Sindh Mdcat 2023 Retake — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which row correctly shows the areas of the gas exchange system that contain cartilage, ciliated epithelium and goblet cells?

• A. Bronchus, trachea/Nasal cavity, trachea/Bronchus, trachea✓
• B. Bronchus, Alveoli /Nasal cavity, trachea/Bronchus, trachea
• C. Bronchus, trachea/lungs, trachea/Bronchus, trachea
• D. Bronchus, trachea/Nasal cavity, trachea/adam’s apple, trachea

Explanation: Both the bronchus and trachea contain cartilage, ciliated epithelium, and goblet cells. The cartilage helps to keep the airways open, the ciliated epithelium sweeps mucus upwards to be expelled, and the goblet cells produce mucus to trap particles.

Q2. During which stage of meiosis do centromeres divide?

• A. Prophase I
• B. Metaphase I
• C. Prophase II
• D. Anaphase II✓

Explanation: Centromeres divide in Anaphase II of meiosis, allowing sister chromatids to separate and move to opposite poles. This process is crucial for producing genetically unique gametes. In contrast, during meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated, and centromeres remain intact. Therefore, options A (Prophase I) and B (Metaphase I) are incorrect as centromere division does not occur in meiosis I. Option C (Prophase II) is also incorrect because it precedes the division of centromeres; it is the stage where chromosomes prepare for final separation.

Q3. Two animals are mated. One is homozygous dominant for one character and homozygous recessive for another. The other animal Is heterozygous for both characters. How many phenotypes are expected in the offspring of this cross?

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: To understand and solve this, you can divide your thinking into two. For character 1. When genes are passed down to offspring, when the genes of this character pass down, the Dominant gene will always be present, so only one phenotype is possible from this character. For character 2. Three genotypes are possible, RR, Rr, and rr. RR and Rr are one phenotype and rr another. Total 2 So 2*1=2 total phenotypes

Q4. Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell hemoglobin?

• A. tRNA^Val✓
• B. tRNA^Glu
• C. tRNA^Met
• D. tRNA^Lys

Explanation: tRNA^Val is the correct answer. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single amino acid substitution in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin from glutamic acid to valine. Therefore, the tRNA that carries valine to the ribosome, tRNA^Val, is involved in the formation of this mutated part of the hemoglobin molecule.

Q5. Which of the following are animals with pointed ends and a tube like digestive track?

• A. Arthropods
• B. Annelids
• C. Nematodes✓
• D. Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Animals with pointed ends and a tube-like digestive tract are typically roundworms (phylum Nematoda)

Q6. Leukemia is associated with increased number of —-----in blood.

• A. Red blood cells
• B. Platelets
• C. White blood cells✓
• D. Neutrophils

Explanation: White blood cells are the primary cells affected in leukemia. The bone marrow produces an excessive number of abnormal white blood cells, which don't function properly.

Q7. Pepsin works best at a pH of—---

• A. 2.0✓
• B. 7.2
• C. 8.5
• D. 9.0

Explanation: Pepsin is an enzyme found in the stomach that breaks down proteins. It works optimally in an acidic environment, with a pH around 2.0. This acidic environment is created by hydrochloric acid secreted by the stomach lining.

Q8. The excretion of hypertonic urine in humans is associated best with the:

• A. Glomerular capsule
• B. Proximal convoluted tubule
• C. Loop of Henle✓
• D. Distal convoluted tubule

Explanation: Hypertonic Urine means there is a higher solute concentration than the body fluid (the solution has more osmotic pressure; water moves in by osmosis). This means maximum water has been reabsorbed. Despite Option B, Option C, and Option D, playing a role in water reabsorption, the main site where water reabsorption occurs is the Loop of Henle. Glomerular Capsule (or the Bowman capsule, is a cup-like sac at the beginning of the nephron that is involved in the filtration of the blood coming into the kidney. The proximal Convoluted Tubule is present after the Bowman's capsule while the Distal convoluted tubule is present after the loop of Henle. The proximal Convoluted Tubule is the site where Sodium ions are reabsorbed while the Distal convoluted tubule is where the body carries our processes to maintain the body acid-base concentration. On the other hand, the Loop of Henle is associated with both the solute and water reabsorption using the counter-current multiplier, which involves the usage of energy to generate an osmotic gradient that enables the reabsorption of water from the filtrate and into the blood, producing concentrated urine.

Q9. The active uptake of sodium in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle ispromoted by the action of.

• A. Aldosterone✓
• B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Explanation: Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that promotes the reabsorption of sodium ions (Na+) in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron. This reabsorption of sodium leads to the retention of water, increasing blood volume and blood pressure. While aldosterone primarily acts on the distal tubule and collecting ducts, it also plays a role in regulating sodium reabsorption in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.

Q10. How would an ammonium group affect on benzene ring for subsequent reactions?

• A. Activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution
• B. Deactivates the benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution✓
• C. Has no effect on the reactivity of the benzene ring
• D. Makes the benzene ring more reactive towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution

Explanation: he –NH₃⁺ group is a strongly electron-withdrawing, deactivating group.It reduces the ring's reactivity and directs substituents to the meta-position in electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions.

Q11. The eggs of a chick is laid at which of the following stages?

• A. Blastula✓
• B. Morula
• C. Gastrula
• D. Neuralation

Explanation: The egg is laid when the embryo has reached the blastula stage, which contains a fluid-filled cavity and is the stage right before gastrulation begins after incubation starts.

Q12. Class elasmobranch have an exoskeleton of

• A. Placoid scales✓
• B. Cycloid scales
• C. Ctenoid scales
• D. Ganoid scales

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Elasmobranchs, which include sharks, rays, and skates, have a unique type of exoskeleton called placoid scales. These scales are small, tooth-like structures embedded in the skin, providing protection and streamlining the body for swimming.

Q13. The complete, mature, and infectious virus particle is known as:

• A. Capsomere
• B. Genome
• C. Virion✓
• D. Capsid

Explanation: The correct answer is c. Virion. A virion is the complete, mature, and infectious virus particle, consisting of the viral genome (DNA or RNA) enclosed within a protective protein coat called the capsid. Unlike the genome or capsid alone, which are only parts of a virus, the virion represents the fully assembled unit capable of infecting host cells.

Q14. Which of the following is true about amoeba?

• A. They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia✓
• B. They have a rigid cell wall
• C. They are multicellular organisms
• D. They are autotrophic

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Amoebas are single-celled organisms that move by extending and retracting temporary, finger-like projections of their cytoplasm called pseudopodia. These pseudopodia help them engulf food and navigate their environment.Therefore, the statement that is true about amoebas is that they move by forming specialised cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia.

Q15. In roots the apoplast pathway of water is disrupted when water reaches.

• A. Endodermis✓
• B. Epidermis
• C. Cortex
• D. Xylem

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The apoplast pathway is the movement of water through the cell walls and intercellular spaces of plant tissues. In roots, the apoplastic pathway is interrupted by the Casparian strip in the endodermis, forcing water to enter the symplast (the pathway through the cytoplasm of cells).

Q16. Which of the following statements is true about savannah?

• A. Dry season is very long and temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year✓
• B. Dry season is very short and temperature ranges less than 18°C throughout the year
• C. Dry season is very long and temperature ranges less than 18°C throughout the year
• D. Dry season is very short and temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Savannas are characterised by a distinct dry season, which can last for several months. The temperatures in savannas are generally warm to hot throughout the year, with average temperatures often exceeding 18°C. Therefore, the statement that is true about savannas is that the dry season is very long and the temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year.

