Sindh Mcat Nts 2015 Smbbmc Lyari — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Read the passage and answer the following question:“What a silly boy you are!” cried the miller. “I really don’t know what is the use of sending you to school. You seem not to learn anything. If little Hans came up here and saw our warm fire, our good supper, and our great cask of red wine, he might get envious. Envy is the most terrible thing and would spoil anybody’s nature. I certainly will not allow Hans’s nature to be spoiled. I am his best friend, and I will always watch over him, and see that he is not led into any temptations. Besides, if Hans came here, he might ask me to let him have some flour on credit, and that I could not do. Flour is one thing and friendship is another and they should not be confused. Why? The words are spelled differently and mean quite different things. Everybody can see that.” What does the statement “ Flour is one thing, and friendship is another” tell about the nature of Miller?

• A. Very kind
• B. Selfish✓
• C. Friendly
• D. Caring

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Selfish' because the miller's words and actions reveal a self-centered nature. He prioritizes his own possessions and well-being over helping little Hans, despite claiming to be his best friend. This contradiction between his words and actions highlights his selfishness. The other options are incorrect because the miller's behavior does not align with the qualities of kindness, friendliness, or care. He is dismissive and condescending, showing little genuine concern for Hans's well-being.

Q2. Read the passage and answer the following question:“What a silly boy you are!” cried the miller. “I really don’t know what is the use of sending you to school. You seem not to learn anything. If little Hans came up here and saw our warm fire, our good supper, and our great cask of red wine, he might get envious. Envy is the most terrible thing and would spoil anybody’s nature. I certainly will not allow Hans’ nature to be spoiled. I am his best friend, and I will always watch over him, and see that he is not led into any temptations. Besides, if Hans came here, he might ask me to let him have some flour on credit, and that I could not do. Flour is one thing and friendship is another and they should not be confused. Why? The words are spelled differently and mean quite different things. Everybody can see that.”Why does Miller not want Hans to come inside his home?

• A. Because Miller thinks that after seeing the luxuries of his home, Hans will get envious
• B. Because Miller thinks that Hans will ask for flour on credit
• C. Because Miller thinks that his house was not worth visiting
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: The correct answer is both A and B. The miller is concerned about two potential issues if Hans visits: first, that Hans might become envious upon seeing the warm fire, good supper, and cask of red wine, which the miller believes could spoil Hans's nature. Second, the miller fears that Hans might ask for flour on credit, which he is not willing to provide. These concerns make the miller reluctant to have Hans over. Option C is incorrect because the miller does not suggest that his house is unworthy of visiting; rather, he seems to take pride in its comforts.

Q3. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices. Two airplanes crashed _ the fog yesterday?

• A. On
• B. Of
• C. In✓
• D. To

Explanation: The correct preposition to complete the sentence is "in." Using "in" suggests that the crash happened within the foggy conditions, effectively describing the environment of the crash. "On" and "of" do not correctly convey this spatial relationship—"on" implies a surface, and "of" suggests possession. "To" indicates movement towards something, which is irrelevant to this context. Therefore, "in" is the most suitable choice.

Q4. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices.Our football team has _ the remarkable feat of winning the championship for three years in succession.

• A. Brought in
• B. Brought off✓
• C. Had brought
• D. Have brought
• E. Brought to

Explanation: The correct sentence is: 'Our football team has brought off the remarkable feat of winning the championship for three years in succession.' The phrase 'brought off' means to successfully achieve something difficult, which aligns with the context of the football team winning the championship repeatedly. Other options such as 'brought in', 'had brought', and 'brought to' do not convey this meaning. 'Have brought' is incorrect due to subject-verb agreement issues.

Q5. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct. You cannot leave now. The lions and tigers will appear in a minute.

• A. You
• B. The lions
• C. Tigers
• D. Appear
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The sentence is structured correctly with no grammatical errors. The subject 'You' correctly refers to the person being addressed. 'The lions and tigers' correctly acts as a compound subject in the second clause, and the verb 'appear' properly describes the action that will occur in a minute. Therefore, no changes are needed, making 'No error' the correct choice. The other options incorrectly suggest that individual words or phrases need revision, but each part of the sentence is appropriately used.

Q6. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct. I hardly know him but he talk to me like an old friend.

• A. hardly know
• B. talk✓
• C. friend
• D. no error

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: talk. The sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error. The subject 'he' is a third-person singular pronoun, so the verb must be in the third-person singular form. Thus, 'talk' should be changed to 'talks.' The corrected sentence is: 'I hardly know him but he talks to me like an old friend.'Option A, 'hardly know,' is correct and does not require alteration as it accurately reflects the speaker's limited acquaintance with the person. Option C, 'friend,' is also appropriate and needs no change, as it describes the manner in which the person is speaking. Option D, 'no error,' is incorrect because there is indeed an error to correct in the verb form.

Q7. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.AMUSED

• A. Annoyed
• B. Pleased✓
• C. Upset
• D. Irritated

Explanation: The word 'amused' means finding something funny or entertaining, often resulting in a sense of enjoyment or pleasure. 'Pleased' is the correct choice because it also conveys a feeling of satisfaction and happiness. On the other hand, 'annoyed,' 'upset,' and 'irritated' all suggest negative emotions, which are not similar to being amused.

Q8. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one. ABRUPT

• A. Gradual
• B. Stable
• C. Measured
• D. Sudden✓

Explanation: The word 'abrupt' is used to describe something that happens quickly and without warning. Therefore, the word 'sudden' is the best synonym as it also conveys the idea of a quick and unexpected occurrence.

Q9. Choose the word nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized one. MEND

• A. Repair
• B. Fix
• C. Break✓
• D. Sew

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Break' because it means to cause something to separate into pieces or to stop functioning, which is the opposite of 'mend,' which means to repair or fix something.

Q10. Choose the word nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized one. MUFFLED

• A. Loud✓
• B. Quiet
• C. Soft
• D. Noiseless

Explanation: The word 'muffled' describes a sound that is muted or not clear due to some form of obstruction. The correct opposite of 'muffled' is 'loud', which denotes a sound that is strong and easily heard.

Q11. Three-word equations are shown:P. Carbon dioxide + water gives glucose + oxygen Q. Glucose + oxygen gives carbon dioxide + water R. Glucose gives alcohol + carbon dioxide What is/are the equations for anaerobic respiration in yeast?

• A. P only
• B. Q only
• C. R only✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration in yeast, also known as alcoholic fermentation, is correctly represented by equation R: 'Glucose gives alcohol + carbon dioxide.' In this process, yeast cells break down glucose in the absence of oxygen to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide. This is crucial in industries such as brewing and baking, where yeast ferments sugars to produce alcohol and gas.Equation P represents photosynthesis, which is unrelated to respiration, while equation Q represents aerobic respiration that requires oxygen, unlike the anaerobic process in yeast.

Q12. A pollen tube serves to:

• A. Produce sperms
• B. Store food for the developing embryo
• C. Transfer sperms from the stigma to the ovary✓
• D. Produce female gametophytes

Explanation: The pollen tube is a crucial structure in the reproductive process of seed plants. It is produced by the male gametophyte and serves as a pathway to transport the male gametes from the pollen grain to the ovules within the ovary. This process occurs after pollination and ensures the successful fertilization of the ovule, leading to seed development. Option A is incorrect because sperm production is an animal process; plants have pollen grains. Option B is incorrect because food storage occurs in the endosperm or cotyledons, not in the pollen tube. Option D is incorrect because female gametophytes develop within the ovule, and the pollen tube is unrelated to their production.

Q13. Which of the following is the area of least productivity?

• A. Intertidal zone
• B. Oceanic zone
• C. Photic zone
• D. Aphotic zone✓
• E. Neritic zone

Explanation: The aphotic zone is the least productive area because it receives minimal to no sunlight, preventing photosynthesis, which is essential for primary productivity. In contrast, the intertidal zone, oceanic zone, photic zone, and neritic zone all receive varying amounts of sunlight sufficient to support photosynthesis and diverse marine ecosystems. The photic zone, in particular, is highly productive due to its exposure to sunlight.

