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Sindh Mcat Nts 2010 Lumhs — Solved Past Paper with Answers

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Q1. Read the passage to answer question 1. The vast multitude of stars are wandering about in space. A few form groups which journey in company, but the majority are solitary travellers. And they travel through a universe so spacious that it is an event of an almost unimaginable rarity for a star to come anywhere near to another star. For the most part each voyage in splendid isolation, like a ship on an empty ocean. In a scale model in which the stars are ships, the average ship will be well over a million miles from its nearest neighbour, whence it is easy to understand why a ship seldom finds another within hailing distance. Which of the following is incorrect according to the passage

A. Most of the stars travel in isolation
B. The universe is very large
C. A star very frequently comes near to another one✓
D. A star very rarely comes near to another one
E. Some stars travel in groups

Explanation: We are to find the option which cannot be deduced from the above-mentioned paragraph.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The statement ‘Majority (of the stars) are solitary travellers’ means the same as ‘most of the stars travel in isolation’. So, it is evident that the statement for option A can be deduced from the paragraph.
B. The statement ‘They travel through a universe so spacious….’ points out that the universe is a very large space. Hence, option B can also be deduced from the paragraph.
D. The statement ‘It is an event of an almost unimaginable rarity for a star to come anywhere near to another star’ translates to the option D ‘A star rarely comes near to another one’. Hence, option D can also be deduced from the passage.
E. The statement ‘A few form groups which journey in company’ equals the option’s statement ‘Some stars travel in groups’. So, it can also be inferred from the passage.

Q2. Read the passage to answer question 2. The vast multitude of stars are wandering about in space. A few form groups which journey in company, but the majority are solitary travellers. And they travel through a universe so spacious that it is an event of an almost unimaginable rarity for a star to come anywhere near to another star. For the most part each voyage in splendid isolation, like a ship on an empty ocean. In a scale model in which the stars are ships, the average ship will be well over a million miles from its nearest neighbour, whence it is easy to understand why a ship seldom finds another within hailing distance. In the passage the “ship” symbolises:

A. Space
B. Traveller
C. Universe
D. Ocean
E. Star✓

Explanation: From the statement ‘In a scale model in which the stars are ships,....’, it is clearly said that stars = ships. It means that option E is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Space is not symbolised in the passage by anything. But it can be argued that the word ‘ocean’ is used for space. But by any means, ‘ship’ did not symbolise space.
B. The stars may be the travellers, as inferred from the above passage. But the word ‘ship’ is not meant for a traveller.
C. From the passage’s sentence ‘For the most part each voyage in splendid isolation, like a ship on an empty ocean’, we can say that universe = ocean.
D. The phrase ‘a ship on an empty ocean’ is used to describe a star in this huge universe. Hence, the word ‘ship’ is not used as a replacement for the word ‘ocean’.

Q3. Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below each. Cut the apple _ four parts.

A. Out
B. Into✓
C. Off
D. In
E. To

Explanation: The preposition ‘into’ is used to describe the direction of the verb. In this case, we are modifying the verb ‘cut’ by adding ‘four parts’, hence we will use the preposition ‘into’.

Why the other options are wrong

A. We use the proposition ‘out’ to express an object’s movement from within somewhere or something.
C. ‘Off’ is used when we mean to say that something or someone is moving away from its present position, place or time.
D. The preposition ‘in’ is used to refer to a specific and precise location or place.
E. We use the preposition ‘to’ when we want to talk about an object’s destination or final direction.

Q4. Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below each.The firemen took several hours to _ the fire.

A. Put in
B. Put up
C. Put off
D. Put out✓
E. Put to

Explanation: One of the meanings of the phrasal verb ‘put out’ is to extinguish something that is burning. Thus, option D is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The phrasal verb ‘put in’ means ‘to interrupt in a conversation of discussion’ or ‘to enter a ship in a port’. None of these are suitable to be filled in the blank.’
B. The phrasal verb ‘put up’ means ‘to construct something’, ‘to propose a theory’, ‘to display a notice or a sign’, or ‘to increase the cost of something’. So, it is not a reasonable option to choose.
C. The phrasal verb ‘put off’ is synonymous with ‘to delay’ or ‘to postpone’. Hence, this option is also incorrect.
E. The phrasal verb ‘put to’ means ‘to submit something to someone for consideration or attention’ or ‘devote something to a particular cause’. This option is also incorrect.

Q5. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed to the sentence to be correct: It was impossible to gets the horses across the river at this point. No error.

A. Was
B. To gets✓
C. Across
D. At this
E. No error

Explanation: ‘To + V1 (first form of verb)’ is the structure of an infinitive. We do not use ‘s/es’ after ‘to’. Hence, it should be changed to ‘to get’.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The subject ‘it’ always follows ‘was’ in the past simple tense, or ‘is’ in the present simple tense. So, it does not need to be changed
C. The preposition ‘across’ is used when we want to show the movement of an object from one side to the other side of a place/area. As we are talking about taking horses across the river, this preposition has found an excellent use.
D. The phrase ‘at this point’ has no error, and is used as it should have been.
E. As there is an error in option B, option E has automatically become a wrong option, as the error is present

Q6. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed to the sentence to be correct: Somebody have broken the lock. No error.

A. Somebody
B. Have✓
C. Broken
D. Lock
E. No error

Explanation: We do not use ‘have’ with a singular subject (i.e. ‘somebody’ in this case). Hence, it should be changed to ‘has’.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The pronoun ‘somebody’ has been used without any error.
C. We always use third from of verb (i.e. ‘broken’ in this case). So, it does not need to be changed.
D. There is no error in this option. The noun ‘lock’ is used as it should have been.
E. As there is an error in option B, so this option is not the right option.

Q7. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capital one. FAULT:

A. Dearness
B. Concern
C. Error✓
D. Clarity
E. Ready

Explanation: Error means ‘a mistake’. It is most closely related to the word ‘fault’. Hence, we will mark it as the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Dearness means ‘the fact of being expensive’.
B. Concern means ‘to make someone anxious or worried’.
D. Clarity means ‘to make something certain or definite’ or ‘the quality of transparency or purity’.
E. Ready means ‘to be in a state suitable for an action of situation’ or ‘to be fully prepared’.

Q8. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capital one. MAIN

A. Major✓
B. Side
C. Irrelevant
D. Besides
E. Minor

Explanation: Main means ‘something that has prime importance’.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Side means ‘a position to the right or the left of an object or a place’.
C. Irrelevant means ‘something that has no relation to something’.
D. Besides means ‘in addition to’ or ‘apart from’.
E. Minor means ‘lesser in importance or significance’. It is the antonym of the capitalised word.

Q9. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters. FIRM

A. Tough
B. Ugly
C. Fair
D. Soft✓
E. Deep

Explanation: Firm means ‘something that has a solid, almost unyielding surface or structure’.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Tough means ‘something that is strong enough to withstand any external damaging force’. It is a synonym of firm.
B. Ugly means ‘unpleasant in appearance’.
C. Fair means ‘impartial’ or ‘just’. It also means ‘beautiful’ or ‘light’.
E. Deep means ‘something that is extending far down from the top or a surface’.

Q10. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters. SHINING

A. Clean
B. Rude
C. Smooth
D. Even
E. Dull✓

Explanation: Shining means ‘giving out or reflecting bright light’.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Clean means ‘something that is free from dirt or stains’.
B. Rude means ‘someone who is offensively impolite or bad-mannered’.
C. Smooth means ‘something that has an even and regular surface’ or ‘something that is free of lumps or projections’.
D. Even means ‘something that is flat and smooth’.

Q11. Hydrogen peroxide is a highly toxic substance. In the liver it is broken down to hydrogen& oxygen by an enzyme:

A. Amylase
B. Transferase
C. Catalase✓
D. Lipases
E. Trypsin

Explanation: responsible for neutralization through decomposition of hydrogen peroxide, thereby maintaining an optimum level of the molecule in the cell which is also essential for cellular signaling processes.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Amylases' main function is to hydrolyze the glycosidic bonds in starch molecules, converting complex carbohydrates to simple sugars.
B. transferase is any one of a class of enzymes that catalyze the transfer of specific functional groups from one molecule to another.
D. Lipase is an enzyme the body uses to break down fats in food so they can be absorbed in the intestines.
E. Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. In the small intestine, trypsin breaks down proteins, continuing the process of digestion that began in the stomach.

Q12. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) is released from:

A. Anterior pituitary lobe
B. Posterior pituitary lobe✓
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced in the area of the brain called the hypothalamus. This hormone is stored in and released by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH controls how our body releases and conserves water.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced in the area of the brain called the hypothalamus. This hormone is stored in and released by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH controls how our body releases and conserves water.
C. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus. It can be the answer, but not very appropriate.
D. This option is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced in the area of the brain called the hypothalamus. This hormone is stored in and released by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH controls how our body releases and conserves water.

Q13. Red blood cells are:

A. Biconcave cells
B. Non-nucleated circular plate-like cells
C. Irregular cells
D. Nucleated cells
E. Both Biconcave & Non-nucleated circular plate-like cells✓

Explanation: Statement A and B are both valid.

Why the other options are wrong

A. RBCs being biconcave is that it increases the surface area.
B. RBCs lack a cell nucleus and organelles, to accommodate maximum space for hemoglobin
C. RBCs have biconcave disc like shape but In poikilocytosis, RBCs are irregularly shaped
D. RBCs lack nucleus

Q14. The possible causes of atherosclerosis are:

A. Hypertension
B. A high serum cholesterol level
C. Family history of arterial disease
D. Physical inactivity
E. All of the options✓

Explanation: All statements are valid

Why the other options are wrong

A. Hypertension is an atherosclerosis factor and is associated with cardiovascularrisk.
B. High cholesterol can cause a dangerous accumulation of cholesterol and other deposits on the walls of your arteries (atherosclerosis).
C. Family history of atherosclerosis may constitute a specific lipoprotein-related marker of atherosclerosis. Such a marker often precedes the onset of overt disease and may contribute to identifying patients with an atherogenic lipoprotein profile even in the absence of classical lipid risk factors.
D. Not getting enough physical activity can lead to heart disease—even for people who have no other risk factors. It can also increase the likelihood of developing other heart disease risk factors, including obesity, high blood pressure, high blood cholesterol, and type 2 diabetes.

Q15. Nutritional deficiency (Vitamin D deficiency) results in softening of the bones. Thisdisease in children is called:

A. Osteoporosis
B. Rickets✓
C. Arthritis
D. Cleft palate
E. Microcephaly

Explanation: Rickets is the softening and weakening of bones in children, usually because of an extreme and prolonged vitamin D deficiency

Why the other options are wrong

A. lack of calcium plays a role in the development of osteoporosis
C. Most forms of arthritis are thought to be caused by a fault in the immune system that causes the body to attack its own tissues in the joints.
D. Cleft lip and cleft palate are among the most common birth defects. They most commonly occur as isolated birth defects but are also associated with many inherited genetic conditions or syndromes.
E. Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is much smaller than expected.

Q16. _ continuously changes the kinds of plants and animals.

A. Predation
B. Succession✓
C. Symbiosis
D. Parasitism
E. Grazing

Explanation: Primary and secondary succession both create a continually changing mix of species within communities

Why the other options are wrong

A. Predation is an interaction in which one organism, the predator, eats all or part of the body of another organism, the prey.
C. any relationship or interaction between two dissimilar organisms
D. Parasitism is a non mutual relationship between two organisms in which one benefits at the expense of the other.
E. grazing is a method of animal husbandry whereby domestic livestock are allowed outdoors to roam around and consume wild vegetations.

Q17. The death of living cells that results from tissue injury is known as:

A. Apoptosis
B. Nuclear budding
C. Mitosis
D. Necrosis✓
E. Meiosis

Explanation: Necrosis is the death of body tissue. It occurs when too little blood flows to the tissue. This can be from injury, radiation, or chemicals

Why the other options are wrong

A. Apoptosis is a form of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms.
B. Nuclear envelope budding (NEB) is a recently discovered alternative pathway for nucleocytoplasmic communication distinct from the movement of material through the nuclear pore complex
C. Mitosis is a process of cell duplication, in which one cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells
E. type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and plant spores.

