Sindh Mcat Nts 2016 Smbbmc Lyari — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:Haven’t you buy too many pieces of furniture for your new house. No error

• A. Haven’t
• B. Buy✓
• C. Pieces
• D. Furniture
• E. No Error

Explanation: The question clearly is in the past tense form. Hence the word buy seems out of place as it is in the present tense, and accordingly it should be replaced by its past tense form: bought.

Q2. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The destruction of forests commonly brings about great changes of climate.

• A. The destruction
• B. Forests
• C. Commonly
• D. Changes
• E. No error✓

Explanation: There are no mistakes in the question hence we will go with Option E.

Q3. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.WILD:

• A. Uncivilized✓
• B. Cultivated
• C. Domestic
• D. Cultured

Explanation: If anything is wild, it might be unrestrained, crazy, and having no sense of culture and traditions. Hence uncivilized is the best option here.

Q4. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.FAINT:

• A. Strong
• B. Pale✓
• C. Tough
• D. Powerful

Explanation: Faint refers to being weak and not strong. All options except Option B are synonyms of strong.

Q5. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.RAPID:

• A. Fast
• B. Speedy
• C. Quick
• D. Slow✓

Explanation: Rapid refers to being fast. All options other than Option D are synonyms of fast.

Q6. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.DISCARD:

• A. Reject
• B. Keep✓
• C. Throw away
• D. Dispose of

Explanation: Discard means to throw something away. Option B is the only choice which refers to retaining and keeping back the item.

Q7. Every year a large number of English people spend their summer holidays on the continent of Europe. It is not expensive to cross the English Channel, either by sea, or by air, and once on the other side is an endless variety of things to do and see, new countries to explore, new kinds of food to eat.Young people, students mostly, travel by bicycle or on foot, hitchhiking, when possible, and staying at Youth Hostels. The older people with less energy and more money, travel by bus or by train and stay in hotels. Many people, too, take their own cars with them and travel and wide in search of enjoyment and novelty, If you have your car you can go farther and see more with less inconvenience.You don't have to worry about catching buses and trains, or finding porters and taxis.How do young people usually travel?

• A. By bicycle or on foot✓
• B. By bus
• C. By personal cars
• D. By bus or by personal cars

Explanation: The passage (Second Paragrah, first line) clearly mentions young people who have more energy and less money travel by either bicycle or on foot.

Q8. Every year a large number of English people spend their summer holidays on the continent of Europe. It is not expensive to cross the English Channel, either by sea, or by air, and once on the other side is an endless variety of things to do and see, new countries to explore, new kinds of food to eat.Young people, students mostly, travel by bicycle or on foot, hitchhiking, when possible, and staying at Youth Hostels. The older people with less energy and more money, travel by bus or by train and stay in hotels. Many people, too, take their own cars with them and travel and wide in search of enjoyment and novelty, If you have your car you can go farther and see more with less inconvenience.You don't have to worry about catching buses and trains, or finding porters and taxis.What are the advantages of travelling by personal car?

• A. You can go farther and explore more✓
• B. It is more economical
• C. You don't have to worry about catching buses and trains
• D. You don't have to find porters and taxis

Explanation: The passage (Second Paragraph, last line) clearly mentions that if one has a car, it allows them to go farther and explore more. The passage also mentions that it results in less inconvenience, but both options C and D can be correct then, hence using Process of Elimination we ignore both of these options.

Q9. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.He composed a great many pieces _ music in his life time.

• A. Too
• B. Of✓
• C. At
• D. In

Explanation: The best strategy in attempting these questions is to read them in your head while fitting each option respectively. The sentence refers to a property hence ‘of’ will be the best option here.

Q10. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.If he wants his salary to be _, he will have to take it up with the manager.

• A. Raised✓
• B. Raise
• C. Has raised
• D. Raised off

Explanation: The best strategy in attempting these questions is to read them in your head while fitting each option respectively. The sentence is a simple past tense example hence ‘raised’ is the best option here.

Q11. Which of the following processes is the reverse of condensation?

• A. Hydrolysis✓
• B. Dehydration synthesis
• C. Polymerization
• D. Vapourization

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrolysis because it involves breaking down molecules by adding water, which is the reverse of condensation reactions like dehydration synthesis. This is crucial in biological systems for breaking down complex molecules like proteins into amino acids. Dehydration synthesis involves removing water to form bonds, which is part of the condensation process itself. Polymerization is about forming large molecules from small units and can involve various types of reactions, not specifically the reverse of condensation. Vapourization is a physical change from liquid to gas, not related to the chemical processes described.

Q12. In which of the following phases of bacterial growth, is the death rate more rapid than the multiplication rate?

• A. Stationary phase
• B. Lag phase
• C. Decline phase✓
• D. Log phase

Explanation: The correct answer is the Decline phase. During this phase, the environment becomes less favorable for bacterial growth due to the depletion of nutrients and accumulation of toxic waste products, leading to a higher death rate than the reproduction rate. In contrast, during the Stationary phase, the death and reproduction rates are balanced, leading to a stable population size. The Lag phase is primarily a period of adjustment with little to no reproduction, and the Log phase is when bacteria experience exponential growth, with reproduction rates far exceeding death rates.

Q13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of missing events in the diagram given below:

• A. Cleavage -> Fertilization -> Organogenesis -> Gastrulation
• B. Organogenesis -> Gastrulation -> Fertilization -> Cleavage
• C. Fertilization -> Cleavage -> Gastrulation -> Organogenesis✓
• D. Gastrulation -> Fertilization -> Organogenesis -> Cleavage

Explanation: After gamete formation, the first process that occurs is fertilization, which means the fusion of gametes to form a zygote. Then this zygote divides which is termed as cleavage, then after that and before organogenesis, we have the gastrula stage. Hence option C is correct.