Q14. During the first three steps of glycolysis, glucose is converted to Fructose 1, 6-diphosphate by the rearrangement of the molecule and addition of two phosphate groups. The phosphate comes from?

• A. Phospholipids of the membrane
• B. ADP
• C. Inorganic phosphates
• D. ATP✓

Explanation: During the initial steps of glycolysis, ATP molecules are crucial for facilitating the phosphorylation of glucose. In the first step, glucose is phosphorylated by ATP to form glucose-6-phosphate, catalyzed by the enzyme hexokinase. In the third step, another ATP molecule donates a phosphate group to fructose 6-phosphate, forming fructose 1,6-diphosphate through the action of the enzyme phosphofructokinase. These phosphorylation steps are essential for the continuation of glycolysis and subsequent energy production. The other options, like phospholipids and ADP, do not contribute phosphate groups in this metabolic pathway, while inorganic phosphates are not the direct source of phosphorylation in these steps.

Q15. The diagram shows a food web. Which organisms occupy the same trophic level?

• A. 3 and 2
• B. 4 and 1
• C. 5 and 2
• D. 1 and 2✓

Explanation: Trophic levels represent the position of organisms in the food chain. Organisms 1 and 2 are both primary consumers that feed directly on producers, placing them at the same trophic level.

Q16. It is the non-living component of the cell, it is secreted and maintained by the living portion of the cell and is found only in plants. What is this structure?

• A. Golgi apparatus
• B. Lysosome
• C. Mitochondrion
• D. Cell wall✓
• E. Ribosomes

Explanation: The correct answer is the cell wall, which is a non-living component unique to plant cells among the options provided. It is secreted and maintained by the living parts of the cell, such as the plasma membrane and the Golgi apparatus. The cell wall provides structure, protection, and supports the plant cell against mechanical stress and osmotic pressure. It is primarily composed of cellulose in plants.Other options such as the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, mitochondria, and ribosomes are all living organelles involved in various cell functions and are found in both plant and animal cells. They do not serve the structural role that the cell wall does.

Q17. How does the second meiotic division differ from mitosis? In the second meiotic division:

• A. Chiasmata formed between the chromatids of a bivalent.
• B. Each chromosome replicates to form two chromatids during metaphase.
• C. The separating chromatids of a pair differ genetically.✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Option C is correct because, during the second meiotic division, the chromatids that separate may have different genetic compositions due to the recombination events in meiosis I. In contrast, mitosis typically involves the separation of identical sister chromatids.Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, reducing the cell's chromosome number by half in a reductional division, while Meiosis II separates sister chromatids, similar to mitosis, in an equational division where the chromosome number remains the same. Meiosis I is characterized by crossing over and pairing of homologous chromosomes (bivalents), which does not occur in Meiosis II. The process begins with a single diploid cell in Meiosis I and concludes with four genetically diverse haploid cells after Meiosis II. Option A is incorrect because chiasmata are not formed during the second division. Option B is incorrect because chromosome replication does not occur during metaphase II. Option D is incorrect because Option C is a valid statement about the second meiotic division.

Q18. Five steps of the lytic cycle of a T4 stage are given below: The T4 phage uses its tails to stick to specific receptor The cell’s metabolic machinery, directed by phage DNA, produces phage proteins and nucleotides from the cell's degraded DNA. The phage then directs the production of an enzyme that digests the cell. The empty capsid of the phage is left as a ghost outside the cell The sheath of the tail contracts, thrusting a hollow core through the wall and membrane of the cell.Which of the following is the correct sequence of the cycle?

• A. 3-5-4-2-1
• B. 2-4-5-1-3
• C. 5-1-4-2-3
• D. 1-5-4-2-3✓
• E. 4-5-1-3-2

Explanation: The correct sequence of the lytic cycle for a T4 phage is attachment, penetration, uncoating, biosynthesis, and maturation. Option D, 1-5-4-2-3, accurately represents this order:Attachment (1): The T4 phage uses its tails to stick to specific receptors on the host cell.Penetration (5): The sheath of the tail contracts, thrusting a hollow core through the wall and membrane of the cell.Uncoating (4): The empty capsid of the phage is left as a ghost outside the cell.Biosynthesis (2): The cell's metabolic machinery, directed by phage DNA, produces phage proteins and nucleotides from the cell's degraded DNA.Maturation (3): The phage then directs the production of an enzyme that digests the cell.The other options do not follow this logical sequence and therefore represent incorrect orders of the lytic cycle stages.

Q19. Listed below are some amino acids and their corresponding mRNA triplets.

• A. Option A: alanine - GCA = CGT, arginine - CGA = GCT, lysine - AAG = TTC, phenylalanine - UUU = AAA✓
• B. Option B: alanine - GCU = CGA, arginine - AGG = TCC, lysine - AAA = TTT, phenylalanine - UUU = AAG
• C. Option C: alanine - GCC = GGC, arginine - CGG = GCC, lysine - AAG = TTC, phenylalanine - UUU = AAA
• D. Option D: alanine - GCA = TGT, arginine - CGA = GCT, lysine - AAG = TTC, phenylalanine - UUU = AAA
• E. Option E: alanine - GCU = CGA, arginine - CGG = GCC, lysine - AAA = TTT, phenylalanine - UUC = AAG

Explanation: mRNA is complementary to the DNA template strand (and replaces T with U). DNA template (3' → 5'):CGT - GCT - TTC - AAACompare to the options:Option A: CGT GCT TTC AAA

Q20. Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a colour-blind man marries a woman with normal vision whose father is colourblind and they have a daughter, what is the probability that she will be colourblind?

• A. 0
• B. 0.25
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.75

Explanation: To solve this, consider the genetics involved: The man is color-blind (XcY), and the woman, who has normal vision but a color-blind father, is a carrier (X+Xc). When they have a daughter, the possible combinations of X chromosomes are: X+Xc (carrier, normal vision) and XcXc (color-blind). Thus, there is a 50% chance that their daughter will be color-blind. Options A and D are incorrect as they underestimate and overestimate the probability, respectively. Option B is incorrect because it fails to account for both sources of the recessive allele.

Q21. Tuberculosis is caused by?

• A. Bacterium✓
• B. Allergy
• C. Nicotine
• D. Virus

Explanation: Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium primarily attacks the lungs but can also infect other parts of the body such as the kidneys, spine, and brain. Unlike allergies, which are immune responses to non-harmful substances, TB is an infectious disease spread through airborne transmission. Nicotine, a chemical in tobacco, does not cause TB, although smoking can exacerbate the condition. Lastly, TB is not viral; it is bacterial, distinguishing it from diseases caused by viruses.

Q22. Which of the following describes an ecological niche?

• A. The physical location where an organism finds its food supply
• B. The habitat providing the most favorable climate for an organism
• C. The interactions between an organism and other species within its ecosystem
• D. The comprehensive role and strategies of an organism in utilizing its environment✓

Explanation: An ecological niche refers to the complete role an organism plays within its ecosystem. It includes how the organism exploits its environment to obtain resources, the interactions it has with other organisms, and the conditions it requires for survival. Option D is correct because it captures the entirety of these aspects. Options A, B, and C only touch on individual elements of the niche concept, such as physical location, climate, or interspecies interactions, and thus do not fully define an ecological niche.

Q23. Which of the following are found in both arteries and capillaries?

• A. Connective tissues
• B. Elastic fibres
• C. Endothelial cells✓
• D. Smooth muscle cells

Explanation: Endothelial cells line the inner surface of all blood vessels, including arteries and capillaries, allowing smooth blood flow and exchange of substances.

Q24. Which of the following is not secreted by thyroid gland?

• A. Thyroxin
• B. Triiodothyronine
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Glucagon✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Glucagon. Glucagon is secreted by the pancreas, not the thyroid gland. Its primary function is to increase blood glucose levels, which is crucial for maintaining energy balance in the body. On the other hand, Thyroxin (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3), and Calcitonin are all hormones secreted by the thyroid gland. Thyroxin and Triiodothyronine are involved in regulating metabolism, while Calcitonin helps control calcium levels in the blood.