Q17. Movement of ions and large molecules with the help of protein molecules in

• A. Facilitated diffusion✓
• B. Active transport
• C. Simple diffusion
• D. Endocytosis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport that allows specific molecules, such as ions and large molecules, to move across the cell membrane from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration with the aid of membrane proteins. These proteins act as channels or carriers, allowing the molecules to pass through the membrane more efficiently than they would be able to do on their own.Therefore, the movement of ions and large molecules with the help of protein molecules is called facilitated diffusion.

Q18. Pseudopodia are found in:

• A. Rhizopods✓
• B. Ciliates
• C. Flagellates
• D. Sporozoans

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Rhizopods are a group of protozoans characterized by the presence of pseudopodia, which are temporary, finger-like projections of the cytoplasm used for movement and feeding. Examples of rhizopods include amoebas and foraminifera.

Q19. Select a method which cause the oxidation of constituent of a bacterial cell wall

• A. Dry Heat✓
• B. Moist Heat
• C. Filtration
• D. Ultraviolet Radiation

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Dry heat is a method of sterilization that involves exposing microorganisms, including bacteria, to high temperatures in a dry environment. This process causes the oxidation of the constituents of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death.Therefore, dry heat is the method that primarily causes the oxidation of the constituents of a bacterial cell wall.

Q20. Which one of the following "myogenic" types of muscle?

• A. Cardiac Muscle✓
• B. Skeletal Muscle
• C. Smooth Muscle
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Cardiac muscle is a specialized type of muscle tissue found only in the heart. It is myogenic, meaning it can contract on its own without external stimulation from the nervous system. This property is essential for the heart to beat rhythmically and pump blood continuously.

Q21. The scientific name of Thorn apple is:

• A. Datura stramonium✓
• B. Datura alba
• C. Solanum nigrum
• D. Nicotiana tabacum

Explanation: This is the correct scientific name for Thorn apple. It's a poisonous flowering plant in the nightshade family (Solanaceae). Other common names for Datura stramonium include Jimsonweed, Devil's trumpet, and Mad apple.

Q22. What happens to the volume of the thorax and the air pressure in the lungs during breathing in?

• A. Volume of the thorax increases, and air pressure in the lungs decreases✓
• B. Volume of the thorax decreases, and air pressure in the lungs increases
• C. Volume of the thorax remains constant, and air pressure in the lungs decreases
• D. Volume of the thorax remains constant, and air pressure in the lungs increases

Explanation: During breathing in (inspiration):The diaphragm contracts and moves downward.The intercostal muscles contract, pulling the rib cage upward and outward. This increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. According to Boyle's law, as the volume of a gas increases, its pressure decreases. Therefore, the air pressure in the lungs decreases. This lower pressure inside the lungs compared to the atmospheric pressure causes air to rush into the lungs.

Q23. Which of the types of cells are found in the secondary xylem of angiosperms?

• A. Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma but no collenchyma✓
• B. Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma, and collenchyma
• C. Vessels, tracheids, parenchyma, but no fibers
• D. Vessels, tracheids, collenchyma, but no parenchyma

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Secondary xylem in angiosperms is composed of four main cell types: Vessels: These are elongated cells with perforated end walls (called perforation plates) that allow water and minerals to flow through them efficiently. Tracheids: These are elongated cells with tapered ends and pits that allow for lateral movement of water. Fibers: These are thick-walled cells that provide structural support to the plant. Parenchyma: These are thin-walled cells that store nutrients and function in various metabolic processes. Collenchyma cells are not typically found in secondary xylem. They are more commonly found in the primary plant body, where they provide mechanical support and flexibility. Therefore, the correct answer is Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma, but no collenchyma.

Q24. Alleles both have an effect on the phenotype heterozygous organism

• A. Codominance✓
• B. Incomplete dominance
• C. Dominance
• D. Recessive

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Codominance occurs when both alleles of a heterozygous individual are expressed simultaneously in the phenotype. Neither allele is dominant over the other, and both contribute equally to the observed trait. A classic example of codominance is the ABO blood type system, where the IA and IB alleles are codominant.

Q25. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid membranes?

• A. Specific heat capacity
• B. Cohesion and adhesion
• C. Hydrogen bonding
• D. Hydrophobic exclusion✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrophobic exclusion. This property is critical for the formation and stability of lipid membranes, as lipid molecules are hydrophobic and tend to exclude water. This exclusion leads to the formation of a lipid bilayer, creating a barrier between the aqueous environments inside and outside the cell. The other options, such as specific heat capacity, cohesion and adhesion, and hydrogen bonding, are important properties of water but do not directly contribute to the structural integrity of lipid membranes.

Q26. Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

• A. Oleic acid✓
• B. Palmitic acid
• C. Stearic acid
• D. Myristic acid

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid, meaning it contains one double bond in its hydrocarbon chain. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds, while saturated fatty acids have only single bonds.

Q27. Lock & key model of enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggested that.

• A. Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type✓
• B. Enzymes are flexible and can catalyze multiple reactions
• C. Enzymes are non-specific and can bind to any substrate
• D. Enzymes are always active

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The lock-and-key model proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that enzymes are highly specific and can only catalyze one type of reaction. This is because the active site of an enzyme has a specific shape that complements the shape of its substrate, much like a lock and key. Only the correct substrate can fit into the active site and undergo the catalyzed reaction.

Q28. Identify the bones in which the connecting joints are freely movable:

• A. Synovial joints✓
• B. Fibrous joints
• C. Cartilaginous joints
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Synovial joints, also known as diarthroses, are the most movable type of joint in the human body. They are characterized by a fluid-filled joint cavity, cartilage-covered bone surfaces, and a surrounding capsule of connective tissue. Examples of synovial joints include the shoulder joint, elbow joint, hip joint, and knee joint.

Q29. Phenotype is.

• A. The observable physical characteristics or traits of an organism✓
• B. The genetic makeup of an organism
• C. The environmental factors affecting an organism
• D. The interaction between genotype and environment

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A phenotype refers to the observable characteristics of an organism, which can include physical features, behaviors, physiological properties, and susceptibility to diseases.

Q30. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its

• A. Genotype
• B. Phenotype
• C. Karyotype✓
• D. Allele

Explanation: A karyotype is an individual's complete set of chromosomes. The term also refers to a laboratory-produced image of a person's chromosomes isolated from an individual cell and arranged in numerical order.

Q31. Which process can take place in the presence and absence of oxygen?

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Cellular respiration
• C. Fermentation
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate, producing ATP (energy) in the process.It is the first stage of cellular respiration and can occur both in the presence (aerobic conditions) and absence (anaerobic conditions) of oxygen.

Q32. The attraction between water molecules and cell wall of xylem is termed as :

• A. Adhesion✓
• B. Cohesion
• C. Capillary action
• D. Transpiration

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Adhesion refers to the attraction between molecules of different substances. In the case of xylem, the water molecules are attracted to the cellulose molecules in the cell walls. This adhesive force helps to pull water up the xylem vessels from the roots to the leaves.

Q33. The abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the CNS is called?

• A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)✓
• B. Glutamate
• C. Acetylcholine
• D. Dopamine

Explanation: GABA, or gamma-aminobutyric acid, is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, responsible for reducing neuronal excitability and creating a calming effect by blocking nerve signals.

Q34. Which one of the following organelles is required for aerobic respiration?

