option is the reaction of HCl with Zn. This reaction produces nascent hydrogen, which is a highly reactive form of hydrogen represented as [H]. This nascent hydrogen can then participate in further chemical reactions, such as the formation of methane. The balanced chemical reaction is: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + 2[H].Other options are incorrect because they do not involve reactions that produce nascent hydrogen. NaHCO3, KOH, H2O, and CH3I with Zn do not result in the generation of nascent hydrogen under typical conditions.

Q57. “Zymase”- a group of 14 enzymes used in the fermentation of starch, is present in:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Yeast✓
• C. Fungi
• D. Algae
• E. Virus

Explanation: Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts. Zymase activity varies among yeast strains. Zymase is also the brand name of the drug pancrelipase.

Q58. The general formula for an aldehyde is:

• A. R-OH
• B. R-COOH
• C. R-CO-R
• D. R-X
• E. R-CHO✓

Explanation: Aldehydes and ketones have a carbonyl group (C=O) as a functional group. A ketone has two alkyl or aryl groups attached to the carbonyl carbon (RCOR’). The simplest ketone is acetone, which has two methyl groups attached to the carbonyl carbon (CH3COCH3).An aldehyde is similar to a ketone, except that instead of two side groups connected to the carbonyl carbon, they have at least one hydrogen (RCOH or R-CHO). The simplest aldehyde is formaldehyde (HCOH), as it has two hydrogens connected to the carbonyl group. All other aldehydes have one hydrogen bonded to the carbonyl group, like the simple molecule acetaldehyde, which has one hydrogen and one methyl group (HCOCH3).The carbonyl carbon in both aldehydes and ketones is electrophilic, meaning that it has a dipole due to the electronegativity of the attached oxygen atom. This makes the carbonyl carbon an ideal target for nucleophiles in a nucleophilic addition reaction. During this reaction, the nucleophile, or electron donor, attacks the carbonyl to form the tetrahedral intermediate. The negatively charged oxygen accepts a hydrogen ion to form a hydroxyl group.Typically, nucleophiles possess a negative charge or lone pair on a heteroatom, which can take several forms (OH-, RO-, CN-, R3C-, RNH2, ROH). For primary amines (RNH2), the reaction does not stop at the formation of the tetrahedral intermediate with a hydroxyl group. Rather, an elimination reaction occurs that produces a double-bonded carbon and nitrogen functional group known as an imine. Understanding the reactions that aldehydes and ketones can undergo provides a way to differentiate between these similar organic compounds.

Q59. When a compound exists in more than one crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as:

• A. Isomorphism
• B. Polymorphism✓
• C. Isomerism
• D. Anisotropy
• E. Enthalpy

Explanation: The phenomenon of a compound existing in more than one crystalline form is known as polymorphism. Polymorphism refers to the ability of a substance to exist in multiple crystal structures or forms while maintaining the same chemical composition. Different crystalline forms, also called polymorphs, may have distinct physical properties such as density, melting point, and optical properties. This phenomenon is observed in various substances, including elements, compounds, and minerals.

Q60. What is the chemical formula for plaster of Paris?

• A. CuSO4·5H2O
• B. 2CaSO4·2H2O
• C. (CaSO4)⪽H2O✓
• D. MgSO4·7H2O
• E. Na2SO4·H2O

Explanation: The correct formula for plaster of Paris is (CaSO4)⪽H2O, which can also be represented as CaSO4·½H2O. It is created by heating gypsum to 120-180°C, resulting in a hemihydrate form of calcium sulfate. This compound is widely used in construction, art, and medical applications. The other options represent different chemical compounds that are unrelated to plaster of Paris.

Q61. Linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO) results in the formation of:

• A. Sigma bond
• B. Pi bond
• C. Bonding molecular orbitals only
• D. Bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals✓
• E. All of these options

Explanation: According to Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT), two atomic orbitals overlap resulting in the formation of molecular orbitals. Number of atomic orbitals overlapping together is equal to the molecular orbital formed. The two atomic orbital thus formed by LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbital) in the same phase or in the different phase are known as Bonding Molecular Orbital (BMO) and Antibonding Molecular Orbitals (ABMO) respectively.

Q62. Which of the following statements about H2S is false:

• A. It is a covalent compound
• B. It is a gas with a bad smell
• C. It is a strong reducing agent
• D. It is a molecule which is non linear
• E. It is a weak base in water✓

Explanation: H2S is a weak acid, donating two hydrogen ions in neutralization reactions, forming HS- and S-2 ions, not a weak base. Hence option E is the correct answer.H2S is a covalent compound with a rotten egg smell. It is a strong reducing agent with a bent (non-linear) geometry.