Q25. The water content of mammalian blood is regulated by antidiuretic hormone(ADH). In which part of the nephron does regulation occur ?

• A. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle
• B. The collecting duct✓
• C. The descending limb of the loop of Henle
• D. The proximal convoluted tubule

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts on the collecting duct of the nephron to increase water reabsorption, thereby regulating blood water content and concentrating urine.

Q26. In mosquitoes, the plasmodium is found in?

• A. Salivary glands✓
• B. Wings
• C. Blood
• D. Both Options A and B are correct

Explanation: The Plasmodium parasite, responsible for malaria, is found in the salivary glands of mosquitoes. This location is strategic for the parasite's transmission because when a mosquito bites, it injects saliva along with the parasite into the host. The wings of mosquitoes are unrelated to the Plasmodium lifecycle. While Plasmodium affects the blood of the host it infects, it does not naturally reside in the mosquito's blood. Option D is incorrect since Plasmodium is not found in both the salivary glands and wings.

Q27. The diagram shows a motor nerve cell. Which part of the cell contains a transmitter substance?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D. Neurotransmitter substances are stored and released at the axon terminals. These terminals are essential for communication between neurons, as they release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, which then bind to receptors on the adjacent neuron or muscle cell. Option A, the dendrite, primarily receives signals rather than sending them. Option B, the axon, is responsible for conducting electrical impulses. Option C, the myelin sheath, is an insulating layer that aids in the rapid transmission of electrical signals along the axon but does not contain neurotransmitters.

Q28. Which one of the following is exclusively marine phylum?

• A. Mollusca
• B. Echinodermata✓
• C. Annelida
• D. Arthropoda

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Echinodermata.' Echinoderms are exclusively marine animals, found only in ocean environments, which makes them distinct from the other phyla listed. Mollusca, Annelida, and Arthropoda are all phyla that include species adapted to a variety of habitats, including marine, freshwater, and terrestrial environments. This diversity in habitat is what sets Echinodermata apart as the only phylum listed that is strictly marine.

Q29. About 55% of the volume of the human blood is?

• A. Plasma✓
• B. Blood proteins
• C. Blood cells
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: The correct answer is plasma, which makes up about 55% of the total blood volume. Plasma is a clear fluid consisting of 90% water and contains essential substances such as electrolytes, proteins, hormones, and nutrients. Blood proteins are an important part of plasma but do not constitute 55% of the blood volume on their own. Blood cells form the remaining 45% of the blood volume, encompassing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are essential for various bodily functions but do not make up the majority of the blood volume.

Q30. Three words are shown below:Isomorphic sporophyte gametophyteThese words can be used in the spaces P, Q, and R to complete the sentence below.Thallus in Ulva is of two types. The one with 26 chromosomes is called P and the other with 13 chromosomes is called Q. Morphologically both gametophyte and sporophyte are exactly alike hence called R.

• A. Option A: P = gametophyte, Q = sporophyte, R = isomorphic
• B. Option B: P = sporophyte, Q = gametophyte, R = isomorphic✓
• C. Option C: P = sporophyte, Q = isomorphic, R = gametophyte
• D. Option D: P = isomorphic, Q = gametophyte, R = sporophyte

Explanation: In Ulva, the diploid stage with 26 chromosomes is the sporophyte (P), while the haploid stage with 13 chromosomes is the gametophyte (Q). Because both stages are morphologically alike, they are described as isomorphic (R). Option B correctly matches the terms with their definitions based on chromosome number and morphology. Options A, C, and D incorrectly assign the terms to the stages or misunderstand the usage of 'isomorphic'.

Q31. The biochemical analysis of a sample of DNA shows that 32% of the nitrogenous bases are cytosine. What is the total % of adenine and uracil in RNA transcribed from this DNA?

• A. 16%
• B. 18%
• C. 32%
• D. 36%✓

Explanation: According to Chargaff's rule, in DNA, the amount of cytosine (C) equals the amount of guanine (G), and the amount of adenine (A) equals the amount of thymine (T). Given 32% cytosine, there is also 32% guanine, totaling 64% for C and G. This leaves 36% for adenine and thymine combined in DNA. During transcription to RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil, maintaining the 36% total, which is now distributed between adenine and uracil. Therefore, the total percentage of adenine and uracil in RNA is 36%. The incorrect options misunderstand these base pair conversions and proportions.

Q32. Minerals salts enter a plant largely through its:

• A. Root hair✓
• B. Stomata
• C. Guard cells
• D. Cell wall

Explanation: Mineral salts primarily enter a plant through its root hairs, which are specialized for the absorption of water and nutrients from the soil. Root hairs increase the surface area available for absorption, making them efficient at taking up essential minerals. In contrast, stomata and guard cells focus on gaseous exchange, and the cell wall provides structural support without a role in nutrient uptake.

Q33. Urine formation is the result of:

• A. Ultrafiltration
• B. Reabsorption
• C. Tubular secretion
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Urine formation involves three main processes in the kidneys:Ultrafiltration (glomerular filtration) – blood is filtered in the glomerulus to form the initial filtrate. Reabsorption – useful substances are reclaimed from the filtrate back into the blood in the renal tubules. Tubular secretion -additional waste products are secreted into the tubules from the blood.The combination of these three processes produces urine.

Q34. Testes are structures that produce:

• A. Spores
• B. Sperms✓
• C. Seeds
• D. Ova

Explanation: The testes (or testicles) are critical to the male reproductive system, primarily producing sperm and the hormone testosterone. This makes them essential for both reproduction and secondary sexual characteristics in males. Spores are not relevant to animal reproduction and are associated with fungi and plants. Seeds are a plant reproductive structure, resulting from the fertilization of ovules, while ova are female reproductive cells produced by the ovaries, not the testes.

Q35. Mendel concluded that each organism has two hereditary factors for each trait, now called:

• A. Chromatids
• B. Alleles✓
• C. Chromosomes
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Pisum sativum has 14 chromosomes (2n = 14) arranged in 7 homologous pairs.

Q36. The condition of a stable internal environment in an organism is:

• A. Coordination
• B. Organisation
• C. Homeostasis✓
• D. Integration

Explanation: Homeostasis is the correct answer because it refers to the active regulation of an organism’s internal conditions to maintain stability and optimal function. It employs various physiological processes to ensure parameters like temperature, pH, and electrolyte balance remain within a narrow range, crucial for cellular functions and overall health. Unlike coordination, organisation, and integration, which involve interactions and arrangements of structures, homeostasis specifically addresses the maintenance of a stable internal environment.

Q37. Which of the following sub-stages does not occur in prophase I?

• A. Leptotene
• B. Zygotene
• C. Synapsis✓
• D. Diplotene
• E. Diakinesis

Explanation: Synapsis is not a sub-stage but a process that occurs during the zygotene sub-stage of prophase I. It involves the alignment and pairing of homologous chromosomes, facilitating genetic recombination. The other options are actual sub-stages of prophase I: Leptotene (chromosome condensation), Zygotene (synapsis occurs), Diplotene (separation of homologous chromosomes), and Diakinesis (chromosome condensation and spindle formation).

Q38. The phytohormones controlling the plant movements are?

• A. Auxins
• B. Gibberellins
• C. Abscisic acid
• D. Cytokinins
• E. All of the above✓

Explanation: Phytohormones are critical for plant growth, development, and responses to stimuli. Auxins are directly involved in tropisms, which are movements towards or away from stimuli. Gibberellins, while primarily growth hormones, also influence tropic movements by modulating growth patterns. Abscisic acid is more related to stress responses but contributes to movement by regulating stomatal closure. Cytokinins affect growth and cell division, indirectly influencing movement. Thus, all these hormones together play a role in plant movements and responses.

Q39. Nutritional deficiency ( vitamin D ) results in softening of the bones. This disease is called?

