Sindh Mcat Nts 2012 Duhs And Jsmu — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:He brought down the tiger with his first shot.

• A. Brought
• B. Down
• C. With
• D. First shot
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The above sentence has no error hence the answer is E.

Q2. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The noise of the traffic make it impossible for us to work with the windows open.

• A. The noise
• B. Traffic make✓
• C. For us
• D. With the
• E. No error

Explanation: Since the type of noun used here is singular, the verb should also be singular so it should be “makes” instead of “make”.

Q3. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below:He got off his bicycle and _ it through the gate.

• A. Walked
• B. Jumped
• C. Wheeled✓
• D. Tried
• E. Repaired

Explanation: In this context, "wheeled" suggests that the person rolled or maneuvered the bicycle on its wheels to move it through the gate. This implies that the person was able to maintain the bike's balance and guide it smoothly through the gate without lifting it or pushing it from behind.

Q4. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices below:Somebody has not turned the tap _.

• A. Of
• B. Off✓
• C. Over
• D. In
• E. At

Explanation: Option B is correct because 'off' is used to indicate disconnection or stopping the operation of something, such as turning off a tap to stop the water flow.

Q5. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgements. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves - such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury - have always seemed to me contemptible.The author of the passage followed which of the following objectives?I.TruthII. GoodnessIII. BeautyIV. Saints

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I, II and III only
• D. I, II, III and IV✓
• E. I, II, III and IV

Explanation: I, II, AND III are clearly mentioned as the objectives in line 6. This question can be answered by directly inferring from the passage.

Q6. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgments. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves-such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury-have always seemed to me contemptible.Which of the following is contemptible for the author?

• A. Truth, goodness, and beauty
• B. Property, outward success, luxury✓
• C. Art and scientific research
• D. Sense of fellowship with men of like mind
• E. Preoccupation with the objective

Explanation: The writer mentions property, outward success, and luxury contemptible in lines 9 and 10(last two lines).

Q7. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.FREIGHT

• A. Worries
• B. Luggage✓
• C. Instruments
• D. Foolish

Explanation: The goods transported in bulk by truck, train, ship, or aircraft are called freight. The closest to this is luggage.

Q8. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one:HARDSHIP

• A. Wealth
• B. Blessings
• C. Gift
• D. Suffering✓
• E. Objections

Explanation: Hardship is a feeling of extreme privation and suffering.

Q9. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.NEGLIGIBLE

• A. Significant✓
• B. Untamed
• C. Tiny
• D. Minute

Explanation: Negligible means something which is ignorable, minute. The opposite of which will be significant.

Q10. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.ELEGANT

• A. Graceful
• B. Unattractive✓
• C. Neat
• D. Appeasing

Explanation: Elegant means something which is very attractive and appalling. The best opposite of this word will be unattractive.

Q11. Identify the example/s of Static Equilibrium:I. A book lying on a horizontal tableII. A buildingIII. A bridge

• A. I only
• B. II and III only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: Static equilibrium occurs when the sum of all forces and torques acting on an object is zero, meaning the object is at rest or its center of mass is not accelerating. In the given examples:I. A book lying on a horizontal table is in static equilibrium as it is at rest and the forces acting on it, such as gravity and the normal force, are balanced.II. A building is in static equilibrium if it is stationary and not experiencing any net forces or torques that would cause motion.III. A bridge is in static equilibrium when the forces acting on it, including its own weight and any supporting forces, are balanced to prevent motion.Thus, option E is correct as all examples satisfy the conditions for static equilibrium, while the other options incorrectly omit one or more examples.

Q12. The mass of earth on the basis of Newton’s Law of Gravitation is given by:

• A. M = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
• B. M = 1.6027 x 10-27 kg
• C. M = 5.98 x 1024 kg✓
• D. M = 6.02 x 1023 kg
• E. M = 3 x 103 kg

Explanation: By equating Newton's second law with his law of universal gravitation, and inputting for the acceleration the experimentally verified value of 9.8 m/s2, the mass of the earth is calculated to be 5.98 x 10^24 kg . Since it is numerically derivated so it could have only one answer.

Q13. Fusion and fission reactions are associated with:

• A. Water or hydal energy
• B. Geothermal energy
• C. Fossil fuel energy
• D. Nuclear energy✓
• E. Tidal energy

Explanation: Both fission and fusion are nuclear reactions that produce energy, but the applications are not the same. Fission is the splitting of a heavy, unstable nucleus into two lighter nuclei, and fusion is the process where two light nuclei combine together releasing vast amounts of energy.

Q14. What is the change in gravitational potential energy when a 7000 N elevator moves from street level to the top of a building 300 m above street level?

• A. 2100 J
• B. 21000 J
• C. 210000 J
• D. 2.1 x 106 J✓
• E. 210 J

Explanation: Change in potential energy = work done in raising the elevator = weight force * distance moved = mg * h=(7000 N * 300 m)= 2100000=2.1 x 106 joules Since it is a numerical so it could have only one answer.