Q14. The process of membrane fusion and the movement of material out of the cell, is called:

• A. Phagocytosis
• B. Endocytosis
• C. Pinocytosis
• D. Exocytosis✓

Explanation: The process of moving substances out of the cell is called exocytosis.Endocytosis is moving substances into the cell.Phagocytosis is movement of substances into the cell which are solid and massive.Pinocytosis is movement of substances into the cell in liquid state.

Q15. Which of the following types and functions of the neuron is correct?

• A. Sensory neurons carry impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS; interneurons relay signals within the CNS; motor neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to muscles or glands✓
• B. Motor neurons carry sensory impulses to the CNS; interneurons transmit impulses to muscles; sensory neurons relay signals within the CNS
• C. Interneurons carry impulses from effectors to the CNS; sensory neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to interneurons; motor neurons pass signals within the CNS
• D. Sensory neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to effectors; motor neurons carry sensory information to the CNS; interneurons connect sensory to motor neurons outside the CNS

Explanation: Sensory neurons function to carry the sensory information to the CNS. Interneurons transfer impulses from sensory to motor neurons, remaining within the CNS. Motor neurons are neurons that transmit impulses fromthe CNS to the effectors.

Q16. All of the followings are the effects of red light on plant, EXCEPT:

• A. Causes epicotyl (plumule) hook to unbend
• B. Induces increase in leaf area
• C. Elongation of internodes is promoted✓
• D. Stimulate flowering in long day plants
• E. Phytochrome 660 changes to phytochrome 730

Explanation: Red light does not promote internode elongation in plants. Promoting elongation of internodes: This is known as the stem elongation response. It is thought to be caused by the production of auxin, which stimulates cell elongation in the internodes.

Q17. Treponema pallidum causes:

• A. AIDS
• B. Genital herpes
• C. Syphilis✓
• D. Gonorrhea

Explanation: Treponema pallidum is the bacterium responsible for causing syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection.

Q18. Below the point at which the cotyledons are attached, the embryo axis is called _.

• A. Radicle
• B. Epicotyl
• C. Hypocotyl✓
• D. Coleoptile

Explanation: Below the point at which the cotyledons are attached, the embryo axis in a plant is called the "hypocotyl." The hypocotyl is the region of the embryo axis between the attachment point of the cotyledons (seed leaves) and the radicle, which is the embryonic root. The hypocotyl plays a crucial role during seed germination, as it often elongates to lift the cotyledons and the shoot tip (plumule) above the soil surface, allowing the young plant to emerge and initiate photosynthesis.

Q19. The radius and ulna join at the wrist with the _ small carpal bones.

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8✓

Explanation: There are eight carpal bones in the hand, arranged in two rows of four and four.

Q20. Prosopis glandulosa is the botanical name of _.

• A. Chhui mui
• B. Kikar
• C. Bauble
• D. Devi✓

Explanation: Prosopis glandulosa is the botanical name of Devi. The plant has been used for a variety of medicinal purposes, including lice control and treatment of sore throat, skin sores and ulcers

Q21. The diagram is taken from an electron micrograph of a cell, name the organelle labelled B:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Golgi complex✓
• C. Lysosome
• D. Mitochondrion
• E. Vacuole

Explanation: Organelle labelled B is Golgi complex.

Q22. In the Hardy-Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 = ?

• A. 0
• B. 1✓
• C. Infinity
• D. Any value between 0 to 1

Explanation: In the Hardy - Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 =1

Q23. The diagram shows the teeth of the lower jaw of a human. Which tooth is an incisor?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Incisors: These are the sharp, flat teeth at the front of your mouth used for biting and cutting food into smaller pieces. Canines: Located next to the incisors, these pointed teeth are used for tearing and gripping food. Premolars: Situated behind the canines, premolars have a flat surface and are used for crushing and shredding food. Molars: These are the large, flat teeth at the back of your mouth that are designed for grinding and crushing food to prepare it for swallowing.

Q24. The diagram shows a tree trunk, with a ring of bark, which includes the phloem removed.The tree will eventually die because this action cuts off the supply of:

• A. Mineral salts to the leaves
• B. Organic nutrients from the leaves✓
• C. Oxygen to the roots
• D. Water to the leaves

Explanation: Organic nutrients such as sugar molecules are transported through phloem tubes,cutting off this tube cuts off this organic nutrients supply. Moreover, Oxygen supply to the roots is through oxygen dissolved in soil.Mineral salts and water supply to the leaves is through xylem vessels.

Q25. Which statement about dominant and recessive alleles is not correct?

• A. A dominant characteristic is seen in the phenotype of a heterozygote.
• B. A homozygous genotype may be either dominant or recessive.
• C. Recessive phenotypes always have two recessive alleles.
• D. The phenotype of a homozygote is always dominant.✓

Explanation: Phenotype of a homozygote can be dominant or recessive both AA or aa. Hence statement D is incorrect and our answer.

Q26. What is the correct sequence of the bones in the arm of a mammal, from the hand to the shoulder?

• A. Phalanges -> Carpal -> Humerus -> Radius and Ulna -> Scapula
• B. Phalanges -> Radius and Ulna -> Carpal -> Humerus -> Scapula
• C. Phalanges -> Carpal -> Radius and Ulna -> Humerus -> Scapula✓
• D. Carpal -> Phalanges -> Radius and Ulna -> Humerus -> Scapula

Explanation: In a mammalian arm, the correct sequence of bones from the hand to the shoulder is: Phalanges -> Carpal -> Radius and Ulna -> Humerus -> Scapula. The Phalanges are the bones of the fingers, followed by the Carpal bones forming the wrist. The Radius and Ulna are the two bones of the forearm, the Humerus is the upper arm bone, and the Scapula is the shoulder blade. Incorrect sequences either misplace the Carpal bones, the Humerus, or the Radius and Ulna.