Q63. When 18 ×10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react with 22×10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40×10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40×10-3 moles/dm3 of waterFind the value of equilibrium constant (Kc)

• A. 4.04✓
• B. 3.14
• C. 3.04
• D. 2.02
• E. 1.04

Explanation: Kc= Concentration of products / Concentration of Reactants. Reactants = acetic acid and ethyl alcohol Products = ethyl acetate and water Multiplication product of products (40 × 40 =1600) Divide by multiplication product of reactants (18× 22= 396) 1600/396= 4.04.

Q64. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium because it:

• A. Has a higher atomic weight
• B. Is more electronegative
• C. Is more electropositive✓
• D. Is a metal
• E. Has a high melting point

Explanation: Sodium reacts more vigorously with water than lithium primarily because sodium is more electropositive. Electropositivity increases as you move down a group in the periodic table, which means sodium, being below lithium, loses electrons more easily. This increased tendency to lose electrons results in a more vigorous reaction with water. Other factors such as atomic weight, electronegativity, and melting point are not the primary reasons for this difference in reactivity. All alkali metals including sodium and lithium are metals, so this characteristic is not a differentiating factor either.

Q65. 950 torr corresponds to:

• A. 3.5 atm
• B. 1 atm
• C. 3 atm
• D. 1.25 atm✓
• E. 2.25 atm

Explanation: 1 atm = 760 torr To convert torr into atm Value of torr is divided by 760 950/760 = 12.5.

Q66. The raindrop acquires a spherical shape and ink spread over blotting paper due to:

• A. Surface tension✓
• B. Adhesive forces
• C. Viscosity
• D. Polarity
• E. Latent heat of vaporization

Explanation: A raindrop falling through the atmosphere forms a roughly spherical structure due to the surface tension of water. This surface tension is the “skin” of a body of water that makes the molecules stick together. The cause is the weak hydrogen bonds that occur between water molecules.

Q67. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form a negative ion is called:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Lattice energy
• E. Potential energy

Explanation: When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom to convert it into a negative ion, the enthalpy change accompanying the process is called Electron affinity enthalpy. Ionization potential, in chemistry, is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an isolated atom or molecule. Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. Lattice energy is defined as the energy required to separate a mole of an ionic solid into gaseous ions. Potential energy is energy that is stored – or conserved - in an object or substance.

Q68. Sigma bond is formed by:

• A. Transferring the electrons
• B. Head-on overlapping of atomic orbitals✓
• C. Mutual but unequal sharing of electrons
• D. Parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals
• E. All of these options

Explanation: The sigma bond, the strongest type of covalent bond, is formed by the head-on overlapping of atomic orbitals. This overlap allows for maximum electron density between the two bonding nuclei, resulting in a stable bond. In contrast, ionic bonds are formed by the transfer of electrons (Option A), polar covalent bonds arise from mutual but unequal sharing of electrons (Option C), and pi bonds result from the parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals (Option D). Thus, Option B is the only correct description for sigma bond formation.

Q69. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using:

• A. Joule's Law
• B. Ohm's Law
• C. Hess's Law✓
• D. Faraday's Law
• E. Boyle's Law

Explanation: Hess' law states that the change of enthalpy in a chemical reaction (i.e. the heat of reaction at constant pressure) is independent of the pathway between the initial and final states. In other words, if a chemical change takes place by several different routes, the overall enthalpy change is the same, regardless of the route by which the chemical change occurs (provided the initial and final conditions are the same). Hess’s law allows the enthalpy change (ΔH) for a reaction to be calculated even when it cannot be measured directly.

Q70. A particle moves from position r= 3i+2j-6k to r= 14i+13j+9k under the action of a Force F= 8i+2j+6k. Find the work done by the force:

• A. 50 units
• B. 75 units
• C. 125 units
• D. 155 units
• E. 200 units✓

Explanation: Work done = force×displacement Given data:F=8i+2j+6k N Now displacement, d=(14i+13j+9k) — (3i+2j-6k)d=(14–3)i+(13–2)j+(9-[-6])k d=11i+11j+15k Now, W=F×d W= (8i+2j+6k) × (11i+11j+15k) W=(11×8)+(2×11)+(6×15)W=88+22+90 W=200J

Q71. A body starts sliding on a rough horizontal surface with a speed of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, find the distance traveled by the body before coming to rest. (g = 10m/s)

• A. 15 m
• B. 25 m✓
• C. 35 m
• D. 40 m
• E. 55 m

Explanation: Given that: v = 10 and u = 0.2 and g = 10 Solution = Using F = μN then, = μmg (here N = mg) So from above (ma = μmg); we got a = μg Now a = 0.2×10 = 2 m/s2Now using equation of motion V2=u2+2as 0 = 10×10 +2×2×s In solving it, we got s = 100/4 = 25 m Hence we get the correct answer.