Q15. A body of mass 0.025 kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.1 m to the right of the equilibrium position. If the spring constant is 0.4 =N/m and its velocity at the end of displacement is 0.4 m/sec, then its total energy will be:

• A. 4 x 10-3 J✓
• B. 0.0002 J
• C. 0.000001 J
• D. 0.2 J
• E. 0.04 J

Explanation: The total energy of the object is equal to the energy possessed by it due to motion(kinetic) and potential(potential in the spring). As shown below:

Q16. The unit of luminous intensity is _.

• A. Mole
• B. Ampere
• C. Hertz
• D. Kelvin
• E. Candela✓

Explanation: The SI unit of luminous intensity is Candela.

Q17. If A = 2i + 3j - k , B = 4i + 2j - 2k . Find a vector x which is parallel to A but has the magnitude of B?

• A. √(12/7) (2i + 3j - k)✓
• B. √(7/12) (4i + 2j - 2k)
• C. √(7/12) (2i + 3j + k)
• D. √(3/5) (i + 2j - 3k)
• E. √(5/12) (3i + 5j - 2k)

Explanation: The magnitude of B is equal to √(4)² + (2)² + (2)²=√24The magnitude of A is equal to √(2)² + (3)² + (1)² =√14The parallel vector is proportional to vector A.=>√24/√14 (2i + 3j - k)=>√(12/7) (2i + 3j - k)

Q18. If A = 3i + 6j - 2k, then the unit vector parallel to A will be:

• A. 1/7 (3i + 6j - 2k)
• B. (1/7) * (3i + 6j - 2k)✓
• C. (1/14) * (3i + 6j - 2k)
• D. 3i + 6j - 2k
• E. 7(3i + 6j - 2k)

Explanation: To find a unit vector parallel to a given vector A = 3i + 6j - 2k, first calculate the magnitude of A: |A| = √(3² + 6² + (-2)²) = √(9 + 36 + 4) = √49 = 7. The unit vector, denoted as û, is then calculated by dividing each component of A by its magnitude: û = (1/7)(3i + 6j - 2k) = (3/7)i + (6/7)j - (2/7)k. Therefore, the correct answer is (1/7) * (3i + 6j - 2k). The other options either use incorrect magnitudes or represent the vector A itself, not the unit vector.

Q19. The following question belongs to the topic of motion.

• A. Average velocity
• B. Uniform velocity
• C. Instantaneous velocity✓
• D. Variable velocity
• E. None of the above

Explanation: When the change in time is brought to zero this makes the velocity maximum. Which is also called instantaneous velocity.

Q20. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the velocity of 98 m/sec, how high does the ball rise?

• A. 196 m
• B. 2 m
• C. 1/2 m
• D. 490 m✓
• E. 98 m

Explanation: s=u(t) + (at2)/2s= 98(t) - 4.9t20 = 98 - 9.81(t)t= 10 ss= 980 -490 = 490m This is the maximum height .

Q21. A particle is projected at an angle of 45 degrees with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. The horizontal range will be:(g=9.8 m/s2)

• A. 6.9 m
• B. 9.8 m✓
• C. 15.6 m
• D. 4.9 m
• E. 3.1 m

Explanation: Attached below is the solution to the question above:

Q22. 1 radian = _ degrees.

• A. 360
• B. 180
• C. 100
• D. 57.3✓
• E. 1.01745

Explanation: Radian is the SI unit of measuring angles. It is the measure of the central angle whose arc length is the same as the radius of the circle.In one circle,2π radians =3601 radian is equal to 180/π degrees, which is approximately 57.3°

Q23. The following question belongs to the topic of momentum:I = r × p what does I in the equation meanwhere;r is the position vectorp is linear momentum

• A. Current
• B. Length
• C. Angular momentum✓
• D. Torque
• E. Displacement

Explanation: In three dimensions, the angular momentum for a point article is a pseudovector r × p, the cross product of the particle's position vector r (relative to some origin), and its momentum vector.

Q24. The superposition of two light waves is called:

• A. Diffraction
• B. Polarization
• C. Interference✓
• D. Reflection
• E. Absorption

Explanation: Interference, in physics, is the net effect/superposition of the combination of two or more light waves moving on intersecting or coincident paths.

Q25. What will be the position of the object, when a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, is used to form an erect image which is twice as large as the object.

• A. 10 cm✓
• B. 20 cm
• C. 30 cm
• D. 40 cm

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To form an erect image twice as large as the object using a convex lens, the object must be placed between the focal point and the optical center of the lens. Focal length (f): 20 cm Magnification (m): 2 (since the image is twice as large as the object)Using the lens formula:1/v - 1/u = 1/fWhere: v is the image distance u is the object distanceSince the magnification is positive for an erect image:m = v/u = 2Therefore: v = 2uSubstituting this into the lens formula: 1/(2u) - 1/u = 1/20 cmSolving for u:u = 10 cmTherefore, the object must be placed 10 cm from the lens to form an erect image twice as large as the object.