Q27. The table shows the characteristics of the blood in one vessel. Which vessel contains blood with these characteristics?

• A. Aorta✓
• B. Pulmonary artery
• C. Pulmonary vein
• D. Vena cava

Explanation: The aorta carries oxygen-rich blood at high pressure from the left ventricle to systemic circulation.

Q28. The gas-exchange portion of the human respiratory system is the:

• A. Larynx
• B. Trachea
• C. Bronchi
• D. Alveoli✓

Explanation: The gaseous exchange in the human respiratory system takes place between the alveoli and capillaries of the lungs. Both the alveoli and capillaries are single made of a single layer of cells, the endothelium or the squamous epithelium that permits the exchange or diffusion of gases, that is oxygen (alveoli) and carbon dioxide (capillaries). So, the correct answer is 'Alveoli'.

Q29. Encircle the miss-match:

• A. Colds-Rhinovirus
• B. Yellow fever-Bacteria✓
• C. Encephalitis-Virus
• D. Negative-strand RNA virus-Paramyxovirus
• E. Rabies-Dog bite

Explanation: Yellow fever is caused by a virus that is spread by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, not by a bacteria.

Q30. The light dependent reaction of photosynthesis occurs in:

• A. Stroma of chloroplast
• B. Guard cells of stomata
• C. Thylakoid membrane of chloroplast✓
• D. Cytoplasm of leaf cell

Explanation: The light-dependent reactions use light energy to make two molecules needed for the next stage of photosynthesis: the energy storage molecule ATP and the reduced electron carrier NADPH. In plants, the light reactions take place in the thylakoid membranes of organelles called chloroplasts.

Q31. Which of the following nutrients is incorrectly paired with its function in a plant?

• A. Potassium - Formation of the cell wall✓
• B. Magnesium - Constituent of chlorophyll
• C. Nitrogen - Constituent of protein
• D. Phosphorus - Component of nucleic acid

Explanation: The plant cell wall is made of Cellulose. Potassium creates the cell membrane potential, which allows the cell to generate an action potential. Magnesium in plants is located in the enzymes, in the heart of the chlorophyll molecule. A phosphate backbone is the portion of the DNA double helix that provides structural support to the molecule.

Q32. The diploid human chromosome set has:

• A. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes✓
• B. 22 pairs of autosomes and XY chromosomes
• C. 22 pairs of autosomes and XX chromosomes
• D. Haploid somatic cells and diploid germinal cells

Explanation: Diploid set of human chromosomes have 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes. That is why A is correct. B is wrong because this is only specific for male. C is wrong because it is specific for females.

Q33. An Rh-negative woman is married to an Rh-positive man whose father was also Rh-negative. What are the chances that their child will have Rh negative blood group?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: Given that the man’s father was Rh-negative and the man is Rh-positive, the man must be heterozygous for Rh-positive. A negative woman should be homozygous as a recessive allele only expresses itself in homozygous conditions. When a heterozygous dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual, the offspring show the dominant and recessive phenotypes in a ratio of 1:1. Hence, there is a fifty percent chance of their child being “affected” with Rh negative phenotype.

Q34. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature?

• A. Cerebellum
• B. Cerebrum
• C. Hypothalamus✓
• D. Medulla

Explanation: Much like a thermostat regulates the temperature inside your home, the hypothalamus regulates your body temperature, responding to internal and external stimuli and making adjustments to keep the body within one or two degrees of 98.6 degrees.

Q35. Atherosclerosis is disease of:

• A. Immune system
• B. Arterial wall✓
• C. Vein wall
• D. Lungs

Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaques (fats, cholesterol) in artery walls, restricting blood flow and risking clot formation.

Q36. In an isotonic solution there would be:

• A. No net movement of water✓
• B. Net movement of water into the cell
• C. Net movement of water out of the cell
• D. Bursting of the cell

Explanation: In an isotonic solution there is a movement of water into and out of the cell but no net movement of water into or out of the cell as they contain the same concentration of water and solutes as the cell cytoplasm.

Q37. The disease, which is caused by a defect in a single gene or pair of genes is referred to as:

• A. Unifactorial✓
• B. Multifactorial
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Turner syndrome

Explanation: The disease, which is caused by a defect in a single gene or pair of genes is referred to as a unifactorial gene.

Q38. Fungi whose growth is favored by fire is called:

• A. Pyrophilus✓
• B. Prodophilus
• C. Pinophilus
• D. Prephylus

Explanation: Fungi whose growth is favoured by fire are called pyrophilous (fire-loving). The answer can be determined through the root words, even if a student doesn't recall the exact term. There are no fungi named Prephylus, Prophylus or Philus. You can see examples of pyrophilous fungi in the image provided.

Q39. Which of the following is not the type(s) of abiotic components?

• A. Climatic factors
• B. Edaphic factors
• C. Topographic factors
• D. Phytoplanktons✓

Explanation: Abiotic components are those that are non-living parts of the ecosystem. Phytoplanktons are living things hence are not abiotic components but biotic components of the ecosystem.

Q40. The disease night blindness is caused by deficiency of vitamin:

• A. Vitamin A✓
• B. Vitamin B
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin D

Explanation: Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is the inability to see in low light and is a symptom of an underlying eye condition, not a disease itself. It can be caused by conditions like cataracts, glaucoma, or retinal diseases, as well as genetic factors, injury, or nutritional deficiencies, such as a lack of Vitamin A.

Q41. Heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction does not depend upon?

