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Sindh Mcat Nts 2018 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

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Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct.It’s too late to go for a walk now; besides, it’s beginning to rain.

A. It's
B. Go
C. Besides
D. Beginning
E. No Error✓

Explanation: The given sentence is an example of a compound sentence. A compound sentence contains at least two independent clauses. These two independent clauses can be connected with a comma and a coordinating conjunction or with a semicolon.

Why the other options are wrong

A. “It’s” is a contraction and is used where a sentence would normally read “it is” or “it has”. The use of the word “it’s” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
B. The word “go” is acting as an action verb that is the base verb combined with the word “to” to make an infinitive verb. The infinitive (to go) is used to discuss an action (going for a walk) without actually doing the action. The use of the word “go” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
C. The word “besides” is a conjunctive adverb that is used here to connect two independent clauses. It is also used to add an extra fact (the extra fact here is that it had begun to rain) to an argument (the argument here is why it was too late to go for a walk then). The use of the word “besides” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
D. The word “beginning” is the present continuous tense of the word “begin” used to describe an event (rain) that is happening in the present. The use of the word “beginning” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.

Q2. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct.The guests broke a dozen glass at the party.

A. The guests
B. Broke
C. Glass✓
D. At
E. No Error

Explanation: The given sentence is an example of a simple sentence. A simple sentence contains a subject and a verb, and it may also have an object and modifiers. However, it contains only one independent clause.The word "glass" requires a change to the plural form "glasses." The word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct is "glass"" (should be changed to "glasses").

Why the other options are wrong

A. “The guests” is the subject of the given sentence. “The” is a definite article which is used to identify a specific noun (guests). The use of “the guests” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
B. The verb “broke” is the past tense of “break”. A simple past verb is used to show an action that has already occurred and was completed at a particular time in the past. The use of the word “broke” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
D. The word “at” is a preposition that is used to indicate a position in time or a place (the party). The use of the word “at” in the given sentence makes sense grammatically and hence, does not need to be changed.
E. This option suggests that there are no errors in the sentence and it is already correct.

Q3. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices below:He would like _ have a job in the same office as his brother.

A. Too
B. To✓
C. Of to
D. Get

Explanation: The correct preposition to use over here will be "to" because all others don't make sense here grammatically.Too is used to imply collectiveness, which is not the context here. Of to and get don't make any sense when plugged in.

Why the other options are wrong

A. “Too” is an adverb of degree that can mean “excessively,” “also,” or “very.” It is used before an adjective or adverb or before “much”, “many”, “few” etc. It is used when the speaker wants to show so much of a particular quality that something is not possible (Example: I was too excited to sleep.) or when the speaker wants to express that something is more than necessary or acceptable (Example: You’re driving too fast.). It is also used after mentioning an additional person, thing, or fact to show that they are also included in what you are saying (Example: Sana’s got a lovely voice and she’s a good dancer too.).
C. “Of” and “to” are two separate prepositions that can’t be used as a prepositional phrase because it only possible to use two prepositions together if the second one is creating a noun phrase. Hence, “of to” does not make sense grammatically.
D. The verb “get” is an irregular verb. Its three parts are get, got, gotten. It is used as get + object or get + indirect object + direct object when the speaker wants to express the meaning of “fetch” or “receive” or “obtain” (Example: Can you get me a glass of water?). It is also used as a get + adjective to describe a change of state or situation (Example: Let’s hope she gets better soon.).

Q4. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option:The road is wet. It must _ raining.

A. Have been✓
B. Had
C. Has
D. Have

Explanation: The tense used here is present perfect tense so the correct helping verb to use here should be "have been".

Why the other options are wrong

B. The verb “had” is the past tense and past participle form of the base verb “have”. (Example: It had my favorite toppings.). Additionally, to form the past perfect, use had and the past participle of a verb in one part of the sentence.
C. The verb “has” is a third person singular subject
D. The verb “have” is an irregular verb (the verb can be used as a main verb or as an auxiliary verb). As an auxiliary verb, “have” is used to make the present perfect tenses of main verb.

Q5. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.SHABBY:

A. Organized
B. Untidy✓
C. Reluctant
D. Sensible

Explanation: Shabby (adjective) means (of things) in poor condition especially because of age or use. It also means (of person) dressed in clothes that are old and worn.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Organized (adjective) means: 1: (of things) arranged in a neat and effective way, or 2: (of person) being able to keep things arranged in a neat or effective way.
C. Reluctant (adjective) means feeling or showing doubt about doing something : not willing or eager to do something.
D. Sensible (adjective) means having or showing good sense or judgment.

Q6. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.FORBID:

A. Prohibit✓
B. Chide
C. Permit
D. Constraint

Explanation: Forbid (verb) means to: 1: order (someone) not to do something, or 2: refuse to allow (something).

Why the other options are wrong

B. Chide (verb) means to scold or rebuke.
C. Permit (verb) means to officially allow (someone) to do something.
D. Constraint (noun) means a limitation or restriction.

Q7. Television is typical of many new scientific words which are deliberately invented from old Greek and Latin words. In this case, the prefix ‘tele’ is Greek and means ‘far’ (of telephone, telegram), while the root ‘vision’ is derived from the Latin verb meaning ‘to see’.The word “Television” is invented from:

A. English and Spanish
B. French and Arabic
C. Dutch and German
D. Greek and Latin✓

Explanation: It can be directly inferred from the passage that television is invented from old Greek and Latin words. This is clearly mentioned in Lines 1 and 2.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This is incorrect as there is no mention of such languages in the given statement.
B. This is incorrect as there is no mention of such languages in the given statement.
C. This is incorrect as there is no mention of such languages in the given statement.

Q8. Television is typical of many new scientific words which are deliberately invented from old Greek and Latin words. In this case, the prefix ‘tele’ is Greek and means ‘far’ (of telephone, telegram), while the root ‘vision’ is derived from the Latin verb meaning ‘to see’.Which of the following gives the meaning of the prefix "tele"?

A. Near
B. Close
C. Far✓
D. Away

Explanation: It can be directly inferred from the given passage that the prefix “tele” is Greek and means “far” (at distance), as mentioned in the second line of the given passage.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The prefix "tele" does not mean "near." In fact, it means the opposite. The correct meaning of "tele" is associated with distance or far-reaching. It is used in words like "telephone" and "television" to convey the idea of communication or viewing over long distances. Therefore, option (a) is not the correct choice.
B. The prefix "tele" does not mean "close." As mentioned in the passage, it means "far." It is used to indicate things that are happening or being transmitted over long distances. Therefore, option (b) is not the correct choice.
D. The prefix "tele" does not mean "away." It primarily signifies distance or being far away rather than being away in the sense of moving from one place to another. Therefore, option d) is not the correct choice

Q9. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters:SUPREMACY

A. Excellency
B. Sovereignty
C. Inferiority✓
D. Influence

Explanation: Supremacy (noun) is defined as the state or condition of being superior to all others in authority, power, or status.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Excellency (noun) is defined as a title or form of address given to certain high officials of state, especially ambassadors, or the church officials.
B. Sovereignty (noun) is defined as a supreme power or authority.
D. Influence (noun) is defined as the capacity to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone or something, or the effect itself.

Q10. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters:PATRIOTISM

A. Nationalism
B. Socialism
C. Obsession
D. Disloyalty✓

Explanation: Patriotism (noun) is defined as the quality of being patriotic; devotion to and vigorous support for one's country. Disloalty is the direct opposite of the given word.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Nationalism (noun) is defined as the identification with one's own nation and support for its interests, especially to the exclusion or detriment of the interests of other nations.
B. Socialism (noun) is defined as a political and economic theory of social organization that advocates that the means of production, distribution, and exchange should be owned or regulated by the community as a whole.
C. Obsession (noun) is defined as the state of being obsessed with someone or something.

Q11. In which of the following growth phases does the number of bacteria increase most rapidly?

A. Lag phase
B. Log phase✓
C. Stationary phase
D. Death/Decline phase

Explanation: The exponential or the log phase is the phase during which the bacterium increases the most rapidly. In the figure below, the x-axis represents time and the y-axis represents log of the number of bacteria. Hence, the slope of the graph is directly proportional to the rate of multiplication of bacteria; the exponential phase has the greatest rate of multiplication of bacteria due to having the greatest slope.

Why the other options are wrong

A. It is a phase of cell growth, not cell division. Cell size as well as metabolic activity increases, whereas the number of bacterial cells remains the same
C. Bacterial death rate is equal to the bacterial rate of reproduction and multiplication in this phase. The total number of bacterial cells remains relatively constant during this phase
D. Bacteria start dying in this phase. The death rate is more than the reproduction rate. The number of bacterial cells decreases during this phase

Q12. Which of the following is the simplest form of pathogens causing diseases?

A. Viruses
B. Prions✓
C. Fungus
D. Amoeba

Explanation: Prions are the simplest disease-causing pathogens because they are merely misfolded proteins with with no nucleic acid (no DNA or RNA), making them the most minimal infectious agents compared to viruses, fungi, or protozoa like amoeba.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Viruses, while simple compared to many other life forms, still consist of genetic material (DNA or RNA) encapsulated in a protein coat. They require a host cell to reproduce and cannot independently cause disease, making them more complex than prions.
C. Fungi are complex organisms with defined cellular structures and reproductive mechanisms. They require specific environmental conditions to grow and are not the simplest pathogens, as they are multicellular or unicellular with extensive biological functions.
D. Amoebas are single-celled organisms that can cause diseases, but they are more complex than prions, as they possess cellular structures, organelles, and various pathogenic mechanisms. Thus, they do not represent the simplest form of pathogens.

Q13. The category of organisms which are able to make their own food is called:

A. Heterotrophs
B. Autotrophs✓
C. Consumers
D. Decomposers
E. Saprotrophs

Explanation: An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other chemicals. Because autotrophs produce their own food, they are sometimes called producers. Plants are the most familiar type of autotroph, but there are many different kinds of autotrophic organisms.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Heterotrophs are organisms that rely on other organisms for their food and energy. They cannot produce their food through photosynthesis like autotrophs, but instead consume organic matter, such as plants or other animals, to survive.
C. Consumers are organisms that rely on other organisms for their energy and nutrients.
D. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organic matter and return nutrients to the ecosystem.
E. Saprotrophs are organisms that obtain nutrients by decomposing dead organic matter.

Q14. The branch of science dealing with the fossil record is called:

A. Genetics
B. Taxonomy
C. Archeology
D. Paleontology✓
E. Biochemistry

Explanation: Paleontology is the study of the history of life on Earth based on fossils Taxonomy is the branch of science related to the classification of organisms. Archeology is the study of human activity through the recovery and analysis of material culture. Genetics is a branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms. Biochemistry or biological chemistry is the study of chemical processes within and relating to living organisms.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Genetics is the scientific study of heredity, specifically the variation, transmission, and expression of genes that govern biological traits.
B. Taxonomy is the study of the classification of living organisms into groups based on evolutionary relationships.
C. Archeology is the study of human activity through the recovery and analysis of material culture.
E. Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances within living organisms

Q15. Which of the following is the manipulation of genetic material for practical purposes?

A. Grafting
B. Tissue Culture
C. Genetic Engineering✓
D. Cell Culture

Explanation: Genetic engineering involves the direct manipulation of genetic material (DNA) to achieve practical and beneficial outcomes.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Grafting is a horticultural technique that involves joining two plants together so that they grow as one. While it improves plant quality, it does not involve changing the genetic material at the DNA level.
B. Tissue culture refers to the growth of cells in a controlled environment. It is used for propagation but does not directly alter the genetic material itself.
D. Cell culture involves growing cells under controlled conditions but does not entail the manipulation of genetic material. It is primarily used for research and medical purposes.