Q26. A system absorbs 1000 Joules of heat and delivers 600 Joules of work, while losing 100 Joules of heat by conduction to the atmosphere, the change in the internal energy of the system will be:

• A. 600 Joules
• B. 900 Joules
• C. 300 Joules✓
• D. 400 Joules
• E. 1600 Joules

Explanation: Change in internal energy of the system is given by:Change in internal energy = Heat absorbed - Work done - Heat lostChange in internal energy = 1000 - 600 - 100Change in internal energy = 300 JHence, the internal energy of the system is 300 J.

Q27. _ is a device which makes use of mutual induction for stepping up or down an alternating e.m.f.

• A. Sonometer
• B. Transformer✓
• C. Ammeter
• D. Voltmeter
• E. Potentiometer

Explanation: Attached below is the answer to the question above:

Q28. In a circuit, there is a current of 5 amp which is changed such that the current falls to zero in 0.1 sec. If an average e.m.f. of 200 volts is induced, the self-inductance of the circuit will be:

• A. 4 Henrys✓
• B. 5 Henrys
• C. 6 Henrys
• D. 7 Henrys
• E. 8 Henrys

Explanation: Attached below is the solution of question above:

Q29. The instrument(s) which work on the principle of Wheatstone bridge is/are:

• A. Meter Bridge
• B. The Post Office Box
• C. Carey Foster's Bridge
• D. Calendar
• E. A, B and C✓

Explanation: All of the above mentioned instruments work upon the principle of Wheatstone bridge to measure the resistance except calendar.The Wheatstone bridge works on the principle of null deflection, i.e. the ratio of their resistances is equal, and no current flows through the circuit. Under normal conditions, the bridge is in an unbalanced condition where current flows through the galvanometer.All of the given examples work on this principle.

Q30. An ammeter reads up to 1 A. Its internal resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of the required shunt is:

• A. 0.3 Ω
• B. 0.9 Ω
• C. 1.3 Ω
• D. 0.09 Ω✓
• E. 0.03 Ω

Explanation: Attached below is the solution to the question above:

Q31. Electromagnetic waves are produced by:

• A. Oscillating electric charges and their fields✓
• B. Neutral particles in motion
• C. Stationary electric charges
• D. Heat transfer
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves are the combination of electric and magnetic field waves produced by moving charges.The creation of all electromagnetic waves begins with a charged particle. This charged particle creates an electric field (which can exert a force on other nearby charged particles). When it accelerates as part of an oscillatory motion, the charged particle creates ripples, or oscillations, in its electric field, and also produces a magnetic field (as predicted by Maxwell’s equation).

Q32. The energy of an X-ray quantum of wavelength 1.0 x 10-10 m is:

• A. 1.99 x 10-15 J✓
• B. 3 x 108 J
• C. 6.6 x 10-34 J
• D. 19.89 x 10-26 J
• E. 1.99 J

Explanation: ->v=fλ3 x 108=f x (1.0 X 10-10)f=3 x 108/1.0 X 10-10=3 x 1018->E=hfE=(6.62607004 × 10-34 )*(3 x 1018)=1.99 x 10-15

Q33. The shortest wavelength photon emitted in the Balmer series is:

• A. 1.0974 nm
• B. 4 nm
• C. 364.6 nm✓
• D. 3.64 m
• E. 480 nm

Explanation: Attached below is the solution to the question above:

Q34. To remove the huge amount of heat energy in a nuclear reactor, _ is/are used.

• A. Core
• B. Control rods
• C. Shielding
• D. Moderators
• E. Coolants✓

Explanation: The heat released by fission in nuclear reactors must be captured and transferred for use in electricity generation. To this end, reactors use coolants that remove heat from the core where the fuel is processed.

Q35. The half-life of C14 is about:

• A. 1637 years
• B. 892 years
• C. 10 years
• D. 100 years
• E. 5730 years✓

Explanation: Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,730 ± 40 years—i.e. half the amount of the radioisotope present at any given time will undergo spontaneous disintegration during the succeeding 5,730 years.

Q36. The equation ΔU = ΔQ refers to:

• A. Isothermal process
• B. Adiabatic process
• C. Isochoric process✓
• D. Isobaric process
• E. Carnot cycle

Explanation: For equation ΔU = ΔQ + W to be ΔU = ΔQ, the work done should be equal to 0. Work done is equal to P*ΔV, so for work done to be zero, change in volume should be zero (there should be constant volume). Processes with constant volume are called isochoric processes.

Q37. Two capacitors C1=3 uF and C2=6 uF are in series across a 90 volts D.C. supply. The total capacitance is given by:

• A. 9 uF
• B. 2 uF✓
• C. 10 uF
• D. 90 uF
• E. 5 uF

Explanation: 1/C1 + 1/C2 = 1/C⅓ + ⅙ = 1/C2 + 1 /6 = 1/C3/6 = 1/C½ =1 /CC = 2 uF

Q38. Kinetic energy of a charged particle decreases by 10 J as it moves from a point at potential 100 V to 200 v. The charge on the particle is:

• A. 10-3 C
• B. 10-2 C
• C. 10-1 C✓
• D. 105 C
• E. 10-9 C

Explanation: Attached below is the solution to the question above:

Q39. A 100 watt bulb is operated by 240 volts, the current through the bulb will be:

• A. 2.4 A
• B. 240 A
• C. 0.416 A✓
• D. 41.6 A
• E. 416 A

Explanation: Power = voltages * current100 = 240*ICurrent = I = 10/24= 5/12= 0.4166A

Q40. A bulb having a resistance of 150 Ω is connected to a 225 volt source, the current in the bulb will be:

• A. 1.5 A✓
• B. 10 A
• C. 3.7350 A
• D. 250 A
• E. 100 A

Explanation: The correct answer is 1.5 A. According to Ohm's Law, which states V = I × R, you can determine the current I by rearranging the formula: I = V / R. Substituting the given values, I = 225 V / 150 Ω = 1.5 A. Other options are incorrect because they either miscalculate the division or assume incorrect values for voltage or resistance.