• A. Rickets✓
• B. Cleft palates
• C. Microcephaly
• D. Down syndrome

Explanation: Rickets is a condition that primarily affects children and is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for calcium and phosphate absorption in the body, which are critical for healthy bone formation. Without adequate vitamin D, bones become soft and weak, leading to symptoms such as bowed legs and stunted growth. The other options are distinct medical conditions that do not involve vitamin D deficiency or bone softening. Cleft palate is a structural birth defect, microcephaly is a condition affecting brain size, and Down syndrome is a genetic disorder.

Q40. Hinge joint occurs in:

• A. Elbow✓
• B. Skull
• C. Ankle
• D. Backbone

Explanation: Hinge joints are specialized structures that permit movement predominantly in one direction, akin to the opening and closing of a door. The elbow is a quintessential example of a hinge joint, allowing for bending and straightening of the arm (flexion and extension). Contrarily, the skull contains immovable joints (sutures), the ankle involves a more complex hinge-like movement, and the backbone consists of gliding joints, each enabling a range of complex motions but not fitting the strict definition of a hinge joint.

Q41. ZnH2 is an example of?

• A. Metallic hydrides
• B. Complex hydrides
• C. Polymeric hydrides✓
• D. Borderline hydrides

Explanation: ZnH₂ does not exist as simple Zn–H units.Instead, it forms a polymeric structure where hydrogen atoms act as bridges between zinc atoms (Zn–H–Zn). This extended network is characteristic of polymeric hydrides, commonly formed by metals near the borderline between ionic and covalent behavior.

Q42. A solid melts sharply just above 100-degree centigrade. It does not conduct electricity even when molten. It has weak Vander Waal's forces. What is the structure of the solid most likely to be?

• A. An atomic crystal
• B. Ionic crystal
• C. A molecular crystal✓
• D. Metallic

Explanation: The correct answer is a molecular crystal. Molecular crystals have low melting points and weak intermolecular forces, such as Vander Waals forces, which align with the description of the solid melting sharply just above 100-degree centigrade. They do not conduct electricity even when molten because they do not have any free-moving ions or electrons. In contrast, atomic crystals have strong covalent bonds with high melting points, ionic crystals have high melting points and conduct electricity when molten, and metallic crystals have high melting points and conduct electricity due to delocalized electrons.

Q43. The formula for phitkari is?

• A. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O✓
• B. K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O
• C. (NH4)2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
• D. (NH4)2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O

Explanation: The correct formula for phitkari, also known as Alum, is K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O. This form of alum is often used in water purification, as a mordant in dyeing, and in various cosmetic applications. The other options represent different types of alum or similar double salts, but they are not typically referred to as phitkari.

Q44. Which of the following is chrome yellow's pigment?

• A. Pb2Cr2O5
• B. PbCrO4.PbO
• C. PbCrO4✓
• D. PbCl2.4PbO

Explanation: Chrome yellow is a bright yellow pigment with the chemical composition of lead(II) chromate (PbCrO4). This compound is the correct and historically recognized formula for chrome yellow. The other options either represent incorrect compounds or mixtures that do not correspond to the pure form of chrome yellow. For instance, Pb2Cr2O5 and PbCl2.4PbO contain either the wrong elements or additional compounds that are not part of the chrome yellow pigment.

Q45. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become?

• A. 4V✓
• B. 2V
• C. V/4
• D. 8V

Explanation: To determine how the volume changes, we use the ideal gas law: PV = nRT. Since the number of moles (n) and the gas constant (R) remain constant, we can compare the initial and final states of the gas:P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2.Given that the pressure is halved (P2 = P1/2) and the temperature is doubled (T2 = 2T1), substitute these values into the equation:(P1V1/T1) = ((P1/2) * V2) / (2T1)Rearranging and simplifying gives V2 = 4V1, indicating that the volume becomes four times the original.Therefore, the correct answer is 4V. Other options incorrectly interpret the effects of these changes on the volume.

Q46. Hydrides which are prepared by passing hydrogen gas over hot alkali metals or alkaline earth metals are called:

• A. Covalent hydrides
• B. Ionic hydrides✓
• C. Complex hydrides
• D. Metallic hydrides
• E. Polymeric hydrides

Explanation: The correct answer is Ionic hydrides. Ionic hydrides are formed when hydrogen gas is passed over hot alkali or alkaline earth metals (except Be and Mg). In this reaction, the metal donates electrons to hydrogen, resulting in a compound with ionic properties. These hydrides are typically white crystalline solids that react with water to release hydrogen gas.Covalent hydrides involve electron sharing with non-metals, which is not the case here. Complex hydrides involve more complex combinations of elements and are not formed by the simple interaction described. Metallic hydrides involve transition metals and are formed by hydrogen absorption into metal lattices, not applicable here. Polymeric hydrides involve hydrogen bonding in networks, not relevant to this reaction.

Q47. Caster kellners cell evaporated has replaced _ because the Caster Kellner process evaporates_?

• A. Gibbs diaphragm… mercury✓
• B. Iron box… aluminium
• C. Pyrites burners… oleum
• D. Nelson's cell… chlorine

Explanation: The Caster-Kellner cell, also known as the mercury cell, was introduced as a replacement for the Gibbs diaphragm cell. This change was primarily due to the Caster-Kellner process's efficiency in using mercury to produce chlorine and caustic soda through the electrolysis of saltwater. The process involves mercury, which acts as a cathode. Other options like the Iron box and Pyrites burners are not related to this process, and while Nelson's cell also produces chlorine, it does not utilize mercury in the same manner.

Q48. CH3Cl + Cl2 ----> CH2Cl2 + HCl is an example of?

• A. Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) Reaction
• B. Addition Reaction
• C. Substitution Reaction✓
• D. Autoxidation Reaction
• E. Reduction Reaction

Explanation: The correct answer is a substitution reaction. In the reaction CH3Cl + Cl2 → CH2Cl2 + HCl, a chlorine atom substitutes a hydrogen atom in methyl chloride, resulting in methylene chloride and hydrogen chloride. This is characteristic of a substitution reaction. The other options are incorrect because the reaction does not involve electron transfer (redox), formation of a single product (addition), spontaneous oxidation with oxygen (autoxidation), or electron gain (reduction).

Q49. IUPAC name of the compound (CH3)2-CH-CH(C2H5)-C(CH3)3 is :

• A. 3-ethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentane✓
• B. 3-ethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentene
• C. 3-ethyl-2,4-dimethylpentane
• D. 4-ethyl-3-methylhexane
• E. 3-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for the compound is 3-ethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentane. The numbering of the carbon chain begins from the end closest to the first substituent, ensuring the longest chain includes five carbon atoms (pentane). The substituents are three methyl groups (at carbons 2, 2, and 4) and one ethyl group (at carbon 3). This configuration is described by '3-ethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentane'.Other options are incorrect because they either suggest the presence of a double bond ('pentene'), a miscount of the longest carbon chain ('hexane'), or an incorrect number of substituents at specified positions, failing to match the given molecular structure.

Q50. (HCHO)nH20 is the chemical formula for?

• A. Formic acid
• B. Paraformaldehyde✓
• C. α-methyl propionaldehyde
• D. Propionic acid

Explanation: The compound (HCHO)nH₂O is known as paraformaldehyde. It is a polymer of formaldehyde, formed when multiple formaldehyde molecules undergo polymerization. This results in a series of repeating units, represented by (HCHO)n, with water (H₂O) being part of its stabilization in the polymer form. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because their chemical formulas do not match the structure of paraformaldehyde. Formic acid (Option A) is a simple carboxylic acid, α-methyl propionaldehyde (Option C) is an aldehyde with a different structure, and propionic acid (Option D) is another carboxylic acid.

Q51. Sucrose is a non reducing sugar because?