Q16. Which part of the cell does glycolysis occur in?

A. Mitochondrion
B. Chloroplast
C. Cytoplasm✓
D. Nucleus
E. Vacuole

Explanation: Glycolysis, the first stage of cellular respiration, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is a series of biochemical reactions that break down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. Unlike the subsequent stages of cellular respiration (such as the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation), glycolysis does not take place in the mitochondria. Instead, it occurs in the cytoplasm, which is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the cellular organelles.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Mitochondria is known as the powerhouse of the cell as it is the site of cellular respiration, where energy is produced from the breakdown of glucose and other energy-rich molecules.
B. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells and are the site of photosynthesis, where light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of glucose and other sugars.
D. The nucleus is the membrane-bonded compartment in the eukaryotic cells that contains the genetic material(DNA) and controls the activities of the cell.
E. Vacuoles are membrane-bonded organelles found in plant and fungal cells, serving as storage structures for water, salts, and various organic molecules.

Q17. The technique use of identification of criminals is called:

A. Cloning
B. DNA fingerprinting✓
C. Restriction Analysis
D. Polymorphism
E. Gene sequencing

Explanation: DNA fingerprinting is a laboratory technique used to establish a link between biological evidence and a suspect in a criminal investigation. A DNA sample taken from a crime scene is compared with a DNA sample from a suspect. DNA fingerprinting is also used to establish paternity. The figure below shows a DNA fingerprint:

Why the other options are wrong

A. Cloning refers to the production of multiple copies of a genetic element, organism, or cell with identical DNA.
C. Restriction analysis is a laboratory technique used to identify and analyze DNA fragments by cutting the DNA with restriction enzymes and separating the fragments based on size through gel electrophoresis.
D. Polymorphism refers to the occurrence of multiple forms or variations of a gene or characteristic in a population.
E. Gene sequencing is the process of determining the exact order of nucleotides (A, C, G, T) in a DNA molecule, which makes up a gene.

Q18. Which of the following bacteria are able to release oxygen into the environment?

A. Saprotrophic bacteria
B. Parasitic bacteria
C. Cyanobacteria✓
D. Pathogenic bacteria

Explanation: Cyanobacteria are the correct answer as they are photosynthetic bacteria capable of producing oxygen. These organisms use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create energy-rich carbohydrates, releasing oxygen as a byproduct. In contrast, saprotrophic bacteria decompose organic matter without releasing oxygen, parasitic bacteria obtain nutrients from a host and lack photosynthetic capabilities, and pathogenic bacteria are generally anaerobic, meaning they do not rely on oxygen and do not release it.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Saprotrophic bacteria decompose dead organic matter to obtain energy and nutrients. They do not perform photosynthesis and therefore do not release oxygen.
B. Parasitic bacteria rely on a host organism for survival. They do not have the capability to perform photosynthesis and thus do not release oxygen into the environment.
D. Pathogenic bacteria are often anaerobic, meaning they do not require oxygen for growth and do not release oxygen during their metabolic processes.

Q19. Which of the following is NOT the part of RNA?

A. Nitrogenous bases
B. Ribose Sugars
C. Deoxyribose Sugars✓
D. Phosphate groups

Explanation: Deoxyribose sugars are not part of RNA, rather ribose sugars are part of RNA. Deoxyribose sugars are found in DNA molecules.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Nitrogenous bases are building blocks of DNA and RNA and determine the sequence of genetic information.
B. Ribose sugars are the type of sugar found in RNA molecules.
D. Phosphate groups, along with the nitrogenous bases and sugars, make up the backbone of DNA and RNA molecules.

Q20. Referring to sexual reproduction, humans are:

A. Hermaphrodites
B. Vivaparous✓
C. Oviparous
D. Self-fertilized

Explanation: The main difference between oviparous and viviparous animals is that oviparous animals do not undergo any embryonic development inside the mother whereas viviparous animals develop into young animals inside the mother. This means oviparous animals lay eggs. These eggs develop and hatch into young individuals.A hermaphrodite is an organism with both male and female genitalia. In sexually reproducing organisms, males have organs that produce male gametes, usually sperm. Sometimes the genders pair off equally, one male for one female. Other times, one male or female will breed with a large group of the other gender.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Hermaphrodites refer to organisms that have both male and female reproductive organs, but humans don't have this characteristic.
C. Oviparous organisms lay eggs that hatch into the young outside of the mother's body but humans are not oviparous.
D. Humans are not capable of self-fertilization as sexual reproduction in humans requires the union of sperm from a small and an egg from a female.

Q21. Which of the following is NOT the function of cell membranes?

A. Protection of cytoplasm
B. Regulating the passage of different molecules
C. Protein synthesis✓
D. Cellular communication
E. Cellular transportation

Explanation: All of these are functions of the cell membrane except protein synthesis, which is solely the purpose of ribosomes..

Why the other options are wrong

A. The cell membrane acts as a protective barrier, enclosing the cytoplasm and maintaining the integrity of the cell.
B. The cell membrane regulates the movement of molecules in and out of the cell, allowing certain substances to pass through while keeping others out.
D. The cell membrane plays a role in cellular communication by allowing signals to be transmitted from one cell to another.
E. The cell membrane is involved in cellular transportation by facilitating the movement of substances such as nutrients, waste products, and hormones across the membrane.

Q22. Genetic information in the DNA is encoded as:

A. Deoxyribose sugar
B. Ribose sugar
C. Phosphate group
D. Sequence of nitrogenous bases✓

Explanation: The genetic information of DNA is encoded as the sequence of nitrogenous bases. The specific sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA (Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Guanine) leads to the formation of specific mRNA during the transcription process. This mRNA is then converted into a specific protein corresponding to the specific sequence of nitrogenous bases.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Deoxyribose sugar is the type of sugar found in DNA molecules, but it does not encode genetic information.
B. Ribose sugar is found in RNA molecules, but not in DNA.
C. Phosphate groups, along with the nitrogenous bases and sugars, make up the backbone of DNA molecules but don't encode genetic information.

Q23. The chromosomes with equal arms are called:

A. Metacentric✓
B. Submetacentric
C. Acrocentric
D. Telocentric

Explanation: Chromosomes with the centromere located near the middle and with two equal arms on either side are called metacentric chromosomes.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Chromosomes with the centromere not exactly in the middle, causing one arm to be longer than the other, are called submetacentric chromosomes.
C. Chromosomes with the centromere located near one end and with a long arm and a very short arm are called acrocentric chromosomes.
D. Chromosomes with the centromere located at one end and with a single, long arm and no distinct short arm are called telocentric chromosomes.

Q24. The disease that arises due to increasing age is:

A. Alzheimer's✓
B. Hepatitis C
C. Cholera
D. Malaria
E. Beriberi

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by progressive loss of memory, cognitive function, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for about 60-80% of cases. The risk of Alzheimer's disease increases with age, and it is most common in people over the age of 65.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Hepatitis C is a liver infection caused by the hepatitis C virus (HCV). Hepatitis C is spread through contact with blood from an infected person. Today, most people become infected with the hepatitis C virus by sharing needles or other equipment used to prepare and inject drugs.
C. Cholera is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the toxigenic bacterium Vibrio cholerae serogroup 01 or 0139. An estimated 2.9 million cases and 95,000 deaths occur each year around the world. The infection is often mild or without symptoms, but it can be severe.
D. Malaria is a serious and sometimes fatal disease caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito that feeds on humans. People who get malaria are typically very sick, with high fevers, shaking chills, and flu-like illnesses.
E. Beriberi is a nutritional deficiency. All other diseases are caused by pathogens, irrespective of age group.

Q25. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?

A. Trichinella spiralis✓
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia
D. Enterobius vermicularis

Explanation: Trichinella spiralis is a minute nematode parasite that shows viviparity i.e., produces live young (larvae), not eggs. The adults of T. spiralis live in the human small intestine, where the females release large numbers of larvae. These larvae bore through the intestine and can cause trichinosis or trichiniasis, which has symptoms like diarrhoea, nausea, vertigo, pain in limbs and fever, etc. Humans get infected after eating imperfectly cooked meat infected with the parasite’s larval cysts.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Ascaris lumbricoides, which is a type of roundworm, is oviparous. This means that it lays eggs, and the young (larvae) develop outside the mother's body.
C. Taenia, a genus of tapeworms, is typically oviparous, which means they lay eggs.
D. Enterobius vermicularis, commonly known as the human pinworm, is oviparous. This parasitic worm lives in the large intestine of humans and lays eggs in the perianal region.

Q26. The disease caused by Protozoal infection is:

A. Rickets
B. Goiter
C. Malaria✓
D. Beri-beri
E. Alzheimer's

Explanation: Malaria is a vector-borne infectious disease caused by Plasmodium parasites. The parasites are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. Malaria is a major public health problem in many parts of the world, particularly in Africa, Asia, and South America. Plasmodium parasites are protozoa; hence, Malaria is a protozoal infection

Why the other options are wrong

A. Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency
B. Goiter is caused by iron deficiency
D. Beri-beri is a vitamin B1 deficiency disease that causes neurological and cardiovascular problems
E. Alzheimer's is a non-pathogenic, inherited disorder

Q27. Which of the following is true about amoeba ?

A. They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia✓
B. They have rigid cell wall
C. They are multicellular organisms
D. They are autotrophic

Explanation: Amoeba is a unicellular, heterotrophic organism without a rigid cell wall. It moves and captures food by extending pseudopodia (false feet).

Why the other options are wrong

B. This statement is incorrect. Amoebas have a flexible cell membrane, not a rigid cell wall, allowing for their unique movement.
C. This statement is incorrect. Amoebas are unicellular organisms, consisting of a single cell that performs all necessary life functions.
D. This statement is incorrect. Amoebas are primarily heterotrophic, feeding on other organisms or organic matter rather than producing their own food.

Q28. In recombinant DNA technology, the copies of recombinant DNA are increased by:

A. Restriction enzyme
B. Ligase
C. Selection of host with rDNA
D. Multiplication of host with rDNA✓

Explanation: The copies of recombinatn DNA can be increased by allowing the DNA to replication with host DNA.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Restriction enzymes are enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences, but they don't increase the copies of recombinant DNA. Instead, they are used in the process of creating recombinant DNA.
B. Ligases are enzymes that join two pieces of DNA together, but they don't increase the copies of recombinant DNA either. They are also used in the process of creating recombinant DNA.
C. The selection of a host with rDNA does not increase the copies of rDNA. The host is chosen for its ability to maintain and express the recombinant DNA, but the actual increase in the number of copies of rDNA occurs through the multiplication of the host cells containing the recombinant DNA.

Q29. Which of the following conditions is due to a nutritional deficiency?

A. Hepatitis
B. Cholera
C. Malaria
D. Beriberi✓
E. Alzheimer's Disease

Explanation: Beriberi is, nutritional disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamin (vitamin B1) and characterized by impairment of the nerves and heart. General symptoms include loss of appetite and overall lassitude, digestive irregularities, and a feeling of numbness and weakness in the limbs and extremities. All other diseases mentioned do not apply.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver due to a viral infection, toxic agents, or drugs.
B. Cholera is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the toxigenic bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
C. Malaria is a serious and sometimes fatal disease caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito that feeds on humans.
E. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurological disorder that primarily affects memory, thinking, and behavior.

Q30. Which of the following basic structural level of proteins is indicated by an association of two alpha and two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule?