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Golgi apparatus

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they are responsible for producing energy through aerobic respiration. This process involves breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen to generate ATP, the cell's primary energy currency.

Q35. The process by which one molecule of Glucose splits up into molecules of pyruvate is called

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Cellular respiration
• C. Fermentation
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that breaks down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. It occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first stage of cellular respiration. Glycolysis can occur both in the presence (aerobic conditions) and absence (anaerobic conditions) of oxygen.

Q36. The technique used for identification of criminals is called:

• A. DNA fingerprinting✓
• B. Fingerprinting
• C. Handwriting analysis
• D. Voiceprint analysis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. DNA fingerprinting is a forensic technique used to identify individuals based on their unique DNA profiles. It involves analyzing specific regions of DNA that vary between individuals, creating a unique pattern that can be used for identification.

Q37. Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for a transmembrane carrier of:

• A. Cl- ions✓
• B. Na+ ions
• C. K+ ions
• D. Ca2+ ions

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the gene that codes for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. This protein is responsible for regulating the flow of chloride (Cl-) ions across the cell membranes of various organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and intestines. In CF patients, mutations in the CFTR gene disrupt the normal functioning of the CFTR protein, leading to an imbalance of salt and water in these organs. This imbalance results in the thick, sticky mucus characteristic of CF, which can cause respiratory problems, digestive issues, and other complications

Q38. Identify the correctly matched pair relating to a term and its meaning/ function/ example:

• A. Ecosystem — Organisms of the same species
• B. Habitat — The layer of the Earth’s atmosphere
• C. Niche — A large, distinct ecosystem
• D. Biosphere - Where life exists✓

Explanation: The biosphere is the part of the Earth that supports life, including the atmosphere, hydrosphere (water), and lithosphere (land). It encompasses all ecosystems and living organisms.

Q39. Which bones meet at the elbow joint, and what kind of movement do they allow?

• A. Ulna and humerus - Back and forth✓
• B. Radius and ulna - Rotational movement
• C. Ulna and scapula - Flexion and extension
• D. Humerus and scapula - Abduction and adduction

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The elbow joint is primarily formed by the articulation between the ulna (a bone in the forearm) and the humerus (the upper arm bone). This joint allows for flexion and extension movements, which are back-and-forth motions.

Q40. The first step in nitrogen cycle is:

• A. Nitrification
• B. Ammonification✓
• C. Oxidation
• D. Denitrification

Explanation: While there is no technical ‘start’ of a ‘cycle’, looking at the steps in the choices, one can say that Ammonification needs to happen first, before all the others. First Ammonification would occur first step to make nitrogen usable by plants, to make ammonia, which then undergoes nitrification, forming nitrates. Then, denitrification occurs, in which nitrogen is formed back from nitrates, and so nitrogen is returned to the atmosphere. Oxidation is the same as nitrification. So the correct answer is B.

Q41. All of the following protect the body against the entrance of germs except:

• A. Tears
• B. Mucous membranes
• C. Ciliated cells
• D. Red blood cells,✓

Explanation: Red blood cells are responsible for transporting O2 via hemoglobin stored in them from the lungs to the body's cells and tissues. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are physical barriers (part of the first line of defense) that protect our body from germs.

Q42. Referring to sexual reproduction, humans are:

• A. Viviparous✓
• B. Oviparous
• C. Ovoviviparous
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Humans are viviparous animals, which means they give birth to live young. The developing embryo grows inside the mother's body and receives nourishment through the placenta until it is ready to be born.

Q43. The diseases that arise due to age are:

• A. Alzheimer's disease✓
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Sickle cell anemia
• D. Phenylketonuria

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that is most commonly associated with aging. It is characterized by progressive memory loss, cognitive decline, and behavioral changes.

Q44. The branch of science dealing with the classification of life forms is called:

• A. Taxonomy✓
• B. Ecology
• C. Morphology
• D. Physiology

Explanation: Taxonomy is the branch of biology that deals with the classification, naming, and identification of organisms. It involves grouping organisms based on their shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships.

Q45. Which of the following basic structural level of proteins is indicated by an association of two alpha and two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule?

• A. Quaternary Structure✓
• B. Primary Structure
• C. Secondary Structure
• D. Tertiary Structure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The quaternary structure of a protein refers to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) within a protein complex.In the case of hemoglobin, it consists of four subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains. These subunits interact to form the final, functional structure of the hemoglobin molecule.

Q46. The category of organisms which are able to make their own food is called:

• A. Heterotrophs
• B. Autotrophs✓
• C. Consumers
• D. Decomposers
• E. Saprotrophs

Explanation: An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other chemicals. Because autotrophs produce their own food, they are sometimes called producers. Plants are the most familiar type of autotroph, but there are many different kinds of autotrophic organisms.

Q47. The system responsible for fighting the pathogens is:

• A. Muscular System
• B. Endocrine System
• C. Nervous System
• D. Immune System✓

Explanation: The immune system defends against infections using innate (nonspecific) and adaptive (specific) mechanisms.

Q48. Which part of the cell does glycolysis occur in?

• A. Cytoplasm✓
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Nucleus
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis, the initial stage of cellular respiration, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP.

Q49. Ice cream is an example of:

• A. Heterogeneous mixture✓
• B. Homogeneous mixture
• C. Compound
• D. Element

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Ice cream is a heterogeneous mixture because its components are not uniformly distributed. You can visually distinguish different parts of ice cream, such as the ice crystals, air bubbles, and the incorporated ingredients like chocolate chips or fruit.

Q50. A substance of definite composition by weight consists of atoms of two or more different elements is called as:

• A. Compound✓
• B. Element
• C. Mixture
• D. Solution

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A compound is a pure substance made up of two or more different elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio. The properties of a compound are different from the properties of its constituent elements. Examples of compounds include water (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and sodium chloride (NaCl).

Q51. Which of the following properties depends upon the amount of matter present in the system?

• A. Density
• B. Gibbs free energy✓
• C. Pressure
• D. Temperature

Explanation: Gibbs free energy is an extensive property that depends upon the amount of substance present in the system. If the matter in a given system at a given condition is divided into two equal parts, the values of the extensive properties will become half of the original values. Other extensive properties include mass, volume, moles, enthalpy, entropy, and internal energy.

Q52. Which alkyl halide has the lowest reactivity for a particular alkyl group?

• A. R-F✓
• B. R-Cl
• C. R-Br
• D. R-I

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Alkyl halides are compounds in which a halogen atom (F, Cl, Br, or I) is bonded to a carbon atom. The reactivity of alkyl halides generally increases in the order R-F < R-Cl < R-Br < R-I. This trend is due to the decreasing bond strength between the carbon atom and the halogen atom as the size of the halogen increases.

Q53. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid what is produced

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Oxygen
• C. Both hydrogen and oxygen✓
• D. Neither hydrogen nor oxygen

Explanation: hydrogen gas (H₂) is produced at the cathode.Oxygen gas (O₂) is produced at the anode.

Q54. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid what is produced

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Oxygen
• C. Both hydrogen and oxygen✓
• D. Neither hydrogen nor oxygen

Explanation: hydrogen gas (H₂) is produced at the cathode.Oxygen gas (O₂) is produced at the anode.

Q55. The boiling point of water is highest than other hydrides because water molecules can form:

• A. Hydrogen bonds✓
• B. Ionic bonds
• C. Covalent bonds
• D. Metallic bonds

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Water molecules have a polar structure, with a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. This polarity allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with each other, which are strong intermolecular forces. These hydrogen bonds require a significant amount of energy to break, which contributes to the unusually high boiling point of water compared to other hydrides in the same group (such as hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen selenide, and hydrogen telluride).