• A. Amount of reactants
• B. Pressure of reaction✓
• C. Physical state of reactants and products
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The correct answer is Pressure of reaction. Enthalpy is a thermodynamic state function that represents the heat content of a system. Under constant pressure conditions, the change in enthalpy (ΔH) reflects the heat evolved or absorbed during a chemical reaction and is independent of the pressure at which the reaction occurs, as long as the initial and final states are the same. This is because enthalpy is determined by the internal energy, pressure, and volume of the system, which are all state properties.Amount of reactants: This affects the total enthalpy change because more reactants generally lead to a larger heat change. Thus, it does affect the heat evolved or absorbed.Physical state of reactants and products: Different physical states have different enthalpy values (e.g., the enthalpy of vaporization or fusion), so this factor also affects the heat change.Temperature: Changes in temperature can affect the enthalpy of a system, as it influences the energy levels and distribution of molecules, thereby affecting the heat evolved or absorbed.

Q42. For a reaction given below C(s) + O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) -394 kJ / molThe enthalpy of reaction is

• A. 394 kJ / mol
• B. -394 kJ / mol✓
• C. 197 kJ / mol
• D. -197 kJ / mol

Explanation: The formation of carbon dioxide from carbon and oxygen is an exothermic reaction, meaning it releases heat. The enthalpy change, denoted as ΔH, is negative for exothermic reactions. In this case, the reaction releases 394 kJ/mol of energy, so the correct enthalpy change is -394 kJ/mol. The negative sign is crucial as it indicates the direction of heat flow (from the system to the surroundings). Option B correctly reflects this with -394 kJ/mol. The other options are incorrect either due to the wrong sign or incorrect magnitude.

Q43. 1 mole of N2O4 (g) was placed in an empty 1 dm^3 container and allowed to reach equilibrium according to the following equation:N2O4(g) <-> 2NO2(g)At equilibrium, x mole Of N2O4 (g) had dissociated. What is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, at the temperature of the Experiment?

• A. 2x / (1 - x)
• B. 4x2 / (1 - x)2
• C. 2x / (1 - x)2
• D. 4x2 / (1 - x)✓

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q44. Which of the following ions will show maximum hydration?

• A. Al3+✓
• B. Na1+
• C. Mg2+
• D. Ca2+

Explanation: The greater the charge density, the greater the hydration enthalpy. All the atoms, given in the options, are in the same period, hence their valence shells would be the same. The same applies to electronic configurations since elements are in their ionic forms. However, the size of Al3+ would be the smallest, since it has more protons in its nucleus so, the nuclear attraction on the valence electrons increases, bringing the valence electrons, and thus the valence shell closer to the nucleus. Moreover, Al3+ has the highest charge, hence Al3+ would have the greatest charge density and hydration enthalpy The formula for calculating charge density = charge of the ion/size of the ion. Reference:

Q45. In which of the following chromium has different oxidation state?

• A. K2Cr2O7
• B. CrCl3✓
• C. CrO3
• D. K2CrO4

Explanation: i.Oxidation state in K2Cr2O7=2+2x+(-14)=0 =2x=12;x=6.ii.Oxidation state in CrCl3=x+(-3)=0 =x=3iii.Oxidation state in CrO3=x+(-6)=0 =x=6.There is no need to further find out the oxidation state of Cr in K2CrO4 because we already have a compound(CrCl3) having an odd oxidation state,so that is our answer.

Q46. Which of the following catalysts is used in the decomposition of laughing gas N2O at 1000 K?2N2O <-> 2N2 + O2

• A. Glycine
• B. V2O5
• C. Fe
• D. Traces of Cl2✓

Explanation: Cl2 is used as a catalyst in decomposition of N2O4.

Q47. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, _.

• A. IA group and 3rd period✓
• B. IIIA group and 1st period
• C. IA group and 8th period
• D. VIIA group and 3rd period

Explanation: Elements’ position in the periodic table can be determined by its electronic configuration. Period can be determined by counting the number of shells its electrons occupy. Since the element shown occupies three shells so we can say that it is in Period III. Group can be determined number of electrons in the last shell. Since the element has 1 electron in its last shell so the group number of this element is 1.Hence the answer is A.

Q48. Hydrogen resembles with alkali metals in all respects except:

• A. Half-filled valence shell✓
• B. Formation of unipositive ion
• C. Reducing nature
• D. Valence shell electronic configuration

Explanation: Alkali metals do not have half filled electrons in their last orbit,rather just 1 electron out of place of 8.Hydrogen has also has 1 electron in its last orbit but this does fill “half” of the last orbit as last orbit of hydrogen has capacity to hold 2 electrons in last orbit.Hence option A is correct.

Q49. Which of the following is not the use of bleaching powder?

• A. Sterilization of drinking water
• B. Oxidation of alcohols✓
• C. Bleaching Linen
• D. Preparation of Chlorine

Explanation: Bleaching powder is used in the preparation of chlorine that is used in sterilization water. Bleaching powder is also used in the bleaching of linen. However it has no role in oxidation of alcohols hence B is our answer.

Q50. Aqua regia can dissolve noble metal due to the formation of:

• A. Nitrous acid
• B. Nitric oxide
• C. Nitrosyl chloride✓
• D. Nascent nitrogen

Explanation: Aqua regia is formed upon mixing of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid, chemical reactions occur. These reactions result in the volatile products nitrosyl chloride and chlorine gas:HNO3 (aq) + 3 HCl (aq) → NOCl (g) + Cl2 (g) + 2 H2O (l)NOCl formed is actually that which can dissolve these noble metals.

Q51. The chemical formula of chromyl chloride gas is?

• A. Cr2O3
• B. CrO2Cl2✓
• C. CrOCl2
• D. CrCl3

Explanation: Chromyl chloride is the inorganic compound with the formula CrO₂Cl₂.