A. Quaternary Structure✓
B. Primary Structure
C. Secondary Structure
D. Tertiary Structure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The quaternary structure of a protein refers to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) within a protein complex.In the case of hemoglobin, it consists of four subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains. These subunits interact to form the final, functional structure of the hemoglobin molecule.

Why the other options are wrong

B. This is incorrect. Primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
C. This is incorrect. Secondary structure refers to the local folding of the polypeptide chain into structures such as alpha helices and beta sheets.
D. This is incorrect. Tertiary structure refers to the three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain, including its folding and interactions between different amino acids.

Q31. The branch of science dealing with the classification of life forms is called:

A. Genetics
B. Taxonomy✓
C. Archeology
D. Paleontology
E. Biochemistry

Explanation: Taxonomy is the practice and science of the classification of things or concepts, including the principles that underlie such classification. Taxonomy has developed to be a synonym for classification.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Genetics is the study of humidity, specifically the variation, transmission, and expression of genes that govern biological traits.
C. Archaeology is the study of human history and prehistory through the excavation and analysis of artifacts, structures, and other physical remains.
D. Paleontology is the study of the history of life on Earth based on fossils.
E. Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances within living organisms.

Q32. The system responsible for fighting the pathogens is:

A. Muscular System
B. Endocrine System
C. Nervous System
D. Immune System✓

Explanation: The immune system defends against infections using innate (nonspecific) and adaptive (specific) mechanisms.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The muscular system is responsible for movement and locomotion in the body. While it plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, it is not directly involved in fighting pathogens or infections.
B. The endocrine system consists of various glands that produce hormones and regulate bodily functions. While hormones can influence immune responses, the endocrine system itself is not primarily responsible for directly fighting pathogens.
C. The nervous system is responsible for transmitting signals and coordinating communication between different parts of the body. It controls voluntary and involuntary actions but does not directly participate in fighting pathogens.

Q33. Which one of the following organelles is required for aerobic respiration?

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion✓
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. Plastids
E. Cytoskeleton

Explanation: The correct answer is the mitochondrion, as it is the site where aerobic respiration takes place, producing ATP through the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain. Other organelles like the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, plastids, and cytoskeleton play vital roles in the cell but are not directly involved in the energy production processes of aerobic respiration.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The nucleus acts as the control center of the cell, housing genetic material and regulating cellular activities. While essential for cell function, it is not involved in the processes of aerobic respiration.
C. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein and lipid synthesis. It plays no direct role in aerobic respiration, which is focused on energy production.
D. Plastids, such as chloroplasts, are involved in photosynthesis and other functions in plant cells. They do not participate in aerobic respiration, which is an energy-generating process occurring in mitochondria.
E. The cytoskeleton provides structural support and aids in cellular movement, but it does not participate in the chemical processes of aerobic respiration.

Q34. Mark the one Kingdom having the most conspicuous living organisms?

A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Animalia✓
D. Plantae

Explanation: Kingdom Animalia has the most conspicous subsets of organims because theoretically they have evolved the most and are the most advanced version of evolved species.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Monera includes single-celled organisms like bacteria and archaea, which are small and often not easily noticeable.
B. Protista includes single-celled organisms like algae and amoeba, which can be larger than bacteria but still not as easily noticeable as multicellular organisms.
D. Plants are not conspicuous as animals because they don't move and their visibility is often limited.

Q35. Which of the following phyla of Kingdom Animalia do humans belong to?

A. Mollusca
B. Arthropoda
C. Echinodermata
D. Chordata✓

Explanation: Humans belong in the phylum Chordata because of the fact that humans do possess notochord during their development.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Humans don't belong to the phylum Mollusca because they lack the characteristics of mollusks, such as a sort body, a mantle, and a muscular foot, and instead possess a bony skeleton, distinct head and limbs, and a spinal cord.
B. Humans also don't belongs to the phylum Arthropoda because they lack the exoskeleton and other defining characteristics of arthropods, such as multiple jointed legs and a segmented body.
C. Humans don't belong to the phylum Echinodermata because they lack radial symmetry, a unique water vascular system, and other defining characteristics of echinoderms.

Q36. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway at:

A. PS I
B. PS II
C. Light reaction
D. Dark reaction✓

Explanation: The dark reaction, also known as the Calvin Cycle, is the second stage of photosynthesis and takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts. During this phase, carbon dioxide is utilized to synthesize glucose and other carbohydrates.

Why the other options are wrong

A. PSI stands for Photosystem I, which is one of the two major protein complexes involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. PS1 is responsible for capturing light energy and passing electrons to the electron transport chain. However, carbon dioxide does not join the photosynthetic pathway directly at PSI.
B. PSII stands for Photosystem II, which is the other major protein complex involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. PSII is responsible for capturing light energy and initiating the electron transport chain by extracting electrons from water molecules. Carbon dioxide does not join the photosynthetic pathway directly at PSII.
C. The light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts. These reactions involve the absorption of light energy, which is used to generate energy-rich molecules like ATP and NADPH. While carbon dioxide is indirectly involved in the process by providing the raw material for the synthesis of glucose during the dark reactions (Calvin cycle), it does not directly join the photosynthetic pathway during the light reactions.

Q37. The enzyme found in saliva responsible for the digestion of carbohydrates is:

A. Lysozyme
B. Amylase✓
C. Pepsin
D. Trypsinogen
E. Lipase

Explanation: The enzyme found in saliva responsible for the digestion of carbohydrates is amylase. Amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates, such as starches, into simpler sugars like maltose and glucose. Salivary amylase is produced by the salivary glands and is an important component of the initial stages of the digestive process, helping to initiate the breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth before food travels to the stomach and further along the digestive tract.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Lysozyme is an enzyme that plays a role in the immune system by acting as an antimicrobial agent. Lysozyme is found in various bodily fluids, including saliva, tears, and mucus. It functions by breaking down the cell walls of certain bacteria, thereby helping to protect the body from infections.
C. Pepsin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins. It is produced in the stomach, where it helps break down large protein molecules into smaller peptides. Pepsin works in an acidic environment, which is provided by the gastric acid in the stomach.
D. Trypsinogen is also an inactive precursor enzyme, similar to pepsinogen, but it is involved in the digestion of proteins in the small intestine. Trypsinogen is secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, and it is activated to trypsin, an active enzyme, during the digestive process.
E. Lipase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the digestion of fats (lipids) in the digestive system. Lipases break down complex fats into simpler fatty acids and glycerol, which can then be absorbed by the body.

Q38. Which of the following is not a viral disease?

A. AIDS
B. Malaria✓
C. Influenza
D. Chickenpox

Explanation: Malaria is not a viral disease and is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium. All other options are viral infections that include AIDS caused by the HIV virus, influenza caused by the influenza virus, chickenpox caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), and rabies caused by the rabies lyssavirus.

Why the other options are wrong

A. AIDS is a viral illness that develops when a person is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus, or HIV. This virus weakens the immune system over time, making the body more vulnerable to infections and certain cancers.
C. Influenza is a viral infection, and it’s caused by the influenza virus, which mainly affects the respiratory tract.
D. Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It typically leads to an itchy, blister-like rash along with fever and fatigue.

Q39. The process by which one molecule of Glucose splits up into molecules of Pyruvate is called:

A. Glycolysis✓
B. Oxidative Phospholyration
C. Electron Transport Chain
D. Kreb's Cycle
E. Calvin Cycle

Explanation: The process by which one molecule of glucose splits up into molecules of pyruvate is called glycolysis. Glycolysis is the first stage of cellular respiration, which occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. During glycolysis, a molecule of glucose, a six-carbon sugar, is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate, each containing three carbon atoms.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The synthesis of ATP in the presence of oxygen is called oxidative phosphorylation.
C. In the Krebs cycle NADH and H+ are produced from NAD+. NADH and H+ transfer the hydrogen atoms to the respiratory chain also called the electron transport chain. Here, electrons are transported in a series of oxidation-reduction steps to react, ultimately, with oxygen.
D. A cyclic series of chemical reactions in which Acetyl CoA is oxidized to CO2 and ATP is generated is called the Krebs cycle. This cycle is also known as the citric acid cycle.
E. The cyclic series of reactions, catalyzed by enzymes, by which the carbon is fixed and reduced, resulting in the synthesis of sugar during the dark reactions of photosynthesis is called the Calvin cycle.

Q40. If in a circuit, 2 Ampere current is drawn from the battery in 10 minutes. How much charge will flow through the circuit in this time?

A. 1200 Coulombs✓
B. 600 Coulombs
C. 500 Coulombs
D. 20 Coulombs

Explanation: DATA: Current I = 2 amp Time T = 10 minutes = 600 secCharge Q = ??SOLUTION : I= Q/TQ = ITQ = 600×2 Q = 1200 coloumb ans

Why the other options are wrong

B. DATA: Current I = 2 amp Time T = 10 minutes = 600 secCharge Q = ??SOLUTION : I= Q/TQ = ITQ = 600×2 Q = 1200 coloumb ans According to formula calculation 600 coulombs is not correct answer.
C. DATA: Current I = 2 amp Time T = 10 minutes = 600 secCharge Q = ??SOLUTION : I= Q/TQ = ITQ = 600×2 Q = 1200 coloumb ansAccording to formula calculation 500 coulombs is not correct answer.
D. DATA: Current I = 2 amp Time T = 10 minutes = 600 secCharge Q = ??SOLUTION : I= Q/TQ = ITQ = 600×2 Q = 1200 coloumb ans According to formula calculation 20 coulombs is not correct answer.

Q41. If a car collides with a housefly, what will be the magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly?

A. Much greater than the force experienced by the car
B. Much lesser than than the force experienced by the car
C. Same as the force experienced by the car✓
D. 10 times less than the force experienced by the car

Explanation: Yes, the same amount of force is imparted on each of them at the moment of the collision. However, one is affected much more than the other.Instead of thinking in terms of accelerating cars and flies, assume each has a constant velocity. At the moment of impact, each of them undergoes an acceleration (in the negative direction, so we usually call it deceleration) proportional to the force F of the impact. F is the same for both objects.Now, according to Newton's third law, at the moment of impact, the force that the car imparts on the fly is exactly equal to the force that the fly imparts on the car. Also, according to Newton's second law, the force is equal to mass times acceleration. As such, the train hits the fly with a massive amount of force, equal to the acceleration times the mass of the train.Results:The magnitude of force experienced by the housefly is the same as that experienced by the car neither less nor more because Newton's 3rd law is applicable here.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option does not align with Newton's third law. According to the law, the force experienced by the housefly will be equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the force experienced by the car, making them equal.
B. This option also contradicts Newton's third law. The forces experienced by the car and the housefly will be equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.
D. This option does not comply with Newton's third law. The forces experienced by the car and the housefly will be equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, regardless of any specific numerical factor.