Q56. How many chain isomers are shown by C5H12 ?

• A. 3✓
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Chain isomers have the same molecular formula but differ in the arrangement of their carbon atoms.For the molecular formula C5H12, there are three possible chain isomers: n-pentane: A straight chain of five carbon atoms. 2-methylbutane: A branched chain with four carbon atoms and a methyl group (CH3) attached to the second carbon. 2,2-dimethylpropane: A branched chain with three carbon atoms and two methyl groups attached to the second carbon. It's important to note that these are the only possible chain isomers for C5H12. There are no other unique arrangements of carbon atoms that can be formed while maintaining the same molecular formula.Therefore, the number of chain isomers shown by C5H12 is 3.

Q57. The melting point of NaCi is very high 801°,it is reduced to 600°C, it is by in Down's process

• A. Calcium chloride✓
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium chloride

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In the Down's process, a small amount of calcium chloride (CaCl2) is added to molten sodium chloride (NaCl) to lower its melting point from 801°C to around 600°C. This reduction in melting point makes it easier to electrolyze the molten salt to produce sodium metal.

Q58. The normal pH of blood is:

• A. 7.05
• B. 7.75
• C. 7.35✓
• D. 7.25

Explanation: The normal pH of human blood is slightly basic, around 7.35– 7.45. This pH is maintained by buffer systems like bicarbonate to ensure proper enzyme and metabolic function. A deviation can lead to acidosis or alkalosis, affecting body processes.

Q59. One Calorie is equal to:

• A. 4.18 J✓
• B. 41.8 J
• C. 418 J
• D. 4184 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A calorie (cal) is a unit of energy, and 1 calorie is equivalent to 4.18 joules (J). This conversion factor is used to relate the two units of energy.

Q60. Absolute zero is considered to be the temperature at which.

• A. Molecular motion in gases would cease✓
• B. Molecular motion in gases would be maximum
• C. Molecular motion in gases would remain constant
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature that can be reached, theoretically. At this temperature, the kinetic energy of the particles in a substance would be zero, meaning that all molecular motion would cease.

Q61. A correct formula must:

• A. Always conform to the valency rules✓
• B. Always have a subscript of 1 for the first element
• C. Always have a subscript of 2 for the second element
• D. Always be written in alphabetical order of the elements

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A correct chemical formula must always conform to the valency rules. Valency is the combining capacity of an atom, and it determines the number of bonds an atom can form. In a correct formula, the total positive charge must equal the total negative charge, ensuring that the compound is electrically neutral.

Q62. Compound was found to contain nitrogen and oxygen in the ration 28 g: 80g. the formula of the compound is:

• A. N₂O
• B. NO₂
• C. N₂O₃
• D. N₂O₅✓

Explanation: To determine the empirical formula, we need to find the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms.Calculate the moles of each element:Nitrogen: 28g / 14g/mol = 2 molesOxygen: 80g / 16g/mol = 5 molesFind the simplest whole-number ratio:The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen is 2:5. This is already in its simplest whole-number ratio.

Q63. Electronic Configuration of M** Ion is 2,8,14 and its atomic weight is 56 amu. The number of neutrons is its nucleus are:

• A. 24
• B. 30✓
• C. 32
• D. 34

Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight - Atomic number Number of neutrons = 56 amu - 26 = 30 amuTherefore, the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the M²+ ion is 30.

Q64. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron is defined by:

• A. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• B. Principal quantum number
• C. Magnetic quantum number
• D. Spin quantum number

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The azimuthal quantum number, also known as the angular momentum quantum number, determines the shape of an atomic orbital. It is denoted by the letter l. The possible values of l depend on the principal quantum number (n). For a given n, l can have values from 0 to n-1. Each value of l corresponds to a different orbital shape: l = 0: s orbital (spherical) l = 1: p orbital (dumbbell-shaped) l = 2: d orbital (cloverleaf-shaped)l = 3: f orbital (more complex shapes)

Q65. Common name of Octadecanoic acid is:

• A. Stearic acid✓
• B. Palmitic acid
• C. Oleic acid
• D. Linoleic acid

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Octadecanoic acid is the IUPAC name for stearic acid. Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms. It is a common component of animal and vegetable fats.

Q66. What volume in dm3 of KCL is obtained in the following equation: 2KCIO3 - -> 2 KCI + 3O2.

• A. 2 dm³
• B. 0.04 dm³
• C. Cannot be determined from the given information✓
• D. Depends on the temperature and pressure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To determine the volume of KCl produced, we need additional information, such as the mass or moles of KClO3, as well as the temperature and pressure of the reaction.

Q67. J.J Thomson determined the:

• A. Charge of an electron
• B. Mass of an electron
• C. e/m value of an electron✓
• D. Charge of a proton
• E. Mass of a proton

Explanation: Thomson was able to deflect the cathode ray towards a positively charged plate deduce that the particles in the beam were negatively charged. Then Thomson measured how much various strengths of magnetic fields bent the particles. Using this information Thomson determined the mass to charge ratio of an electron.All other options are incorrect because those were not discovered by J.J thomson.

Q68. If the difference between electronegativity values between two atoms is less than 1.7 , the bond is necessarily:

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent✓
• C. Electrovalent
• D. Polar
• E. Non-polar

Explanation: If the electronegative difference is >1.7 then its nature is ionic and <1.7 then its nature is covalent and if its equal to 1.7 then nature of bond will be 50% ionic and 50% covalent. As here, it is less than 1.7, nature is covalent.

Q69. Consider the following reaction N2 + O2 —--> 2NO Kc = 0.1 at 2000° C. If original concentrations of N2 And O2 Were 0.1 M each. Calculate the concentrations of NO at equilibrium.

• A. 0.056 M
• B. 0.028 M✓
• C. 0.1 M
• D. 0.014 M

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q70. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are:

• A. Angular and non-zero✓
• B. Angular and zero
• C. Linear and zero
• D. Linear and non-zero

Explanation: H2S has a bent geometry according to VSEPR. It has 2 lone pairs and 2 bond pairs and a bond angle of 92o degrees. The dipole moment is non-zero because sulfur is more electronegative than hydrogen and makes the molecule slightly polar. Thus, the geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are Angular and non-zero.

Q71. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

• A. Fe²⁺✓
• B. Mn4⁺
• C. Cr³⁺
• D. Cu²⁺

Explanation: The electron configuration of Fe²⁺ is [Ar] 3d⁶. In the 3d orbital, there are 4 unpaired electrons.

Q72. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-COCH3 Is the functional isomer of

• A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO✓
• B. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3
• C. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
• D. CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COCH3

Explanation: This is the functional isomer of CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COCH3, as explained previously. Both molecules have the same carbon skeleton (six carbons) and the same number of hydrogen and oxygen atoms, but the functional groups differ.

Q73. Which of the following reactions is NOT shown in ketones?

• A. Nucleophilic Addition Reactions
• B. Reduction to Alcohols
• C. Formation of Hydrazones
• D. Reaction with Fehling's Solution✓

Explanation: Fehling's solution is used to test for the presence of reducing sugars and aldehydes. Ketones do not typically react with Fehling's solution because they lack the necessary functional group (an aldehyde) to reduce the copper(II) ion in the solution to copper(I) oxide. This is why ketones do not show a positive test with Fehling's solution.Conclusion: The correct answer is Fehling's Solution, which ketones do not react with, while the other options represent reactions that ketones typically undergo.