Q52. How many chain isomers are possible for the alkane C6H14?

• A. Six
• B. Five✓
• C. Four
• D. Nine

Explanation: Five isomers are possible for hexane with the formula of C6H14, as shown below.

Q53. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?

• A. 3 - ethyl - 4,4 - dimethylheptane
• B. 4,4 - dimethyl - 3 - ethylheptane
• C. 5 - ethyl - 4,4 - dimethylheptane
• D. 3,4 - dimethylheptane✓

Explanation: While naming a hydrocarbon, we take the longest carbon chain (heptane), then consider the additional groups (methyl), and finally number them from the one closest to the end of the main chain (3,4). Therefore, the IUPAC name is 3,4 - dimethylheptane.

Q54. The reaction between fat and NaOH called:

• A. Esterification
• B. Hydrogenolysis
• C. Hydrogenation
• D. Saponification✓

Explanation: Saponification is a process that involves the conversion of fat, oil, or lipid, into soap and alcohol by the action of heat in the presence of aqueous alkali (e.g. NaOH).

Q55. For a chemical reaction A + B, the threshold energy of the reaction is 31 KJ.mole. The average internal energy of A is 12 KJ/mole. What will be the activation energy of A?

• A. 43 KJ/mole
• B. 37 KJ/mole
• C. 25 KJ/mole
• D. 19 KJ/mole✓

Explanation: Threshold E = activation E + normal E of reactant 31 = A + 12 A = 31 - 12 = 19 kJ/mol

Q56. 1.8 x 10 -5 is the dissociation constant of:

• A. Formic acid
• B. Acetic acid✓
• C. Chloroacetic acid
• D. Hydrocyanic acid

Explanation: 1.8 x 10 -5 is the dissociation constant of Acetic acid.

Q57. Electrical conductivity depends upon _.

• A. Temperature✓
• B. Degree of dilution
• C. Nature of electrolyte
• D. Speed of ions

Explanation: Electrical conductivity depends on temperature. The electrical conductivity of a metal decreases with increase in temperature because the thermal energy increases the collision of electrons and disturbs the free flow.

Q58. If 4.6 gm of ethyl alcohol and 6.0 gm of acetic acid is kept at a constant temperature until equilibrium was established, 2.0 gm of unused acetic acid were present. What is the Kc?

• A. 2.0
• B. 3.0
• C. 4.0✓
• D. 5.0

Explanation: Initially the moles of ethyl alcohol are:4.6/46=0.1 mol and acetic acid are:6/60=0.1 mol.In the end, we have 2gm of acetic acid that means 2/60=0.0333 mol of acetic acid is left or conversely speaking 0.0667 mol of acetic acid reacted to produce the same amount of ethyl acetate and water.So now Kc can be calculated as we now at the final stage of reaction we have 0.0333 mol of acetic acid and thus 0.0333 mol ethyl alcohol present as reactants, as molar ratio is same in the equation. We also know that since 0.0667 mol reacted so ethyl acetate is present in the same amount as water.Kc=[0.0667]2/[0.0333]2=4.0

Q59. Identify from the following the example in which the complex is an anion:

• A. [Co(en)3](NO3)3
• B. [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
• C. K3[Co(NO2)6]✓
• D. [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]

Explanation: Only option that has complex ion attached to cation is K3[Co(NO2)6], giving a definite evidence of it being anion. Hence it is the answer.

Q60. C12H22O11 + conc. H2SO4 → 12 C + ? + H2SO4

• A. 11 H2O✓
• B. 11 O2
• C. 11 CO2
• D. 11 H2

Explanation: Comparing reactant and product side we can see that there is a difference of 22 H and 11 O. That means the compound that we can make of it is 11 H2O. Hence the answer is A.

Q61. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of synthetic fiber?

• A. Lightness of weight
• B. Ease of ironing
• C. Softness
• D. Heat retention
• E. Absorbs the sweat✓

Explanation: Synthetic fibres can not absorb sweat.

Q62. Ferritin deposits iron in spleen. It is an example of:

• A. Structural protein
• B. Respiratory protein
• C. Storage protein✓
• D. Contractile protein

Explanation: Ferritin are actually the stores of iron that are utilized when the serum iron depletes.

Q63. Which of the following is NOT a “raw material” used in the Solvay process?

• A. Sodium Chloride
• B. Sodium Carbonate✓
• C. Limestone
• D. Ammonia gas

Explanation: Sodium carbonate is the product of the Solvay process so it can definitely not be the raw material required for this process.

Q64. In SN1 reaction “1” stands for?

• A. Polar solvents
• B. Unimolecular✓
• C. Bimolecular
• D. Nucleophile

Explanation: The SN1 reaction is a substitution reaction in organic chemistry, the name of which refers to the Hughes-Ingold symbol of the mechanism. "SN" stands for "nucleophilic substitution", and the "1" says that the rate-determining step is unimolecular.

Q65. The following reaction is an example of:

• A. Alkylation of benzene
• B. Acylation of benzene✓
• C. Oxidation of benzene
• D. Halogenation of benzene
• E. Both A and B

Explanation: Since the acyl group is added to the benzene as a result of this reaction process we can say that it is an acylation of benzene.

Q66. 22.4 dm3 of volume of each H2 and O2 are sparked to produce water vapours (considered as ideal gas) on completion of reaction. What is the decrease in the volume of the vessel?