Q42. In the photoelectric effect, a photon of energy hv is incident on the metal surface. The energy required to eject the valence electron from the surface of the metal is expressed as:

A. Wave nature of the light
B. Compton scattering
C. Melting point of the metal
D. Work function of the metal✓

Explanation: The answer to the question will be option d, which is the work function of the metal. Now the definition of the work function of the metal can be given by that it is the minimum amount of energy per photon that is needed to eject an electron, or we can see valence electron from the surface of the metal. ○Photon is incident on the metal surface, the energy of photon breaks the electron-nucleus interaction and thus an electron is emitted from the metal surface. Since some energy is required to break that interaction to emit the electron, the photoelectric effect takes place from the metal surface only if the energy of the photon is greater than the work function of that metal.Work function:- the minimum energy required to bring out free electrons from the metal surface is called the work function of that metal. It depends only on the nature of the metal.it is measured in electron volts (e.v.).Final answer;Hence that amount of energy is called a work function.Here, the Compton effect, also called Compton scattering, increases in wavelength of X-rays and other energetic electromagnetic radiations that have been elastically scattered by electrons so this option is incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The wave nature of light refers to the fact that light exhibits properties of a wave, such as wavelength and frequency. In the photoelectric effect, the wave nature of light helps determine the energy of a photon incident on the metal surface. The energy of a photon is related to its frequency (v) by the equation E = hv, where E is the energy and h is Planck's constant. However, the energy required to eject the valence electron from the metal surface is not directly related to the wave nature of light. Therefore, the option (a) is not correct
B. Compton scattering refers to the phenomenon where photons interact with electrons and transfer some of their energy to the electrons, resulting in a change in the wavelength of the scattered photon. While Compton scattering is a significant phenomenon in understanding the particle-like behavior of light, it is not directly related to the energy required to eject valence electrons from a metal surface in the photoelectric effect. Therefore, option (b) is not correct.
C. The melting point of a metal refers to the temperature at which it transitions from a solid to a liquid state. The melting point of a metal is unrelated to the energy required to eject valence electrons from the metal surface in the photoelectric effect. Therefore, option (c) is not correct.

Q43. Bimetallic thermostat is an example of:

A. Electric field
B. Thermal expansion✓
C. Heat engine
D. Isobaric process

Explanation: Bimetal Thermostats use two different kinds of metal to regulate the temperature setting. When one of the metals expands more quickly than the other, it creates a round arc, like a rainbow. As the temperature changes, the metals continue to react differently, operating the thermostat. ○ The basic working principle of a thermometer is thermal expansion. When the thermometric matter gets the heat energy then it expands and this expansion shows the increased temperature reading on the calibrated scale.○ A heat engine is a system that converts heat to mechanical energy, which can then be used to do mechanical work. ○ Isobaric Process is a thermodynamic process that takes place at constant pressure.○ Electric field is defined as the electric force per unit charge.So, options A, C, and D are wrong .

Why the other options are wrong

A. An electric field is a region surrounding charged particles where they exert electrical forces on other charged particles. It is not directly related to the bimetallic thermostat. A bimetallic thermostat functions based on temperature-induced mechanical expansion, rather than the presence of an electric field. Therefore, option (a) is not correct in this context.
C. A heat engine is a device that converts thermal energy into mechanical work. While bimetallic thermostats involve the transfer of heat, they do not convert heat energy into mechanical work like a heat engine. Instead, they utilize the principle of thermal expansion for their operation. Therefore, option (c) is not correct.
D. An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process that occurs at a constant pressure. In the context of a bimetallic thermostat, the pressure is not the defining factor. Instead, the temperature-induced mechanical expansion of the bimetal strip is the essential principle at work. Thus, option (d) is not correct.

Q44. If a dielectric material is placed between two plates of a capacitor, the net capacitance of the capacitor:

A. Decreases
B. Increases✓
C. Remains constant
D. Zero

Explanation: ○The strength of the electric field is reduced due to the presence of dielectric. If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates. In this way, dielectric increases the capacitance of the capacitor.So, option A,C,D is wrong .

Why the other options are wrong

A. When a dielectric material is placed between two plates of a capacitor, the presence of the dielectric reduces the electric field between the plates. This is because the polarized molecules in the dielectric material align themselves with the electric field, weakening it. As a result, the capacitance of the capacitor increases. Therefore, option (a) is not correct.
C. If a dielectric material is placed between the plates of a capacitor and the separation distance between the plates remains the same, the capacitance will increase due to the dielectric constant of the material. Therefore, the net capacitance of the capacitor does not remain constant. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
D. If the dielectric material completely fills the space between the plates of a capacitor, the electric field between the plates is essentially eliminated. In this case, the capacitance of the capacitor becomes zero because there is no potential difference between the plates. However, in most practical scenarios, the dielectric material is not in direct contact with the plates but is inserted between them. Therefore, the option (d) is not correct

Q45. In free states, the mass of the nucleus is always:

A. Greater than the mass of its constituents
B. Equal to the mass of its constituents
C. Less than the mass of its constituents✓
D. Far greater than the mass of its constituents

Explanation: The correct answer is that the mass of the nucleus is less than the mass of its constituents. This is due to the mass defect, where some mass is converted into binding energy. Binding energy is crucial as it holds the nucleus together. The other options are incorrect because they do not account for the mass defect and the role of binding energy in nuclear physics.

Why the other options are wrong

A. According to nuclear physics, when a nucleus is formed, there can be a release of energy due to the conversion of mass into binding energy. This is governed by Einstein's famous equation E=mc^2, where E represents energy, m represents mass, and c represents the speed of light. The mass of the nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of its individual constituents (protons and neutrons). Therefore, the mass of the nucleus is not greater than the mass of its constituents. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
B. According to the principles of mass defect and binding energy, the mass of the nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of its individual constituents. This is because some mass is converted into binding energy during the formation of the nucleus. The mass defect is the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the sum of the masses of its constituents. However, for practical purposes, the difference in mass is extremely small and often not considered significant. Therefore, the mass of the nucleus is considered to be unequal to the mass of its constituents. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
D. The mass of the nucleus is not far greater than the mass of its constituents. In fact, the mass of the nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of its individual constituents. This is due to the conversion of mass into binding energy. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q46. A solar day is the time interval between two successive appearances of the sun overhead. The time that is referred to the rotation of the earth about its axis is called:

A. Universal Time✓
B. Length of the day
C. Time interval
D. Solar day

Explanation: A solar day is time lnterval between two successlve appearance of the sun overhead. Thus mean second, representing the basic unit of time, was originally defned as (1/60) (1/60) (1/24) of a mean solar day. The tme that is referred to rotation of the earth about its axis is called universal time. STB-Chapter#1.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The length of the day refers to the time it takes for the Earth to complete one full rotation about its axis. It is the specific time interval associated with the rotation of the Earth. The length of the day is commonly defined as 24 hours, which corresponds to the time it takes for the Sun to appear overhead twice (from noon to noon). Therefore, option (b) is not the most accurate term for the time interval related to the rotation of the Earth about its axis
C. The term "time interval" is a general term referring to a specific duration or duration between two events. While the concept of a time interval can be applied to various contexts, it is not specifically used to describe the time interval related to the rotation of the Earth about its axis. Therefore, option (c) is not the most accurate term for this context
D. A solar day is time lnterval between two successlve appearance of the sun overhead. Thus mean second, representing the basic unit of time, was originally defned as (1/60) (1/60) (1/24) of a mean solar day. The tme that is referred to rotation of the earth about its axis is called universal time.

Q47. If sunlight is incident on the photocell, the number of electrons emitted from the surface of the cell increases with the:

A. Increase of light frequency
B. Increase of light intensity✓
C. Decrease of light frequency
D. Decrease of light intensity

Explanation: As the frequency increases beyond the threshold, the ejected electrons simply move faster. An increase in the intensity of incoming light that is above the threshold frequency causes the number of electrons that are ejected to increase, but they do not travel any faster.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Increase of light frequency: frequency of light is related to the energy of photon and if the frequency of photon increase then the energy with thich photon emits is increase and not number of electrons .
C. Decrease of light frequency :With decrease in frequency of light the energy with which photon eject decrease but it dosen't effect the number of electrons ejecting from the photocell.
D. Decrease of light intensity:With the decrease in intensity of light the number of electrons ejecting from surface of photocell decrease .

Q48. In electronic circuits, a PN junction diode is used to convert alternating current into direct current. This process is called:

A. Rectification✓
B. Amplification
C. Doping
D. Integrated Circuit

Explanation: Rectification is the conversion of alternating current to direct current. Rectification is performed by a diode that allows current to flow in one direction but not in the opposite direction.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Amplification: The process of increasing the volume of sound, especially using an amplifier ORThe process of increasing intensity of sound.
C. Doping: The process of adding impurity into intrinsic(pure) semiconductor to make it extrinsic semiconductor.
D. Integrated Circuit: An integrated circuit (IC), sometimes called a chip, microchip or microelectronic circuit, is a semiconductor wafer on which thousands or millions of tiny resistors, capacitors, diodes and transistors are fabricated.

Q49. The process in which light bends around an obstacle is called:

A. Diffraction of Light✓
B. An interference of light
C. Reflection of light
D. Polarization of light

Explanation: Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge of an object. The amount of bending depends on the relative size of the wavelength of light to the size of the opening.

Why the other options are wrong

B. An interference of light:When two light waves from different coherent sources meet together, then the distribution of energy due to one wave is disturbed by the other. This modification in the distribution of light energy due to the super- position of two light waves is called "Interference of light".
C. Reflection of light :When a ray of light approaches a smooth polished surface and the light ray bounces back, it is called the reflection of light.
D. Polarization of light :When the incident beam is fully linearly or circularly polarized, the scattered light may become partially polarized or even totally unpolarized, and this phenomenon is known as polarization of light.

Q50. A conductor of length L is moved across a magnetic field. Due to this activity, a potential difference appears across the ends of the conductor. This type of potential difference is termed as:

A. Self Induction
B. Mutual Induction
C. Motional EMF✓
D. Electrostatic potential

Explanation: The correct answer is Motional EMF. When a conductor of length L moves across a magnetic field B, a potential difference appears across its ends, which is termed as motional EMF. This is induced by the movement of the conductor through the magnetic field. Self Induction and Mutual Induction involve induction of voltage in coils due to changing currents and proximity to other coils, respectively. Electrostatic potential relates to the work energy needed to move electric charge in an electric field.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Self-Induction: Self inductance is the induction of a voltage in a current-carrying wire when the current in the wire itself is changing. In the case of self-inductance, the magnetic field created by a changing current in the circuit itself induces a voltage in the same circuit. Therefore, the voltage is self-induced
B. Mutual Induction :When two coils are brought in proximity with each other the magnetic field in one of the coils tend to link with the other. This further leads to the generation of voltage in the second coil. This property of a coil which affects or changes the current and voltage in a secondary coil is called mutual inductance.
D. Electrostatic potential : The electric potential (also called the electric field potential, potential drop, the electrostatic potential) is defined as the amount of work energy needed to move a unit of electric charge from a reference point to the specific point in an electric field.

Q51. Let X be a radioactive element having No nuclei. The time required to decay this element to one half of its initial number No is known as:

A. Law of radioactive decay
B. Decay constant
C. Half life✓
D. Decay time

Explanation: Half-life is the time taken for the radioactivity of a specified isotope to fall to half its original value.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Law of radioactive decay: The radioactive decay law states that “The probability per unit time that a nucleus will decay is a constant, independent of time.
B. Decay constant : Decay constant, is the proportionality between the size of a population of radioactive atoms and the rate at which the population decreases because of radioactive decay .It is represented by λ (lambda) and is called decay constant.
D. Decay time; The time required for half of the original population of radioactive atoms to decay is called the half-life.

Q52. When an electron and its anti particle position come close enough to each other, they Completely convert into radiation energy in the form of photons, this process Is called:

A. Annihilation✓
B. Pair production
C. Compton scattering
D. Photoelectric effect

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When an electron and its antiparticle, a positron, come into contact, they undergo a process called annihilation. In this process, the mass of both particles is completely converted into pure energy, which is emitted in the form of photons. This process is a fundamental interaction in particle physics and is essential for understanding the behavior of matter and antimatter.