Q18. The total aggregate of the genes in a population is called:

A. Gene variation
B. Gene code
C. Gene mutation
D. Gene pool✓
E. Gene trait

Explanation: A gene pool refers to the combination of all the genes (including alleles) present in a reproducing population or species

Why the other options are wrong

A. Genetic variation is the difference in DNA among individuals or the differences between populations.
B. The genetic code is the set of rules used by living cells to translate information encoded within genetic material into proteins
C. :A genetic mutation is a change to a gene's DNA sequence to produce something different.
E. A trait, as related to genetics, is a specific characteristic of an individual. Traits can be determined by genes, environmental factors or by a combination of both

Q19. The mitotic stage in which the sister chromatids physically separate is:

A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase✓
E. Telophase

Explanation: Anaphase is the fourth phase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The interphase is the period when the cell is in a nondividing state.
B. Prophase is the first phase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells.
C. During metaphase, the nucleus dissolves and the cell's chromosomes condense and move together, aligning in the center of the dividing cell
E. the final phase of cell division, between anaphase and interphase, in which the chromatids or chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.

Q20. Which of the following is/are function(s) of semen?I. It provides the sperms with foodII. It provides the sperms with a medium to swim inIII. It neutralizes the acidity of urethra caused by the passage of Urine.

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: The nutrients found in semen will keep the sperm alive and provide energywhile they race to the egg. The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which mixes with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated. The prostate gland produces the force necessary to push the sperm out of the epididymis at ejaculation, while the bulbourethral gland emits a fluid just prior to ejaculation that neutralizes acid from any urine left over in the urethra.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The nutrients found in semen will keep the sperm alive and provide energywhile they race to the egg. The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which mixes with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated. The prostate gland produces the force necessary to push the sperm out of the epididymis at ejaculation, while the bulbourethral gland emits a fluid just prior to ejaculation that neutralizes acid from any urine left over in the urethra.So II and III are also correct
B. The nutrients found in semen will keep the sperm alive and provide energy while they race to the egg. The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which mixes with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated. The prostate gland produces the force necessary to push the sperm out of the epididymis at ejaculation, while the bulbourethral gland emits a fluid just prior to ejaculation that neutralizes acid from any urine left over in the urethra.So I and II are also correct
C. The nutrients found in semen will keep the sperm alive and provide energy while they race to the egg. The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which mixes with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated. The prostate gland produces the force necessary to push the sperm out of the epididymis at ejaculation, while the bulbourethral gland emits a fluid just prior to ejaculation that neutralizes acid from any urine left over in the urethra.So III is also correct
D. The nutrients found in semen will keep the sperm alive and provide energy while they race to the egg. The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which mixes with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated. The prostate gland produces the force necessary to push the sperm out of the epididymis at ejaculation, while the bulbourethral gland emits a fluid just prior to ejaculation that neutralizes acid from any urine left over in the urethra.So II is also correct

Q21. Coccyx, a reduced tail bone in man is the best example of:

A. Embryology
B. Vestigial organs✓
C. Homology
D. Habitat
E. Deme

Explanation: Vestigial organs are rudimentary anatomical structures that are retained in a species despite having lost their primary ancestral function.

Why the other options are wrong

A. branch of biology dealing with embryos and their development. : the features and phenomena exhibited in the formation and development of an embryo.
C. homology, in biology, similarity of the structure, physiology, or development of different species of organisms based upon their descent from a common evolutionary ancestor
D. habitat summarizes the array of resources, physical and biotic factors that are present in an area, such as to support the survival and reproduction of a particular species
E. deme is a local population of closely related interbreeding organisms.

Q22. The phytohormones controlling the plant movement are

A. Auxins✓
B. Gibberellins
C. Abscisic acid
D. Cytokinin
E. All of these options

Explanation: Auxins: the master growth regulatorAuxins are the main hormones responsible for cell elongation in phototropism (movement in response to light) and gravitropism (movement in response to gravity). The phytohormone primarily responsible for controlling plant movement, particularly tropisms like phototropism and gravitropism, is auxin. Auxins are plant hormones that play a significant role in regulating growth and directional responses in plants.Gibberellins, on the other hand, are phytohormones that primarily influence processes such as stem elongation, seed germination, and flowering but are not as directly associated with plant movement as auxins.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Gibberellins - helps in breaking dormancy in seeds and buds
C. Abscisic acid - promotes dormancy in seeds and buds
D. Cytokinin - promotes cell division and lateral growth in plants
E. Statement A is the most suitable option.

Q23. In mature cells each chromosome consists of two thin threads called:

A. Chromatids✓
B. Centromere
C. Karyotype
D. Chromomeres
E. Kinetochore

Explanation: A chromatid is one of the two identical halves of a chromosome that has been replicated in preparation for cell division

Why the other options are wrong

B. The centromere appears as a constricted region of a chromosome and plays a key role in helping the cell divide up its DNA during division (mitosis and meiosis.
C. the number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the cell nuclei of an organism or species.
D. A chromomere, also known as an idiomere, is one of the serially aligned beads or granules of a eukaryotic chromosome, resulting from local coiling of a continuous DNA thread
E. The kinetochore is a large protein complex that assembles on a specialized region of the chromosome called the 'centromere'

Q24. The utilization of the absorbed food molecules within the cells to provide energy fortissue building is called:

A. Digestion
B. Assimilation✓
C. Egestion
D. Absorption
E. Ingestion

Explanation: It is the movement of the digested food molecules into the cells of the body from where they are used. The liver is important in assimilation.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Digestion is the process of mechanically and enzymatically breaking down food into substances for absorption into the bloodstream.
C. Egestion is the expulsion of undigested food materials from the body through the anus or cell vacuoles.
D. absorption is a physical or chemical phenomenon or a process in which atoms, molecules or ions enter some bulk phase – liquid or solid material
E. the process of taking food, drink, or another substance into the body by swallowing or absorbing it.

Q25. Plague when combined with certain chemicals in the saliva, it becomes hardened &calcified forming a hard deposit known as:

A. Molar
B. Dental caries
C. Calculus✓
D. Gingivitis
E. Dentine

Explanation: dental tartar, also called calculus is a hard, calcified deposit that forms and coats the teeth and gums.

Why the other options are wrong

A. grinding tooth at the back of a mammal's mouth.
B. Dental caries is a prevalent chronic infectious disease resulting from tooth-adherent cariogenic bacteria that metabolize sugars to produce acid, which over time demineralizes tooth structure.
D. Gingivitis is a common and mild form of gum disease (periodontal disease) that causes irritation, redness and swelling (inflammation) of your gingiva, the part of your gum around the base of your teeth
E. Dentine is the main supporting structure of the tooth and is the second hardest tissue in the body after enamel

Q26. A patient is having an epigastric discomfort following meals, characterised by:I. Heart burnII. FlatulenceIII. Nausea & vomitingS(he) is suffering from a disorder known as:

A. Constipation
B. Piles
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Dyspepsia✓
E. Food poisoning

Explanation: Dyspepsia is another word for indigestion. People with chronic indigestion often report feelings of stomach pain, over-fullness and bloating during and after eating. Other common symptoms include acid reflux, heartburn and excessive burping

Why the other options are wrong

A. Constipation most commonly occurs when waste or stool moves too slowly through the digestive tract or cannot be eliminated effectively from the rectum.
B. Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swellings containing enlarged blood vessels that are found inside or around the bottom (the rectum and anus).
C. Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swellings containing enlarged blood vessels that are found inside or around the bottom (the rectum and anus)
E. Food poisoning, also called foodborne illness, is illness caused by eating contaminated food with symptoms-nausea,vomiting, watery or bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain and cramps, fever.

Q27. Type 1 Diabetes:

A. Alpha cells are destroyed by the lymphocytes
B. The beta cells are destroyed by the lymphocytes✓
C. Level of insulin is does to or above normal
D. The acid base balance of the body is maintained
E. None of these

Explanation: Type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of insulin-producingpancreatic beta cells by a beta cell-specific autoimmune process. Beta cellautoantigens, macrophages, dendritic cells, B lymphocytes, and T lymphocytes havebeen shown to be involved in the pathogenesis of autoimmune diabetes.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The α-cells secrete glucagon not insulin, diabetes is insulin dependent
C. level of insulin is below normal
D. acid base balance is disrupted. Diabetic acidosis (also called diabetic ketoacidosis and DKA) develops when substances called ketone bodies (which are acidic) build up during uncontrolled diabetes
E. statement B is valid

Q28. Wheat, Oats, rice and corn belong to the family:

A. Fabaceae
B. Poacceae✓
C. Solinaceae
D. Rosaceae
E. Casia

Explanation: Gramineae or Poaceae is a large family of monocotyledonous flowering plants and includes economically important cereals, bamboo, grasses both natural and cultivated including wheat, oats, rice, corn (maize), barley, sorghum, rye, and millet.

Why the other options are wrong

A. the Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family.
C. the Solanaceae, also known as the potato or deadly nightshade family, is one of humankind's most utilized and important plant families. It contains some of the world's most important food plants, such as the potato, tomato, all peppers, ground cherries (tomatillo), and eggplant.
D. The family Rosaceae includes herbs, shrubs, and trees. Most species are deciduous, but some are evergreen.
E. Cassia is a genus of flowering plants in the legume family, Fabaceae, and the subfamily Caesalpinioideae

Q29. A man has the following symptoms during a Fllariasis:I. Excessive inflammation of legsII. Inflammation of arms & scrotumThe disease is caused by:

A. A roundworm (Ascaris)✓
B. A flatworm (Dugesia)
C. A hookworm (Ancylostoma)
D. A thread worm (Wuchereria)
E. An earth worm

Explanation: Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified asnematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified asnematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea.
C. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified asnematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea.
D. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified asnematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea.
E. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified asnematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea.

Q30. The cell membrane is made up of:

A. Peptidoglycan
B. Lipids and Proteins✓
C. Carbohydrates
D. Proteins & Sugar
E. Cellulose

Explanation: The cell membrane is semipermeable (or selectively permeable). It is made of aphospholipid bilayer, along with other various lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates

Why the other options are wrong

A. peptidoglycan is constituent of bacterial cell wall
C. lipid bilayer is essential
D. lipid bilayer is essential
E. cellulose is constituent of plant cell wall

Q31. The number of tarsals and metatarsals in human feet are:

A. 14 and 10✓
B. 16 and 10
C. 14 and 16
D. 28 and 14
E. 28 and 16

Explanation: The foot contains 26 bones that are divided into three regions: the tarsals (or ankle and heel)7 bones, the metatarsals (forming the sole of the foot) 5 bones, and the phalanges (formingthe digits) 14 bones. So altogether of both feet its 14 tarsal, 10 metatarsal and 28Phalanges.

Why the other options are wrong

Q32. The development of an egg without being fertilized by a sperm known as

A. Metamorphosis
B. Regeneration
C. Differentiation
D. Parthenogenesis✓
E. Incubation

Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which an egg can develop into an embryo without being fertilized by a sperm

Why the other options are wrong

A. Metamorphosis is a biological process by which an animal physically develops including birth or hatching
B. Regeneration is the natural process of replacing or restoring damaged or missing cells, tissues, organs, and even entire body parts to full function in plants and animals.
C. Differentiation in (developmental biology) refers to the normal process by which a less specialized cell undergoes maturation to become more distinct in form and function
E. incubation is the process in which a bird, etc. keeps its eggs warm until the young come out, or the process in which an egg develops until the stage at which the young come out

Q33. If the newborn babies get mixed up in a hospital, how could you determine theirparentage from the information given below?Baby I Type OBaby II Type BMrs. Ali Type AMr. All Type ABMrs. Ahmad Type AMr. Ahmad Type A

A. Baby I is the child of Mr. and Mrs. Ahmad✓
B. Baby I is the child of Mr. and Mrs. Ali
C. Baby II is the child of Mr. and Mrs. Ahmad
D. Both Baby I and Baby II are the children of Mr. and Mrs. Ali
E. inadequate data

Explanation: The blood group of a person is determined by 3 genotypes namely IA ,IB and i. A person with blood group A can either be homozygous(IAIA) or heterozygous(IAi). Similarly person with blood group B can also be homozygous(IBIB) or heterozygous(IBi). But a person with blood group O will always be homozygous recessive(ii). Baby A has blood group O which means that the baby is homozygous this implies that both the parents must have the homozygous recessive allele. Mr and Mrs Ali cannot be the parents of baby A because While it is possible for Mr Ali to have the heterozygous genotype and have the recessive allele, it is not possible for Mrs Ali to have the recessive allele As she has a blood groupAB(IAIB). Therefore baby number one is a child of Mr and Mrs Ahmed and baby number two is the child of Mr and Mrs Ali.