Q74. Lithium and beryllium are unique in such a way that they have higher charge densities which produce strong polarizing effects due to:

• A. Small size✓
• B. High electronegativity
• C. Low ionization energy
• D. Large atomic radius

Explanation: Lithium and beryllium's small size and high charge density cause strong polarizing effects, leading to covalent bond formation and their unique properties.

Q75. Which one of the following does NOT give an iodoform test?

• A. CH3OH✓
• B. CH3CH2OH
• C. CH3CHO
• D. CH3COCH3

Explanation: Iodoform ( in general haloform) reaction is given by ketones having methyl group attached to carbonyl carbon or secondary alcohols and secondary aldehdyes. Primary alcohols do not give iodoform test because they do not have any methyl group attached to carbonyl carbon. Hence, CH3OH does not give iodoform test.

Q76. If constant temperature conditions are applied to a gas container, then the volume of the mass of that gas tends to increase by:

• A. Decreasing the applied pressure✓
• B. Increasing the applied pressure
• C. Increasing the applied pressure with double force
• D. Increasing the weight

Explanation: Boyle's law: states that the volume of a given amount of gas held at constant temperature varies inversely with the applied pressure when the temperature and mass are constant.

Q77. When describing the isotopes of the same element, the most accurate statement is that they have:

• A. The same atomic number but different atomic masses✓
• B. The same atomic mass but different atomic numbers
• C. Different numbers of protons and neutrons
• D. Different numbers of electrons

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons (atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons. This difference in neutrons results in different atomic masses.

Q78. NH2 (amine) is an example of:

• A. Neutral ligand✓
• B. Anionic ligand
• C. Cationic ligand
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. An amine (NH2) is a neutral ligand because it does not carry a net charge. It donates a lone pair of electrons to form coordinate covalent bonds with metal ions

Q79. H2O has higher boiling point than HF because?

• A. H2O can form more hydrogen bonds✓
• B. HF has stronger hydrogen bonds.
• C. H2O has a higher molecular weight.
• D. HF is a polar molecule.

Explanation: Water (H2O) has a higher boiling point than hydrogen fluoride (HF) because, despite both forming hydrogen bonds, water's tetrahedral shape allows it to form twice as many hydrogen bonds per molecule, requiring more energy to break.

Q80. The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b= c, a = B = y = 90° is:

• A. Cubic✓
• B. Tetragonal
• C. Orthorhombic
• D. Monoclinic

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A Cubic unit cell is characterized by three equal edge lengths (a = b = c) and three right angles (α = β = γ = 90°). The given dimensions match the definition of a tetragonal unit cell.

Q81. Strontium lies between calcium and barium in group lIA in the Periodic Table. Which of the following properties could be predicted for strontium?

• A. Forms a sparingly soluble sulfate✓
• B. Forms a soluble sulfate
• C. Forms a highly reactive sulfate
• D. Forms a volatile sulfate

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Strontium, like calcium and barium, is a Group 2A element (alkaline earth metal). Group 2A elements generally form sparingly soluble sulfates. This means that strontium sulfate (SrSO4) has a low solubility in water.Therefore, based on the trends observed in Group 2A elements, it can be predicted that strontium forms a sparingly soluble sulfate.

Q82. Magnesium oxide is used in the making of the lining of the blast furnace.It is extracted from seawater as follows. Aqueous seawater is added to seawater. Ca(OH)2(aq)+MgCl2 (aq)-------->Mg (OH)2(s) + CaCl2 (aq). The magnesium hydroxide is then filtered off and roasted. Which of the following comparisons between calcium and magnesium explains why magnesium hydroxide forms?

• A. The solubility product for Mg(OH)2 is lower than that for Ca(OH)2✓
• B. The atomic radius of Mg is smaller than that of Ca.
• C. Magnesium is more reactive than calcium.
• D. Calcium has a higher ionization energy than magnesium.

Explanation: This is the correct answer. As discussed previously, solubility product (Ksp) plays a crucial role in determining the extent to which an ionic compound dissolves in water. A lower Ksp signifies lower solubility. In this case, Mg(OH)2 has a lower Ksp compared to Ca(OH)2. This means Mg(OH)2 precipitates more readily from the solution when Ca(OH)2 is added, even though both Ca and Mg compete with the hydroxide ions.

Q83. For a gas obeying Boyl's Law if pressure doubled the volume becomes.

• A. One-half✓
• B. Doubled
• C. Unchanged
• D. Quadrupled

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume when the temperature is held constant. Mathematically, this can be expressed as: P1 * V1 = P2 * V2. If the pressure is doubled (P2 = 2 * P1), then the volume must be halved (V2 = V1 / 2) to maintain the equality.

Q84. The K.E the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero will be.

• A. Zero✓
• B. Maximum
• C. Infinite
• D. Unpredictable

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Absolute zero is the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases.Since kinetic energy is the energy of motion, the kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero would be zero.

Q85. In which of the following compound all carbon uses sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation?

• A. (CH3)3COH✓
• B. CO2
• C. C2H4
• D. CH3COOH

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In (CH3)3COH, the carbon atom is bonded to four other atoms (three hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom) through single covalent bonds. This requires the carbon atom to have four hybrid orbitals, which are sp3 hybridized.

Q86. How many electrons can have the value n=2, I=1 and s - ½ in the configuration 1S2?, 2S2?,2p3?

• A. 3✓
• B. 1
• C. 5
• D. 7

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Let's break down the quantum numbers:n = 2: This indicates that the electrons are in the second principal energy level. l = 1: This indicates that the electrons are in a p subshell.s = -1/2: This indicates that the electrons have a spin of -1/2. NNow, let's analyze each configuration:1s2: This configuration has 2 electrons in the 1s orbital. Since the 1s orbital has l = 0, none of these electrons can have l = 1. 2s2: This configuration has 2 electrons in the 2s orbital. Since the 2s orbital has l = 0, none of these electrons can have l = 1. 2p3: This configuration has 3 electrons in the 2p subshell. Each p orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, and each electron can have either s = +1/2 or s = -1/2. Therefore, there can be a maximum of 1 electron in the 2p subshell with n = 2, l = 1, and s = -1/2. Adding up the electrons from each configuration, we find that a total of 3 electrons can have the values n = 2, l = 1, and s = -1/2 in the given configurations.

Q87. Atomic number of C is 6 and H is 1. How many electrons are present in 1.6 grams of methane?

• A. 6.022 x 10^23 electrons✓
• B. 1.204 x 10^24 electrons
• C. 3.011 x 10^23 electrons
• D. 2.409 x 10^24 electrons

Explanation: Determine the molar mass of methane (CH4): The molar mass of CH4 is 12.01 g/mol (for carbon) + 4 * 1.01 g/mol (for hydrogen) = 16.05 g/mol.Calculate the number of moles of methane in 1.6 grams: Number of moles = mass / molar mass = 1.6 g / 16.05 g/mol = 0.0997 moles.Determine the number of molecules of methane: Number of molecules = number of moles * Avogadro's number = 0.0997 moles * 6.022 x 10^23 molecules/mol = 6.022 x 10^22 molecules.Calculate the total number of electrons in one molecule of methane: Each methane molecule has 10 electrons (6 from carbon and 1 from each hydrogen).Calculate the total number of electrons in 6.022 x 10^22 molecules of methane: Total electrons = 6.022 x 10^22 molecules * 10 electrons/molecule = 6.022 x 10^23 electrons. Therefore, there are 6.022 x 10^23 electrons present in 1.6 grams of methane.