• A. It does not exist in open chain form
• B. Carbonyl groups are not free to reduce fehling's solution
• C. They have at least one free carbonyl group
• D. They form 1-4 glycosidic linkage
• E. Both a and b✓

Explanation: A sugar that serves as a reducing agent due to its free aldehyde or ketone functional groups in its molecular structure. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar because the two monosaccharide units are held together by a glycosidic linkage between C1 of α-glucose and C2 of β-fructose. Sucrose has no aldehyde or ketone group to reduce Fehling's solution , so both options A and B are true. Hence the correct option is E

Q52. A dipolar charged but overall electrically neutral ion is called:

• A. Zwitterion✓
• B. Unit electron
• C. Cation
• D. Anion

Explanation: A zwitterion is a special type of ion that has both positive and negative charges in different parts of the molecule. This allows it to maintain an overall neutral charge, which is why it fits the description of a dipolar charged but overall electrically neutral ion. Amino acids often exist as zwitterions in biological systems. On the other hand, a unit electron is simply a single elementary charge with a negative value, a cation is positively charged, and an anion is negatively charged. None of these options have both charges simultaneously, so they cannot be considered zwitterions.

Q53. Silver oxide decomposes when heated to silver and oxygen. If 0.5 moles of lunar caustic is heated up to 450 degrees, giving out nitrogen dioxide and oxygen leaving silver as metal, what is the mass of the residue?

• A. 108 grams
• B. 54 grams✓
• C. 216 grams
• D. 27 grams
• E. 92 grams

Explanation: The decomposition of silver nitrate is represented by the balanced chemical equation:2AgNO3 → 2Ag + 2NO2 + O2This equation shows that 2 moles of silver nitrate produce 2 moles of silver. Therefore, 0.5 moles of silver nitrate will produce 0.5 moles of silver.Using the molar mass of silver (107.8 g/mol), the mass of silver produced is calculated as:mass = 0.5 moles * 107.8 g/mol = 53.9 g, rounded to 54 g.The other options result from incorrect assumptions or calculations in stoichiometry or molar mass application.

Q54. 20 cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon was completely burnt in an excess of oxygen 60 cm3 of carbon dioxide and 40 cm3 of water vapours were formed, all volumes being measured at the same temperature and pressure. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?

• A. C2H6
• B. C3H4✓
• C. C3H6
• D. C3H8
• E. C4H10

Explanation: The combustion of a hydrocarbon can be represented by the equation CₓHᵧ + (x + y/4)O₂ → xCO₂ + (y/2)H₂O. Given that 20 cm³ of the hydrocarbon produces 60 cm³ of CO₂ and 40 cm³ of H₂O, we can use the volume ratios to determine the stoichiometry. For each 20 cm³ of hydrocarbon, we obtain 60 cm³ of CO₂, indicating x = 3, and 40 cm³ of H₂O, indicating y = 4. Therefore, the formula is C₃H₄. Other options like C₂H₆, C₃H₆, C₃H₈, and C₄H₁₀ would result in different product volume ratios and do not satisfy the conditions given in the problem.

Q55. What assumptions are made in the Kinetic Theory about an ideal gas? There are no forces of attraction between molecules The molecules are in a state of continuous random motionThe size of the molecule is negligible

• A. I ONLY
• B. II ONLY
• C. I AND II ONLY
• D. II AND III ONLY
• E. I, II, III✓

Explanation: The Kinetic Molecular Theory assumes that for an ideal gas, there are no forces of attraction between molecules (Statement I), molecules are in a state of continuous random motion (Statement II), and the size of the molecules is negligible compared to the distances between them (Statement III). These assumptions help explain the behavior of gases in terms of pressure, volume, and temperature relationships. Options A, B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not encompass all these fundamental assumptions.

Q56. Ketone reacts with Grignard reagent to form _ in acidic media?

• A. Tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Isopropyl alcohol
• C. Primary alcohol
• D. Carboxylic acid

Explanation: The correct answer is a tertiary alcohol. When a ketone, which has a carbonyl group (C=O) bonded to two carbon-containing groups, reacts with a Grignard reagent, the carbonyl carbon gets attacked. This nucleophilic addition forms an alkoxide intermediate. Upon protonation in acidic conditions, the alkoxide converts into an alcohol. As the carbonyl carbon is already attached to two other carbon groups, the alcohol formed is tertiary.Isopropyl alcohol is incorrect as it forms from acetaldehyde, not a ketone. A primary alcohol is produced from formaldehyde, and a carboxylic acid forms from carbon dioxide with Grignard reagents, making these options irrelevant for this reaction.

Q57. Phenol reacts with concentrated nitric acid to form?

• A. O-nitrophenol
• B. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol✓
• C. Does not react with concentrated nitric acid
• D. Both a and b

Explanation: When phenol reacts with concentrated nitric acid, it undergoes a nitration reaction primarily at the 2, 4, and 6 positions to form 2,4,6-trinitrophenol, commonly known as picric acid. This is because the hydroxyl group in phenol is an activating group that directs substituents to the ortho and para positions. The strong nitrating conditions of concentrated nitric acid ensure further nitration at all these positions. Option B is correct as it reflects this outcome. Option A is incorrect because it only considers ortho nitration, which is insufficient under these conditions. Option C is incorrect because phenol indeed reacts with concentrated nitric acid. Option D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests both ortho-nitration and trinitration as major outcomes, which is not the case.

Q58. The colour of methyl orange in base is?

• A. Red
• B. Yellow✓
• C. Orange
• D. Pink

Explanation: Methyl orange is an indicator that changes color based on the pH of the solution. In an acidic environment, it appears red, while in a basic environment, it turns yellow. Option B is correct because the color change to yellow indicates the presence of a base. Option A is incorrect as red is the color in an acidic solution. Option C is incorrect because methyl orange does not transition through an orange phase; it moves from red to yellow. Option D is incorrect as pink is not a color change associated with methyl orange, but rather with phenolphthalein in basic conditions.

Q59. For a reaction, 2NO(g) + O2(g) -> 2NO2(g)Rate = k[NO]2[O2]If the volume of the reaction vessel is doubled then the rate of the reaction:

• A. Will diminish to 1/4 of initial value
• B. Will diminish to 1/8 of initial value✓
• C. Will grow 4 times
• D. Will grow 8 times

Explanation: The correct option is B. When the volume of the reaction vessel is doubled, the concentrations of all gaseous reactants are halved. The rate law for the reaction is Rate = k[NO]^2[O2]. Halving the concentration of NO results in a decrease by a factor of 4 (since the rate is proportional to [NO]^2), and halving the concentration of O2 results in a decrease by a factor of 2. Therefore, the overall rate diminishes to 1/8 of its initial value. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correctly account for the effect of volume change on reactant concentrations and the resulting change in reaction rate.

Q60. The molecular formula expresses:

• A. Relative number of atoms and electrons
• B. Actual number of atoms✓
• C. Both relative and actual number of atoms
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The molecular formula provides the actual number of each type of atom present in a specific molecule, such as C6H12O6 for glucose, indicating 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. It does not convey information about electrons or relative numbers of atoms, which are represented by the empirical formula. Therefore, Option B is the correct choice, while the other options misunderstand the role of the molecular formula.

Q61. GN Lewis described which one of the following bonds?

• A. Ionic bond
• B. Covalent bond
• C. Coordinate covalent bond
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: G.N. Lewis is renowned for his work on the nature of chemical bonding, particularly the sharing of electron pairs between atoms, which forms the basis of covalent bonds. His theories extend to both ordinary covalent bonds and coordinate covalent bonds. While ionic bonds involve electron transfer and are not the primary focus of Lewis's theories, his work laid the groundwork for understanding chemical bonding as a whole. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the correct answer, as it encompasses the types of bonds Lewis described.

Q62. The order of force of repulsion between Lone pairs and Bond pairs is?

• A. Lone pair - Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair - Lone pair repulsion > Bond pair - Bond pair repulsion
• B. Bond pair - Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair - Lone pair repulsion > Lone pair - Bond pair repulsion
• C. Lone pair - Lone pair repulsion > Bond pair - Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair - Bond pair repulsion
• D. Lone pair - Lone pair repulsion > Lone pair - Bond pair repulsion > Bond pair - Bond pair repulsion✓

Explanation: The correct order of repulsions is: Lone pair - Lone pair repulsion > Lone pair - Bond pair repulsion > Bond pair - Bond pair repulsion. This is because lone pairs of electrons are not shared between atoms and are therefore more concentrated and closer to the central atom, leading to greater repulsion. Lone pair - bond pair repulsion is less than lone pair - lone pair but more than bond pair - bond pair, as the presence of a lone pair introduces more electron density compared to the shared electron density in bond pairs. Bond pair - bond pair repulsion is the weakest due to the attraction between the electrons and their respective nuclei, which stabilizes the electrons in the bond.