Why the other options are wrong

B. To determine which baby belongs to which parents, we should use a punnett square. Sinceblood type B has two genotypes (which are BB and BO), there will be more than one punnettsquares. Baby-O is the child of Mr and Mrs Ali
C. To determine which baby belongs to which parents, we should use a punnett square. Sinceblood type B has two genotypes (which are BB and BO), there will be more than one punnettsquares. Baby-O is the child of Mr and Mrs Ali
D. To determine which baby belongs to which parents, we should use a punnett square. Sinceblood type B has two genotypes (which are BB and BO), there will be more than one punnettsquares. Baby-O is the child of Mr and Mrs Ali
E. To determine which baby belongs to which parents, we should use a punnett square. Sinceblood type B has two genotypes (which are BB and BO), there will be more than one punnettsquares. Baby-O is the child of Mr and Mrs Ali

Q34. The hollow filamentous appendages which help in conjugation bacteria are:

A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. capsule
D. Pilli✓
E. Storage bodies

Explanation: pilli can act as receptors for bacteriophage, facilitate DNA uptake and transfer (conjugation), and, in at least type IV pili, function in cellular motility

Why the other options are wrong

A. Flagella are microscopic hair-like structures involved in the locomotion of a cell.
B. The cell wall has multiple functions during bacterial growth, including maintaining bacterial cell integrity and shape as well as resisting internal turgor pressure
C. It protects the cell from physical and chemical attacks such as those found when food surfaces or preparation equipment are cleaned. The 'stickiness' of the capsule promotes cell adhesion to surfaces, a survival advantage. In addition, the capsule protects the cell from phagocytosis.
E. Storage granules are an important component of metabolism in bacteria as they store the cell's energy reserves as well as other important metabolites

Q35. The region where the impulse moves is called synapse. It consists of:

A. The axon terminates synaptic cleft & the dendrite of other neuron✓
B. Sensory neuron, motor neuron & axon
C. Myelinated & unmyelinated neurons
D. Soma & nissl substance
E. None of the options

Explanation: Synapses refer to the points of contact between neurons where information ispassed from one neuron to the next. Synapses most often form between axons anddendrites, and consist of a presynaptic neuron, synaptic cleft, and a postsynaptic neuron.

Why the other options are wrong

B. B. Sensory neuron, motor neuron & axon * While sensory and motor neurons are types of neurons that can be involved in neural pathways, they are not components that universally make up a synapse itself. A synapse is a specialized junction between neurons, not the neurons themselves in their entirety, nor just an axon.
C. C. Myelinated & unmyelinated neurons * Myelination refers to the presence or absence of a myelin sheath around an axon, which affects the speed of impulse conduction. While both myelinated and unmyelinated neurons can form synapses, this option describes types of neurons, not the structural components of the synapse itself.
D. D. Soma & nissl substance * The soma (cell body) and Nissl substance (ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum within the soma) are parts of a neuron's cell body, not the direct structural components of the synapse where impulse transmission occurs between neurons.
E. E. None of the options * Since option A is a correct description of the components of a synapse, this option is incorrect.

Q36. The adaptive characters exhibited by Bryophytes or their survival on land, include allexcept:

A. Heterogram
B. Absorption of CO2
C. Lignin fortified tissues✓
D. Conservation of water
E. Formation of embryos

Explanation: Bryophytes have only one set of chromosomes, lack lignin for support,do not have tracheids, and lack true roots

Why the other options are wrong

A. These are the group of plants which are non- vascular. They are autotrophs.
B. the CO2 uptake by bryophytes is an important component of global carbon cycling
D. bryophytes absorb water and dissolved minerals over the surface of the gametophore
E. In a great many bryophytes the tissue in the embryonic sporophyte differentiates. Typically there will be a foot that anchors the embryonic sporophyte to the supporting gametophyte, and at the end opposite the foot is the part that will develop into the spore capsule.

Q37. During the process of phototrophic nutrition (photosynthesis), the materials used byphototrophic organisms are

A. CO2 & H2O
B. Minerals (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Sulphur & Magnesium etc.)
C. Light
D. Green pigments (Chlorophyll “a” , “b” )
E. All of the options✓

Explanation: photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other photoautotrophsgenerate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water, and light energy inchloroplasts.

Why the other options are wrong

A. photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other photoautotrophsgenerate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water, and light energy inchloroplasts.
B. photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other photoautotrophsgenerate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water, and light energy inchloroplasts.
C. photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other photoautotrophsgenerate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water, and light energy inchloroplasts.
D. photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other photoautotrophsgenerate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water, and light energy inchloroplasts.

Q38. In the early morning, the water droplets can be seen on the tips of grass blades and leafmargins of small plants. This is a process called:

A. Adhesion
B. Gutation✓
C. Cohesion
D. Respiration
E. Plasmolysis

Explanation: Guttation is the exudation of drops of xylem sap on the tips or edges of leaves of some vascular plants.It occurs when there is active absorption of water by roots and transpiration is low i.e. moist and humid conditions.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Adhesion is the attraction of molecules of one kind for molecules of a different kind.
C. water drop is composed of water molecules that like to stick together-an example of the property of cohesion.
D. :respiration is the movement of oxygen from the outside environment to the cells within tissues, and the removal of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction that's to the environment
E. contraction of the protoplast of a plant cell as a result of loss of water from the cell.

Q39. The open type circulatory system is present in:

A. Humans
B. Fishes
C. Arthropods✓
D. cow
E. None of the options

Explanation: In Arthropods blood vessels are absent, sinuses are present. So they have open circulatory system

Why the other options are wrong

A. Humans have a closed circulatory system. The blood is enclosed in the vessels and the heart while circulating.
B. Fish have a closed circulatory system with a heart that pumps blood around the body in a single loop-from the heart to the gills, from the gills to the rest of the body, and then back to the heart.
D. Cows have a closed circulatory system. Their blood stays in the blood vessels at all times, never coming into direct contact with other cells in the body
E. Statement C is valid.

Q40. All of the following diseases are caused by viruses except;

A. Poliomyelitis
B. Common cold
C. Yellow fever
D. Diphtheria✓
E. Encephalitis

Explanation: Diphtheria is a serious infection caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin. It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a disabling and life-threatening disease caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads from person to person and can infect a person's spinal cord, causing paralysis (can't move parts of the body).
B. A cold is caused by any one of several viruses that causes inflammation of the membranes that line the nose and throat. It can result from any one of more than 200 different viruses. But, the rhinoviruses causes most colds. The common cold is very easily spread to others.
C. Yellow fever is caused by an arbovirus (a virus transmitted by vectors such mosquitoes, ticks or other arthropods) transmitted to humans by the bites of infected Aedes and Haemagogus mosquitoes.
E. Encephalitis is most often due to a virus, such as: herpes simplex viruses, which cause cold sores.

Q41. What functional groups ore present in the compound below ?

A. Ester and ether
B. Ester and amine
C. Ether and Carboxylic acid✓
D. Ether and ketone

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Ether and Carboxylic acid. The compound includes an ether functional group, characterized by an oxygen atom bonded between two carbon atoms (C--O--C), and a carboxylic acid functional group, which consists of a carbonyl group (C=O) bonded to a hydroxyl group (OH), forming the structure COOH. Options A and B are incorrect because they mention ester and amine groups, which are not present. Option D is incorrect because it suggests the presence of a ketone group, which is not in the compound.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This is incorrect. An ester group has the structure RCOOR, which is not present in this compound.
B. This is incorrect. Neither an ester (RCOOR) nor an amine (NH2) group is present in this compound.
D. This is incorrect. The compound has an ether group, but it does not contain a ketone group (RCOR).

Q42. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

A. A
B. C
C. K
D. Riboflavin
E. Niacin✓

Explanation: Deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin) causes pellagra, a condition that causes a dark, sometimes scaly rash to develop on skin areas exposed to sunlight.Hence, option E is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Deficiency of vitamin A causes high infection rate, night blindness and dry skin.
B. Deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy, bruising, gum and dental problems, dry hair and skin, and anaemia
C. Deficiency of vitamin K causes significant bleeding, poor bone development, osteoporosis and increased risk of cardiovascular diseases.
D. Deficiency of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) causes anaemia and cataracts, fatigue, swollen throat and blurred vision.

Q43. Absolute Zero is equal to:

A. 237.16 C
B. -273.16 K
C. -273.15 C✓
D. -272 C
E. 0 C

Explanation: In the Kelvin scale, absolute zero is defined as the temperature when T = 0K. It is the temperature at which any 1 C increase or decrease in temperature leads to 1/273 times increase or decrease in its original volume at 0 C respectively. Now that we know, at absolute zero temperature, T = 0KWe can convert it to degree celsius by using the formula, K - 273.15 = °C 0 - 273.15 = °C C = -273.15 °CHence, option C is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. In the Kelvin scale, absolute zero is defined as the temperature when T = 0K. It is the temperature at which any 1 C increase or decrease in temperature leads to 1/273 times increase or decrease in its original volume at 0 C respectively. Now that we know, at absolute zero temperature, T = 0KWe can convert it to degree celsius by using the formula, K - 273.15 = °C 0 - 273.15 = °C C = -273.15 °CHence, option C is the correct option.
B. In the Kelvin scale, absolute zero is defined as the temperature when T = 0K. It is the temperature at which any 1 C increase or decrease in temperature leads to 1/273 times increase or decrease in its original volume at 0 C respectively. Now that we know, at absolute zero temperature, T = 0KWe can convert it to degree celsius by using the formula, K - 273.15 = °C 0 - 273.15 = °C C = -273.15 °CHence, option C is the correct option.
D. In the Kelvin scale, absolute zero is defined as the temperature when T = 0K. It is the temperature at which any 1 C increase or decrease in temperature leads to 1/273 times increase or decrease in its original volume at 0 C respectively. Now that we know, at absolute zero temperature, T = 0KWe can convert it to degree celsius by using the formula, K - 273.15 = °C 0 - 273.15 = °C C = -273.15 °CHence, option C is the correct option.
E. In the Kelvin scale, absolute zero is defined as the temperature when T = 0K. It is the temperature at which any 1 C increase or decrease in temperature leads to 1/273 times increase or decrease in its original volume at 0 C respectively. Now that we know, at absolute zero temperature, T = 0KWe can convert it to degree celsius by using the formula, K - 273.15 = °C 0 - 273.15 = °C C = -273.15 °CHence, option C is the correct option.

Q44. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Atomic Hydrogen?

A. Molecular Hydrogen is less reactive than atomic hydrogen.✓
B. Most of the reactions of atomic hydrogen take place at ordinary temperature and some even below room temperature.
C. The product obtained as a result of dissociation of atomic hydrogen is known as the molecular hydrogen.
D. Expected reactions of atomic hydrogen are only those in which more than 04 kilocalories per mole are evolved per two gram atoms of Hydrogen.
E. All of the above

Explanation: Reactivity of hydrogen is as follows: Molecular hydrogen H2 < Nascent hydrogen [H] < atomic hydrogen HThis is because of the energy difference. Molecular hydrogen is the most stable among all three. Hence, it has the lowest reactivity. Nascent hydrogen is associated with release of high energy, which in turn activates it and makes it energy rich, hence it is more reactive than molecular hydrogen. There is not much of a difference between nascent hydrogen and atomic hydrogen, it’s just that nascent hydrogen can be produced at room temperature whereas very high temperature is required to make atomic hydrogen. Due to its production at high temperature, it has more energy and thus, it is the most reactive among all.Therefore, option A is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Atomic hydrogen is produced at very high temperature, hence its reactions also take place at high temperature, mostly above 300 °C. This option is incorrect.
C. When two atomic hydrogens combine, they form molecular hydrogen. According to the statement, however, when atomic hydrogen dissociates or breaks down, molecular hydrogen is formed, which is not true. Hence, this option is incorrect
D. Dissociation energy of one mole of hydrogen atom (formation of one mole of H-atom) is 104 kcal/mol. But the statement says that we have 2 moles ( 2g of H- atom = 2 moles), so we would need 208 kcal. Hence, this option is incorrect.
E. Only option A is correct, so this option is incorrect.