Why the other options are wrong

B. This is incorrect. Pair production is the opposite process of annihilation. It involves the creation of a particle-antiparticle pair (e.g., an electron-positron pair) from a high-energy photon.
C. This is incorrect. Compton scattering is a process where a photon scatters off an electron, resulting in a decrease in the photon's energy and a change in its direction.
D. This is incorrect. The photoelectric effect is a process where a photon interacts with an atom, causing the emission of an electron.

Q53. There are different types of waves that exist in this universe. Which of the following waves do Not need any material medium to travel?

A. Sound waves
B. Light waves✓
C. Water waves
D. Earthquake waves

Explanation: Light waves are electromagnetic waves that do not require a material medium to travel. They can travel through a vacuum, as demonstrated by sunlight reaching Earth from the Sun.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium (like air, water, or solid) to propagate.
C. Water waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium (water) to propagate.
D. Earthquake waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium (Earth's crust) to propagate.

Q54. A cyclist is moving towards the right with an acceleration of 4m/sec2. At t=0, he has traveled 5m moving towards the right at 15 m/sec. What will be his position at t = 2 seconds?

A. 36
B. 38
C. 41
D. 43✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 43 m. To find the position of the cyclist at t=2 seconds, we use the second equation of motion: x = x₀ + v₀t + ½at². Here, x₀ is the initial position (5 m), v₀ is the initial velocity (15 m/s), a is the acceleration (4 m/s²), and t is the time (2 s).Substituting the values, we get:x = 5 + 15(2) + ½(4)(2²) = 5 + 30 + 8 = 43 m.Option A (36) and Option C (41) do not account for the correct combination of initial position, velocity, and acceleration. Option B (38) is the displacement from initial velocity only, not the final position.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option is incorrect. The calculation of the position does not account for the correct initial position and velocity.
B. This option is incorrect. It represents only the displacement from the initial velocity without adding the initial position.
C. This option is incorrect. The position calculation does not accurately incorporate the acceleration effect over the given time.

Q55. The process of adding controlled impurities to a semiconductor is known as _. The amount of impurity added to an intrinsic (pure) semiconductor varies its level of conductivity.

A. Crystallography
B. Rectification
C. Intrinsic defects
D. Doping✓

Explanation: Doping. The conductivity of semiconductors may easily be modified by introducing impurities into their crystal lattice.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Crystallography :the study of the 3-dimensional structure of crystal is known as crystallography. ORcrystallography, a branch of science that deals with discerning the arrangement and bonding of atoms in crystalline solids and with the geometric structure of crystal lattices.
B. Rectification :The conversion of A.C into D.C with the help of diode is known as rectification. ORrectifier is an electronic device that converts an alternating current into a direct current by using one or more P-N junction diodes.
C. Intrinsic defects : In a solid that contains no chemical impurities, the fundamental intrinsic point defects are vacancies, interstitials, and antisites. A “vacancy” (also called a “Schottky defect”) is a missing atom from a normally occupied site, while an “interstitial” is an extra atom in a normally unoccupied site.

Q56. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Pseudomonas putida
C. Thermus aquaticus✓
D. Thiobacillus ferroxidase.

Explanation: Taq polymerase, generally used in PCR, is isolated from thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Bacillus subtilis is a bacterium used in various biotechnological applications, but it is not the source of Taq polymerase.
B. Pseudomonas putida is a different bacterium and is not the source of Taq polymerase used in PCR.
D. Thiobacillus ferroxidase is not associated with Taq polymerase production or PCR. It's a different bacterium with its characteristics.

Q57. In the electromagnetic spectrum of radiation, the wavelength spectrum that is visible to humans lies in the range of:

A. 100-400 nm
B. 400-700 nm✓
C. 700-1000 nm
D. 1000-1500 nm

Explanation: Visible light covers the range of wavelengths from 400 – 750 nm or 0.4 to 0.75 micrometers. This is the only region in the spectrum that human eyes are sensitive to.

Why the other options are wrong

A. 100-400 nm :Ultraviolet rays are the rays which lie in this region of wavelength and the ultraviolet rays are invisible to human eye because U.V region doesn't lie in visible spectrum
C. 700-1000 nm :Infrared rays are the rays which lie in this region of wavelength and the infrared rays are invisible to human eye because I.R region doesn't lie in visible spectrum .
D. 1000-1500 nm :Far Infrared rays are the rays which lie in this region of wavelength and the far infrared rays are invisible to human eye because Far I.R region doesn't lie in visible spectrum.

Q58. Equations of kinetics are valid only when the acceleration is:

A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant✓
D. Vary with time

Explanation: The equations of kinetics can be utilized for any motion that can be described as being either a constant velocity motion (an acceleration of 0 m/s/s) or a constant acceleration motion. They can never be used over any time period during which the acceleration is changing.○Equations of kinetics are only valid in uniform motion or non- accelerating motion or constant acceleration (a=0).

Why the other options are wrong

A. Increasing : If acceleration is increasing then kinetic equations are not walid and for that we have to use the theory of relativity.
B. Decreasing : If acceleration is decreasing then the frame is accelerating fot which kinetic equations are not walid and for that we have to use the theory of relativity .
D. Vary with time :If acceration is varying with time than the acceration is changing which means that the frame accerating and for accelerating frame laws of kinetics are not valid.

Q59. The process of natural decay of some heavy nuclides is because of the phenomenon:

A. Emission Spectra
B. Nuclear fusion
C. Nuclear fission
D. Radioactivity✓

Explanation: Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation in the form of particles or high-energy photons resulting from a nuclear reaction. It is also known as radioactive decay, nuclear decay, nuclear disintegration, or radioactive disintegration. Alpha, beta, and gamma decay are three common radioactivity processes

Why the other options are wrong

A. Emission Spectra : The emission spectrum of a chemical element or chemical compound is the spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an electron making a transition from a high energy state to a lower energy state. The photon energy of the emitted photon is equal to the energy difference between the two states.
B. Nuclear fusion :Nuclear fusion is a reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei are combined to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles. The difference in mass between the reactants and products is manifested as either the release or absorption of energy.
C. Nuclear fission: Nuclear fission is a reaction in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei. The fission process often produces gamma photons, and releases a very large amount of energy even by the energetic standards of radioactive decay.

Q60. If constant temperature conditions are applied to a gas container, then the volume of the mass of that gas tends to increase by:

A. Decreasing the applied pressure✓
B. Increasing the applied pressure
C. Increasing the applied pressure with double force
D. Increasing the weight

Explanation: Boyle's law: states that the volume of a given amount of gas held at constant temperature varies inversely with the applied pressure when the temperature and mass are constant.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Pressure is also affected by the volume of the container. If the volume of a container is decreased, the gas molecules have less space in which to move around. As a result, they will strike the walls of the container more often, and the pressure increases.
C. Pressure and volume are inversely proportional to each other so by increasing the pressure with twice the force volume decrease twice to its original value .
D. There is no relation of weight with the volume of gas in a container , either the weight increase or decrease it doesn't effect volume of gas because weight of gases are negligible .

Q61. The atomic number Z of an atom represents the:

A. Number of protons✓
B. Number of electrons and protons
C. Number of neutrons
D. Sum of protons and neutrons

Explanation: The atomic number Z of an atom represents the number of protons in the nucleus. Atomic number Z is equal to the number of electrons only for neutral atoms whereas for ions the number of electrons will be different from the number of protons. So, Z is the number of protons and our correct option is A.

Why the other options are wrong

B. The atomic number Z of an atom represents the number of protons in the nucleus. Atomic number Z is equal to the number of electrons only for neutral atoms whereas for ions the number of electrons will be different from the number of protons. So, Z is the number of protons and our correct option is A.
C. Z represents the number of protons. Number of neutrons N can be calculated by the formula N= A-Z where A is the mass number of the atom.
D. The sum of protons and neutrons in an atom is known as the mass number (A) of the atom. The mass number represents the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) present in the nucleus of the atom.Mass number (A) = Number of protons (Z) + Number of neutrons (N)

Q62. If a constant current is flowing through a coil, then the flux through that coil will become constant. In such types of arrangements, the electromotive force (emf) induced in the coil will be:

A. Self-Inductance
B. Zero✓
C. Mutual-Inductance
D. Back EMF

Explanation: The emf induced in a circuit is directly proportional to the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit. And if there is no change in flux so the induced emf is zero.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Self-SInductance :The self-induced emf is also called the back emf as it opposes any change in the current in a circuit. Physically, the self-inductance plays the role of inertia. It is the electromagnetic analogue of mass in mechanics
C. Mutual-Inductance :When two coils are brought in proximity with each other the magnetic field in one of the coils tend to link with the other. This further leads to the generation of voltage in the second coil. This property of a coil which affects or changes the current and voltage in a secondary coil is called mutual inductance.
D. Back EMF : When the armature of a d.c. motor rotates under the influence of the driving torque, the armature conductors move through the magnetic field and hence e.m.f. is induced in them as in a generator. The induced e.m.f. acts in opposite direction to the applied voltage V (Lenz's law) and in known as back or counter e.m.f.

Q63. In simple harmonic motion, a particle is oscillating in such a way that its total energy remains conserved. When this particle reaches its two extreme positions, its potential energy at the extreme positions become:

A. Minimum
B. Maximum✓
C. Zero
D. Greater than its kinetic energy

Explanation: In SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and zero at the extreme positions while potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at the extreme positions. In SHM when a particle reach its extreme position so at that point its velocity become zero and all the energy it has is just potential energy because if we drop the particle from extreme position so it come back to its originsl position without any externsl force by using its stored potential energy and these extreme positions are the positions where the particle have maximum potential energy. Result: So at extreme postions potential enegy is maximum and at starting point it is minimum.

Why the other options are wrong

A. In SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and zero at the extreme positions while potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at the extreme positions.In SHM when a particle reach its extreme position so at that point its velocity become zero and all the energy it has is just potential energy because if we drop the particle from extreme position so it come back to its originsl position without any externsl force by using its stored potential energy and these extreme positions are the positions where the particle have maximum potential energy.Result:So at extreme postions potential enegy is maximum and at starting point it is minimum.
C. In SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and zero at the extreme positions while potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at the extreme positions.In SHM when a particle reach its extreme position so at that point its velocity become zero and all the energy it has is just potential energy because if we drop the particle from extreme position so it come back to its originsl position without any externsl force by using its stored potential energy and these extreme positions are the positions where the particle have maximum potential energy.Result:So at extreme postions potential enegy is maximum and at starting point it is minimum.
D. In SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and zero at the extreme positions while potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at the extreme positions.In SHM when a particle reach its extreme position so at that point its velocity become zero and all the energy it has is just potential energy because if we drop the particle from extreme position so it come back to its originsl position without any externsl force by using its stored potential energy and these extreme positions are the positions where the particle have maximum potential energy.Result:So at extreme postions potential enegy is maximum and at starting point it is minimum.

Q64. If we increase the cross-section area of a conductor having a length L, the resistance R of that conductor will be:

A. Zero
B. Constant
C. Increasing
D. Decreasing✓

Explanation: The resistance of a conductor decreases with increase in cross-sectional area. ○If we increase the area of cross section of conductor then More electrons results in more charge crossing the cross section, thus more current. Thus if you increase the area of cross section then resistance of the wire (keeping length and resistivity same) will decrease. Resistance R = ρ L/A Result: From the above discussion and the formula of resistance that with increase in area of cross section resistance decrease and vice versa.