Q72. A battery whose emf is 40 V has an internal resistance of 5 Ohms. If this battery is connected to a 15 Ohms resistor ‘R’, what will be the voltage drop across ‘R’:

• A. 10 V
• B. 30 V✓
• C. 40 V
• D. 50 V
• E. 70 V

Explanation: 40 = I x (15+ 5) 40= I x 20 I = 40/20 I= 2 AVoltage drop across resistor R V= IR V= 2 x 15 V= 30 V (hence B is the correct option)

Q73. A particle of charge -0.04C is projected with speed 2 x 104 m/s into a uniform magnetic field ‘B’ of strength 0.5 T. If the particle’s velocity as it enters the field is perpendicular to ‘B’, what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on this particle:

• A. 4 N
• B. 8 N
• C. 40 N
• D. 80 N
• E. 400 N✓

Explanation: F=Bvq F=(0.5)*(2x104)*(0.04) = 400N

Q74. Due to the magnetic force, a positively charged particle executes uniform circular motion within a uniform magnetic field ‘B’. If the charge is ‘q’ and radius of its path is r, which of the expressions gives the magnitude of the particle’s linear momentum:

• A. qBr✓
• B. qB/r
• C. q/(Br)
• D. B

Explanation: Here the centripetal force will balance the magnetic force. So, mv2/r=qvB or mv=qBr Thus, linear momentum, p=mv=qBr

Q75. A transverse wave on a long horizontal rope with a wavelength of 8m travels at 2 m/s. At t=0, a particular point on the rope has a vertical displacement of +A is the amplitude of the wave. At what time will the vertical displacement of this same point on the rope be -A:

• A. t=⅛ s
• B. t=¼ s
• C. t=½ s
• D. t=2 s✓
• E. t=4 s

Explanation: v=fλ (2)=f(8) f=¼ Hz T=1/f=4s The time between +A to +A is called the time period, which is 4 seconds in this case. So the time between +A to -A will be half of T, which is 2 seconds.

Q76. The dimensions of volume and acceleration (respectively) are:

• A. LT-1
• B. LT-2 and LT-1
• C. L3 and LT-2✓
• D. L4 T-1 and LT
• E. LT3 and T2

Explanation: The following is the solution:Volume is equal to L x L x L=L3 Acceleration is equal to the rate of changeof velocity=Velocity/Time; ->Since velocity is equal to Distancetravelled/Time=L/T=LT-1 Plug these units into the formula ofacceleration=LT-1/T=LT-2. Hence the units are: L3 and LT-2

Q77. A vector such as the velocity of a body undergoing uniform translational motion, which can be displaced parallel to itself and applied to any point known as:

• A. Unit vector
• B. Free vector✓
• C. Null vector
• D. Position vector
• E. Resultant vector

Explanation: Option B is the correct answer because a free vector is one whose action is not confined or associated with a unique line in space. For a body in uniform translational motion, the velocity of any point in the body may be taken as a vector and this vector will equally well describe the velocity of all points in the body. Hence, the velocity of such a body may be represented by a free vector.

Q78. What is the flux density at a point 3 cm from the current carrying conductor, when there is a current of 25 A in a wire: (u0= 4𝜋 x10-7)

• A. 0.23x10-1T
• B. 1.67x 10-4T✓
• C. 2.99x10-6T
• D. 3.63x10-8T
• E. 999x10-7T

Explanation: The correct answer is 1.67x10-4T. To find the magnetic flux density (B) at a distance (r) from a long straight wire carrying current (I), you can use the formula:B = (μ0 * I) / (2 * π * r).Substituting in the values: μ0 = 4π x 10-7 T·m/A, I = 25 A, and r = 0.03 m (3 cm), we get:B = (4π x 10-7 * 25) / (2 * π * 0.03) = 1.67 x 10-4T.Other options are incorrect because:0.23x10-1T is too high, not matching the expected results.2.99x10-6T is too low compared to the calculations.3.63x10-8T is orders of magnitude smaller than expected.999x10-7T converts to an unreasonably high value of 0.0999 T.