Q45. Aqua Regia is:

A. 1 part by volume of conc HCl and 3 parts by volume of conc-HNO3
B. 2 parts by volume of conc-HNO3 and 2 parts by volume of conc-HCl
C. 1 part by volume of conc-HNO3 and 3 parts by volume of conc-HCl✓
D. 3 parts by volume of conc-HNO3 and 2 parts by volume of conc-HCl
E. 3 parts by volume of dilute-HNO3 and 1 parts by volume of dilute-HCl

Explanation: Aqua regia is commonly used to remove noble metals (such as gold, platinum and palladium) from substrates. We can say that it is used to purify the noble metals.Aqua regia (translates to Royal Water) is a solution of nitrohydrochloric acid. It comprises a 3:1 mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) to nitric acid (HNO3). Hence, option C is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Aqua regia is commonly used to remove noble metals (such as gold, platinum and palladium) from substrates. We can say that it is used to purify the noble metals.Aqua regia (translates to Royal Water) is a solution of nitrohydrochloric acid. It comprises a 3:1 mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) to nitric acid (HNO3).Hence, option C is the correct option.
B. Aqua regia is commonly used to remove noble metals (such as gold, platinum and palladium) from substrates. We can say that it is used to purify the noble metals.Aqua regia (translates to Royal Water) is a solution of nitrohydrochloric acid. It comprises a 3:1 mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) to nitric acid (HNO3).Hence, option C is the correct option.
D. Aqua regia is commonly used to remove noble metals (such as gold, platinum and palladium) from substrates. We can say that it is used to purify the noble metals.Aqua regia (translates to Royal Water) is a solution of nitrohydrochloric acid. It comprises a 3:1 mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) to nitric acid (HNO3).Hence, option C is the correct option.
E. Aqua regia is commonly used to remove noble metals (such as gold, platinum and palladium) from substrates. We can say that it is used to purify the noble metals.Aqua regia (translates to Royal Water) is a solution of nitrohydrochloric acid. It comprises a 3:1 mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) to nitric acid (HNO3).Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q46. In the Hoope’s electrolytic method of Aluminium refining, the reaction which takes place at cathode is:

A. Al →Al (+3) + 3e -
B. Al (+3) + 3e → Al✓
C. Al → Al + 3e
D. Al (+1) + 1e → Al
E. Al → Al (+1) + 2e

Explanation: Hoope’s process is a metallurgical process, which is used to obtain highly pure aluminium metal.For cathode, we use graphite rods dipped in molten aluminium. We also know that reduction occurs on cathode {Al (+3) is reduced to aluminium by gaining 3 electrons}.Following reaction takes place at cathode: Al (+3) + 3e ⇒ AlHence, option B is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. As the reaction is an oxidation reaction, this option is incorrect.
C. The equation cannot be true, hence this option is incorrect.
D. The equation does not satisfy the valency of aluminium, hence this option is also incorrect.
E. The equation does not satisfy the valency of aluminium, hence this option is also incorrect.

Q47. The calories produced per gram of fat are:

A. 4 calories
B. 7 calories
C. 9 calories✓
D. 21 calories
E. 19 calories

Explanation: A gram of fats produces 9 calories, whereas a gram of carbohydrates or proteins produce 4 calories. Hence, option C is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. A gram of fats produces 9 calories, whereas a gram of carbohydrates or proteins produce 4 calories. Hence, option C is correct.
B. A gram of fats produces 9 calories, whereas a gram of carbohydrates or proteins produce 4 calories. Hence, option C is correct.
D. A gram of fats produces 9 calories, whereas a gram of carbohydrates or proteins produce 4 calories. Hence, option C is correct.
E. A gram of fats produces 9 calories, whereas a gram of carbohydrates or proteins produce 4 calories. Hence, option C is correct.

Q48. The bonds angle of linear, trigonal and tetrahedral shapes respectively is:

A. . 180˚, 120˚, 109˚✓
B. 180˚, 109˚, 120˚
C. 130˚, 180˚, 120˚
D. 129˚,180˚, 160˚
E. 107˚, 175˚, 130˚

Explanation: If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚. All of these values are correctly placed in option A. Hence, it is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

B. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
C. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
D. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
E. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.

Q49. The bonds angle of linear, trigonal and tetrahedral shapes respectively is:

A. . 180˚, 120˚, 109˚✓
B. 180˚, 109˚, 120˚
C. 130˚, 180˚, 120˚
D. 129˚,180˚, 160˚
E. 107˚, 175˚, 130˚

Explanation: If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚. All of these values are correctly placed in option A. Hence, it is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

B. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
C. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
D. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.
E. If the bond angle is linear, it means that there is an angle of 180˚.If the bond angle is trigonal, it means that the angle is 120˚.If the bond angle is tetrahedral, it means that the angle is 109˚.

Q50. Sodium benzene Dodecyl sulphate (C18H29SO3-Na+),is the most active constituent of:

A. Plastic
B. Surf✓
C. Steel
D. Fiber
E. Rayon

Explanation: Sodium Dodecylbenzene Sulfonate (SDBS) is a white to light yellow sand-like solid.

Why the other options are wrong

A. SDBS is not used in plastics
C. SDBS is not used in rayon
D. SDBS is not used in rayon
E. SDBS is not used in rayon

Q51. The significant figure 1.41 x 3.546 is:

A. 15.10
B. 5.00✓
C. 8.00
D. 6.50
E. 10.00

Explanation: 1.41 × 3.546 = 4.999859999999999Round 4.999859999999999 → 5.00 (Sig Figs: 3)To count the number of sig figs in 5.00, count all 3 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).

Why the other options are wrong

A. 1.41 × 3.546 = 4.999859999999999Round 4.999859999999999 → 5.00 To count the number of sig figs in 5.00, count all 3 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).
C. 1.41 × 3.546 = 4.999859999999999Round 4.999859999999999 → 5.00 To count the number of sig figs in 5.00, count all 3 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).
D. 1.41 × 3.546 = 4.999859999999999Round 4.999859999999999 → 5.00 To count the number of sig figs in 5.00, count all 3 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).
E. 1.41 × 3.546 = 4.999859999999999Round 4.999859999999999 → 5.00To count the number of sig figs in 5.00, count all 3 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).

Q52. Electronegativity of elements increases as we go from:

A. Top to bottom
B. Left to right✓
C. Right to left
D. Bottom to top
E. None of the above

Explanation: Across the period, the effective nuclear charge increases and the atomic size decreases. Therefore, the tendency to attract shared pairs of electrons increases, thereby increasing electronegativity.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Down the group, atomic size increases and the effective nuclear charge decreases. Therefore, the tendency to attract shared pairs of electrons decreases, thereby decreasing electronegativity.
C. Towards the left of the table, valence shells are less than half full, so these atoms (metals) tend to lose electrons and have low electronegativity
D. Although electronegativity also increases from bottom to top of a group, the increase across a period is comparatively more significant
E. Statement B is valid

Q53. Which of the following bonds explain water’s high boiling point:

A. Ionic bonding
B. Covalent bonding
C. Polar Covalent bonding
D. Metallic bonding
E. Hydrogen bonding✓

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding raises the boiling point of a water. This is because hydrogen bonds are strong intermolecular attractive forces that create stable molecules. It takes more energy to break up such a molecule than it would if the bond were not there.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Ionic bonding is a type of chemical bonding that involves the electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
B. A covalent bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electrons to form electron pairs between atoms
C. Polar covalent bonding is a type of chemical bond where a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms due to difference in their electro-negativities.
D. A metallic bond is a type of chemical bond formed between positively charged atoms in which the free electrons are shared among a lattice of cations

Q54. Which of the following occurs in the Contact Process?

A. Sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water
B. Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in water
C. Sulphur dioxide is dissolved in dilute sulphuric acid
D. Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid✓
E. None of the above

Explanation: Sulfur trioxide is absorbed by 98% sulphuric acid to produce oleum (pyrosulphuric acid).

Why the other options are wrong

A. Sulfur dioxide and oxygen, passed over a hot catalyst, unite to form sulfur trioxide first.
B. Sulphur trioxide formed is not dissolved in water directly as the reaction is highly exothermic and would form clouds of sulfur trioxide and water vapor. These would corrode the plant and machinery
C. Sulfur dioxide is oxidized to sulfur trioxide in presence of V2O5 before reacting with H2SO4
E. Statement D is valid.

Q55. In going from1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1to 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 5 4s 2 , an electron would:

A. Absorb energy✓
B. Emit energy
C. Relax to the ground state
D. Bind to another atom
E. Undergo no change in energy

Explanation: 4s has a higher energy level compared to 3p. Electrons can jump from a lower to the next higher energy level if they absorb this amount of energy.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Electrons falling from the higher energy state (excited state) to the lower energy state (ground state) emit energy.
C. Electrons do not stay in excited states for very long - they soon return to their ground states, however the question only targets jump from a lower to a higher energy level, not what happens after.
D. An electron doesn't move to another atom to form a bond.
E. Electrons are going from the lower energy state (ground state) to an excited state.

Q56. The heat evolved or absorbed during a chemical reaction depends upon the:

A. The amount of chemical substance involved
B. The temperature
C. The physical state of the substance involved
D. Whether the reaction occurs at constant pressure or constant volume
E. all of the options✓

Explanation: The Heat of Reaction is the change in the enthalpy of a chemical reaction that occurs at a constant pressure. It is a thermodynamic unit of measurement useful for calculating the amount of energy per mole either released or produced in a reaction. Since enthalpy is derived from pressure, volume, and internal energy, all of which are state functions, enthalpy is also a state function.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The magnitude of ΔH is dependent upon the amounts of reactants consumed. Doubling the reactants, doubles the amount of enthalpy.
B. Heat of reaction is dependent on temperature
C. Heat of reaction is dependent on physical states of reactants and product.
D. Heat of reaction is dependent on whether reaction is carried out at constant pressure or constant volume.

Q57. Example of Transition Metal Complex Anion is:

A. [CO(NH3 )6 ] Cl3
B. [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
C. [Pt(NH3 )2Cl4 ]
D. [CO(NH3 )3 (NO2 )3 ]
E. K3 [CO(NO2 )6 ]✓

Explanation: Potassium hexanitritocobaltate (III) has six NO2- so they are named as hexanitrito. The complex has -3 charge hence it is a transition metal complex anion.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride contains complex cation.
B. Tetraamminedichlorochromium(III) chloride contains complex cation
C. Tetrachloro diamine platinum (IV) has a neutral complex
D. Triammine trinitro-N-cobalt(III) has a neutral complex

Q58. If the volume of a gas is plotted against the total pressure, the curve contained would be:

A. Straight line
B. Parabolic curve
C. Hyperbolic curve✓
D. Exponential curve
E. None of these

Explanation: The graph of Boyle’s law is called the PV curve. This graph of Boyle’s law is not straight but hyperbolic; this is because the statement says that at a constant temperature the pressure and the volume are inversely proportional. So when the pressure is increased the volume decreases and vice-versa.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Straight line is obtained only for direct relations such as the graph of P against 1/V
B. PV curve is hyperbolic not parabolic.
D. Exponential functions show how quickly something increases or decreases over time such as radioactive decay.
E. Statement C is valid

Q59. The Latent Heat of fusion is defined as:

A. The Heat energy required to change 1mg of a solid into liquid at its melting point.
B. The Heat energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into liquid at its melting point.✓
C. The Heat energy required to change 18 g of a solid into liquid at its melting point.
D. The Heat energy required to change 1g of a solid into liquid at its melting point
E. None of the options

Explanation: Latent heat of fusion of a solid is defined as the amount of heat required toconvert a unit mass of the substance from the solid state to the liquid state without changingthe temperature.

Why the other options are wrong

A. States 1mg instead of 1kg
C. States 18g instead of 1kg
D. States 1g instead of 1 kg
E. Statement B is valid

Q60. Coke is produced from bituminous coal by

A. Cracking
B. Synthesis
C. Substitution
D. Destructive distillation✓

Explanation: Destructive distillation is the correct process used to produce coke from bituminous coal. In this process, coal is heated in the absence of air, leading to its breakdown into coke, volatile gases, and other byproducts. Coke is an important fuel and a source of carbon, particularly in the iron and steel industries.The other options are incorrect: Cracking is related to breaking down hydrocarbons in petroleum refining, not coal. Synthesis refers to creating complex compounds from simpler ones, which does not apply here. Substitution involves one chemical replacing another in a compound, which is unrelated to coke production.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Cracking is a process mainly associated with breaking down large hydrocarbon molecules into smaller ones, typically in the oil refining industry. It is not used for coke production from coal.
B. Synthesis refers to combining simpler substances to form a complex substance, which is not the process for producing coke from coal.
C. Substitution involves replacing one element or group in a compound with another, which is unrelated to the production of coke from coal.