Why the other options are wrong

A. If you increase the cross-sectional area (A) of a conductor while keeping its length (L) constant, the resistance (R) of that conductor will decrease as resistance is inversely propotional to area. it's evident that increasing the cross-sectional area (A) in the denominator will result in a decrease in resistance (R). This is why thicker conductors with larger cross-sectional areas generally have lower resistance compared to thinner conductors of the same material and length.
B. If you increase the cross-sectional area (A) of a conductor while keeping its length (L) constant, the resistance (R) of that conductor will decrease as resistance is inversely propotional to area. it's evident that increasing the cross-sectional area (A) in the denominator will result in a decrease in resistance (R). This is why thicker conductors with larger cross-sectional areas generally have lower resistance compared to thinner conductors of the same material and length.
C. If you increase the cross-sectional area (A) of a conductor while keeping its length (L) constant, the resistance (R) of that conductor will decrease as resistance is inversely propotional to area. it's evident that increasing the cross-sectional area (A) in the denominator will result in a decrease in resistance (R). This is why thicker conductors with larger cross-sectional areas generally have lower resistance compared to thinner conductors of the same material and length.

Q65. The efficiency of the Carnot engine working between temperatures 177°C and 77°C will be:

A. 22.22%✓
B. 23.23%
C. 25.25%
D. 30.30%

Explanation: The efficiency of the Carnot engine working between 177°C and 77°C will be 22.22%.Right answer is A.Explanation:T1=177°C + 273=450 KT2=77°C + 273=350 KE=(1-T2/T1) x100E=(1-350/450)x100E={(450-350)/450) x100E=(100/450)x100E=0.2222×100E=22.22%

Why the other options are wrong

B. This option suggests that the efficiency of Carnot's engine is 23.23%. However, calculations give the value of efficiency as 22.22% so this option is incorrect.
C. This option suggests that the efficiency of Carnot's engine is 25.25%. However, calculations give the value of efficiency as 22.22% so this option is incorrect.
D. This option suggests that the efficiency of Carnot's engine is 30.30%. However, calculations give the value of efficiency as 22.22% so this option is incorrect.

Q66. Which process is shown in the graph between pressure and volume given below?

A. Adiabatic
B. Isobaric
C. Isochoric✓
D. Isothermal

Explanation: The graph above shows that pressure is increasing while the volume remains constant.The processes in which the volume is constant are said to be isochoric in nature.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Adiabatic :In adiabatic process the change in heat is zero (0) means no heat is given in or out of system so the work is done by internal energy and the graph of adiabatic process between pressure and volume is exponential curve.
B. Isobaric : In isobaric process the pressure remain same and volume increase with rise in temperature and the graph of isobaric between pressure and volume is straight line parellel to volume axis .
D. Isothermal : In isothermal process the tenperature remain same and the volume increases or decrease with rise or fall in pressure and the graph of isothermall between pressure and volume is hyperbola

Q67. Which of the following phenomenon represents the wave nature of light?

A. Photoelectric effect
B. Compton scattering
C. Interference of light✓
D. Pair production

Explanation: Light can undergo interference. Interference is a phenomenon in which two waves of the same frequency superimpose giving a resultant intensity different from some of their separate intensity. So, it cannot exhibit the particle's nature of light and thus represents the wave nature of light.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Photoelectric effect :Photoelectric effect is the effect which occur due to photons and photons are particles. So,Photoelectric effectshows the particle nature of light
B. Compton scattering: Compton effect is the emmission of photon of X-ray when an electron strike on metal surface which again shows the particle nature of light .
D. Pair production: pair production is the production of a particle-antiparticle pair from the decay of a neutral particle which also shows the particle nature of light because this phenomena occur when a photon of light strike on the nuclei of atom .

Q68. The law of heat exchange is used to determine:

A. Coefficient of linear expansion
B. Coefficient of volume expansion
C. Ideal gas constant
D. Specific heat of a substance✓

Explanation: The law of heat exchange is used to determine the specific heat because heat gain and loss by the body per unit kelvin is related to both the law of heat exchange and the specific heat of a substance.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Coefficient of linear expansion: The coefficient of linear expansion can be determined by the amount of heat a material absorbs to change its unit length and it has no relation with the law of heat exchange.
B. Coefficient of volume expansion: Coefficient of volume expansion can be determine by the amount of heat a material absorb to change its unit volume and it has no relation with law of heat exchange
C. Ideal gas constant: R is the ideal gas constant and its value 8.314 J/mol.K and it value is constant and has no relation with law of heat exchange because it is a constant of proportionality

Q69. During radioactive decay of a nucleus zXA, β emission takes place along with the daughter nucleus. Because of this beta particle emission, the mass number (A) of the parent nucleus:

A. Remains constant✓
B. Decreases by 1
C. Increases by 1
D. Decreases by 2

Explanation: On emitting a β particle the number of nucleons in the nucleus (i.e. protons and neutrons) remains same, but the number of neutrons is decreased by one and the number of protons is increased by one.If a radioactive nucleus P with mass number A and atomic number Z emits a beta particle to form a daughter nucleus Q with mass number A and atomic number Z+1.(a) Atomic number Z is not conserved. It is increased by 1.(b) Mass number A is conserved.Result: So, from the above discussion it is clear thwt mass number (A) remains constant after the beta decay and not increased or decreased .

Why the other options are wrong

B. On emitting a β particle the number of nucleons in the nucleus (i.e. protons and neutrons) remains same, but the number of neutrons is decreased by one and the number of protons is increased by one.If a radioactive nucleus P with mass number A and atomic number Z emits a beta particle to form a daughter nucleus Q with mass number A and atomic number Z+1.(a) Atomic number Z is not conserved. It is increased by 1.(b) Mass number A is conserved.Result: So, from the above discussion it is clear thwt mass number (A) remains constant after the beta decay and not increased or decreased .
C. On emitting a β particle the number of nucleons in the nucleus (i.e. protons and neutrons) remains same, but the number of neutrons is decreased by one and the number of protons is increased by one.If a radioactive nucleus P with mass number A and atomic number Z emits a beta particle to form a daughter nucleus Q with mass number A and atomic number Z+1.(a) Atomic number Z is not conserved. It is increased by 1.(b) Mass number A is conserved.Result: So, from the above discussion it is clear thwt mass number (A) remains constant after the beta decay and not increased or decreased .
D. On emitting a β particle the number of nucleons in the nucleus (i.e. protons and neutrons) remains same, but the number of neutrons is decreased by one and the number of protons is increased by one.If a radioactive nucleus P with mass number A and atomic number Z emits a beta particle to form a daughter nucleus Q with mass number A and atomic number Z+1.(a) Atomic number Z is not conserved. It is increased by 1.(b) Mass number A is conserved.Result: So, from the above discussion it is clear thwt mass number (A) remains constant after the beta decay and not increased or decreased .

Q70. In which of the following nitrogen compounds, does N has the highest oxidation state?

A. NH2OH
B. N2H4
C. HNO3✓
D. NH3

Explanation: HNO3 has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen atom:+1+x+(-6)=0x=+5In NH3, N2H4, and NH2OH, the oxidation states, when calculated the same way, are 3-, 2+, and 1+ respectively.

Why the other options are wrong

A. N=-1
B. The oxidation number of N in N2H4 is -2.The total charge of the molecule is zero since it is neutral. Each hydrogen atom has an oxidation number of +1 so the four H atoms contribute a total charge of +4. Hence, the oxidation number of the two N atoms must be -2 for the total charge to be zero.
D. X+3(+1)=0X+3=0X=-3Therefore oxidation state of N in NH3 is -3

Q71. Real gases behave ideally at:

A. Low temperature and low pressure
B. Moderate temperature and low pressure
C. High temperature and low pressure✓
D. High temperature and high pressure

Explanation: Generally gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperature and low pressure, as P.E due to intermolecular forces become less significant compared with particle kinetic energy. Real gas behaves like an ideal gas at high temperatures and low pressure.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Generally gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperature and low pressure.
B. Generally gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperature and low pressure.
D. Generally gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperature and low pressure.

Q72. The question attached below belongs to the topic of phenols:

A. Resorcinol
B. Aspirin
C. Picric acid✓
D. Mesitol

Explanation: The structure shown above is of Picric acid.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The shown image shows Picric Acid so this option is not correct
B. The shown image shows Picric Acid so this option is not correct
D. The shown image shows Picric Acid so this option is not correct

Q73. Which alkyl halide has the lowest reactivity for a particular alkyl group?

A. R-F✓
B. R-Cl
C. R-Br
D. R-I

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Alkyl halides are compounds in which a halogen atom (F, Cl, Br, or I) is bonded to a carbon atom. The reactivity of alkyl halides generally increases in the order R-F < R-Cl < R-Br < R-I. This trend is due to the decreasing bond strength between the carbon atom and the halogen atom as the size of the halogen increases.

Why the other options are wrong

B. This is incorrect. R-Cl is more reactive than R-F.
C. This is incorrect. R-Cl is more reactive than R-F.
D. This is incorrect. R-I is the most reactive alkyl halide among the given options.

Q74. Which one of the following vitamins Is required for normal growth, vision, and keeping the skin healthy?

A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A✓
D. Vitamin K

Explanation: Vitamin A. Both the upper and lower layers of skin need vitamin A. It seems to prevent sun damage by interrupting the process that breaks down collagen. Since it's an antioxidant, it may give your skin some protection against sunburn (although not as much as wearing sunscreen).Vitamin A seems to help the growing tissues in a baby in the womb. It also helps the placenta form during pregnancy. Vitamin A is an important factor in growth throughout life. Vitamin A helps grow and maintain epithelial tissues.A group of antioxidants, vitamin A not only is beneficial to a healthy functioning ocular surface but also is required for the formation of the photoreceptor rhodopsin. This photopigment found in rod cells of the retina is especially helpful in allowing our eyes to see at night.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option is incorrect Vitamin A. Both the upper and lower layers of skin need vitamin A. It seems to prevent sun damage by interrupting the process that breaks down collagen. Since it's an antioxidant, it may give your skin some protection against sunburn (although not as much as wearing sunscreen).Vitamin A seems to help the growing tissues in a baby in the womb. It also helps the placenta form during pregnancy. Vitamin A is an important factor in growth throughout life. Vitamin A helps grow and maintain epithelial tissues.A group of antioxidants, vitamin A not only is beneficial to a healthy functioning ocular surface but also is required for the formation of the photoreceptor rhodopsin. This photopigment found in rod cells of the retina is especially helpful in allowing our eyes to see at night.
B. This option is incorrect Vitamin A. Both the upper and lower layers of skin need vitamin A. It seems to prevent sun damage by interrupting the process that breaks down collagen. Since it's an antioxidant, it may give your skin some protection against sunburn (although not as much as wearing sunscreen).Vitamin A seems to help the growing tissues in a baby in the womb. It also helps the placenta form during pregnancy. Vitamin A is an important factor in growth throughout life. Vitamin A helps grow and maintain epithelial tissues.A group of antioxidants, vitamin A not only is beneficial to a healthy functioning ocular surface but also is required for the formation of the photoreceptor rhodopsin. This photopigment found in rod cells of the retina is especially helpful in allowing our eyes to see at night.
D. This option is incorrectVitamin A. Both the upper and lower layers of skin need vitamin A. It seems to prevent sun damage by interrupting the process that breaks down collagen. Since it's an antioxidant, it may give your skin some protection against sunburn (although not as much as wearing sunscreen).Vitamin A seems to help the growing tissues in a baby in the womb. It also helps the placenta form during pregnancy. Vitamin A is an important factor in growth throughout life. Vitamin A helps grow and maintain epithelial tissues.A group of antioxidants, vitamin A not only is beneficial to a healthy functioning ocular surface but also is required for the formation of the photoreceptor rhodopsin. This photopigment found in rod cells of the retina is especially helpful in allowing our eyes to see at night.