Q88. Matter is made up of:

• A. Atoms✓
• B. Molecules
• C. Particles
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Atoms are the fundamental building blocks of matter. They are incredibly small particles that make up everything around us.

Q89. Which of the following has the smallest size?

• A. Al³⁺✓
• B. F⁻
• C. Na⁺
• D. Mg²⁺

Explanation: This ion has a 3+ charge, meaning it has lost three electrons. This results in a strong attraction between the nucleus and the remaining electrons, making it the smallest ion among the options.

Q90. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent:

• A. The direction of the electron's spin✓
• B. The energy level of the electron
• C. The orbital shape of the electron
• D. The number of electrons in an orbital

Explanation: The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 represent the direction of the electron's spin. Electrons can spin in either a clockwise or counterclockwise direction. The +1/2 and -1/2 values indicate these two possible spin orientations.

Q91. In free states, the mass of the nucleus is always:

• A. Equal to the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons
• B. Less than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons✓
• C. Greater than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons
• D. Unpredictable and varies depending on the nucleus

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The difference between the sum of the individual masses and the actual mass of the nucleus is known as the mass defect. This mass defect is converted into energy that binds the nucleons together, a phenomenon explained by Einstein's famous equation E=mc².

Q92. In electromagnetic spectrum of radiations, the wavelength spectrum that is visible to humans lies in the range of:

• A. 400-700 nanometers✓
• B. 300-600 nanometers
• C. 200-500 nanometers
• D. 100-400 nanometers

Explanation: The visible spectrum of light, which is the range of electromagnetic radiation that humans can see, lies between 400 and 700 nanometers.

Q93. There are different types of waves that exist in this universe. Which of the following waves do Not need any material medium to travel?

• A. Sound waves
• B. Light waves✓
• C. Water waves
• D. Earthquake waves

Explanation: Light waves are electromagnetic waves that do not require a material medium to travel. They can travel through a vacuum, as demonstrated by sunlight reaching Earth from the Sun.

Q94. If a car collides with a housefly, what will be the magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly?

• A. Much greater than the force experienced by the car
• B. Much less than the force experienced by the car
• C. Equal to the force experienced by the car✓
• D. Cannot be determined without knowing the masses of the car and the housefly

Explanation: According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This means that when the car collides with the housefly, the housefly exerts an equal force on the car. Therefore, the magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly is equal to the force experienced by the car.

Q95. The process in which light bends around an obstacle is called:

• A. Diffraction of Light✓
• B. An interference of light
• C. Reflection of light
• D. Polarization of light

Explanation: Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge of an object. The amount of bending depends on the relative size of the wavelength of light to the size of the opening.

Q96. A handball is tossed vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s. approximately how high will it rise?

• A. 19.6 m✓
• B. 39.2 m
• C. 9.8 m
• D. 7.84 m

Explanation: This is the correct answer. We can use the equation of motion: v^2 = u^2 + 2as, where v is the final velocity (0 m/s at the maximum height), u is the initial velocity (19.6 m/s), a is the acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2), and s is the displacement (maximum height). Plugging in these values and solving for s gives us 19.6 m.

Q97. A stone is thrown horizontally from 2.4 m above the ground at 35 m/s. The wall is 14 m away and 1 m high. At what height will the stone reach when at the wall? Where will the stone land?

• A. 1.62 m, 24.5 m✓
• B. 2.22 m, 31 m
• C. 3.22 m, 41 m
• D. 4.22 m, 51 m
• E. 5.22 m, 61 m

Explanation: A stone is thrown horizontally from 2.4m above the ground with a speed of 35 m/s. time is taken to reach a point which is located 14m away from the stone, t = 14/35 = 0.4s vertical displacement covered by a stone during 0.4 sec, here, so, y = 0 - 1/2 × g × (0.4)² if g = 10 m/s² then, y = -1/2 × 10 × 0.16 = -0.8m so, position of stone from the ground = 2.4m - 0.8m = 1.6 m but it is given that the height of the wall is just 1m. so, the stone doesn't hit the wall and the stone is 1.6m above the ground, where the wall stands. now again applying the formula, where, y = -2.4 m , or, -2.4 m = 0 - 1/2 × 10 × t² or, t² = 0.48 ⇒t = 0.7sec so, x = ut = 35m/s × 0.7s = 24.5 m Hence, the stone hits the ground 24.5 m away from the initial position of it.

Q98. A person having a mass of 60 kilograms exerts a horizontal force of 200 Newtons in pushing a 90 kilogram object a distance of 6 meters along a horizontal floor. He does this at constant velocity in 3 seconds. The weight of this person approximately, in Newtons, is: (g=9.8m/s2)

• A. 40 N
• B. 90 N
• C. 200 N
• D. 400 N
• E. 600 N✓

Explanation: To find the weight of a person, use the formula W = mg, where W is the weight, m is the mass (60 kg), and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximated here as 10 m/s2). Thus, the weight is calculated as:W = 60 kg × 10 m/s2 = 600 NTherefore, the correct answer is 600 N. Other options are incorrect as they underestimate the weight given the mass of 60 kg and the gravitational acceleration.

Q99. Light can be polarized by:

• A. Reflection✓
• B. Refraction
• C. Diffraction
• D. Interference

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Light can be polarized by reflection, especially when it reflects off a non-metallic surface at a specific angle known as Brewster's angle. At this angle, the reflected light becomes completely polarized, with the electric field vector vibrating in a plane parallel to the reflecting surface.

Q100. When a 7000 N elevator moves from street level to the top of a building 300m above the street level, what is the change in gravitational potential energy?

• A. 2.1 x 10^6 J✓
• B. 2.1 x 10^3 J
• C. 2.1 x 10^9 J
• D. 2.1 x 10^12 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The change in gravitational potential energy (ΔPE) is calculated using the formula:ΔPE = m * g * Δhwhere:m is the mass of the objectg is the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²)Δh is the change in heightFirst, we need to calculate the mass of the elevator from its weight: m = W / g = 7000 N / 9.81 m/s² ≈ 713.8 kgThen, we can calculate the change in potential energy: ΔPE = (713.8 kg) * (9.81 m/s²) * (300 m) ≈ 2.1 x 10^6 J Therefore, the change in gravitational potential energy of the elevator is 2.1 x 10^6 J.

Q101. A conductor carrying a current I has length L. when it is placed in a magnetic field, B at 90° it experiences a force

• A. BIL✓
• B. B/IL
• C. IL/B
• D. B + IL

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When a conductor carrying a current I is placed in a magnetic field B at an angle of 90°, it experiences a force given by the formula:F = BILwhere:F is the force on the conductorB is the magnetic field strengthI is the current flowing through the conductorL is the length of the conductor

Q102. The radius of third bohr orbit is:

• A. 0.529 * 3^2 Å✓
• B. 0.529 * 2^2 Å
• C. 0.529 * 4^2 Å
• D. 0.529 Å

Explanation: This is the correct answer. According to Bohr's model, the radius of an electron's orbit in a hydrogen atom is given by:rn = n^2 * a0where:rn is the radius of the nth orbitn is the principal quantum number (1, 2, 3, ...)a0 is the Bohr radius (5.29 * 10^-11 m or 0.529 Å)For the third Bohr orbit (n = 3):r3 = 3^2 * 0.529 Å = 9 * 0.529 Å = 4.761 ÅTherefore, the radius of the third Bohr orbit is 0.529 * 3^2 Å.