Q61. The property of being able to add enthalpies is based on the:

A. Law of Conservation of Heat
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Law of Constants
D. Law of E = mc2
E. Hess"s law✓

Explanation: The law states that the total enthalpy change during the complete course of a chemical reaction is independent of the sequence of steps taken.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed - only converted from one form of energy to another.
B. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be converted from one form to another.
C. The law of constant proportions states that chemical compounds are made up of elements that are present in a fixed ratio by mass.
D. the equation says that energy and mass (matter) are interchangeable; they are different forms of the same thing.

Q62. If ∆H of a reaction is -100 KCal/mole, it indicates the reaction

A. Endothermic
B. Unstable
C. In need of a catalyst
D. Exothermic✓
E. None of these

Explanation: ∆H for exothermic reactions is -ve

Why the other options are wrong

A. ∆H for endothermic reactions is +ve
B. energy of the system decreases during an exothermic reaction, the products of the system are more stable than the reactants
C. delta H doesn't change in the presence of a catalyst. the catalyst just gives the reaction an alternate pathway with a lower activation energy
E. Statement D is valid

Q63. All of the following are Electrophilic Reactions of Benzene EXCEPT:

A. Nitration
B. Halogenation
C. Sulphonation
D. Alkylation and Acylation by Friedel-Craft reaction
E. Conjugation✓

Explanation: the three “double bonds” of the benzene ring are not true double bonds. The electrons are shared across all of the carbons in the ring, an arrangement called conjugation hence no electrophiles are involved.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Nitration happens when one (or more) of the hydrogen atoms on the benzene ring is replaced by a nitro group, NO2.
B. Benzene reacts with chlorine or bromine in the presence of a catalyst, replacing one of the hydrogen atoms on the ring by a chlorine or bromine atom.
C. Sulfonation of benzene is a process of heating benzene with fuming sulphuric acid (H2SO4 +SO3) to produce benzenesulfonic acid.
D. Friedel-Crafts Alkylation refers to the replacement of an aromatic proton with an alkyl group.Friedel-Crafts Acylation is electrophilic aromatic substitution that allows the synthesis of monoacylated products from the reaction between arenes and acyl chlorides or anhydrides.

Q64. Which of the following is most likely to increase the rate of a reaction?

A. Decreasing the temperature
B. . Decrease the surface area of reactant
C. Reducing the activation energy✓
D. Decreasing the concentration of the reactant in the reaction vessel
E. Negative catalysis

Explanation: The energy required to start a reaction is called the activation energy. Thelower the activation energy, the faster a reaction happens.

Why the other options are wrong

A. With a decrease in temperature, there is a decrease in energy that can be converted into activation energy in a collision, and that will decrease the reaction rate.
B. If the surface area of a reactant is decreased: less particles are exposed to the other reactant. there is a lower chance of particles colliding, which leads to less successful collisions per second, the rate of reaction decreases.
D. If the concentration of a reactant is decreased the equilibrium will shift in the direction of the reaction that produces the reactants, so that the reactant concentration increases. The reverse reaction is favored hence the rate of forward reaction decreases.
E. the catalyst that decreases the rate of reaction is known as a negative catalyst.

Q65. Which of the following represents on ordering of the period 4 elements bromine (Br), calcium (Ca), krypton (Kr), and potassium (K) by increasing atomic size?

A. K, Kr, Ca, Br
B. K, Ca, Br, Kr
C. Kr, Br, Ca, K✓
D. Ca, K, Br, Kr
E. Br, Kr, Ca, K

Explanation: Atomic size (radius) decreases across a period from left to right in the periodic table.So, in Period 4, the element farthest to the left is largest, and the one farthest to the right is smallest.Now locate them in order:K (potassium) — Group 1 (far left)Ca (calcium) — Group 2Br (bromine) — Group 17Kr (krypton) — Group 18 (far right)So, increasing atomic size means small → large (right to left).✅ Correct order:Kr < Br < Ca < K

Why the other options are wrong

A. This implies K < Kr < Ca < Br. That’s wrong because K is actually the largest (should be last) and Kr is the smallest (should be first). The whole order is essentially reversed.
B. This implies K < Ca < Br < Kr — again the complete reverse. Kr (noble gas) is smallest, not largest; K (Group 1) is largest, not smallest.
D. This implies Ca < K < Br < Kr. It wrongly places Br and Kr larger than K. In fact Br < Ca < K, and Kr should be the smallest.
E. This implies Br < Kr < Ca < K. The error is Br < Kr — but Kr is smaller than Br, so their positions are swapped.

Q66. The acidic nature of ethanol is shown when it reacts with Na forming:

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Sodium oxide
C. Sodium ethoxide✓
D. Formic acid
E. Aldehyde

Explanation: If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give offbubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide: CH3CH2ONa

Why the other options are wrong

A. If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give offbubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide: CH3CH2ONa.
B. If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give offbubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide: CH3CH2ONa.
D. If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give offbubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide: CH3CH2ONa.
E. If a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, it reacts steadily to give offbubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colorless solution of sodium ethoxide: CH3CH2ONa.

Q67. With increasing size of the atom down the Group, the ionization enthalpies:

A. Increases
B. Decreases✓
C. 1st increase, then decrease
D. 1st decrease, then increase
E. Remain unchanged

Explanation: The first ionization enthalpy of elements decreases as we move down in a group. While moving down in a group, the atomic number increases and the number of shells also increases. Outermost electrons are far away from the nucleus and thus can be removed easily. The second factor that decreases the ionization energy is the shielding effect due to an increasing number of shells as we move down a group.

Why the other options are wrong

A. the ionization energy of elements increases across a period not down a group
C. ionization enthalpy of elements has a decreasing trend down a group so these options are eliminated.
D. ionization enthalpy of elements has a decreasing trend down a group so these options are eliminated.ionization enthalpy of elements has a decreasing trend down a group so these options are eliminated.
E. ionization enthalpy of elements has a decreasing trend down a group so these options are eliminated.

Q68. Transition metal compounds generally exhibit bright colors because:

A. The electrons in the partially filled d orbitals are easily promoted to excited states.✓
B. The metals become complexed in water
C. The metals conduct electricity, producing colored light
D. The electrons in the d orbitals emit energy as they relax
E. Their valence electrons cause them to bind to other metals

Explanation: The striking colors exhibited by transition-metal complexes are caused byexcitation of an electron from a lower-energy d orbital to a higher-energy d orbital, which iscalled a d–d transition.

Why the other options are wrong

B. B) "The metals become complexed in water" * While transition metals do form complexes with water (aqua complexes), and these complexes are often colored, the reason for the color isn't simply the act of complexation itself.
C. C) "The metals conduct electricity, producing colored light" * Transition metals do conduct electricity, but this property is related to metallic bonding and delocalized electrons, not directly to the vibrant colors of their compounds. The colors of compounds arise from electron transitions within the ions of the compounds, not from the bulk metallic properties. Also, conducting electricity doesn't inherently produce colored light in this context (like a light bulb filament does).
D. D) "The electrons in the d orbitals emit energy as they relax" * While electrons do emit energy as they relax from excited states, this typically happens when they return to their ground state after being promoted. The primary reason for the absorption of light and thus the perceived color in transition metal compounds is the promotion of electrons to excited states by absorbing specific wavelengths of light. The emission of light (fluorescence or phosphorescence) is a different phenomenon, although related to electron transitions. The question asks why they exhibit bright colors, which refers to the absorption and reflection/transmission of light.
E. E) "Their valence electrons cause them to bind to other metals" * Transition metals do use their valence electrons (including d electrons) for bonding, including metallic bonding with other metal atoms. However, this explains their ability to form alloys or metallic structures, not the vibrant colors of their compounds (which are typically ionic or covalent compounds with non-metals or ligands).

Q69. Stainless steel is the:

A. Magnesium based alloy
B. Iron based alloy✓
C. Zinc based alloy
D. Aluminium based alloy
E. Nickle based alloy

Explanation: Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that is resistant to rusting and corrosion. It contains at least 11% chromium and may contain elements such as carbon, other nonmetals and metals to obtain other desired properties.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that is resistant to rusting and corrosion. It contains at least 11% chromium and may contain elements such as carbon, other nonmetals and metals to obtain other desired properties.
C. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that is resistant to rusting and corrosion. It contains at least 11% chromium and may contain elements such as carbon, other nonmetals and metals to obtain other desired properties.
D. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that is resistant to rusting and corrosion. It contains at least 11% chromium and may contain elements such as carbon, other nonmetals and metals to obtain other desired properties.
E. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that is resistant to rusting and corrosion. It contains at least 11% chromium and may contain elements such as carbon, other nonmetals and metals to obtain other desired properties.

Q70. Which of the following is an element?

A. tap water
B. Graphite✓
C. Sea water
D. Brass
E. Sulphuric acid

Explanation: An element is any substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler substances by ordinary chemical processes. It is a fundamental item that cannot be easily broken into smaller pieces. An element is also defined as a substance made up of only one type of atom, all with same number of protons

Why the other options are wrong

A. Tap water is just regular water. Its chemical formula is H2O. It is not an element, but a compound.
C. Sea water also has the same chemical formula, H2O. It is also not an element.
D. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc (Cu–Zn). It is made up of two elements.
E. The chemical formula of sulphuric acid is H2SO4. It is also a compound.

Q71. the source and the screen on which the diffraction pattern is formed are moved to a larger distance so that the corresponding rays are parallel to each other and the wavefronts are plane, this situation is said to be:

A. Fresnel Diffraction
B. Newton Diffraction
C. Michelson Diffraction
D. Fraunhofer Diffraction✓
E. none of the above

Explanation: Fraunhofer diffraction occurs when there is a large (comparably infinite) distance between the object and then slit, and the slit and the screen. As a result, when the wave fronts reach the slit, they are plane. As this definition correlates with the statement, hence this option is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Option A: Fresnel diffraction occurs when the distance between the object and the slit, and the slit and the screen are finite. When the wave fronts reach the slit, they are still spherical.
B. There is no such thing as newton diffraction. However, Newton explained diffraction in an experiment worldly famous as Newton's rings. In his experiment, he laid two glass surfaces on top of each other (one surface was flat and the other was spherical), with air in between them. When light was passed through the apparatus, he observed concentric light and dark bands under a microscope, which are called Newton's rings.
C. There is no such thing as Michelson diffraction. However, Michelson did invent a device called Michelson interferometer. He used this device based on the principle that when a monochromatic light is half-reflected and half-refracted, we can measure its wavelength based on the distance of the path covered by each ray
E. As option D is correct, this option is incorrect.

Q72. A man of 90 kg, runs up a hill through a height of 5m in 3 seconds, the average power output of the man is: (taking g = 10 m/s 2 )

A. 1500 Watts✓
B. 2500 Watts
C. 2300 Watts
D. 3500 watts
E. 4500 Watts

Explanation: We will use the formula P = ΔW/Δt = ΔPotential Energy / t = mgΔh/t = 90*10*5/3 P = 1500 Watts

Why the other options are wrong

B. Δt = ΔPotential Energy / t =mgΔh/t = 90*10*5/3 P = 1500 Watts
C. Δt = ΔPotential Energy / t = mgΔh/t = 90*10*5/3 P = 1500 Watts
D. Δt = ΔPotential Energy / t = mgΔh/t = 90*10*5/3 P = 1500 Watts
E. Δt = ΔPotential Energy / t = mgΔh/t = 90*10*5/3 P = 1500 Watts

Q73. When a 9000 N lifter moves from ground level to the top of a building 400 m above the ground level, the change in gravitational potential energy will be:

A. 9.9 x 10^6 J
B. 3.6 x 10^6 J✓
C. 7.3 x 10^6 J
D. . 1.2 x 10^6 J
E. 6.7 x 10^6 J

Explanation: As the height of the lifter changes from 0 to 400m above the earth surface, definitely there will be a change in its gravitational potential energy. In this case, we will be using the formula:Potential energy (P.E) = mgΔh = 9000*9.8*400 = 3.6*10^7 J(There is an issue with the possible answers in this mcq).