Q75. Which one of the following is the pure carbon compound and used as a reducing agent in industries?

A. Coal tar
B. Petroleum
C. Coal gas
D. Coke✓

Explanation: Coke is almost pure carbon obtained from destructive distillation of coal Because of its high carbon content, it is widely used as a reducing agent in metallurgical industries. Coal tar, petroleum, and coal gas are mixtures, not pure carbon.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Incorrect. Coal tar is a complex mixture of hydrocarbons, derived from the carbonization of organic materials. It contains various organic compounds and is primarily used in the production of dyes, medicines, and in road construction, but it does not serve as a reducing agent in industrial processes.
B. Incorrect. Petroleum is a viscous liquid composed of a complex mixture of hydrocarbons with varying boiling points. It is mainly utilized as fuel and in the chemical industry but does not qualify as a pure carbon compound.
C. Incorrect. Coal gas is a gaseous mixture containing methane, hydrogen, and carbon monoxide. It is primarily used as a fuel but lacks the characteristics of a solid carbon form and does not function as a reducing agent.

Q76. The alloy Duralumin is composed of _ of Al.

A. 95%✓
B. 90%
C. 85%
D. 80%

Explanation: Classical Duralumin contains about 95% aluminum, with the rast mainly copper, magnesium, and manganese. The small percentage of alloying metals makes it strong yet lightweight. It is widely used in aircraft and structural applications due to its high strength-to-weight ratio.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Incorrect. While 90% aluminum is a significant amount, Duralumin actually contains about 95% aluminum.
C. Incorrect. 85% aluminum is less than the actual composition of Duralumin, which is around 95% aluminum.
D. Incorrect. Duralumin contains significantly more aluminum than 80%, with its actual composition being about 95% aluminum.

Q77. 106g of Na2CO3 per dm3 of the solution of Na2CO3 in water, the concentration of the solution will be:

A. 2 M
B. 0.1 M
C. 1 M✓
D. 0.02 M

Explanation: Na2CO3 = 23(2)+12+16(3) = 46+12+48 = 106 Concentration = Given mass/molar mass Concentration = 106/106 = 1M.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Na2CO3 = 23(2)+12+16(3) = 46+12+48 = 106Concentration=Given mass/molar massConcentration = 106/106 = 1M.
B. Na2CO3 = 23(2)+12+16(3) = 46+12+48 = 106Concentration=Given mass/molar massConcentration = 106/106 = 1M.
D. Na2CO3 = 23(2)+12+16(3) = 46+12+48 = 106Concentration=Given mass/molar massConcentration = 106/106 = 1M.

Q78. For the first time in 1914, Henry Moseley used X-rays for the determination of:

A. Atomic Number✓
B. Atomic Mass
C. Molecular Mass
D. Equivalent mass

Explanation: In 1914, he observed and measured the X-ray spectra of various chemical elements using diffraction in crystals. Through this, he discovered a systematic relation between wavelength and atomic number. This discovery is now known as Moseley's Law. He found that certain lines in the X-ray spectrum of elements move by the same amount each time when we increase the atomic number by one.

Why the other options are wrong

B. Atomic mass is the mass of an atom, typically measured in atomic mass units (amu). While X-ray spectroscopy can provide valuable information about the electronic structure and atomic properties of elements, it is not primarily used for determining atomic mass. Atomic mass is usually determined through techniques such as mass spectrometry or by analysing the isotopic composition of elements.
C. Molecular mass refers to the mass of a molecule, which is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule. X-ray spectroscopy is not typically used for determining molecular mass. Instead, molecular mass is often calculated based on the atomic masses of the constituent atoms in a molecule.
D. Equivalent mass is a concept primarily used in the context of chemical reactions and stoichiometry, representing the mass of a substance that reacts with or is equivalent to one mole of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in a chemical reaction. X-ray spectroscopy is not directly related to determining equivalent mass. Equivalent mass is typically calculated based on the stoichiometry of a reaction and the molar masses of the substances involved.

Q79. Which of the following properties depends upon the amount of matter present in the system?

A. Density
B. Gibbs free energy✓
C. Pressure
D. Temperature

Explanation: Gibbs free energy is an extensive property that depends upon the amount of substance present in the system. If the matter in a given system at a given condition is divided into two equal parts, the values of the extensive properties will become half of the original values. Other extensive properties include mass, volume, moles, enthalpy, entropy, and internal energy.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Density is an intensive property, meaning it does not depend on the amount of matter present. It is the ratio of mass to volume.
C. Pressure is an intensive property that remains constant regardless of the amount of matter present in the system.
D. Temperature is also an intensive property, meaning it does not change with the amount of matter in the system.

Q80. Zwitter ion is formed when proton goes from:

A. Amino to the carboxyl group
B. Carboxyl to an amino group✓
C. Carboxyl group only
D. Amino group only

Explanation: Zwitter ion is a dipolar ion which is formed on the combination of a carboxyl group and an amino group. As a result, it is mostly formed by an amino acid. The carboxyl group in a zwitter ion carries a negative charge while the amine group carries a positive charge. There is an internal transfer of a hydrogen ion from the -COOH group to the -NH2 group to leave an ion with both a negative charge and a positive charge. This is called a zwitter ion. This is the form that amino acids exist even in the solid state.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This would mean that the amino group (-NH₂) donates a proton, which is incorrect because the amino group accepts a proton in zwitterion formation.
C. This is incorrect as the conversion of carboxyl to an amino group takes place.
D. This is incorrect as the conversion of carboxyl to an amino group takes place.

Q81. For the following exothermic reaction, a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards: 2NO(g) + O2 (g) -> 2NO2 (g)

A. Left
B. The Point of Equilibrium
C. Both Directions
D. Right✓

Explanation: For an exothermic reaction like 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g), a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards the right. This shift helps to increase the temp as heat is released in exothermic reactions, as the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Therefore this option is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. For an exothermic reaction like 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g), a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards the right. This shift helps to increase the temp as heat is released in exothermic reactions, as the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Therefore this option is correct.
B. For an exothermic reaction like 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g), a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards the right. This shift helps to increase the temp as heat is released in exothermic reactions, as the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Therefore this option is correct.
C. For an exothermic reaction like 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g), a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards the right. This shift helps to increase the temp as heat is released in exothermic reactions, as the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Therefore this option is correct.

Q82. How many significant figures are there in 0.4793?

A. 3
B. 4✓
C. 5
D. 6

Explanation: The following is the solution: The number 0.4793 has four significant figures. In the context of significant figures: Non-zero digits are always considered significant. In this case, 4, 7, 9, and 3 are non-zero digits. Zeros between significant digits are also considered significant. There are no zeros between the significant digits in 0.4793. Leading zeros (zeros to the left of the first non-zero digit) are not considered significant. In this case, there are no leading zeros. Trailing zeros (zeros to the right of the last non-zero digit) in a decimal number are considered significant. In 0.4793, the zero after 3 is a trailing zero and is considered significant. Therefore, all four digits in 0.4793 are considered significant, making it a number with four significant figures.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Incorrect as per the formulaThe following is the solution:The number 0.4793 has four significant figures. In the context of significant figures:Non-zero digits are always considered significant. In this case, 4, 7, 9, and 3 are non-zero digits.Zeros between significant digits are also considered significant. There are no zeros between the significant digits in 0.4793.Leading zeros (zeros to the left of the first non-zero digit) are not considered significant. In this case, there are no leading zeros.Trailing zeros (zeros to the right of the last non-zero digit) in a decimal number are considered significant. In 0.4793, the zero after 3 is a trailing zero and is considered significant.Therefore, all four digits in 0.4793 are considered significant, making it a number with four significant figures.
C. Incorrect as per the formula The following is the solution:The number 0.4793 has four significant figures. In the context of significant figures:Non-zero digits are always considered significant. In this case, 4, 7, 9, and 3 are non-zero digits.Zeros between significant digits are also considered significant. There are no zeros between the significant digits in 0.4793.Leading zeros (zeros to the left of the first non-zero digit) are not considered significant. In this case, there are no leading zeros.Trailing zeros (zeros to the right of the last non-zero digit) in a decimal number are considered significant. In 0.4793, the zero after 3 is a trailing zero and is considered significant.Therefore, all four digits in 0.4793 are considered significant, making it a number with four significant figures.
D. Incorrect as per the formulaThe following is the solution:The number 0.4793 has four significant figures. In the context of significant figures:Non-zero digits are always considered significant. In this case, 4, 7, 9, and 3 are non-zero digits.Zeros between significant digits are also considered significant. There are no zeros between the significant digits in 0.4793.Leading zeros (zeros to the left of the first non-zero digit) are not considered significant. In this case, there are no leading zeros.Trailing zeros (zeros to the right of the last non-zero digit) in a decimal number are considered significant. In 0.4793, the zero after 3 is a trailing zero and is considered significant.Therefore, all four digits in 0.4793 are considered significant, making it a number with four significant figures.

Q83. Which one of the following is NOT a meta directing group?

A. COOH
B. SO3H
C. CHO
D. OH✓

Explanation: Meta-directing groups are the electron-withdrawing groups. The attack of the incoming group is at the meta position. OH is ortho and para directing group.This is also the electron donating group and the attack of the incoming group is at the ortho and para position. COOH group is an electron withdrawing group which deactivates the ring. Hence it is a meta directing group. SO3H is an electron withdrawing group, hence, it deactivates the ring because it decreases the electron density of the benzene ring. It is meta-directing group. The aldehyde group (-CHO) in benzaldehyde is a meta-director as it is an electron-withdrawing in nature

Why the other options are wrong

A. This is meta directing group. So this option is Incorrect
B. This is meta directing group. So this option is Incorrect
C. This is meta directing group. So this option is Incorrect

Q84. The rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of active masses of the reactants, it is referred to as:

A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of mass action✓
C. Law of conservation of mass
D. Active mass law

Explanation: The rate of a chemical reaction being directly proportional to the product of the active masses of the reactants is described by the law of mass action. Therefore this option is correct.

Why the other options are wrong

A. The rate of a chemical reaction being directly proportional to the product of the active masses of the reactants is described by the law of mass action. Therefore this option is not correct.
C. The rate of a chemical reaction being directly proportional to the product of the active masses of the reactants is described by the law of mass action. Therefore this option is not correct.
D. The rate of a chemical reaction being directly proportional to the product of the active masses of the reactants is described by the law of mass action. Therefore this option is correct.

Q85. Which one of the following does NOT give an iodoform test?

A. CH3OH✓
B. CH3CH2OH
C. CH3CHO
D. CH3COCH3

Explanation: Iodoform ( in general haloform) reaction is given by ketones having methyl group attached to carbonyl carbon or secondary alcohols and secondary aldehdyes. Primary alcohols do not give iodoform test because they do not have any methyl group attached to carbonyl carbon. Hence, CH3OH does not give iodoform test.

Why the other options are wrong

B. CH3CH2OH has alpha hydrogen. Thus gives iodoform test.
C. CH3CHO has alpha hydrogen. Thus gives iodoform test.
D. CH3COCH3 has alpha hydrogen. Thus gives iodoform test.