Q79. If an object is placed 30 cm from a convex loin whose local enuth is 15 cm, the size of the image compared to the size of the object will be approximately:

• A. Twice as large
• B. More than twice as large
• C. 1.5 times as large
• D. Smaller
• E. The same size✓

Explanation: For an object placed at twice the focal length of a convex lens, the image will be inverted, real, and the same size. So the correct answer here should be E. This can be confirmed using a ray diagram.

Q80. When a conductor of a cross-sectional area 5x10-6 m2 carries a current of 6 A, the drift velocity of the conduction electrons is 1.2 x 10-4 ms1-. What is the number density (number per unit volume) of the conduction electrons?

• A. 4x10-28 m-3
• B. 1.6x10-27 m-3
• C. 2.5x10-27 m-3
• D. 6.3x1028 m-3✓
• E. 1.3x1034 m-3

Explanation: The formula for electric current relating the drift velocity is: I = neAV Where; I = Electric current n = Number of charges per unit volume e = Electron charge A = Cross sectional area V = Drift speed Solving for 'n' : n = I/eAV Here I = 6.0 Amp e = 1.6 x 10-19 C A = 5.0 x 10-6 m2 V = 1.2 x 10^-4 m/s Put all these values inabove equation and do the calculations: n = (6.0)/ (1.6 x 10-19) (5.0 x 10-6) (1.2 x 10-4) n = 6.3 × 1028 m-3 is the answer

Q81. A thermocouple is immersed in water at 373 K and the other in ice at 273K. The emf of the thermocouple Is 90 (μ)V for each 1 K difference in temperature between junctions, and the thermocouple resistance is 6 Ω. What current will flow in the galvanometer connected in series with an internal resistance of 30 ohms?

• A. 1.8 μA
• B. 250 μA✓
• C. 300 μA
• D. 1.5 mA
• E. 1.8 mA

Explanation: Given details: Galvanometer resistance = 30 ohm Thermocouple couple resistance = 6 ohm So, Total resistance = 30+6 = 36 ohm Temperature difference = 373K – 273K =100K Emf of thermocouple for 1K temperature difference = 90 microvolt = 90 × 10^-6 V So, for 100K, emf = 90 × 10^-6 x 100 = 90 × 10^-4 V Solution: Current flow in galvanometer = Voltage / Resistance I = 90 × 10^-4 / 36 =0.00025 A = 250 micro Ampere

Q82. According to the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = Q + W, where ΔU Is the increase in internal energy of the system, Q is the heat transferred to the system and W is the external work done by the system.Which of the following is NOT a correct expression?

• A. At constant temperature: Q = -W
• B. When no work is done: ΔU = Q
• C. In gaseous system: ΔU = Q + P Δ V
• D. When work is done by the system: ΔU = Q - W✓

Explanation: There are two sign conventions:1. ∆U= Q+W: Here, work done BYthe gas/system is taken POSITIVE. 2. ∆U= Q-W: Here, work done ON the gas/system is taken NEGATIVE. The equation provided in the question follows the first convention, according to which D is incorrect.

Q83. A body of mass 5 kg, initially at rest, is moved by a horizontal force of 2N on a smooth horizontal surface. Find the work done by the force in 10 sec:

• A. 40 J✓
• B. 30 J
• C. 50 J
• D. 20 J
• E. 10 J

Explanation: according to the formula of work (W=fd) we need to find the distance travelled, in order to do that we will find the acceleration firstacceleration = F/m=2/5 a = 2/5 m/s² Then we find the distance covereds=1/2at² (initial speed will be considered as 0) s=1/2*2/5*10² s = 2/10*100 s = 20m finally, we use the formula w=F.S w=2*20 w=40 J.

Q84. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror whose focal length is 40 cm. Which of the following best describes the Nature and the Distance from the Mirror of the image:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓
• E. Option E

Explanation: Following is the solution for the question:

Q85. An object is placed 60 cm from a spherical convex mirror. If the mirror forms a virtual image of 20 cm from the mirror, what is the magnitude of the mirror’s radius of curvature:

• A. 7.5 cm
• B. 15 cm
• C. 30 cm
• D. 60 cm✓
• E. 120 cm

Explanation: We can find focus coordinate from mirror equation: 1/u + 1/v = 1/f as the image is virtual, v is negative. And we find: 1/f = 1/60 - 1/20 = -2/60 = - 1/30 Hence, the focus is at 30 cm from the mirror. Focus and radius of curvature are connected as: R= 2f = 60 cm.