Why the other options are wrong

A. As the height of the lifter changes from 0 to 400m above the earth surface, definitely there will be a change in its gravitational potential energy. In this case, we will be using the formula:Potential energy (P.E) = mgΔh = 9000*9.8*400 = 3.6*10^7 J(There is an issue with the possible answers in this mcq).
C. As the height of the lifter changes from 0 to 400m above the earth surface, definitely there will be a change in its gravitational potential energy. In this case, we will be using the formula:Potential energy (P.E) = mgΔh = 9000*9.8*400 = 3.6*10^7 J(There is an issue with the possible answers in this mcq).
D. As the height of the lifter changes from 0 to 400m above the earth surface, definitely there will be a change in its gravitational potential energy. In this case, we will be using the formula:Potential energy (P.E) = mgΔh = 9000*9.8*400 = 3.6*10^7 J(There is an issue with the possible answers in this mcq).
E. As the height of the lifter changes from 0 to 400m above the earth surface, definitely there will be a change in its gravitational potential energy. In this case, we will be using the formula:Potential energy (P.E) = mgΔh = 9000*9.8*400 = 3.6*10^7 J(There is an issue with the possible answers in this mcq).

Q74. If the resultant intensity of the interfering waves is greater than the intensity of an individual wave, this type of interference is known as:

A. Destructive interference
B. constructive interference✓
C. Instructive interference
D. simple interference
E. None of the above

Explanation: Constructive interference takes place when the intensity of each individual interfering wave is less than the intensity of the resulting wave. This phenomenon is also explained in the statement of the question. Hence, we can say that this option is correct

Why the other options are wrong

A. Destructive interference takes place when the intensity of each individual interfering wave is more than the intensity of the resulting wave.
C. There is no such thing as instructive interference
D. Simple interference is simply the interference of two waves. In this case, we do not take into account the relative intensities of the interfering waves and the resulting wave.
E. As option B is correct, this option is incorrect.

Q75. The addition of an impurity in a pure semi conducting material is called:

A. Biasing
B. photo diode
C. Doping✓
D. crystallography
E. Both Biasing and Photodiodes

Explanation: The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is called doping. The resulting product will be called a p-type semiconductor. As this option perfectly relates to the given statement, we will make it the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Biasing means an arrangement made in an electrical device to allow a larger flow of current in a certain direction. Usually, a diode is used for biasing. It is done to establish proper operating conditions for a component.
B. : A photodiode is a semiconductor diode which, when exposed to light, generates a potential difference or changes its electrical resistance. They are made by using two semiconductors, e.g. p-type and n-type.
D. Crystallography is the branch of science related to the study of structure and properties of crystals.
E. No, it cannot be both semiconductors and photodiodes because doping is a process in which we make p-type conductors but photodiodes are actually made from p-type conductors. In other words, we can say that from doping, we make the raw material, and photodiodes are the end product we made using the raw material.

Q76. A needle of length 5 cm is placed at 45 cm from a lens and forms an image on a screen placed 90 cm on the other side of the lens. Find the focal length of the lens?

A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm✓
D. 40 cm
E. 50 cm

Explanation: As we know, if the image is formed, then the lens is a convex lens. Now, 1/f = 1/v + 1/uWhere f = focal length, p = distance between the object and the lens, q = distance between the lens and the image. 1/f = 1/45 + 1/901/f = 1/30f=30Hence, option C is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. As we know, if the image is formed, then the lens is a convex lens. Now, 1/f = 1/v + 1/uWhere f = focal length, p = distance between the object and the lens, q = distance between the lens and the image. 1/f = 1/45 + 1/901/f = 1/30f=30Hence, option C is correct.
B. As we know, if the image is formed, then the lens is a convex lens. Now, 1/f = 1/v + 1/uWhere f = focal length, p = distance between the object and the lens, q = distance between the lens and the image. 1/f = 1/45 + 1/901/f = 1/30f=30Hence, option C is correct.
D. As we know, if the image is formed, then the lens is a convex lens. Now, 1/f = 1/v + 1/uWhere f = focal length, p = distance between the object and the lens, q = distance between the lens and the image. 1/f = 1/45 + 1/901/f = 1/30f=30Hence, option C is correct.
E. As we know, if the image is formed, then the lens is a convex lens. Now, 1/f = 1/v + 1/uWhere f = focal length, p = distance between the object and the lens, q = distance between the lens and the image. 1/f = 1/45 + 1/901/f = 1/30f=30Hence, option C is correct.

Q77. An astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is 4 dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope?

A. 1.83✓
B. 0 .25
C. 1.64
D. 25
E. 6.7

Explanation: As we know, Focal length ‘f’ = 1/Power ‘P’ f = 1/P f = ¼ f = 0.25 m f = 25 cmNow, 1/f = 1/v - 1/u Here, f = focal length, v = distance between lens and image, and u = distance between lens and object. So, f = 25 cm, u = 30 cm 1/25 = 1/v - 1/30 1/25 + 1/30 = 1/v 0.073 = 1/vAn astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope v = 13.64 cmNow Magnification of a compound microscope = f/vHere, f = focal length = 25cm, v = image distance = 13.64 cm M = f/v M = 25/13.64 M = 1.83

Why the other options are wrong

B. According to given data, this option is incorrect = 25 cm, u = 30 cm 1/25 = 1/v - 1/30 1/25 + 1/30 = 1/v 0.073 = 1/vAn astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope v = 13.64 cmNow Magnification of a compound microscope = f/vHere, f = focal length = 25cm, v = image distance = 13.64 cm M = f/v M = 25/13.64 M = 1.83
C. According to given data, this option is incorrect = 25 cm, u = 30 cm 1/25 = 1/v - 1/30 1/25 + 1/30 = 1/v 0.073 = 1/vAn astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope v = 13.64 cmNow Magnification of a compound microscope = f/vHere, f = focal length = 25cm, v = image distance = 13.64 cm M = f/v M = 25/13.64 M = 1.83
D. According to given data, this option is incorrect = 25 cm, u = 30 cm 1/25 = 1/v - 1/30 1/25 + 1/30 = 1/v 0.073 = 1/vAn astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope v = 13.64 cmNow Magnification of a compound microscope = f/vHere, f = focal length = 25cm, v = image distance = 13.64 cm M = f/v M = 25/13.64 M = 1.83
E. According to given data, this option is incorrect = 25 cm, u = 30 cm 1/25 = 1/v - 1/30 1/25 + 1/30 = 1/v 0.073 = 1/vAn astronomical telescope has an objective lens whose power is dioptres. This lens is placed 30 cm from the eye piece. When the telescope is adjusted for minimum eye strain. Find the angular magnification of the telescope v = 13.64 cmNow Magnification of a compound microscope = f/vHere, f = focal length = 25cm, v = image distance = 13.64 cm M = f/v M = 25/13.64 M = 1.83

Q78. The minimum charge on any object cannot be less than:

A. . 1 coulomb
B. 1.6 x 10^-19 coulomb✓
C. 9.1 x 10^-31 coulomb
D. 8 8 x 10^-12 coulomb
E. . 6.67 x 10^-4 coulomb

Explanation: If an object has a charge, it means that it has an extra electron or proton which cannot be balanced by its protons or electrons respectively. We know that a charge is always quantized, i.e. it is an integral multiple of e (charge on electron or proton). e = 1.6 * 10^-19 C (positive for proton, negative for electron). Hence, we can say that if an object is charged, it should have a minimum of 1 charged particle, i.e. an electron or a proton, and hence, should have a minimum charge of 1.6 * 10^-19 C.

Why the other options are wrong

A. If an object has a charge, it means that it has an extra electron or proton which cannot be balanced by its protons or electrons respectively. We know that a charge is always quantized, i.e. it is an integral multiple of e (charge on electron or proton). e = 1.6 * 10^-19 C (positive for proton, negative for electron). Hence, we can say that if an object is charged, it should have a minimum of 1 charged particle, i.e. an electron or a proton, and hence, should have a minimum charge of 1.6 * 10^-19 C.
C. If an object has a charge, it means that it has an extra electron or proton which cannot be balanced by its protons or electrons respectively. We know that a charge is always quantized, i.e. it is an integral multiple of e (charge on electron or proton). e = 1.6 * 10^-19 C (positive for proton, negative for electron). Hence, we can say that if an object is charged, it should have a minimum of 1 charged particle, i.e. an electron or a proton, and hence, should have a minimum charge of 1.6 * 10^-19 C.
D. If an object has a charge, it means that it has an extra electron or proton which cannot be balanced by its protons or electrons respectively. We know that a charge is always quantized, i.e. it is an integral multiple of e (charge on electron or proton). e = 1.6 * 10^-19 C (positive for proton, negative for electron). Hence, we can say that if an object is charged, it should have a minimum of 1 charged particle, i.e. an electron or a proton, and hence, should have a minimum charge of 1.6 * 10^-19 C.
E. If an object has a charge, it means that it has an extra electron or proton which cannot be balanced by its protons or electrons respectively. We know that a charge is always quantized, i.e. it is an integral multiple of e (charge on electron or proton). e = 1.6 * 10^-19 C (positive for proton, negative for electron). Hence, we can say that if an object is charged, it should have a minimum of 1 charged particle, i.e. an electron or a proton, and hence, should have a minimum charge of 1.6 * 10^-19 C.

Q79. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, a metal sheet is inserted between the plates parallel to them. The thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates. The capacitance

A. C/2
B. C/4
C. 4C
D. 2C✓
E. 0.5 C

Explanation: The insertion of a metal sheet with a thickness equal to half the separation between the plates effectively reduces the separation between the plates by half. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by the formula C=Aɛ/d, where A is the area of the plates, ɛ is the permittivity, and d is the separation between the plates. By inserting the metal sheet, the effective distance d is reduced to d/2, thus increasing the capacitance to C' = Aɛ/(d/2) = 2(Aɛ/d) = 2C. Therefore, the correct answer is 2C.Options C/2, C/4, and 0.5 C incorrectly suggest a decrease in capacitance, while 4C incorrectly suggests a quadrupling of capacitance.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option incorrectly assumes the capacitance decreases due to the insertion of the metal sheet without properly considering its effect on the effective distance between the plates.
B. This option incorrectly assumes a greater reduction in capacitance, but the metal sheet actually reduces the effective separation, increasing capacitance.
C. This option overestimates the increase in capacitance, as the correct calculation shows a doubling, not quadrupling, of capacitance.
E. This option incorrectly assumes that the capacitance decreases, but the metal sheet actually increases capacitance by reducing the effective distance between the plates.

Q80. Momentum is defined as the product of mass and its velocity therefore it’s S.I unit is:

A. Mass - second (M-S)
B. Newton - second (N - S)✓
C. Mass - length (M - L)
D. Newton - length (N - L)
E. none of the above

Explanation: As momentum M = mass (in kg) * velocity ( in m/s), then its SI units will be kgm/s

Why the other options are wrong

A. As mass is a physical quantity and not an SI unit, we can eliminate this option because it is incorrect.
C. Mass and length, both are physical quantities and not SI units
D. Length is a physical quantity and not an S! Unit.
E. As option B is correct, so this option cannot be true.

Q81. A travelling wave, in which the particles of the distributed medium move perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is called:

A. Longitudinal Wave
B. Standing wave
C. Transverse wave✓
D. Both longitudinal and standing wave
E. None of the above

Explanation: Transverse waves are the waves in which the paricles of the disturbed medium move perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. As this definition perfectly matches the statement, option C is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Longitudinal waves are the waves in which the particles of the disturbed medium move parallel (in the same direction) to the direction of propagation of the wave.
B. A standing wave is also called a stationary wave. It is a wave that is produced as a result of interference of two oppositely moving waves, having same frequency and amplitude. When they interfere/combine, their amplitudes add up algebraically (both are equal in magnitudes but one is positive and the other is negative). As a result, we get 0 amplitude and the wave becomes a standing wave. There is no motion of particles of the disturbed medium.
D. In longitudinal waves, particles move parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave. Whereas in a standing wave, particles do not move at all. Hence, this option is incorrect.
E. As option C is correct, this option cannot be true.