Q63. What will happen to the KClO3 when KCl is added to its solution in water?

• A. Its solubility increases
• B. Its solubility decreases✓
• C. Concentration of Cl- ion decreases
• D. . Concentration of ClO3- ion increases

Explanation: When KCl is added to a solution of KClO₃, it introduces a common ion (K⁺) into the solution. Due to the common ion effect, the dissociation of KClO₃ is suppressed. As a result, the solubility of KClO₃ decreases, so the correct answer is B.

Q64. What is the temperature at which the volume of gas is said to be zero?

• A. 0°C
• B. 4°C
• C. 273.15°C✓
• D. 173.16°C

Explanation: The correct answer is -273.15°C, which is the theoretical point known as absolute zero. At absolute zero, the kinetic energy of particles is minimal, and according to the ideal gas law, the volume of a gas would be zero. This is a theoretical limit because reaching absolute zero is not practically possible. Other temperatures, such as 0°C or 4°C, are not applicable here as gases do not reach zero volume at these points. -173.16°C is also incorrect because it is above absolute zero, and gases may even condense into liquids at such temperatures, but they do not have zero volume.

Q65. Matter changes from one state to another state on change in _.

• A. Density
• B. Pressure✓
• C. Viscosity
• D. All

Explanation: The state of matter changes primarily due to variations in temperature and pressure. For instance, when solids are heated, they can melt into liquids, and liquids can vaporize into gases with further heating. Conversely, increasing pressure can compress gases into liquids and solids by reducing the space between particles. Therefore, pressure is a key factor in changing states of matter. Density and viscosity are properties of matter but they do not directly change its state.

Q66. Pierrie Curie and Marie Curie isolated which radioactive element?

• A. Lithium
• B. Radium✓
• C. Boron
• D. Uranium

Explanation: The correct answer is Radium. Marie and Pierre Curie successfully isolated radium from pitchblende in 1902, contributing greatly to the understanding of radioactivity. Lithium and boron are non-radioactive elements, and uranium, while radioactive, was discovered earlier by Martin Klaproth, not by the Curies.

Q67. Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity (from highest to lowest)?

• A. F, O, N, C✓
• B. N, F, O, C
• C. C, F, N, O
• D. C, F, O, N

Explanation: Electronegativity is a measure of an atom's ability to attract and hold onto electrons. It generally increases across a period from left to right on the periodic table due to higher nuclear charge attracting electrons more strongly. Therefore, in the second period, Fluorine has the highest electronegativity, followed by Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Carbon. The correct order is F > O > N > C. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow this established trend of increasing electronegativity.

Q68. Percentage of butane in Sui gas is?

• A. 94.60%
• B. 3.88%
• C. 1.05%
• D. 0.02%
• E. 0.17%✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 0.17%, which is the percentage of butane in Sui gas. The gas composition is predominantly methane at 94.60%, with smaller percentages of ethane (1.05%), propane (0.28%), and nitrogen (3.88%). Butane makes up a small portion at 0.17%. The other options represent different components of Sui gas and not butane.

Q69. C6H5C≡N and C6H5N≡C exhibits which type of isomerism:

• A. Functional group isomerism✓
• B. Optical isomerism
• C. Skeletal isomerism
• D. Metamerism

Explanation: Functional group isomerism is demonstrated by C6H5C≡N (benzonitrile) and C6H5N≡C (phenyl isocyanide) because they have the same molecular formula but different functional groups due to the distinct arrangement of the carbon-nitrogen triple bond. This arrangement leads to different chemical properties and reactivity.Other types of isomerism such as optical, skeletal, and metamerism are not applicable here because they involve different structural or stereochemical differences, or different arrangements of alkyl groups, which are not present in this case.

Q70. Methane reacts with chlorine to form chloromethane. The catalyst used is?

• A. Pb
• B. Zn
• C. HCl
• D. Sunlight✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: In the reaction between methane and chlorine to form chloromethane, sunlight acts as the catalyst by providing ultraviolet light, which breaks chlorine molecules into free radicals. These radicals are necessary to initiate the substitution reaction. Lead, zinc, and hydrochloric acid are not applicable in this reaction because they do not provide the required energy to generate free radicals from chlorine. Therefore, sunlight is the correct catalyst.

Q71. A car is travelling in a straight line along a highway at a constant speed of 80miles per hour for 10 seconds. Find its acceleration.

• A. 100 m/s2
• B. 200 m/s2
• C. 0 m/s2✓
• D. 150 m/s2
• E. 220 m/s2

Explanation: The correct answer is 0 m/s2. When a car is traveling at a constant speed, its velocity remains unchanged over time. Acceleration is calculated as the change in velocity divided by the time taken for that change. Since there is no change in velocity, the acceleration is zero. The other options suggest positive values for acceleration, which would imply a change in velocity, contradicting the condition of constant speed.

Q72. “The magnitude of electrostatic force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.” This is known as:

• A. Gauss’s Law
• B. Ohm’s Law
• C. Faraday's Law
• D. Newton's Law
• E. Coulomb's Law✓

Explanation: The statement given is a direct description of Coulomb's Law. This law quantitatively defines the electrostatic force between two point charges as F = k(q1*q2)/r², where F is the force, q1 and q2 are the magnitudes of the charges, r is the distance between the charges, and k is Coulomb's constant. This law is fundamental in understanding electrostatic interactions.Other options explain different physical laws: Gauss's Law pertains to electric fields, Ohm's Law to electrical circuits, Faraday's Law to electromagnetic induction, and Newton's Laws to mechanics. None of these describe the electrostatic force between point charges.

Q73. An object with an initial velocity of 40m/s moves along a straight axis under constant acceleration. Three seconds later,its velocity is 14m/s. How far did it travel during this time?

• A. 81 m✓
• B. 17 m
• C. 67 m
• D. 57 m
• E. 77 m/s

Explanation: To solve for the distance traveled, we first need to determine the acceleration. Using the formula for acceleration (a = (final velocity - initial velocity) / time), we have:a = (14 m/s - 40 m/s) / 3 s = -8.67 m/s².Next, we can use the distance formula:s = ut + 0.5at².Substituting the values:s = (40 m/s * 3 s) + 0.5 * (-8.67 m/s²) * (3 s)² = 120 m - 39 m = 81 m.Therefore, the correct answer is 81 m.The other options do not satisfy the kinematic equations for this scenario.

Q74. The angular velocity of a rotating disk increases from 2 rad/s to 5 rad/s in 0.5s. What is the disk’s average angular acceleration?

• A. 67 rad/s2
• B. 46 rad/s2
• C. 36 rad/s2
• D. 16 rad/s2
• E. 6 rad/s2✓

Explanation: Average angular acceleration = Rate of change of angular velocity = (Final angular velocity - Initial angular velocity) / Time = (5 rad/s - 2 rad/s) / 0.5 s = 6 rad/s²

Q75. If a voltage of 9V is applied between ends of a wire whose resistance is 0.2 ohm, what will be the resulting current?

• A. 30
• B. 35
• C. 40
• D. 45✓
• E. 93

Explanation: V=9 volts R=0.2 ohm I= ? V=IR => I = V/R I = 9 volts / 0.2 ohm I = 45 Ampere So , option D is correct.As this question is theoretical, options A, B, C and E are all incorrect.