Q41. If the reaction, P + Q → R + S, is described as being of zero-order with respect to P, it means that:

• A. P is a catalyst in this reaction
• B. No P molecules possess sufficient energy to react
• C. The concentration of P does not change during the reaction
• D. The rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of P✓
• E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the concentration of Q

Explanation: If the order of reaction with respect to P is 0 (zero), this means that the concentration of P doesn't affect the rate of reaction. Mathematically, any number raised to the power of zero (x0) is equal to 1. That means that that particular term disappears from the rate equation.

Q42. The number of moles of solute dissolved per liter of solution is called:

• A. Normality
• B. Molality
• C. Mole fraction
• D. Molarity✓
• E. Percentage composition

Explanation: Molarity (M) indicates the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.Molality is a property of a solution and is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Mole fraction is defined as the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution or other mixture to the total number of moles representing all of the moles in solution. Normality is described as the number of gram or mole equivalents of solute present in one liter of a solution. The percent composition of a component in a compound is the percent of the total mass of the compound that is due to that component.

Q43. The oxidation number of all the elements in the free state is:

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 0✓
• D. -1
• E. -3

Explanation: All the elements have an oxidation number of 0 in the free state.

Q44. Sum of all the exponents of the molar concentration of the reactant present in the rate equation is known as:

• A. Molecularity
• B. Order of reaction✓
• C. Rate of reaction
• D. Gradient
• E. Slope

Explanation: The order of a chemical reaction is defined as the sum of the powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate equation of that particular chemical reaction.

Q45. According to which phenomenon, "the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number."

• A. Mendeleev's periodic law
• B. Newland's law of octaves
• C. Dobereiner's triads
• D. Lothar Meyer’s classification
• E. Modern periodic law✓

Explanation: The modern Periodic law can be stated as: “The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers”. The atomic number is equal to the number of electrons or protons in a neutral atom.

Q46. 2 grams of H2 molecules contain _ molecules.

• A. 12.04 x 1023
• B. 6.02 x 1023✓
• C. 3.01 x 1023
• D. 1.008
• E. 2

Explanation: 1 mole of hydrogen contains = 2×1 = 2g2g of H2 contain = 2/2 × avogadro number = 1 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules.

Q47. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2 will be _.

• A. 8
• B. 2
• C. 4✓
• D. 16
• E. 64

Explanation: According to Graham's law of effusion, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Therefore, the comparative rate of diffusion can be calculated using the formula: Rate of diffusion = √(M1/M2) Here, M1 is the molar mass of SO2 (64 g/mol), and M2 is the molar mass of He (4 g/mol). Plugging in these values gives: √(64/4) = √16 = 4. Therefore, the comparative rate of diffusion of helium to sulfur dioxide is 4. The incorrect options arise from not correctly applying the square root to the ratio of molar masses.

Q48. The unit of viscosity is:

• A. Joule
• B. N/m2
• C. Dynes/cm
• D. Poise✓
• E. Ergs

Explanation: The cgs unit of viscosity is poise (P) whereas the SI unit of viscosity is newton-second per square meter, which is usually expressed as pascal-second.

Q49. The maximum possible number of electrons a shell 'n' can accommodate is given by:

• A. n
• B. n2
• C. 2n2✓
• D. n3
• E. 3n2

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons that can be in a shell is 2n2.

Q50. Cl + e ----> Cl-ΔH = -348kJ/molThe value -348KJ/mol in this case will be:

• A. Ionization energy
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Entropy
• E. Free energy

Explanation: As it can be seen in the equation, electrons are gained by the element chlorine to form a negative ion (anion). The process in which electrons are gained is called electron affinity.

Q51. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating according to the following equation: 2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)+ O2 (g) When 4 moles of nitrogen dioxide were put into a 1 dm3 container and heated to a constant temperature, the equilibrium mixture contained 0.8 moles of oxygen. What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, at the temperature of the experiment?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: To find the numerical value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, we need to use the equilibrium concentrations of the reactants and products.According to the given information, we start with 4 moles of nitrogen dioxide (NO2) in a 1 dm^3 container. This means the initial concentration of NO2 is 2.4 moles/1 dm^3 = 2.4 M.At equilibrium, we have 0.8 moles of oxygen (O2) in the 1 dm^3 container. The equilibrium concentration of O2 is therefore 0.8 M.Since the stoichiometry of the balanced equation is 2NO2 ⇌ 2NO + O2, the equilibrium concentration of nitrogen monoxide (NO) will also be 2 times the concentration of O2, which is 2 x 0.8 M = 1.6 M.Now we can write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc:Kc = [NO]2 [O2] / [NO2]2Kc = (1.6 M)2 * (0.8 M) / (2.4 M)2This is numerical so it can only have one correct option.