• A. 44 dm3
• B. 22.4 dm3
• C. 33.6 dm3
• D. 11.2 dm3✓

Explanation: In the reaction, 2 moles of H2 react with 1 mole of O2 to form water vapor. Initially, there are 44.8 dm3 of gas (22.4 dm3 of each gas). According to the stoichiometry, 22.4 dm3 of H2 reacts with only 11.2 dm3 of O2, forming 22.4 dm3 of water vapor. The remaining 11.2 dm3 of O2 adds to the water vapor for a total final volume of 33.6 dm3. The initial volume was 44.8 dm3, so the decrease in the volume is 44.8 - 33.6 = 11.2 dm3. The other options misunderstand either the stoichiometry or the ideal gas volume concept.

Q67. Which of the following is the chemical formula of a compound indicating the relative number of atoms in the simplest ratio?

• A. Empirical formula✓
• B. Empirical formula mass
• C. Molecular formula
• D. Molecular mass

Explanation: The empirical formula expresses the simplest, most reduced ratio of the different types of atoms in a chemical compound. It provides information about the relative numbers of each type of atom present, and the ratios are always in the smallest whole numbers.

Q68. Which of the following shows maximum penetration?

• A. Electrons
• B. Protons
• C. Alpha particles
• D. Beta-particles✓

Explanation: Beta particles penetrate farther than alpha particles and protons because they are lighter and less charged. Alpha particles are heavy and stopped quickly, while protons are massive but slow down faster. Electrons (in general atomic context) are less penetrating than beta radiation from radioactive decay.

Q69. Which pair has species with different shapes?

• A. BeCl2 and CO2
• B. NH3 and BF3✓
• C. SCl2 and H2O
• D. CH4 and NH4+

Explanation: The correct answer is option B: NH3 and BF3. According to VSEPR theory, NH3 has a trigonal pyramidal shape due to the lone pair on the nitrogen atom, while BF3 has a trigonal planar shape with no lone pairs on the boron atom, resulting in different geometries for these two molecules.Option A: BeCl2 and CO2 both have a linear shape due to their bonding arrangements with no lone pairs affecting the geometry.Option C: SCl2 and H2O both have a bent or angular shape due to the presence of lone pairs on the central atom, leading to similar geometries.Option D: CH4 and NH4+ both have a tetrahedral shape, as each central atom is bonded to four atoms with no lone pairs, resulting in identical geometries.

Q70. In HF the covalent bond is due to:

• A. S-S overlapping
• B. S-Pz overlapping✓
• C. S-Px overlapping
• D. Pz - Pz overlapping

Explanation: In formation of HF, 1s orbital of H overlaps with 2Pz orbital to F to form bond. Therefore bonding is due to S-Pz overlapping.

Q71. A 50 watt bulb is operated by 120 volts. What is the current through the bulb?

• A. 0.416 A✓
• B. 1.5 A
• C. 2.5 A
• D. 3.5 A
• E. 5.5 A

Explanation: P=IV(50)=(120)(I)50/120=II=0.416A

Q72. A battery of 6 volts is connected to two resistors of 3 ohm and 2 ohm joined together in series. What will be the current through the circuit?

• A. 6.2 A
• B. 5.2 A
• C. 4.2 A
• D. 2.2 A
• E. 1.2 A✓

Explanation: Resistance of resistors placed in series is calculated by adding the resistance,3+2=5 ohms.Formula connecting voltage,resistance and current is V=IR.V=IR(6)=(5)(I)6/5=I=1.2 Ohms.

Q73. There is a current of 25 A in a long straight wire. What is the flux density at a point 3 cm from the wire?

• A. 1.67 x 10-4 T✓
• B. 3.67 x 10-4 T
• C. 5.67 x 10-4 T
• D. 7.67 x 10-4 T
• E. 9.67 x 10-4 T

Explanation: Given, a=3cm=9×10−2m, I=25AB=μoI/2πa=4π×10−7×25/2π×3×10−2=1.67 x 10-4 T

Q74. A circuit in which there is a current of 5 amp is changed so that the current falls to zero in 0.1 s. If an average e.m.f of 200 volts is induced, what is the self inductance of the circuit?

• A. 1 Henry
• B. 2 Henry
• C. 3 Henry
• D. 4 Henry✓
• E. 6 Henry

Explanation: Initial current, I1=5.0AFinal current, I2=0AChange in current, dl=I1−I2=5ATime taken for the charge, t=0.1sAverage emf, e=200VFor self inductance(L) of the coil, we have the relation for average emf as:e=L x rate of change of currentL=e/rate of change of currentL=200/ 5/0.1L=4HHence the self inductance of the coil is 4H.

Q75. What will be the energy of an X-ray quantum of wave length 1.0 x 10-10 m?

• A. 0.6 x 10^-15 J
• B. 1.98 x 10^-15 J✓
• C. 3.7 x 10^-15 J
• D. 4.7 x 10^-15 J
• E. 7.7 x 10^-15 J

Explanation: So, the energy of x rays is 1.98 x 10 -15 J. Hence, this is the required solution.

Q76. A neutron travels a distance of 24 m in a time interval of 3.6 x 10-4 s. Assuming its speed was constant, find its kinetic energy. Take 1.7 x 10-27 kg as the mass of the neutron:

• A. 37.2 x 10-19 joule✓
• B. 27.702 x 10-19 joule
• C. 17.70 x 10-19 joule
• D. 7.702 x 10-29 joule

Explanation: The following is the solution:speed of neutron = distance travelled by neutron / time taken by neutron for covered that distance .speed of neutron = 24/3.6 × 10‐4 m/sspeed of neutron ( V)= 6.6 × 10⁴ m/sno ,kinetic energy = 1/2mv²K.E = 1/2 × 1.7 × 10-27 ×( 6.6 × 10⁴)² J= 1/2 × 1.7 × (6.6)² × 10-19 j=37.2 × 10-19 jso,K.E = 37.2 × 10-19.Hence the correct answer is A which is closest to the correct answer

Q77. A 60 kg boy runs up a hill through a height of 6 m in 3 seconds. How much work does he do against gravitational force?