Q103. The ground state of an atom corresponds to a state of:

• A. Minimum energy✓
• B. Maximum energy
• C. Zero energy
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The ground state of an atom is the lowest energy state that its electrons can occupy. In this state, the electrons are in their most stable configuration, and the atom has the lowest possible energy.

Q104. When the number of significant figures in a measurement are indicated is shows the level of

• A. Certainty✓
• B. Precision
• C. Accuracy
• D. Error

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The number of significant figures in a measurement indicates the level of certainty or precision associated with that measurement. It reflects the number of digits that are known with certainty, as well as the first uncertain digit. More significant figures generally imply a higher level of precision.

Q105. Incident rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens, after refraction by the lens, will:

• A. Converge at the principal focus✓
• B. Diverge from the principal focus
• C. Pass through the optical center unchanged
• D. Be refracted parallel to the principal axis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A convex lens is a converging lens, meaning it causes parallel incident rays to converge at a point called the principal focus. This is a fundamental property of convex lenses and is used in various optical instruments like cameras and telescopes.Therefore, incident rays parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens will converge at the principal focus after refraction.

Q106. The lightest element which exhibits radioactivity is:

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Deuteron
• C. Tritium✓
• D. Helium

Explanation: Tritium is the only radioactive isotope of hydrogen and the other two have stable nuclei. As hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table, tritium will be the lightest radioactive isotope in the periodic table.

Q107. In simple harmonic motion, a particle is oscillating in such a way that its total energy remains conserved. When this particle reaches its two extreme positions, its potential energy at the extreme positions become:

• A. Minimum
• B. Maximum✓
• C. Zero
• D. Greater than its kinetic energy

Explanation: In SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and zero at the extreme positions while potential energy is zero at mean position and maximum at the extreme positions. In SHM when a particle reach its extreme position so at that point its velocity become zero and all the energy it has is just potential energy because if we drop the particle from extreme position so it come back to its originsl position without any externsl force by using its stored potential energy and these extreme positions are the positions where the particle have maximum potential energy. Result: So at extreme postions potential enegy is maximum and at starting point it is minimum.

Q108. When an electron and its anti particle position come close enough to each other, they Completely convert into radiation energy in the form of photons, this process Is called:

• A. Annihilation✓
• B. Pair production
• C. Compton scattering
• D. Photoelectric effect

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When an electron and its antiparticle, a positron, come into contact, they undergo a process called annihilation. In this process, the mass of both particles is completely converted into pure energy, which is emitted in the form of photons. This process is a fundamental interaction in particle physics and is essential for understanding the behavior of matter and antimatter.

Q109. A solar day is the time interval between two successive appearances of the sun overhead. The time that is referred to the rotation of the earth about its axis is called:

• A. Universal Time✓
• B. Length of the day
• C. Time interval
• D. Solar day

Explanation: A solar day is time lnterval between two successlve appearance of the sun overhead. Thus mean second, representing the basic unit of time, was originally defned as (1/60) (1/60) (1/24) of a mean solar day. The tme that is referred to rotation of the earth about its axis is called universal time. STB-Chapter#1.

Q110. Two forces equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and not acting along the same line constitute a couple

• A. Independent of the location of origin
• B. Dependent on the location of origin
• C. Always produces a net force
• D. Always produces a net torque
• E. a and d✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer is both A and D, couple, consisting of two equal and opposite forces that do not act along the same line, produces a pure torque. The magnitude of this torque is independent of the location of the origin chosen to calculate it. This means that the rotational effect of a couple is the same regardless of where you measure it from.

Q111. A cyclist moving towards right with an acceleration of 4m/ Sec2 at t = 0, he as traveled 5m moving towards the right at 15m/Sec. what be his position at t=2 seconds?

• A. 38 meters
• B. 50 meters
• C. 25 meters
• D. 43 meters✓

Explanation: To find the position of the cyclist at t=2t = 2t=2 seconds, we can use the equations of motion for uniformly accelerated linear motion. Here’s how to approach the problem: The cyclist's position at t=2t is 43 meters,

Q112. A fixed mass of gas in a thermally insulated container is compressed. After compression, the temperature of the gas will have:

• A. Risen✓
• B. Decreased
• C. Remained constant
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When a gas is compressed in a thermally insulated container (adiabatic process), work is done on the gas. This work increases the internal energy of the gas, which is directly related to the kinetic energy of its molecules. As the kinetic energy of the molecules increases, the temperature of the gas rises.

Q113. Find the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 10 kg, when placed at a distance of 1 meter apart.

• A. 6.674 x 10-9 N✓
• B. 7.71 x 10-9 N
• C. 8.91 x 10-9 N
• D. 9.91 x 10-9 N
• E. 10.31 x 10-9 N

Explanation: F = (G * m1 * m2) / r2 where F is the gravitational force, G is the gravitationalconstant (approximately 6.674 × 10-11 N m2/kg2), m1 and m2 are the masses ofthe objects and r is the distance between their centers. Given that both balls weigh 10 kg and are placed 1 meter apart,we can substitute the values into the formula: F = (6.674 × 10-11 N m2/kg2 * 10 kg * 10 kg) / (1 m)2 F = (6.674 × 10-11 N m2/kg2 * 100 kg2) / 1 m2 F = 6.674 × 10-9 N Therefore, the gravitational force of attraction between thetwo balls weighing 10 kg each, when placed 1 meter apart, is approximately6.674 × 10-9 Newtons.

Q114. A body of mass 4 kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.04 m from its equilibrium position and then released. If the spring constant is 400 N/m, find the time period of the vibration?

• A. 4.567
• B. 3.416
• C. 2.315
• D. 1.325
• E. 0.628✓

Explanation: This is the solution to this question: The time period of vibration can be calculated using the formula: T = 2π * √(m/k) where T is the time period, m is the mass of the body and kis the spring constant. In this case, the mass of the body is 4 kg, and the springconstant is 400 N/m. T = 2π * √(4 kg / 400 N/m) T = 2π * √(0.01 s^2/kg) T = 2π * 0.1 s T ≈ 0.628 s Therefore, the time period of vibration for the bodyattached to the spring is approximately 0.628 seconds.

Q115. What will be the position of the object, when a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, is used to form an erect image which is twice as large as the object.

• A. 10 cm✓
• B. 20 cm
• C. 30 cm
• D. 40 cm

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To form an erect image twice as large as the object using a convex lens, the object must be placed between the focal point and the optical center of the lens. Focal length (f): 20 cm Magnification (m): 2 (since the image is twice as large as the object)Using the lens formula:1/v - 1/u = 1/fWhere: v is the image distance u is the object distanceSince the magnification is positive for an erect image:m = v/u = 2Therefore: v = 2uSubstituting this into the lens formula: 1/(2u) - 1/u = 1/20 cmSolving for u:u = 10 cmTherefore, the object must be placed 10 cm from the lens to form an erect image twice as large as the object.

Q116. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon only:

• A. Pressure
• B. Volume
• C. Temperature✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: The internal energy of an ideal gas is determined by its temperature because it is directly related to the kinetic energy of its molecules. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas. Pressure and volume do not directly affect the internal energy in an ideal gas scenario. Therefore, the correct answer is temperature, as the internal energy is a function of temperature alone in ideal gases.