Q82. A magnetic field is a region in which a force is experienced on a moving charge or a magnet. This force depends upon:I. The magnitude of charge qII. The speed of the moving charge vIII. The magnetic field of induction B

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. . I and II only
E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: We know that the force acting on the charge is F = qvBAccording to the formula, it depends on the charge q, its velocity v and the magnetic field in the region B. Hence, option E is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. We know that the force acting on the charge is F = qvBAccording to the formula, it depends on the charge q, its velocity v and the magnetic field in the region B. Hence, option E is correct.
B. We know that the force acting on the charge is F = qvBAccording to the formula, it depends on the charge q, its velocity v and the magnetic field in the region B. Hence, option E is correct.
C. We know that the force acting on the charge is F = qvBAccording to the formula, it depends on the charge q, its velocity v and the magnetic field in the region B. Hence, option E is correct.
D. We know that the force acting on the charge is F = qvBAccording to the formula, it depends on the charge q, its velocity v and the magnetic field in the region B. Hence, option E is correct.

Q83. Which of the following instrument(s) is/are based on the WheatStone Principle?

A. Meter Bridge
B. Post Office Box
C. avometer
D. Both Meter Bridge and Post Office Box✓
E. nome of the above

Explanation: A wheatstone bridge calculates an unknown resistance by balancing the two legs of the bridge circuit.

Why the other options are wrong

A. A metre bridge, or a wire bridge, is an instrument that works on the principle of a wheatstone bridge. It is used to find the unknown resistance of a conductor.
B. A post office box is used to measure an unknown resistance. Its construction is just like that of a wheatstone bridge with three arms having known resistances and the fourth one having an unknown resistance.
C. An avometer is a device which can measure current A, Voltage V and resistance O ( O stands for Ohm), thus called AVOmeter.
E. As option D is correct, this option is incorrect.

Q84. The process of giving off the light by applying an electrical source of energy is called:

A. Rectifier
B. Electroluminescence✓
C. Modulation
D. Demodulation
E. Amplifier

Explanation: Electroluminescence is the property of a substance, usually a semiconductor, to radiate light due to excitation and de-excitation of electrons, in the form of photons. This definition complements the scenario described in the MCQ, hence option B is correct

Why the other options are wrong

A. Rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC).
C. Modulation is the process of converting data into radio waves by adding information to an electronic or optical carrier signal.
D. The process of separating the original information or signal from the modulated carrier is called demodulation.
E. An amplifier is an electronic device that can increase the magnitude of a signal.

Q85. Find the unit vector parallel to the vector: C = 12i + 24j - 8k

A. 9/7 i + 5/7 j + 1/7 k
B. 3/7 i + 6/7 j - 2/7 k✓
C. 13/5 i + 17/5 j - 19/5 k
D. 3/19 i + 11/19 j + 16/19 k
E. . 1/17 i + 1/17 j - 13/17 k

Explanation: : Let’s simplify the given vectors. Divide C by 4 (as it is common to all sides)Now, C has becomeC = 3i + 6j + 2kNow, we have to check, which of the given vectors are a multiple of c (only those would be parallel to vector c).

Why the other options are wrong

A. To eliminate denominators, multiply it with 7. It would become 9i + 5j -1k which is not the same as vector C, hence this option is incorrect
C. To eliminate denominators, multiply it with 5.It would become 13i + 17j - 19kAs it does not match the vector C, this option is incorrect
D. To eliminate denominators, multiply it with 19.It would become 3i + 11j + 16kAs it does not match the vector C, this option is incorrect
E. To eliminate denominators, multiply it with 17.It would become 1i + 1j - 13kAs it does not match the vector C, this option is incorrect.

Q86. Two bodies ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley so that the two bodies hang vertically. If the mass of the body ‘X’ is 7 kg and that of body ‘Y’ is 3 kg. Find the acceleration (g=10m/s 2 ).

A. 1 m/s^2
B. 3 m/s^2
C. 2 m/s^2
D. 4 m/s^2✓

Explanation: To find the acceleration of the system, you can use Newton's second law of motion, which states that the net force on an object is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration:F = m * aIn this case, you have two bodies, X and Y, connected by a string over a pulley. The force acting on each body is its weight, given by the formula:Weight (W) = mass (m) * acceleration due to gravity (g)For body X (mass 7 kg):Weight of X = 7 kg * 10 m/s² = 70 N (Newtons)For body Y (mass 3 kg):Weight of Y = 3 kg * 10 m/s² = 30 NNow, consider the direction of motion. Body X is heavier and will try to move downward, causing body Y to move upward.The net force on the system is the difference between the weights of X and Y because they act in opposite directions:Net Force (F) = Weight of X - Weight of YF = 70 N - 30 N = 40 NNow, you can find the acceleration using Newton's second law:F = m * a40 N = (7 kg + 3 kg) * a40 N = 10 kg * aNow, solve for acceleration (a):a = 40 N / 10 kg = 4 m/s²So, the acceleration of the system is 4 m/s².

Why the other options are wrong

A. According to given data, this option is incorrect Applying Newton's Second Law (F_{net} = ma): * For Body X (downward motion): F_{GX} - T = m_X * a 70 - T = 7a --- (Equation 1) * For Body Y (upward motion): T - F_{GY} = m_Y * a T - 30 = 3a --- (Equation 2)Solving the equations simultaneously:Add Equation 1 and Equation 2:(70 - T) + (T - 30) = 7a + 3a70 - 30 = 10a40 = 10aa = 40 / 10a = 4 m/s^2
B. According to given data, this option is incorrect Applying Newton's Second Law (F_{net} = ma): * For Body X (downward motion): F_{GX} - T = m_X * a 70 - T = 7a --- (Equation 1) * For Body Y (upward motion): T - F_{GY} = m_Y * a T - 30 = 3a --- (Equation 2)Solving the equations simultaneously:Add Equation 1 and Equation 2:(70 - T) + (T - 30) = 7a + 3a70 - 30 = 10a40 = 10aa = 40 / 10a = 4 m/s^2
C. According to given data, this option is incorrect Applying Newton's Second Law (F_{net} = ma): * For Body X (downward motion): F_{GX} - T = m_X * a 70 - T = 7a --- (Equation 1) * For Body Y (upward motion): T - F_{GY} = m_Y * a T - 30 = 3a --- (Equation 2)Solving the equations simultaneously:Add Equation 1 and Equation 2:(70 - T) + (T - 30) = 7a + 3a70 - 30 = 10a40 = 10aa = 40 / 10a = 4 m/s^2

Q87. A system absorbs 1000 joules of heat and delivers 600 joules of work while losing 100 joules of heat by conduction to the atmosphere. Calculate the change in the internal energy of the system.

A. 600 Joules
B. 500 J
C. 400J
D. 300 J✓
E. 200 J

Explanation: Total energy = Given heat = Word done+ Energy dissipated as heat+ Δinternal temperature 1000 = 600 + 300 + Δinternal temperature Δ internal temperature = 1000 - 600 - 100 = 300J

Why the other options are wrong

A. Total energy = Given heat = Word done+ Energy dissipated as heat+ Δinternal temperature 1000 = 600 + 300 + Δinternal temperature Δ internal temperature = 1000 - 600 - 100 = 300J
B. Total energy = Given heat = Word done+ Energy dissipated as heat+ Δinternal temperature 1000 = 600 + 300 + Δinternal temperature Δ internal temperature = 1000 - 600 - 100 = 300J
C. Total energy = Given heat = Word done+ Energy dissipated as heat+ Δinternal temperature 1000 = 600 + 300 + Δinternal temperature Δ internal temperature = 1000 - 600 - 100 = 300J
E. Total energy = Given heat = Word done+ Energy dissipated as heat+ Δinternal temperature 1000 = 600 + 300 + Δinternal temperature Δ internal temperature = 1000 - 600 - 100 = 300J

Q88. _ are produced if heavier atoms are bombarded by electrons which have been accelerated through thousands of volts.

A. photons
B. protons
C. x rays✓
D. electrolytes
E. none of the above

Explanation: It is a classical method to produce X-rays. Heavier atoms having big atomic masses and unstable nuclei are bombarded by electrons to disturb the electrons present in inner shells. When the electrons from high energy move to inner shells having lower energy, they release the excess energy in the form of X rays. Hence, option C is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Photons are the smallest particle in a light wave.
B. Protons are positively charged particles present in the nuclei of every atom.
D. Electrolytes are the substances that form solutions in which an ionic compound (electrolyte) is dissolved in water, mainly for the purpose of making water a conductor.
E. As option C is correct, this option is incorrect.

Q89. In order to attain maximum range of the projectile, the projectile must be launched at an angle of _ with the horizontal.

A. 75 degress
B. 70 degrees
C. 65 degrees
D. 55 degrees
E. 45 degrees✓

Explanation: R = [v^2 sin2θ]/gHere v = initial velocity, g = gravitational acceleration, θ = angle at which the projectile was launchedFor it to be maximum, Sin2θ = 1Then, 2θ = sin ^-1 (1)2θ = 90θ = 90/2θ = 45 degrees

Why the other options are wrong

A. R = [v^2 sin2θ]/gHere v = initial velocity, g = gravitational acceleration, θ = angle at which the projectile was launchedFor it to be maximum, Sin2θ = 1Then, 2θ = sin ^-1 (1)2θ = 90θ = 90/2θ = 45 degrees.
B. R = [v^2 sin2θ]/gHere v = initial velocity, g = gravitational acceleration, θ = angle at which the projectile was launchedFor it to be maximum, Sin2θ = 1Then, 2θ = sin ^-1 (1)2θ = 90θ = 90/2θ = 45 degrees.
C. R = [v^2 sin2θ]/gHere v = initial velocity, g = gravitational acceleration, θ = angle at which the projectile was launchedFor it to be maximum, Sin2θ = 1Then, 2θ = sin ^-1 (1)2θ = 90θ = 90/2θ = 45 degrees.
D. R = [v^2 sin2θ]/gHere v = initial velocity, g = gravitational acceleration, θ = angle at which the projectile was launchedFor it to be maximum, Sin2θ = 1Then, 2θ = sin ^-1 (1)2θ = 90θ = 90/2θ = 45 degrees.

Q90. Find the projection of Y = 4i - 6j + 12k onto the direction of vector Z = 2i + 4j + 4k.

A. 7/3
B. 16/3✓
C. 3/7
D. 9/7
E. 5/9

Explanation: Vector Y is in 4th xy quadrantY = √(4^2 + 6^2 + 12^2)Y = √(16 + 36 + 144)Y = √196Y = 14 (Y.Z)/Y = ( 4*2 + 6*4 + 12*4)/14 = 80/14 = 5.7 = 16/3 Hence, option B is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Vector Y is in 4th xy quadrantY = √(4^2 + 6^2 + 12^2)Y = √(16 + 36 + 144)Y = √196Y = 14 (Y.Z)/Y = ( 4*2 + 6*4 + 12*4)/14 = 80/14 = 5.7 = 16/3
C. Vector Y is in 4th xy quadrantY = √(4^2 + 6^2 + 12^2)Y = √(16 + 36 + 144)Y = √196Y = 14 (Y.Z)/Y = ( 4*2 + 6*4 + 12*4)/14 = 80/14 = 5.7 = 16/3
D. Vector Y is in 4th xy quadrantY = √(4^2 + 6^2 + 12^2)Y = √(16 + 36 + 144)Y = √196Y = 14 (Y.Z)/Y = ( 4*2 + 6*4 + 12*4)/14 = 80/14 = 5.7 = 16/3
E. Vector Y is in 4th xy quadrantY = √(4^2 + 6^2 + 12^2)Y = √(16 + 36 + 144)Y = √196Y = 14 (Y.Z)/Y = ( 4*2 + 6*4 + 12*4)/14 = 80/14 = 5.7 = 16/3

Q91. If two bodies of different masses are moving with the same velocity under identical conditions, it will be more difficult to stop or change the motion of the body of the larger mass, because the body with larger mass has _ than the body having lesser mass.