Q76. By changing the current through the same coil, an emf is induced in it, the process is known as:

• A. Rectification
• B. Mutual induction
• C. Self induction✓
• D. Simple induction

Explanation: Self-induction is the correct answer because it involves the generation of an electromotive force (emf) within the same coil when there is a change in the current flowing through it. This is due to the coil's own magnetic field interacting with itself. Rectification is unrelated to this process as it deals with AC to DC conversion. Mutual induction requires two different coils affecting each other. Simple induction describes a general case of emf generation without specifying the mechanism of self-interaction in a single coil.

Q77. The combination of ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter into a compact single meter with one common galvanometer is called:

• A. Post office box
• B. AVO meter✓
• C. Meter bridge
• D. Microscope

Explanation: The correct answer is the AVO meter, also known as a multimeter. It combines an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter into one device using a common galvanometer, allowing it to measure current (both AC and DC), voltage, and resistance. Other options are incorrect because a post office box is a mail-related item, a meter bridge is used for measuring resistance specifically via the Wheatstone bridge method, and a microscope is an optical device for observing small objects.

Q78. Identify the dimensions of area, velocity and acceleration respectively: (where L= Length, T=Time)

• A. L2T2, LT2, LT-1
• B. L2, LT-1, LT-2✓
• C. LT-1, LT-2, L2
• D. LT-1, LT-1, L2
• E. LT, LT3, LT4

Explanation: The dimensions of a physical quantity express its dependence on the fundamental units of length (L) and time (T). The area is a two-dimensional measure, so its dimensions are L2. Velocity is the rate of change of displacement with time, giving it dimensions of LT-1. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time, resulting in dimensions of LT-2. Therefore, the correct dimensions for area, velocity, and acceleration are L2, LT-1, and LT-2 respectively. Other options misassign these dimensions or incorrectly calculate them.

Q79. Evaluate the scalar product of the following: k.( i + j) ?

• A. 0✓
• B. 45
• C. 90
• D. 180
• E. 360

Explanation: The scalar product of two vectors is computed as the product of their magnitudes and the cosine of the angle between them. In this case, vector k is perpendicular to both i and j, meaning the angle between them is 90 degrees. The cosine of 90 degrees is zero, hence the scalar product is zero. That's why option A is correct. All other options are incorrect as they do not account for the perpendicular nature of the vectors, leading to a scalar product of zero.

Q80. Two vectors S and R are such that S= 4, R= 6 and S.R= 13.5. Find the angle between S and R.

• A. 11.77
• B. 22.99
• C. 55.77✓
• D. 77.81
• E. 99.18

Explanation: S.R = lSl lRl cos (theta) 13.5=(4)(6) cos (theta) Cos -1 (13.5/24) =theta Theta= 55.77 So, option C is correct. As this question is theroretical options A, B, D and , E are incorrect.

Q81. If the velocity of the body is decreasing, the acceleration is negative. The negative acceleration is known as:

• A. Retardation
• B. Deceleration
• C. Negative displacement
• D. Negative motion
• E. Both A and B✓

Explanation: When the velocity of a body is decreasing, it is experiencing negative acceleration. This condition is accurately described by both 'retardation' and 'deceleration', making option E the correct choice. Option C, 'Negative displacement', is unrelated to acceleration as it pertains to position change. Option D, 'Negative motion', is not recognized in physics terminology.

Q82. An object is dropped from the top of the building. If it takes 10 seconds to hit the ground, what is the height of the building?

• A. 390 m
• B. 490 m✓
• C. 590 m
• D. 690 m
• E. 790 m

Explanation: The object is dropped, meaning its initial velocity vi is zero. Using the equation for uniformly accelerated motion h = vixt + ½gt², and substituting t = 10s and g = 9.8 m/s², we calculate the height: h = 0*10 + ½*(9.8)*(10)² = 490 m. Thus, option B is correct.Options A, C, D, and E result from miscalculations or incorrect application of the formula, leading to values that are either too low or too high.

Q83. When a body of weight ‘W’ is kept suspended by a string, the weight of the body pulls the string downwards, while the string pulls the body upwards with an equal force, this force is called?

• A. The frequency of the string
• B. The displacement of the string
• C. The tension in the string✓
• D. The wavelength of the string

Explanation: When a body is suspended by a string, the downward gravitational force (weight) is balanced by an upward force called tension. This tension is equal in magnitude to the weight of the body, keeping the system in equilibrium. The incorrect options (frequency, displacement, wavelength) all pertain to aspects of wave motion and vibrations, which are unrelated to the static equilibrium scenario described in the question.

Q84. The rate of change of angular velocity with respect to _ defines angular acceleration.

• A. Speed
• B. Frequency
• C. Distance
• D. Time✓
• E. Gravity

Explanation: Angular acceleration is defined as the rate of change of angular velocity with respect to time. This means it describes how quickly the speed of rotation is changing, and is typically measured in radians per second squared (rad/s^2). None of the other options—speed, frequency, distance, or gravity—relate directly to this rate of change. Speed and distance are linear measures, frequency is a measure of cycles per time but not change rate, and gravity is a force, not a measure of change in motion over time.

Q85. A jeep travelling at a constant speed of 108 km/hr rounds a curve of radius 100 m. Find its acceleration.

• A. 3 m/s2
• B. 6 m/s2
• C. 7 m/s2
• D. 8 m/s2
• E. 9 m/s2✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 9 m/s2. To find the acceleration of the jeep as it rounds the curve, we use the formula for centripetal acceleration: a = v2 / r, where 'v' is the velocity and 'r' is the radius of the curve. The velocity is given as 108 km/hr, which must be converted to meters per second by dividing by 3.6, resulting in 30 m/s. Substituting into the formula: a = (30 m/s)2 / 100 m = 9 m/s2. The other options are incorrect because they arise from either incorrect unit conversion or misapplication of the centripetal acceleration formula.

Q86. A body having translatory motion possesses _ and _. In the same way a body having rotatory motion possesses _ and _.

• A. None of them
• B. Linear velocity... Linear momentum... Angular velocity... Angular momentum✓
• C. Linear momentum... Angular momentum... Linear velocity... Angular velocity
• D. Angular velocity... Angular momentum... Linear momentum... Linear velocity

Explanation: The correct answer is: Linear velocity... Linear momentum... Angular velocity... Angular momentum.In translatory motion, all points of a body move uniformly in a single direction, involving linear properties such as linear velocity and linear momentum. This type of motion does not change the orientation of the object.In contrast, rotatory motion occurs when a body rotates around its own axis, involving angular properties like angular velocity and angular momentum. For example, the Earth's rotation about its axis is a type of rotatory motion.All options except B do not properly align the motion types with their respective properties, which is why they are incorrect.

Q87. Compute the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 10 kg when placed at a distance of 1 metre apart.

• A. 66 x 10-2 N
• B. 77 x 10-7 N
• C. 81.9 x 10-7 N
• D. 31.4 x 10-6 N
• E. 667.3 x 10-11 N✓

Explanation: According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, the force of attraction is given by: F = G * (m1 * m2) / r^2. Here, G is the gravitational constant (6.674 x 10^-11 N(m^2/kg^2)), m1 and m2 are the masses (10 kg each), and r is the distance (1 metre). Substituting these values into the formula gives F = (6.674 x 10^-11) * (10 * 10) / (1^2) = 667.4 x 10^-11 N. Thus, Option E is correct. The other options are incorrect due to errors in calculation or misapplication of the formula.

Q88. A neutron travels a distance of 12 m in a time interval of 3.6 x 10 - 4s. Assuming its speed was constant, find its kinetic energy. (take 1.7 x 10 - 27 kg is the mass of neutron)

• A. 3.14 eV
• B. 5.78 eV✓
• C. 7.71 eV
• D. 8.89 eV
• E. 9.96 eV

Explanation: First, calculate the speed of the neutron using the formula speed = distance/time. Here, the speed is 12 m / (3.6 x 10-4 s) = 3.33 x 104 m/s.Next, use the formula for kinetic energy: K.E = ½ mv2. Substituting the values, we have:K.E = ½ (1.7 x 10-27 kg) x (3.33 x 104 m/s)2 = 93 x 10-20 JConvert this energy from Joules to electronvolts (eV) using the conversion factor 1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J:K.E = (93 x 10-20 J) / (1.6 x 10-19 J/eV) = 5.78 eV.Thus, option B is correct. The other options result from incorrect calculations or conversion errors.