• A. 3000 J
• B. 2528 J
• C. 3500 J
• D. 3528 J✓

Explanation: W=mgh=(60)(6)(9.8)=3528J

Q78. The nature of the force of gravitation in the universe is:

• A. Repulsive only
• B. Attractive only✓
• C. Electric
• D. Magnetic
• E. Both attractive and repulsive

Explanation: Both in the Newton theory of gravitation and in the General Theory of Relativity the gravitational force is an exclusively attractive one.

Q79. The third law of motion given by Newton deals with an action- reaction pair of forces.Consider two bodies: if the action is due to one body, the reaction will be due to:

• A. The other body✓
• B. The same body
• C. Both the bodies
• D. Atmosphere

Explanation: Newton's third law: If an object A exerts a force on object B, then object B must exert a force of equal magnitude and opposite direction back on object A.

Q80. Beta particles are the particles emitted from the _ of an atom.

• A. Inner atomic shells
• B. Outer atomic shells
• C. Innermost atomic shell
• D. Nucleus✓

Explanation: The beta particle, which may be either negatively charged (negatrons) or positively charged (positrons), originates from the nucleus of an atom. A beta particle is emitted from the nucleus of an atom during radioactive decay. The electron, however, occupies regions outside the nucleus of an atom.

Q81. Magnetic force on a moving charge depends upon:

• A. Magnetic field and charge only
• B. Magnetic field and speed of the charge only
• C. Charge and speed of the charge only
• D. Magnetic field, charge, and speed of the charge✓

Explanation: The magnitude of the magnetic force between them depends on how much charge is in how much velocity in each of the two objects and magnetic field.

Q82. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Pleurisy
• D. Emphysema✓

Explanation: Note:The correct option is d) Emphysema.Explanation of each option:a)Pneumonia: Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition primarily caused by infection, not by damage to the alveolar walls. It typically results in the air sacs (alveoli) filling with fluid or pus due to infection, rather than damage to alveolar walls.b)cAsthma: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excess mucus production. It does not primarily involve damage to the alveolar walls but rather affects the airways.c)Pleurisy: Pleurisy, or pleuritis, is inflammation of the pleura, the lining around the lungs. It does not directly involve damage to the alveolar walls or impact the alveolar surface area responsible for gas exchange.d)Emphysema: This is the correct answer. Emphysema is a pulmonary disease characterized by the gradual destruction of the alveolar walls. This damage reduces the surface area available for gas exchange, leading to impaired lung function, shortness of breath, and other respiratory symptoms. Smoking is a common cause of emphysema. The destruction of the alveolar walls leads to the enlargement of the air sacs and loss of elasticity in the lungs. As a result, the surface area available for gas exchange is drastically reduced, impairing the lung's ability to efficiently transfer oxygen to the bloodstream and remove carbon dioxide. Summary: The correct answer is "Emphysema." Emphysema is a pulmonary disease characterized by damage to the alveolar walls, which drastically reduces the alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange. The other options, pneumonia, asthma, and pleurisy, do not primarily involve damage to the alveolar walls and are distinct conditions with different characteristics.

Q83. If modulated signal frequency is represented by fm, carrier frequency by fc, fmin and fmax represent minimum and maximum values respectively, then the lower sideband refers to the range:

• A. fc - fmax to fc - fmin✓
• B. fc + fmin to fc + fmax
• C. fc - fm
• D. fm - fc

Explanation: Lower sidebands (LSB) range from fc-fmax to fc-fmin.

Q84. How many types of modulations are possible with sinusoidal carrier?

• A. Only one
• B. Two
• C. Three✓
• D. Four

Explanation: The carrier signal is a sine wave at the carrier frequency. The sine wave has three characteristics that can be altered. The term that may be varied is the carrier voltage Ec, the carrier frequency FC, and the carrier phase angle θ. So three forms of modulations are possible.

Q85. The range of wavelengths for visible light is between _.

• A. 4.6 x 107 to 7.8 x 10 -7 m
• B. 4.0 x 10 -7 to 7.6 x 10 -7 m✓
• C. 4.0 x 10 -6 to 7.6 x 10 -6 m
• D. 4.0 x 10 -8 to 7.6 x 10 -8 m

Explanation: The range of visible light is from 400nm to 760nm. Conversion of 400nm to meters will be 400x10-9=4x10-7. Conversion of 760 nm to meters will be 760x10-9=7.6x10-7.Hence the answer is B.

Q86. In an astronomical telescope, the lens called eyepiece forms an image of a distant object that is:

• A. Real and diminished
• B. Real and magnified
• C. Virtual and diminished
• D. Virtual and magnified✓

Explanation: An astronomical telescope is an optical instrument which is used to see the magnified image of distant heavenly bodies. The final image formed by an astronomical telescope is always virtual, inverted and magnified.

Q87. If the volume of a gas is fixed then on increasing its temperature, its pressure_

• A. Gets negligible
• B. Gets constant
• C. Rises✓
• D. Falls

Explanation: Gay-Lussac's Law. This law states that the pressure of a given amount of gas held at constant volume is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature. With an increase in temperature, the pressure will go up.If the volume of a gas is fixed (constant volume), the relationship between pressure P, temperature T and the other gas properties is described by the ideal gas law:PV=nRTFrom this equation, we can derive that, for a fixed volume:P∝TThis means that pressure is directly proportional to temperature when volume is constant. Therefore, if the temperature is increased, the pressure also increase.

Q88. Which of the following is not a base unit in the SI system?