Q52. H2S is an example of _ hydride.

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent✓
• C. Complex
• D. Metallic
• E. Border-line hydride

Explanation: Covalent hydrides are formed when hydrogen reacts with other similar electronegative elements like Si, C,etc. H2S is a covalent hydride because the two elements used in the formation of this hydride are non-metals.

Q53. The formula of “rock salt” is:

• A. NaCl✓
• B. NaHCO3
• C. Na2CO3
• D. CuSO4

Explanation: Halite more commonly known as Rock salt is a mineral formed from sodium chloride. Its chemical formula is NaCl and this also includes other variations of salt such as common salt and table salt.

Q54. For the reaction, (where X is halogen)2M + X2 -> 2MXIf M is metal, it is more likely to be:

• A. Alkaline earth metal
• B. Alkali Metal✓
• C. Outer transition metal
• D. Inner transition metal
• E. None of the above

Explanation: If X is a halogen this means X has an oxidation of -1. Since the compound formed when X reacts with halogen to form MX, the M has an oxidation state of +1. Alkali Metals have an oxidation state of +1.

Q55. Which one is not true for H2SO4?

• A. Acid
• B. Oxidizing agent
• C. Nitrating agent✓
• D. Dehydrating agent
• E. Sulfonating agent

Explanation: H2SO4 is strongly acidic, a powerful oxidizing agent (especially hot, concentrated), and an excellent dehydrating agent. It does not act as a nitrating agent by itself, In nitration, H2SO4 only helps generate the nitrating agent (NO₂+) from HNO3, but is not the nitrating agent directly.

Q56. Transition elements and their compounds are commonly used as catalysts due to _.

• A. Involvement of inner d-orbitals
• B. Due to the presence of unpaired electrons
• C. d-d transition of electrons
• D. Variable oxidation state✓
• E. Suitable surface area

Explanation: Transition metals and their compounds act as catalysts because their electronic configurations are variable that enables them to temporarily exchange electrons with reacting species.

Q57. The C-C bond distance is _.

• A. 1.10 Å
• B. 1.20 Å
• C. 1.30 Å
• D. 1.54 Å✓
• E. 1.34 Å

Explanation: The C−C bond length is 1.54 Å.

Q58. Identify the type of isomerism:

• A. Chain Isomerism
• B. Position Isomerism✓
• C. Functional Group Isomerism
• D. Metamerism
• E. Optical Isomerism

Explanation: The type of isomerism in which a functional group is placed to different carbons in the organic compound is called position isomerism, which is what can be seen in the above diagram.

Q59. CH ≡ CH + 2AgNO3 -> AgC ≡ CAg + 2HNO3 represents _ property of acetylene.

• A. Basic
• B. Acidic✓
• C. Dehydrating
• D. Physical
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Acetylene is a known weak acid as it can be seen when dissolved in silver nitrate it can give off its two hydrogen ions - thus acting as a acid.

Q60. The question below belongs to the topic of Benzene:

• A. Meta-directing and deactivating group
• B. Ortho-para directing and activating group✓
• C. Ortho-para directing and deactivating group
• D. Ortho-directing and activating only
• E. Para-directing and deactivating only

Explanation: NH2 is an ortho-para directing group which is an activating group.

Q61. The stability of carbonium ions following the order:

• A. A. Methyl > Ethyl > Isopropyl (secondary) > Tertiarybutyl
• B. B. Tertiarybutyl > Isopropyl (secondary) > Ethyl > Methyl✓
• C. C. Isopropyl (secondary) > Tertiarybutyl > Ethyl > Methyl
• D. D. Ethyl > Methyl > Isopropyl (secondary) > Tertiarybutyl
• E. E. Methyl > Isopropyl (secondary) > Tertiarybutyl > Ethyl

Explanation: The stability of carbonium ions increases with the number of alkyl groups attached to the positively charged carbon. This is because alkyl groups provide electron-donating effects that help stabilize the positive charge. Therefore, tertiary carbonium ions, with three alkyl groups, are more stable than secondary and primary ions. Thus, the correct order of stability is: Tertiarybutyl > Isopropyl (secondary) > Ethyl > Methyl. Options A, C, D, and E incorrectly represent the stability order by either misplacing the tertiary ion or suggesting a misleading trend.

Q62. RMgX is an organometallic compound, generally known as:

• A. Grignard's Reagent✓
• B. Baeyer's Reagent
• C. Ether
• D. Ester
• E. Aldehyde

Explanation: The correct answer is Grignard's Reagent, which is an important organometallic compound used in various organic synthesis reactions. It is typically formed by the reaction of an alkyl halide with magnesium in the presence of dry ether, resulting in the formula R-Mg-X. This reaction is vital in forming carbon-carbon bonds in organic chemistry.Other options, such as Baeyer's Reagent, Ether, Ester, and Aldehyde, are unrelated to the formation or properties of Grignard Reagent. Baeyer's Reagent is used in hydroxylation reactions, ethers are simple organic compounds without magnesium, esters are formed from acids and alcohols, and aldehydes contain a carbonyl group, none of which involve the specific organometallic bonding found in Grignard Reagent.