Q89. Identify the examples of kinetic energy A moving ball can break a glass window A striking hammer can drive a nail A stone thrown upward can lift itself against the force of gravity

• A. I ONLY
• B. II ONLY
• C. III ONLY
• D. I, II AND III✓

Explanation: The correct answer is I, II, and III. Each scenario demonstrates kinetic energy due to the motion of the objects involved:Option I: The moving ball possesses kinetic energy, which can break a window upon collision.Option II: The hammer's motion imparts kinetic energy, allowing it to drive a nail.Option III: The stone, while initially moving upward, possesses kinetic energy. Even though this energy is converted to potential energy at the peak of its trajectory, the initial and final stages involve kinetic energy.Therefore, all options are correct as they all represent instances of kinetic energy due to motion.

Q90. Coal and petrol are stores of chemical energy when are burnt, chemical energy is converted into heat energy i.e chemical energy = heat energy + _:

• A. Electrical energy
• B. Losses✓
• C. Gains
• D. Wind energy
• E. Nothing

Explanation: When coal or petrol is burned, the chemical energy stored in the fuel is primarily converted into heat energy. However, not all of this energy conversion is perfectly efficient; some energy is inevitably lost to the surroundings as waste heat, which is why 'Losses' is the correct answer. Electrical energy is not directly produced from combustion without additional equipment. Gains are incorrect because energy is not gained but redistributed with losses. Wind energy is unrelated to burning fuels. 'Nothing' is incorrect because energy transformations usually accompany some degree of energy loss.

Q91. A body is executing simple harmonic motion if:

• A. Its acceleration is directly proportional to displacement and directed towards the mean position✓
• B. Its acceleration is inversely proportional to displacement and directed away from the mean position
• C. Its acceleration is inversely proportional to displacement and directed towards the mean position
• D. Its acceleration is directly proportional to displacement and directed away from the mean position

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion (SHM), a body moves in such a way that its acceleration is directly proportional to its displacement from a fixed point (the mean position) and is always directed towards that point. This results in an oscillatory motion characteristic of SHM, such as in a spring-mass system or a pendulum. Therefore, Option A is correct because it accurately describes this relationship and directionality.Option B is incorrect because the acceleration is not inversely proportional, nor is it directed away from the mean position. Option C is incorrect because, although it mentions the correct direction towards the mean position, it incorrectly describes the relationship as inversely proportional. Option D is incorrect because although it correctly states the direct proportionality, it wrongly claims the direction is away from the mean position.

Q92. When there is an increase in the length of the simple pendulum then its time period will:

• A. Remain the same
• B. Decrease
• C. First decrease then increase
• D. Increase✓

Explanation: The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π√(l/g), where l is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity.From this formula, we can see that T is directly proportional to the square root of the length l. Therefore, if the length of the pendulum increases, the time period will also increase.Option A is incorrect because the time period does not remain constant. Option B is incorrect because the time period does not decrease with an increase in length. Option C is incorrect as the time period does not first decrease and then increase; it continuously increases with an increase in length. Option D is correct as it accurately describes the relationship.

Q93. The SI unit for intensity of sound is:

• A. Joule per second
• B. Watt per metre square✓
• C. Watt metre square
• D. Joule per metre square
• E. Joule metre

Explanation: Intensity is the amount of sound power passing through a unit area, and is measured in watts per square meter (W/m²). The correct answer is Option B: Watt per metre square. Other options do not represent intensity: Option A, Joule per second, measures power; Option C, Watt metre square, is not a recognized unit; Option D, Joule per metre square, measures energy density; and Option E, Joule metre, is not a standard physical unit.

Q94. Electromagnetic wave theory was proposed by:

• A. Huygen
• B. Fraunhofer
• C. Fresnel
• D. Coulomb
• E. Maxwell✓

Explanation: James Clerk Maxwell is credited with formulating the electromagnetic wave theory in 1864. He proposed that light is a form of electromagnetic radiation, which was a groundbreaking unification of previously separate fields: electricity, magnetism, and optics. His set of equations, known as Maxwell's equations, describe how electric and magnetic fields interact and propagate as waves through space.Other options are incorrect as they contributed to different aspects of physics: Huygens with wave theory of light, Fraunhofer with spectral lines in light, Fresnel with wave optics, and Coulomb with electrostatics.

Q95. Formation of colours in a thin film of oil is due to:

• A. Diffraction of light waves
• B. Dispersion of light waves
• C. Interference of light waves✓
• D. Scattering of light waves

Explanation: The formation of colors in a thin film of oil is due to the interference of light waves. When light hits the thin film, some of it reflects off the top surface, while some penetrates the film and reflects off the bottom surface. These reflected waves overlap, causing constructive and destructive interference that produces vivid colors. This phenomenon is specific to thin films and is not caused by diffraction, dispersion, or scattering.

Q96. Length of the telescope is:

• A. The distance between the objective and focal point of eyepiece
• B. The distance between the object and final image
• C. The distance between the objective and eyepiece✓
• D. The distance between the focal point of objective and eyepiece
• E. The distance between the eyepiece and final image

Explanation: The length of a telescope is the distance between its objective lens (or mirror) and its eyepiece. This distance defines the telescope's physical length and is crucial for its operation. Option C is correct because it directly describes this structural measurement. Other options incorrectly describe distances related to focal lengths or light paths, which are not relevant to determining the telescope's overall length.

Q97. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Chicken pox
• C. Rheumatoid arthritis
• D. Adenosine deaminase deficiency.✓

Explanation: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows the correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease. Correction of a genetic defect involves the delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non­functional gene. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4- year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function. SCID is caused due to defect in the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation. Here, the isolated gene from bone marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages; it can be a permanent cure.

Q98. "At constant pressure, the volume of gas is directly proportional to Absolute Temperature". This is known as:

• A. Boyle's law
• B. Isothermal process
• C. General gas law
• D. Charles's law✓
• E. Henry's law

Explanation: Charles's law, discovered by Jacques Charles, states that for a fixed amount of gas at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (measured in Kelvin). This is the correct answer because the question describes this exact relationship. Boyle's law is incorrect because it deals with pressure and volume at constant temperature. An isothermal process is irrelevant here as it involves constant temperature, not constant pressure. The general gas law (ideal gas law) is a broader equation that includes multiple variables but does not specifically define the relationship asked about. Henry's law is unrelated to volume and temperature; it involves the solubility of gases in liquids.

Q99. The net charge flowing through any section of the conductor per unit time is known as?

• A. Electric intensity
• B. Electric flux
• C. Electric current✓
• D. Electric potential
• E. Dielectric constant

Explanation: The correct answer is Electric current. Electric current is the rate at which electric charge flows past a point or through a region. It is measured in amperes (A), where 1 ampere equals 1 coulomb of charge passing through a point in one second.Other options explained: Electric intensity pertains to the strength of an electric field, not to the flow of charge. Electric flux deals with the field lines through an area, not the charge flow through a conductor. Electric potential is the work needed to move a charge in an electric field and does not measure flow. Dielectric constant relates to a material's ability to transmit electric fields, not to charge flow.

Q100. If the potential difference of 1 volt is applied across the end of a conductor and the current flowing through the conductor is one ampere, then the resistance of the conductor is said to be?

• A. 1 Farad
• B. 10 Coulomb
• C. 1 Ohm✓
• D. 1 Coulomb
• E. 10 Ohm

Explanation: According to Ohm's Law, V = IR, where V is the potential difference, I is the current, and R is the resistance. Given a potential difference (V) of 1 volt and a current (I) of 1 ampere, the resistance (R) is calculated as R = V/I = 1 volt / 1 ampere = 1 ohm. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 Ohm.Options involving farads and coulombs are incorrect because they are units for capacitance and electric charge, respectively, not resistance. The option of 10 ohms is incorrect as it does not match the calculated resistance using the given values.