• A. Ampere
• B. Second
• C. Meter per second✓
• D. Candela

Explanation: In summary, the correct answer is option c) Meter per second, as it is not a base unit in the SI system. The other options (a, b, and d) represent base units: ampere for electric current, second for time, and candela for luminous intensity.

Q89. The force which will accelerate a 25 kg mass at 98 cm/s2 on a smooth horizontal plane is:

• A. 200 Newton
• B. 1950 Newton
• C. 19.6 Newton
• D. 24.5 Newton✓
• E. 1960 Newton

Explanation: F=maF=(25 kg)(98/100 m/s2)F=24.5 N

Q90. When photons are incident on a metal, electrons are emitted. The process is called:

• A. Photoelectric effect✓
• B. Pair production
• C. X-ray production
• D. Gamma ray production
• E. Radioactive capture

Explanation: Photoelectric effect, a phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

Q91. Which of the following types of force can do no work on the body on which it operates?

• A. Centripetal force✓
• B. Frictional force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Shearing force
• E. Elastic force

Explanation: For circular motion, the centripetal force always acts at right angles to the motion. Thus, it changes the direction of the motion, but it does zero work on the object. The rest of the forces mentioned in other options directly work on the object.

Q92. The frequency of a man's voice is 300 Hz. If velocity of sound is 336 m/s, the wavelength of the sound is:

• A. 1.12 m✓
• B. 300 m
• C. 330 m
• D. 112 m
• E. 11201 m

Explanation: We are given thatfrequency=300Hz, and velocity v=336ms−1From the relation v=f×λ,λ=v/f=336/300=1.12mOption "A" is correct.

Q93. A camera of 6 cm focal length is used to photograph a distant scene. The distance from the lens to the image is approximately:

• A. 6 cm✓
• B. 1 m
• C. 80 cm
• D. 4 m
• E. 3 cm

Explanation: The distance from the lens to the image is of 6 cm as focal length is used to photograph at distance.

Q94. A bomb is dropped from an airplane moving horizontally with a speed of 200 km/h. If the air resistance is negligible, the bomb will reach the ground in 5 s, the altitude of the plane approximately is: (g = 9.8 m/s2)

• A. 50 m
• B. 75 m
• C. 122.5 m✓
• D. 250 m
• E. 300 m

Explanation: Data:u = t = 5 sec v = 200km/hr Solution: h = ut + 1/2gt2h = 1/2 x 9.8(5)2h = 1/2 * 245= 122.5Hence, option C is correct. The correct approach involves utilizing the equation of motion for free fall to calculate the vertical distance accurately. Option A underestimates, Option B does not consider the full effect of gravity, Option D overestimates, and Option E significantly overestimates the altitude due to misinterpretation of time and acceleration relationships.

Q95. An object whose mass is 100 g starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 20 cm/s2. At the end of 8s its momentum in g cm / s is:

• A. 500
• B. 8000
• C. 16,000✓
• D. 33,000
• E. 64,000

Explanation: Step 1:force = mass * accelerationforce = 100 * 20force = 2000 g cm / s2Step 2:change in momentum = force * timechange in momentum = 2000 * 8change in momentum = 16000 g cm/s

Q96. Physics is an experimental science which depends heavily on:

• A. The objective observations
• B. Measurement of natural phenomena
• C. Study of chemical solutions only
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Physics depends on objective observations and measurement of natural phenomena.Not on studying chemical solutions,which is actually chemistry.

Q97. If the unit vectors i, j, k are perpendicular to each other therefore;i.i = j.j = k.k = _.I.j = j.k = k.i = _.

• A. 0 … 1
• B. 1 … 0✓
• C. 0 … 0
• D. 1 … 1

Explanation: The dot product of two vectors A and B is given by A.B = |A||B| cosθ. If the angle θ between the vectors is 0°, cosθ = 1, so a vector dotted with itself (i.i, j.j, k.k) is 1, due to the unit magnitude of the vectors. If θ is 90°, cosθ = 0, so the dot product of two perpendicular vectors (i.j, j.k, k.i) is 0. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 for i.i = j.j = k.k, and 0 for i.j = j.k = k.i. The other options are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect these properties of the dot product for unit vectors.

Q98. Whenever the average and instantaneous velocities are equal the body is said to have a:

• A. Simple velocity
• B. Uniform velocity✓
• C. Directional velocity
• D. Centripetal velocity

Explanation: Instantaneous velocity can be equal to average velocity when the acceleration is zero or velocity is constant because in this condition all the instantaneous velocities will be equal to each other and also equal to the average velocity. Or distance -time graph will be a straight line whose slope (velocity) is the same at every point .

Q99. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 98 m/s. How long does it take to reach its highest point?

• A. 2 seconds
• B. 5 seconds
• C. 7 seconds
• D. 10 seconds✓
• E. 15 seconds

Explanation: Given :u = 98 m/sg = -9.8 m/s². ( As it is thrown upwards)v = 0 (As it will stop after reaching the highest point)Using2gs = v² - u²2 × -9.8 × s = - (98 × 98)s = (98 × 98)/(2 × 9.8)s = 98 × 5s = 490 m.Now, Usingv = u + at0 = 98 - 9.8 × tt = 10 s

Q100. A/An _ is that in which the momentum of the system as well as the kinetic energy of the system before and after the collision is conserved i.e. remains the same.

• A. Elastic collision✓
• B. Inelastic collision
• C. Conserved collision
• D. Direct collision

Explanation: An elastic collision is one where both momentum and kinetic energy of the system are conserved, meaning they remain the same before and after the collision. Inelastic collisions conserve momentum but lose some kinetic energy to other forms of energy. The term conserved collision lacks specificity and does not indicate which quantities are conserved. Direct collisions describe the nature of the impact rather than conservation laws.