Q63. _ is used as a preservative for life specimens.

• A. H2SO4
• B. Ammonia
• C. Methanol
• D. NaOH
• E. Formalin✓

Explanation: Formalin is widely used for the preservation of biological specimens due to its ability to fix tissues, making them resistant to decay. It works by crosslinking proteins, which helps maintain the structure of cells and tissues. Formalin also has antiseptic properties, preventing microbial growth. The other options, such as H2SO4, ammonia, methanol, and NaOH, are not suitable for preservation as they can damage tissues or fail to effectively preserve cellular structures.

Q64. The structural formula of picric acid is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B.
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E✓

Explanation: This structure is just a factual recall:

Q65. _ is needed in thyroxine, the hormone of thyroid gland.

• A. Mg2+
• B. K+
• C. Ca2+
• D. Iodine✓
• E. Zinc

Explanation: The thyroid gland uses iodine from food to make two thyroid hormones: triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). It also stores these thyroid hormones and releases them as they are needed.

Q66. sp3 hybridization in CH4 gives it _ geometry.

• A. Linear
• B. Coplanar
• C. Tetrahedral✓
• D. Octahedral
• E. Trigonal pyramid

Explanation: The correct answer is Tetrahedral. In CH4, the carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridization, forming four equivalent hybrid orbitals that orient in a way to minimize electron pair repulsion, resulting in a tetrahedral geometry. This arrangement allows for the formation of four equivalent C-H bonds with bond angles of approximately 109.5°.Other options are incorrect because:Linear: Associated with sp hybridization, not applicable to CH4.Coplanar: Linked to sp2 hybridization, not CH4.Octahedral: Requires six bonding sites, unlike CH4.Trigonal pyramid: Involves a lone pair, which CH4 does not have.

Q67. 1 calorie = _ Joules.

• A. 200 Joules
• B. 2000 Joules
• C. 4.184 Joules✓
• D. 4180 Joules
• E. 3630 Joules

Explanation: 1 calorie =4.184 Joules.This is just a factual recall.

Q68. The amount of heat provided to a system at constant pressure (qp) is equal to _.

• A. Change in internal energy (ΔU)
• B. Change in enthalpy (ΔH)✓
• C. Change in free energy (ΔG)
• D. Change in temperature only (ΔT)
• E. Change in pressure only (ΔP)

Explanation: At constant pressure, the heat added to a system is equal to the change in enthalpy (ΔH). This is because enthalpy is defined as the sum of the internal energy and the product of pressure and volume (H = U + PV). Therefore, when heat is added at constant pressure, it primarily changes the enthalpy. Option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because internal energy change (ΔU) does not account for the work done by the system, while Option C (ΔG) involves entropy and is related to the spontaneity of reactions, not just heat change. Options D and E are unrelated to the direct measure of heat at constant pressure.

Q69. EDTA ion is a _ ligand.

• A. Monodentate
• B. Bidentate
• C. Tridentate
• D. Polydentate✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: EDTA ion is polydentate. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is an amino polycarboxylic acid with the formula [CH2N(CH2CO2H)2]2. This white, water-soluble solid is widely used to bind to iron and calcium ions. It binds these ions as a hexadentate ("six-toothed") chelating agent.

Q70. The secondary and tertiary consumers are also known as:

• A. Green plants
• B. Herbivores
• C. Abiotic factors
• D. Decomposers
• E. Carnivores✓

Explanation: The secondary and tertiary consumers are also called carnivores because they does not feed on the producers directly.

Q71. Plants absorb it in the form of soluble phosphates. It is present abundantly in the growing and storage organs of plants. What is it?

• A. H2O
• B. CO2
• C. K
• D. P✓
• E. N

Explanation: Plants absorb phosphorus in the form of soluble phosphates, and it is stored abundantly in growing and storage organs like seeds and fruits, making it the correct answer.

Q72. Pharynx leads air into _ through glottis.

• A. Trachea
• B. Bronchus
• C. Alveoli
• D. Nasal sac
• E. Larynx✓

Explanation: Pharynx leads to the air into the larynx through glottis, as shown in the diagram below:

Q73. The concentration of Na ions in the body fluids is controlled by the _ hormone.

• A. ADH
• B. Parathormone
• C. Aldosterone✓
• D. Estrogen
• E. Thyroxin

Explanation: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone. Its main role is to regulate salt (which contains Sodium chloride mainly) in the body, thus having an effect on blood pressure.

Q74. The movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called:

• A. Hydrotropism
• B. Chemotropism
• C. Geotropism
• D. Thigmotropism✓
• E. Phototropism

Explanation: Thigmotropism is a directional growth movement that occurs as a mechanosensory response to a touch stimulus. It is typically found in twining plants and tendrils; however, plant biologists have also found thigmotropic responses in flowering plants and fungi. Phototropism is movement in response to light, geotropism is movement due to gravitational forces, and chemotropism is movement in response to chemicals.