Q86. Find the unit vector parallel to the vector: B = 6i + 12j - 4k

• A. B = 4/14 i+ 12/14 j - 4/14 k
• B. B = 6/14 i + 12/14 j - 4/14 k✓
• C. B = 6/14 i + 17/14 j - 4/14 k
• D. B = 6/14 i + 17/14 j - 4/14 k
• E. B = 9/14 i + 12/14 j - 1/14 k

Explanation: The unit vector of a vector can be calculated as a vector divided by its magnitude. The magnitude of the given vector is: =√(6)²(12)²(-4)²=√(36+144+16)=√196=14 =6/14i+12/14j-4k/14Hence B is the correct answer.

Q87. Two capacitors C1 = 2µ and C2 = 4µ F are connected in series across in a 100V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. ½ µF
• B. 3/2 µF
• C. 5/2 µF
• D. 4/3 µF✓
• E. 2 µF

Explanation: Recall that the effective capacitance of capacitors in series is the reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of individual capacitors (just like resistors in parallel)Therefore,1/Ceffective = 1/C1 + 1/C21/Ceffective = ½ +¼ 1/Ceffective = ¾C effective= 4/3 µF Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q88. A rescue helicopter drops a package of emergency ration to a stranded party on the ground. If the helicopter is traveling at 40 m/s at a height of 100 m above the ground, where does the package strike the ground relative to the point at which it was released? (g= 9.8 m/s2)

• A. 120 m
• B. 130 m
• C. 140 m
• D. 180.7 m✓
• E. 200.3 m

Explanation: (Following is the solution to the given problem.)According to the equation of motion: s= ut + ½ at2 Since the initial velocity would be zero S = ½ gt2 100= ½ (9.8) t2 t2= 100 x 2/9.8T2= 100/4.9T2= 20.4T= 4.5 According to the formula s= vt S=40 x 4.5 S= 180.7 m

Q89. The radius of the moon is 27% off the earth’s radius and its mass is 1.2% of the earth's mass. Find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon:

• A. 0.431 m/s2
• B. 1.615 m/s2✓
• C. 2.431 m/s2
• D. 3.615 m/s2
• E. 4.431 m/s2

Explanation: Let M & M' be the mass of earth & moon. Also R & R' be their radius respectively. Given is - M' = 1.2% M = 0.012 M R' = 27% R = 0.27 R Gravitationalacceleration on earth's surface is - g = GM / R2 Gravitationalacceleration on supposed planet is - g' = GM' / R'2 g' = G(0.012M) /(0.27R)2 g' = (0.012/0.272)GM/R^2 g' = 0.1646 g g' = 0.1646 × 9.8 g' = 1.613 m/s2 Therefore, acceleration due to gravity on the moon's surface is 1.613 m/s2.

Q90. A battery has an e.m.f of 6.0 volts and an internal resistance of 0.4 ohms. It is connected to a 2.6 ohms resistor through a SPST (single pole, single throw switch). When the switch is open, the potential difference between the terminal of the battery is:

• A. 0 V
• B. 0.8 V
• C. 2.6 V
• D. 5.2 V
• E. 6.0 V✓

Explanation: The emf of a battery is generated by the chemical action in the battery. When no current is being drawn from the battery, the difference in potential between the terminals is equal to the emf.

Q91. Assume that you have two balls of identical volume, one weighing 2 Newtons and the other 10 Newtons. Both are falling freely after being released from the same point simultaneously. Which of the following will then be true: I. The 10 N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2 N ball II. At the end of the 4s of freefall, the 10 N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2 N ball III. At the end of the 4s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2 N ball IV. The 10 N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2 N ball

• A. I, Il and Ill only
• B. I and II only
• C. II and IV only✓
• D. IV only
• E. None of these

Explanation: Acceleration of free fall acts equally on all masses, this is why both objects despite having different masses have the same speed at any point in time. Statement II is correct because two objects have the same velocity but one having 5 times more mass than the other will have 5 times more momentum than the other object. Statement IV is also correct because inertia depends upon mass since a 10N ball has a higher mass it will have greater inertia. Statement III is wrong because objects have different masses so their kinetic energy can not be the same. Statement I is wrong because objects accelerate irrespective of their masses as mentioned before.