A. Less friction
B. Less inertia
C. More inertia✓
D. More gravity
E. Less friction as well as well inertia

Explanation: Inertia is the measurement of a body’s mass. Also, inertia is directly related to momentum of the body. Now, momentum is given as M = mvWhere m = mass of the body and v= velocity of the moving body. The body having the larger mass will have greater momentum and thus, greater inertia. Hence, option C is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Where m = mass of the body and v= velocity of the moving body. The body having the larger mass will have greater momentum and thus, greater inertia. Hence, option C is correct.
B. Where m = mass of the body and v= velocity of the moving body. The body having the larger mass will have greater momentum and thus, greater inertia. Hence, option C is correct.
D. Where m = mass of the body and v= velocity of the moving body. The body having the larger mass will have greater momentum and thus, greater inertia. Hence, option C is correct.
E. Where m = mass of the body and v= velocity of the moving body. The body having the larger mass will have greater momentum and thus, greater inertia. Hence, option C is correct.

Q92. An observer standing at the sea coast observes 54 waves reaching the coast per minute. If the wavelength of the waves is 10 m, find the velocity

A. 3 m/s
B. 6 m/s
C. 9 m/s✓
D. 12 m/s

Explanation: According to the wave equation, v = fλFor f, f = waves / unit time f = 54/60 waves/s f = 0.9 HzPut f in v = fλ v = 0.9*10 v = 9 m/s.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option is incorrect according to calculations.
B. This option is incorrect according to calculations.
D. This option is incorrect according to calculations.

Q93. The S.I. unit of angular acceleration is:

A. Meter per second per second
B. Radian per second per second✓
C. meter per second
D. Newton meter
E. Newton per meter per metre

Explanation: Angular acceleration = α = Δω/Δt Here, ω = Δθ/Δt Unit of θ = rad (radians) and t = s (second)So, ω = rad/sPut ω in α = Δω/Δt α = (rad/s)/s – equation A α = rad/s^2Equation A can be read as α = radian per second per second.Hence, option B is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Angular acceleration = α = Δω/Δt Here, ω = Δθ/Δt Unit of θ = rad (radians) and t = s (second)So, ω = rad/sPut ω in α = Δω/Δt α = (rad/s)/s – equation A α = rad/s^2Equation A can be read as α = radian per second per second.Hence, option B is correct.
C. Angular acceleration = α = Δω/Δt Here, ω = Δθ/Δt Unit of θ = rad (radians) and t = s (second)So, ω = rad/sPut ω in α = Δω/Δt α = (rad/s)/s – equation A α = rad/s^2Equation A can be read as α = radian per second per second.Hence, option B is correct.
D. Angular acceleration = α = Δω/Δt Here, ω = Δθ/Δt Unit of θ = rad (radians) and t = s (second)So, ω = rad/sPut ω in α = Δω/Δt α = (rad/s)/s – equation A α = rad/s^2Equation A can be read as α = radian per second per second.Hence, option B is correct.
E. Angular acceleration = α = Δω/Δt Here, ω = Δθ/Δt Unit of θ = rad (radians) and t = s (second)So, ω = rad/sPut ω in α = Δω/Δt α = (rad/s)/s – equation A α = rad/s^2Equation A can be read as α = radian per second per second.Hence, option B is correct.

Q94. The example(s) of “dynamic equilibrium” is/are: I. The jumping of the paratrooper from a helicopter II. A cup lying on a horizontal table III. A building standing in a city

A. I only✓
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

Explanation: When a paratrooper jumps from a helicopter, soon he achieves terminal velocity, which remains constant till he hits the ground. Terminal velocity is defined as a constant velocity that is achieved and maintained by a falling body throughout its flight. Hence, it is in dynamic equilibrium. Option A is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

B. As the cup is just lying on the table, its velocity is 0m/s. It is in static equilibrium only. For dynamic equilibrium, a body should be moving. Hence, it is incorrect.
C. As the building is not moving, it can also not be an example of dynamic equilibium.
D. As option III is incorrect, this option cannot be correct.
E. As both the options II and III are incorrect, this option cannot be correct.

Q95. Saad throws a ball at an initial velocity of 42 ms -1 . Calculate the maximum distance the ball car reaches, assuming the ball is caught at the same height at which it was released. (g=9.8 ms^-2 )

A. 160 m
B. 170 m
C. 180 m✓
D. 190 m
E. 150 m

Explanation: The maximum range occurs when sin2θ = 1Using formula Rmax = v2sin2θ/gRmax = v2/gPutting data Rmax = 492/9.8Rmax = 180m

Why the other options are wrong

A. The correct answer is 180m as given in explanation.
B. The correct answer is 180m as given in explanation.
D. The correct answer is 180m as given in explanation.
E. The correct answer is 180m as given in explanation.

Q96. The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm), this means that:

A. The smaller the force, the larger will be the torque
B. The greater the force, the larger will be the torque
C. The larger the moment arm, the great will be the torque
D. The larger the moment arm, the smaller will be the torque.
E. The greater the force, the larger will be the torque & The larger the moment arm, the great will be the torque✓

Explanation: According to the formula, The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm)τ = F x lHere, F = force applied and l = moment armWe can deduce from the formula that τ ∝ F τ ∝ lIt means that τ not only depends on F but also depends on I. Option A and option B are both correct. But we also have option E that is a combination of both options A and B. Hence, we will mark option E correct

Why the other options are wrong

A. According to the formula, The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm)τ = F x lHere, F = force applied and l = moment armWe can deduce from the formula that τ ∝ F τ ∝ lIt means that τ not only depends on F but also depends on I. Option A and option B are both correct. But we also have option E that is a combination of both options A and B. Hence, we will mark option E correct
B. According to the formula, The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm)τ = F x lHere, F = force applied and l = moment armWe can deduce from the formula that τ ∝ F τ ∝ lIt means that τ not only depends on F but also depends on I. Option A and option B are both correct. But we also have option E that is a combination of both options A and B. Hence, we will mark option E correct
C. According to the formula, The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm)τ = F x lHere, F = force applied and l = moment armWe can deduce from the formula that τ ∝ F τ ∝ lIt means that τ not only depends on F but also depends on I. Option A and option B are both correct. But we also have option E that is a combination of both options A and B. Hence, we will mark option E correct
D. According to the formula, The magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) x (moment arm)τ = F x lHere, F = force applied and l = moment armWe can deduce from the formula that τ ∝ F τ ∝ lIt means that τ not only depends on F but also depends on I. Option A and option B are both correct. But we also have option E that is a combination of both options A and B. Hence, we will mark option E correct

Q97. The work done in one hour by an agency working at the constant rate of 1 kW that is 1000 joules per second is.

A. KiloWatt
B. Kilo hour^2
C. Kilowatt hour✓
D. Watt/hour
E. Watt hour^-2

Explanation: t = 1 hour = 3600 sP = 1000 W /sW = PtW = 1000*3600W = 3,600,000 J W = 3.6 x 10^6 J W = 3.6 MJ = 1kWh. Hence, option C is the correct option.

Why the other options are wrong

A. t = 1 hour = 3600 sP = 1000 W /sW = PtW = 1000*3600W = 3,600,000 J W = 3.6 x 10^6 J W = 3.6 MJ = 1kWh.
B. t = 1 hour = 3600 sP = 1000 W /sW = PtW = 1000*3600W = 3,600,000 J W = 3.6 x 10^6 J W = 3.6 MJ = 1kWh.
D. t = 1 hour = 3600 sP = 1000 W /sW = PtW = 1000*3600W = 3,600,000 J W = 3.6 x 10^6 J W = 3.6 MJ = 1kWh.
E. t = 1 hour = 3600 sP = 1000 W /sW = PtW = 1000*3600W = 3,600,000 J W = 3.6 x 10^6 J W = 3.6 MJ = 1kWh.

Q98. Moon completes one revolution around the earth in _.

A. 9.34 x 10^6 s
B. 6.74 x 10^6 s
C. . 8.91 x 10^6 s
D. 4.11 x 10^6 s
E. 2.36 x 10^6 s✓

Explanation: As the moon covers S = 2πrIt completes its rotation in 28 days = 27.3*24*60*60 = 2,358,720So, the moon takes 2.36 x 10^6 s.The correct answer is E.

Why the other options are wrong

A. As the moon covers S = 2πrIt completes its rotation in 28 days = 27.3*24*60*60 = 2,358,720So, the moon takes 2.36 x 10^6 s.The correct answer is E.
B. As the moon covers S = 2πrIt completes its rotation in 28 days = 27.3*24*60*60 = 2,358,720So, the moon takes 2.36 x 10^6 s.The correct answer is E.
C. As the moon covers S = 2πrIt completes its rotation in 28 days = 27.3*24*60*60 = 2,358,720So, the moon takes 2.36 x 10^6 s.The correct answer is E.
D. As the moon covers S = 2πrIt completes its rotation in 28 days = 27.3*24*60*60 = 2,358,720So, the moon takes 2.36 x 10^6 s.The correct answer is E.

Q99. One British thermal units =

A. 1055 J✓
B. 2055 J
C. 3055 J
D. 4055 j
E. 5055 J

Explanation: British thermal unit (BTU or Btu) is a unit of heat. It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound (0.45 litres) of water by one degree Fahrenheit. As the heat is measured in joules (J), then, 1 BTU = 1055JWe can prove it by using the values of mass m, change in temperature T and c 1 BTU = 1 pound of water x 1 F 1 BTU = 0.453 x (-17.22) 1 BTU = 0.252 kCal 1 BTU = 0.252 x 4.18 J1 BTU = 1055J

Why the other options are wrong

B. 1 BTU = 1055J
C. 1 BTU = 1055J
D. 1 BTU = 1055J
E. 1 BTU = 1055J

Q100. When a resistance of 2 ohm is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5 A, but when the resistance across the cell is 5 Ohm, the current is 0.25 A. The e.m.f. Of the cell is:

A. 2.0 volts
B. 1.5 volts✓
C. 1.0 volts
D. 0.5 volts
E. 7.0 volts

Explanation: According to the formula, Emf = I (R + r)Let emf = EFor I = 0.5 A, R = 2 ohm E = 0.5 (2 + r) E/0.5 = 2 + r 2E = 2 + r — equation 1For I = 0.25 A, R = 5 ohm E = 0.25 (5 + r) E/0.25 = 5 + r 4E = 5 + r — equation 2Subtract equation 1 from equation 2 4E - 2E = 5 + r - (2 + r) 2E = 5 + r - 2 - r 2E = 3 E = 3/2 E = 1.5 VHence, option B is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. According to the formula, Emf = I (R + r)Let emf = EFor I = 0.5 A, R = 2 ohm E = 0.5 (2 + r) E/0.5 = 2 + r 2E = 2 + r — equation 1For I = 0.25 A, R = 5 ohm E = 0.25 (5 + r) E/0.25 = 5 + r 4E = 5 + r — equation 2Subtract equation 1 from equation 2 4E - 2E = 5 + r - (2 + r) 2E = 5 + r - 2 - r 2E = 3 E = 3/2 E = 1.5 VHence, option B is correct.
C. According to the formula, Emf = I (R + r)Let emf = EFor I = 0.5 A, R = 2 ohm E = 0.5 (2 + r) E/0.5 = 2 + r 2E = 2 + r — equation 1For I = 0.25 A, R = 5 ohm E = 0.25 (5 + r) E/0.25 = 5 + r 4E = 5 + r — equation 2Subtract equation 1 from equation 2 4E - 2E = 5 + r - (2 + r) 2E = 5 + r - 2 - r 2E = 3 E = 3/2 E = 1.5 VHence, option B is correct.
D. According to the formula, Emf = I (R + r)Let emf = EFor I = 0.5 A, R = 2 ohm E = 0.5 (2 + r) E/0.5 = 2 + r 2E = 2 + r — equation 1For I = 0.25 A, R = 5 ohm E = 0.25 (5 + r) E/0.25 = 5 + r 4E = 5 + r — equation 2Subtract equation 1 from equation 2 4E - 2E = 5 + r - (2 + r) 2E = 5 + r - 2 - r 2E = 3 E = 3/2 E = 1.5 VHence, option B is correct.
E. According to the formula, Emf = I (R + r)Let emf = EFor I = 0.5 A, R = 2 ohm E = 0.5 (2 + r) E/0.5 = 2 + r 2E = 2 + r — equation 1For I = 0.25 A, R = 5 ohm E = 0.25 (5 + r) E/0.25 = 5 + r 4E = 5 + r — equation 2Subtract equation 1 from equation 2 4E - 2E = 5 + r - (2 + r) 2E = 5 + r - 2 - r 2E = 3 E = 3/2 E = 1.5 VHence, option B is correct.

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