Q75. The number of muscles in the human body is about:

• A. 200
• B. 300
• C. 400
• D. 500
• E. 600✓

Explanation: Most sources state that there are over 600 named skeletal muscles in the human body.

Q76. Steroids consist of _ 6 membered carbon rings and one 5 membered carbon ring.

• A. Four
• B. Three✓
• C. Two
• D. Five
• E. Six

Explanation: The steroid core structure is typically composed of seventeen carbon atoms, bonded in four "fused" rings: three six-member cyclohexane rings and one five-member cyclopentane ring.

Q77. Lysosomes are also called:

• A. Suicide Sacs✓
• B. Chondriosome
• C. Storage organelle
• D. Dicytosome
• E. Power house of a cell

Explanation: Lysosomes are sphere-shaped sacs filled with hydrolytic enzymes that have the capability to break down many types of biomolecules. Lysosomes are known as suicide sacs of the cell because they contain lytic enzymes capable of digesting cells and unwanted materials.

Q78. Closely related species are grouped together into _ .

• A. Families
• B. Orders
• C. Phyla
• D. Kingdom
• E. Genus✓

Explanation: Closely related species are grouped together into a “Genus”.

Q79. An enzyme increases the speed of a reaction:

• A. By adding activation energy requirements.
• B. By lowering the activation energy requirements.✓
• C. By altering the equilibrium of the reaction.
• D. By changing the concentration of products.

Explanation: Enzymes serve as biological catalysts that increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to proceed. Activation energy is the minimum amount of energy needed to initiate a reaction. By providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, enzymes allow reactions to occur more rapidly.Option A is incorrect because enzymes do not add to the activation energy requirements; they reduce them. Option C is incorrect because enzymes do not alter the equilibrium position of the reaction; they only accelerate the rate at which equilibrium is reached. Option D is incorrect because while enzymes affect the rate of reaction, they do not directly change the concentration of products.

Q80. The cell wall of most of the bacteria have a unique macromolecule called_.

• A. Cellulose
• B. Chitin
• C. Fibres
• D. Fats
• E. Peptidoglycan✓

Explanation: A cell wall is a layer located outside the cell membrane found in plants, fungi, bacteria. Plant cell is made up of cellulose, fungi cell of chitin and bacteria cell is made up of peptidoglycan.

Q81. All of the following organisms belong to the Kingdom Protista EXCEPT:

• A. Ulva
• B. Euglena
• C. Slime Mold
• D. Common Mold✓
• E. Suctoria

Explanation: Common Molds belong to the Kingdom Fungi

Q82. Parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the living host with the help of special hyphae tips called _.

• A. Roots
• B. Root hair
• C. Rhizoids
• D. Haustoria✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Haustoria arise from the hyphae in fungi and from the roots or stems of parasitic plants. It is a nutrient-absorbing outgrowth of a fungus or parasitic plant that penetrates the tissues of the host organism.

Q83. The botanical name of Imli is:

• A. Cassia fistula
• B. Mimosa pudica
• C. Tamarindus indica✓
• D. Datura alba
• E. Rosa indica

Explanation: The botanical name for tamarind, commonly known as "imli" in Hindi, is Tamarindus indica. Tamarind is a tropical tree that produces a sour fruit used in various culinary applications, such as cooking, condiments, and beverages. The tree is part of the Fabaceae family and is native to tropical Africa but is now cultivated in many tropical regions around the world.

Q84. Which one of the following is not in the group of Gymnosperm?

• A. Cycads
• B. Gingko
• C. Gnetum
• D. Conifers
• E. Musci✓

Explanation: The term "Musci" refers to the taxonomic division Musci, which includes the bryophytes commonly known as mosses. Mosses are small, non-vascular plants that belong to the phylum Bryophyta. They are one of the three main groups of bryophytes, alongside liverworts (Hepaticophyta) and hornworts (Anthocerotophyta).

Q85. Which one of the following is a fish?

• A. Flying fish
• B. Salmon
• C. Sea horse
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Salmon, flying fish, and sea horse (Hippocampus) are all fishes and come under Pisces. They are cold-blooded animals and they possess two-chambered hearts. So, the correct answer is option D.

Q86. Glucose → 2 pyruvic acid + 2H2O2ADP + 2Pi → 2 ATP2NAD + 4H → 2NADH + 2H+These three reactions collectively constitute _.

• A. Krebs cycle
• B. Calvin cycle
• C. Electron Transport Chain
• D. Light reaction
• E. Glycolysis✓

Explanation: The reaction in which glucose converts to pyruvate, forming two ATP molecules and two NADH molecules is called glycolysis.

Q87. The genotype of a normal male in humans is _ chromosomes.

• A. 44 + XY✓
• B. 44 + XXY
• C. 44 + XO
• D. 44 + XXX

Explanation: The genotype of a normal male contains 44 autosomes and two sex chromosomes, which are XY.