Q92. At the instant the traffic light turns green, an automobile starts with a constant acceleration of 2.1 m/s2. At the same instant a truck, traveling with a constant speed of 9.2 m/s, overtakes and passes the automobile. How far beyond the traffic signal will the automobile overtake the truck?

• A. 40 m
• B. 30 m
• C. 90 m
• D. 120 m
• E. 80.6 m✓

Explanation: The correct option is 80.6 m i.e. option E. Following is the explanation.

Q93. A sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume "V" at pressure "p" and absolute temperature "T". The mass of each molecule is 'm'. If "k" is the Boltzmann constant then the density of the gas is:

• A. mkT
• B. P/KT
• C. P/kTV
• D. mP/kT✓
• E. 2mPT/k

Explanation: PV= NkTV= NkT/PThe mass of one molecule of gas is ‘m’So total mass= N*mThe density of the gas is = total mass/ total volumeDensity= N*m/ (NkT/P)Which simplifies to mP/kT That is consistent with option D.

Q94. A ball of mass m moving with a horizontal velocity v strikes the bob of a pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob of the pendulum is also m. During this collision, the ball sticks with the bob of the pendulum. The height to which the combined mass rises:

• A. v2/g
• B. v2/2g
• C. v2/4g
• D. v2/8g✓
• E. v2/7g

Explanation: The explanation is given below;

Q95. A point source of light is placed at the principal focus of a concave lens. Which of the following will be true of the refracted light?I- I will diverge.II- It will be paralel to be principle axis.III- It will seem to come from a point 1/2 of the radius of curvature from the lens.IV- It will converage.

• A. I, II and III Only
• B. I and III only
• C. II and IV only
• D. IV only
• E. None of the above✓

Explanation: Statement I is correct because a concave lens is diverging.Statement II is incorrect because the refracted rays will not be parallel to the principal axis.Statement III is incorrect because this is not true.Statement IV is incorrect because a concave lens is diverging while a convex lens is converging. Judging from our deductions about the statements, none of the options A, B, C, or D are correct. Hence option E is the right answer.

Q96. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance through 1 K is called:

• A. Carnot engine
• B. Molar specific heat✓
• C. Kinetic specific heat
• D. General gas law
• E. Boyle's law

Explanation: Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of mass by 1 degree. The molar heat capacity is the heat capacity per unit amount (SI unit: mole) of a pure substance, and the specific heat capacity often called simply specific heat, is the heat capacity per unit mass of material. Option B is correct.

Q97. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160m/s. Calculate the greatest distance to which it could be projected and the height to which it would rise? (g=10m/s2).

• A. 1560m, 540m
• B. 2560m, 640m✓
• C. 3560m. 740m
• D. 4560m, 840m
• E. 9595m, 348m

Explanation: R= u²sin2θ/gFor maximum range θ=45So 160²/10= 2650This alone is sufficient to enable us to narrow our answer to just B (do not waste time finding height while attempting the actual exam!)For height, H= u²sin²θ/2gat θ=45 H=u²/4g160²/4*10=640Which again confirms option B to be correct.

Q98. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed V1 and the second half, with a speed V2. Find the average speed during the whole journey?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: Average speed= total distance/total timeThe car’s journey can be divided into two equal parts of distance ‘d’. Since both distances are equal,Total distance= 2dTotal time= d/v1 (for first part) and d/v2 (for second part)Average speed= 2d / d(1/v1+1/v2)d cancels out leaving 2 / (v1+v2/v1v2)Which can be written as 2v1v2 / v1+v2That is consistent with option B.

Q99. A battery has an e.m.f. of 4 V and internal resistance 'r'. When this battery is connected to a resistance of 2 ohms, a current of 1 amp flows in the circuit. How much current will flow if the terminals of the battery are connected directly:-

• A. 1 A
• B. 2 A✓
• C. 4 A
• D. 6 A
• E. infinite

Explanation: Current in the circuit is I = E/r + R = 4/r + 2 = 1or 2 + r = 4or r = 2 ohmsWhen the terminals of battery are connected directly, the current = E/r = 4/2 = 2A

Q100. A battery has an e.m.f of 6.0 volts and an internal resistance of 0.4 ohms. It is connected to a 2.6-ohm resistor through a SPST (single pole, single throw switch):When the switch is closed, the potential difference between the terminal, in volts is:

• A. 0
• B. 0.8
• C. 2.6
• D. 5.2✓
• E. 6.0

Explanation: Total current = V/R = 6/3 = 2 V = IR 2.6 x 2 = 5.2