Q86. The boiling point of water is higher than other hydrides because water molecules can form:

A. 4 hydrogen bonds✓
B. 3 hydrogen bonds
C. 2 hydrogen bonds
D. 1 hydrogen bond

Explanation: Each water (H₂O) molecule can form four hydrogen bonds in total:2 hydrogen atoms → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as donors)2 lone pairs on oxygen → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as acceptors)Total = 4 hydrogen bonds per water molecule

Why the other options are wrong

B. Each water (H₂O) molecule can form four hydrogen bonds in total:2 hydrogen atoms → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as donors)2 lone pairs on oxygen → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as acceptors)Total = 4 hydrogen bonds per water molecule
C. Each water (H₂O) molecule can form four hydrogen bonds in total:2 hydrogen atoms → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as donors)2 lone pairs on oxygen → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as acceptors)Total = 4 hydrogen bonds per water molecule
D. Each water (H₂O) molecule can form four hydrogen bonds in total:2 hydrogen atoms → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as donors)2 lone pairs on oxygen → can each form 1 hydrogen bond (as acceptors)Total = 4 hydrogen bonds per water molecule

Q87. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid, oxygen and _ are produced.

A. Carbon
B. CO
C. CO2
D. Hydrogen✓

Explanation: When electric current is passed through water, water dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is deposited over the negative pole and oxygen is deposited over the positive pole. Deposition of hydrogen and oxygen at different poles is visible in the form of bubbles.

Why the other options are wrong

A. This option is incorrect as Hydrogen is produced. When electric current is passed through water, water dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is deposited over the negative pole and oxygen is deposited over the positive pole. Deposition of hydrogen and oxygen at different poles is visible in the form of bubbles.
B. This option is incorrect as Hydrogen is produced. When electric current is passed through water, water dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is deposited over the negative pole and oxygen is deposited over the positive pole. Deposition of hydrogen and oxygen at different poles is visible in the form of bubbles.
C. This option is incorrect as Hydrogen is produced.When electric current is passed through water, water dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is deposited over the negative pole and oxygen is deposited over the positive pole. Deposition of hydrogen and oxygen at different poles is visible in the form of bubbles.

Q88. The reaction 2CO + O2 -> 2CO2 proceeds slower because activation energy is:

A. Equilibrium
B. Constant
C. Low
D. High✓

Explanation: The activation energy of a chemical reaction is closely related to its rate. Specifically, the higher the activation energy, the slower the chemical reaction will be. This is because molecules can only complete the reaction once they have reached the top of the activation energy barrier.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Activation energy is not related to equilibrium. Equilibrium refers to the state where the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction, and it doesn't provide information about the speed of the reaction or the activation energy
B. Activation energy is not a constant for a particular reaction. It is a specific value for that reaction under given conditions. However, it can be affected by changes in temperature and other factors.
C. If the activation energy is low, it means that the reactants require relatively less energy to overcome the energy barrier and transform into products. In this case, the reaction is likely to occur more quickly because a larger fraction of the molecules will have sufficient energy to react.

Q89. Lithium and Beryllium are unique in such a way that they have higher charge densities which produce strong polarizing effects due to:

A. Non-metal
B. Solubility
C. Small Size✓
D. Large size

Explanation: Smaller size is the main cause of high charge density and increasing polarizing effect. The polarizing power of a cation is inversely proportional to its size. Smaller is the size of the cation and higher will be its charge density, which means greater concentration of charge on a smaller area. The more will be the charge density, higher will be its polarising power.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Lithium and Beryllium are not non-metals.
B. Solubility has no link with this scenario.
D. Large size molecules have less polarizing power.

Q90. The neutron was discovered by:

A. Goldstein
B. Rutherford
C. J.J Thomson
D. Chadwick✓

Explanation: Thomson discovered electrons in 1897, Chadwick discovered neutrons in 1932 and Goldstein discovered canal ray in 1886.

Why the other options are wrong

A. German physicist, Goldstein is known for his work on electrical phenomena in gases and on cathode rays, thus this is incorrect option.
B. Early in the century, Ernest Rutherford developed a crude model of the atom, based on the gold foil experiment and discovered the existence of nucleus, hence this option is incorrect
C. J.J Thomson is credited with the discovery of the electrons,hence this option is incorrect.

Q91. The normal pH of blood is:

A. 7.05
B. 7.75
C. 7.35✓
D. 7.25

Explanation: Our blood has a normal pH range of 7.35 to 7.45. This means that blood is naturally slightly alkaline or basic.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Incorrect option, as it is very acidic for the bloods normal pH.
B. Incorrect option, as it is basic for the bloods normal pH.
D. Incorrect option, as it is acidic for the bloods normal pH.

Q92. Which of the following reactions is NOT shown by ketones?

A. Reaction with HCN
B. Reaction with Fehling solution✓
C. Reaction with NaHSO3
D. Reaction with 2,4-dinitrophenyl-hydrazine

Explanation: Fehling's solution is a mixture of Rochelle salt (blue color) and copper sulphate (chso4). It is an oxidizing agent which is used to diffentiate between aldehydes and ketones. Ketones generally do not react with Fehling's solution. A red colored precipetate is formed when Fehling's solution is reacted with aldehyde.Reaction with HCN:Ketones when added with HCN give hydroxynitriles. HCN will be added with the carbon-oxygen double bond to produce hydroxynitriles.Rxn with NaHso3:Ketones generally get added with NaHSO3 by the process of nucleophilic addition.Rxn with 2,4 dinitrophenol hydrazine:Aldehydes and ketones on reaction with this generally form orange/yellow precipitates.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Ketone reacts readily with HCN, hence incorrect option.Fehling's solution is a mixture of Rochelle salt (blue color) and copper sulphate (chso4). It is an oxidizing agent which is used to diffentiate between aldehydes and ketones. Ketones generally do not react with Fehling's solution.A red colored precipetate is formed when Fehling's solution is reacted with aldehyde.Reaction with HCN:Ketones when added with HCN give hydroxynitriles. HCN will be added with the carbon-oxygen double bond to produce hydroxynitriles.Rxn with NaHso3:Ketones generally get added with NaHSO3 by the process of nucleophilic addition.Rxn with 2,4 dinitrophenol hydrazine:Aldehydes and ketones on reaction with this generally form orange/yellow precipitates.
C. Ketones can react with NaHSO3 by nucleophillic substitution reaction, hence incorrect.
D. Ketone reacts with 2,4 dinitrophenyl-hydrazine to give orange/red precipitates, hence also incorrect.

Q93. The melting point of NaCl is very high, 801°C. It is reduced to 600°C by the addition of _ in Down's process.

A. Calcium chloride✓
B. Magnesium chloride
C. Aluminium chloride
D. Potassium chloride

Explanation: Sodium chloride melts at a very high temperature. A mixture containing(NaCl+CaCl2) is used to decrease the melting point. The main reasons for lowering the temperature are:a) Sodium is volatile at this temperature and so a part of the metal formed may vaporize.b) At this high temperature, sodium and chlorine produced corrode the vessel.Calcium chloride, CaCl2, is added to lower the melting point of the cell medium from the normal melting point of NaCl, 804oC, to around 600oC.

Why the other options are wrong

B. MgCl increases the melting point instead of decreasing it, hence incorrect
C. AlCl is not used in downs process, hence it does not play any role in decreasing the melting point of NaCl. incorrect option
D. potassium chloride does not decrease the melting point of NaCl in downs process, hence incorrect

Q94. The phenomenon in which certain elements emit invisible radiations is called:

A. Spectroscopy
B. Radioactivity✓
C. Gravimetery
D. Chromatography

Explanation: Radioactivity is the phenomenon of the spontaneous disintegration of unstable atomic nuclei to atomic nuclei to form more energetically stable atomic nuclei. Radioactive decay is a highly exoergic, statistically random, first-order process that occurs with a small amount of mass being converted to energy. Spectroscopy is the study of the absorption and emission of light and other radiation by matter. Gravimetric analysis is a type of lab technique used to determine the mass or concentration of a substance by measuring a change in mass. chromatography, technique for separating the components, or solutes, of a mixture on the basis of the relative amounts of each solute distributed between a moving fluid stream, called the mobile phase, and a contiguous stationary phase.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Spectroscopy is the field of study that measures and interprets the electromagnetic spectra that result from the interaction between electromagnetic radiation and matter as a function of the wavelength or frequency of the radiation. hence incorrect
C. gravimetery is basically the measurement of weight. hence incorrect
D. chromatography is a laboratory technique for the separation of a mixture into its components, hence incorrect

Q95. The number of bond(s) between carbon and nitrogen atoms in a Nitrile is:

A. One sigma and one pi
B. Two sigma and one pi
C. Only sigma
D. One sigma and two pi✓

Explanation: Both the carbon and the nitrogen are sp hydridized which leaves them both with two p orbitals which overlap to form the two π bond in the triple bond. The bond angle in nitrile is 180° which give a nitrile functional group a linear shape.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Carbon atom forms triple bonds with nitrogen atom, hence incorrect
B. Carbon forms one sigma and two pi-bonds with nitrogen, hence this answer is incorrect
C. Carbon does not only form 1 sigma bond with nitrogen, it is also accompanied by 2 pie bonds, hence it is incorrect

Q96. The transparent plastic used to make combs and hairbrushes is called:

A. PVA
B. PVC
C. Bakelite
D. Perspex✓

Explanation: Perspex is a hard, brittle, and clear polymer that is mostly used in packaging materials, bowls, toys, combs, trays, disposable cutlery, etc.PVC: a type of plastic used for pipes that carry water and for many other products. PVC is anabbreviation of “polyvinyl chloride.”PVA:PVA is used in many industries, such as the textile, paper industry, and food packaging industries.Bakelite: Bakelite continues to be used for wire insulation, brake pads and related automotivecomponents, and industrial electrical-related applications.

Why the other options are wrong

A. PVA is not used to make combs and hairbrushes , hence incorrect
B. PVC is not used to make combs and hairbrushes. hence incorrect
C. Bakelite is not used to make combs and hairbrushes. hence incorrect

Q97. In electrochemical series, elements are arranged in order of their standard electrode potentials, the correct decreasing reactivity order for metals is:

A. Gold, silver, magnesium, aluminum
B. Mercury, calcium, sodium, magnesium
C. Sodium, aluminum, lead, copper✓
D. Potassium, silver, magnesium, aluminum

Explanation: In the electrochemical series, metals with more negative standard electrode potentials are more reactive. Sodium is highly reactive, followed by aluminum, then lead, and finally the least reactive among them is copper. Thus, the correct decreasing reactivity order is Na > Al > Pb > Cu.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Incorrect order of decreasing the reactivity of the metal. Hence, the incorrect option.
B. The metal's reactivity was decreased in the wrong order. Thus, the wrong choice.
D. The metal's reactivity was decreased in the wrong order. Thus, the wrong choice.

Q98. Methyl orange is _ in acidic solutions.

A. Yellow
B. Pink
C. Orange
D. Red✓

Explanation: Methyl orange is orange in colour. It is used in laboratories to determine if a solution is acidic or basic. In acidic medium, it gives red colour and in basic medium, it gives yellow colour.

Why the other options are wrong

A. Methyl orange gives yellow color in basic solutions not in acidic solutions. hence incorrect
B. Methyl orange does not give pink color in acidic nor in basic solutions. hence incorrect
C. Methyl orange gives red and not orange in acidic solutions. hence incorrect

Q99. How many chain isomers are shown by C5H12?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3✓
D. 2

Explanation: C5H12 can have 3 isomers.

Why the other options are wrong

A. There cannot be 5 isomers of pentane because it is not possible for a chain containing only 5 carbon atoms. Hence incorrect
B. There cannot be 4 isomers of pentane because it is not possible for a chain containing only 5 carbon atoms. Hence incorrect
D. Pentane can form more than 2 isomers. Hence incorrect

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