Q88. The process of replacing or supplementing the defective allele with a functional, normal allele is known as _.

• A. Allele transplant
• B. Physiotherapy
• C. Gene therapy✓
• D. Mutation
• E. Cloning

Explanation: Gene therapy is an experimental technique that uses an allele to treat or prevent disease,by replacing the defective allele. In the future, this technique may allow doctors to treat a disorder by inserting a gene into a patient's cells instead of using drugs or surgery.

Q89. Germ cells give rise to:

• A. Legs
• B. Head
• C. Eggs and sperms✓
• D. Hands
• E. All body parts

Explanation: There are two types of human germ cells, eggs, and sperms. Germ cells are specialized cells that give rise to gametes, the reproductive cells that fuse during fertilization to create a new organism. In humans, germ cells are found in the gonads, the ovaries in females and the testes in males.

Q90. Bacteria were grown in a medium containing heavy isotope of nitrogen (N15) for many generations and all their DNA contained heavy nitrogen only. A bacterium of this type was transferred to normal medium and allowed to duplicate. After two divisions of heavy DNA:

• A. Only one daughter cell will have heavy DNA
• B. Two daughter cells have normal DNA and the other two have heavy DNA✓
• C. All daughter cells have heavy DNA
• D. All daughter cells contain hybrid DNA

Explanation: Duplication of DNA is by the semi-conservative method that was first shown in escherichia coli and later it was observed in higher organisms such as plants and animals.The DNA extracted from the first generation after the transfer from N15 medium to normal medium had a hybrid and or intermediate only and the DNA extracted from the second generation has equal amounts of hybrid DNA and normal DNA. So, the correct answer is ‘ half daughter cells have heavy DNA and the other half have normal DNA’.

Q91. Nitrogen-cycle is facilitated by _.

• A. Algae
• B. Fungi
• C. Bacteria✓
• D. Virus
• E. Earthquakes

Explanation: Bacteria facilitate the nitrogen cycle. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, microorganisms capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen (inorganic compounds usable by plants). More than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation is affected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle.

Q92. Savannah is an example of _ ecosystem.

• A. Marine water
• B. Freshwater
• C. Forest
• D. Tropical grassland✓
• E. Desert

Explanation: Savannah belongs to the tropical grassland ecosystem.

Q93. In cats, the genes controlling coat color are co-dominant and are carried on the X chromosomes. When a black female was mated with a ginger male the resulting litter consisted of black male and tortoise-shell female kittens. What phenotypic ratio would be expected in the F2 generation?

• A. 1 black male : 1 ginger male : 2 tortoise - shell females
• B. 1 black male : 1 ginger male : 1 tortoise - shell female : 1 black female✓
• C. 2 black males : 1 tortoise - shell female : 1 ginger female
• D. 1 black male : 1 tortoise - shell female : 1 ginger female : 1 black female
• E. 2 black males : 1 tortoise - shell female : 1 black female

Explanation: A black male has a genotype of XbY Tortoise-shell female kittens will have: XbXg XbY and XbXg XbXb; XbXg; XbY; XgY Hence: 1 Black-female; 1 tortoiseshell female; 1 black male; 1 ginger male.

Q94. The region where the impulse moves from one neuron to another is called _.

• A. Axon
• B. Dendrites
• C. Synapse✓
• D. Thalamus
• E. Cerebellum

Explanation: Synapse, also called a neuronal junction, is the site of transmission of electric nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector).

Q95. A bean seed contains all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. A seed coat
• B. An epicotyl
• C. A hypocotyl
• D. A hypha✓
• E. Cotyledon

Explanation: A seed coat is the outer protective layer of a seed. An epicotyl is the part of the embryo that grows above the ground. A hypocotyl is the part of the embryo that grows below the ground. A cotyledon is a leaf-like structure that stores food for the embryo. A hypha is a thread-like filament that is found in fungi.

Q96. _ is the reconstruction of the lost part of the body:

• A. Growth
• B. Development
• C. Regeneration✓
• D. Blastulation
• E. Gastrulation

Explanation: Regeneration is the natural process of replacing or restoring damaged or missing cells, tissues, organs, and even entire body parts to full function in plants and animals. It is the ability of an organism to replace lost or damaged parts of its body.

Q97. A fern has _ pairs of chromosomes.

• A. 23
• B. 40
• C. 500✓
• D. 13

Explanation: Ferns have 500 pairs of chromosomes.

Q98. Which valve action results from an increase in pressure in the ventricles of the heart?

• A. The closing of all the heart valves
• B. The closing of semilunar valves
• C. The opening of the bicuspid valve
• D. The opening of the semilunar valves✓

Explanation: When the pressure of the ventricles increases, the bicuspid and tricuspid valves close and semilunar valves open.

Q99. The combination of XXY (47) chromosomes results in:

• A. Down's Syndrome
• B. Turner's Syndrome
• C. Klinefelter's Syndrome✓
• D. Sickle Cell Anemia

Explanation: Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic condition in which a boy is born with an extra X chromosome. Instead of the typical XY chromosomes in men, they have XXY, so this condition is sometimes called XXY syndrome.