Q117. 760.0 have

• A. Four significant figures✓
• B. Three significant figures
• C. Two significant figures
• D. One significant figure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In determining the number of significant figures, we follow these rules:All non-zero digits are significant.Zeros between non-zero digits are significant.Trailing zeros are significant only if there is a decimal point present.In the number 760.0, all digits are non-zero, and the trailing zero after the decimal point is significant. Therefore, 760.0 has four significant figures.

Q118. In photodiode, the bias voltage is applied in bias form:

• A. Reverse bias✓
• B. Forward bias
• C. No bias
• D. Zener bias

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Photodiodes are typically operated in reverse bias mode. This means that an external voltage is applied to the photodiode in such a way that it opposes the natural flow of current through the PN junction. When light strikes the photodiode, it generates electron-hole pairs, which are then swept away by the electric field created by the reverse bias voltage, producing a photocurrent.

Q119. Consider the following examples of motion.I, The daily motion of the earth about its own axis.I. The motion of planets around the sun.IlI. Sugar cane crushing machine is run by a camel that moves in a circular path around the machine.IV. Rotation of the flywheel about its axis.Which of the following is circular or rotational motion?

• A. I, II, and III only
• B. I, II, and IV only
• C. I, III, and IV only
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Rotation of a flywheel about its axle: This is a classic example of rotational motion, where an object spins around a fixed axis.

Q120. The series limit for the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664A. Calculate ionization energy of hydrogen atom.

• A. 21.7 x 10^-19 J✓
• B. 13.6 x 10^-19 J
• C. 3.4 x 10^-19 J
• D. 8.2 x 10^-19 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The series limit for the Balmer series corresponds to the transition of an electron from n = ∞ (infinity) to n = 2. The energy of this transition can be calculated using the Rydberg formula:1/λ = R * (1/n1^2 - 1/n2^2)where:λ is the wavelength of the emitted photon R is the Rydberg constant (1.097 x 10^7 m^-1) n1 and n2 are the principal quantum numbers of the initial and final energy levels, respectively For the series limit, n1 = ∞ and n2 = 2. Substituting these values into the equation, we get: 1/λ = R * (1/2^2 - 1/∞^2) = R/4 Solving for λ, we get: λ = 4/R = 364.5 nm Now, we can calculate the energy of the emitted photon using the equation: E = hc/λ where: h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 J s) c is the speed of light (3.00 x 10^8 m/s) Substituting the values, we get: E = (6.626 x 10^-34 J s) * (3.00 x 10^8 m/s) / (364.5 x 10^-9 m) = 5.42 x 10^-19 J The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is the energy required to remove the electron from the ground state (n = 1) to infinity. Since the energy of the electron in the ground state is -13.6 eV (or -2.18 x 10^-18 J), the ionization energy is:Ionization energy = (-13.6 eV) * (1.602 x 10^-19 J/eV) = 21.7 x 10^-19 J Therefore, the ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 21.7 x 10^-19 J.

Q121. Which of the following best describes the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen?

• A. Several discrete series of lines with both intensity and spacings between lines decreasing as the wavenumber increases with each series✓
• B. A continuous spectrum with no distinct lines
• C. A few broad, overlapping lines
• D. A single, sharp line

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is characterized by several distinct series of lines, each representing transitions between different energy levels in the atom. The intensity and spacing between these lines decrease as the wavenumber (frequency) increases within each series. This pattern is a direct consequence of the quantization of energy levels in the hydrogen atom, as described by Bohr's model.Therefore, the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is best described as several discrete series of lines with decreasing intensity and spacing as the wavenumber increases within each series

Q122. The phenomenon in which certain elements emit invisible radiations is called:

• A. Radioactivity✓
• B. Fluorescence
• C. Phosphorescence
• D. Luminescence

Explanation: Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nuclei of unstable atoms. This radiation can take various forms, including alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays, which are all invisible to the human eye.

Q123. A 3-cm length of wire is moved at right angles across a uniform magnetic field with a speed of 2.0 m/s. If the flux density is 5.0 teslas, what is the magnitude of the induced e.m.f?

• A. 0.15 V
• B. 0.30 V✓
• C. 0.45 V
• D. 0.60 V

Explanation: To calculate the induced electromotive force (EMF) in this scenario, we can use Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, which states that the induced EMF is equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux. Formula:EMF = - (dΦ/dt)Where: EMF is the induced electromotive force (in volts) dΦ/dt is the rate of change of magnetic flux (in webers per second)Breaking down the problem:Magnetic flux (Φ): The magnetic flux is given by the product of the magnetic field strength (B) and the area (A) perpendicular to the field. In this case, the wire is moving perpendicular to the field, so the area is simply the length of the wire times its width (which we'll assume is negligible compared to its length). Φ = B * A = B * L * wRate of change of magnetic flux: Since the wire is moving at a constant speed, the area it sweeps through per second is constant. Therefore, the rate of change of magnetic flux is simply the product of the magnetic field strength and the speed of the wire. dΦ/dt = B * L * vSubstituting values:B = 5.0 TL = 3 cm = 0.03 mv = 2.0 m/sCalculation: EMF = - (dΦ/dt) = - (B * L * v) = - (5.0 T * 0.03 m * 2.0 m/s) = -0.3 VThe magnitude of the induced EMF is 0.3 volts.Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 0.30 V.

Q124. Two springs fixed at one end are stretched by 5 cm and 10 cm, respectively, when masses 0.5 kg and 1 kg are suspended at their lower ends. When displaced slightly from their mean positions and released, they will oscillate with time periods in the ratio

• A. 1:√2✓
• B. 1:2
• C. 2:1
• D. √2:1

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The time period of a spring-mass system is given by T = 2π√(m/k), where T is the time period, m is the mass, and k is the spring constant. Since the spring constant is the same for both springs (as the same force produces the same extension), the ratio of the time periods will only depend on the ratio of the masses: T1/T2 = √(m1/m2). Substituting the given masses, we get T1/T2 = √(0.5 kg / 1 kg) = √(1/2) = 1/√2.

Q125. 48.86 can be round of,

• A. 48.9✓
• B. 48.8
• C. 49
• D. 50

Explanation: To round 48.86 to one decimal place, we look at the digit in the hundredths place, which is 6. Since 6 is greater than or equal to 5, we round up the digit in the tenths place (8) to 9. Therefore, 48.86 rounded to one decimal place is 48.9.

Q126. Gamma rays are emitted from nuclei of radioactive atoms. They are nothing

• A. High-energy electromagnetic radiations✓
• B. Electrons
• C. Protons
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Gamma rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light, X-rays, and radio waves. However, they have much higher energy and shorter wavelengths than these other types of radiation. Gamma rays are emitted from the nuclei of radioactive atoms as a result of nuclear decay processes, such as alpha decay or beta decay.

Q127. The process of natural decay of some heavy nuclides is because of the phenomenon.

• A. Radioactivity✓
• B. Fission
• C. Fusion
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nucleus of an unstable atom. This process is known as nuclear decay. Some heavy nuclides are unstable due to having an excess of neutrons or protons, and they undergo radioactive decay to achieve a more stable configuration.

Q128. When a transformer is connected to 120-volt ac, it supplies 300 V to a device. The current through the secondary winding then is 0.06 A and the current through the primary is 2 A. The number of turns in the primary winding is 400. The number of turns in the secondary winding is:

• A. 1200 turns
• B. 1000 turns✓
• C. 800 turns
• D. 600 turns

Explanation: To calculate the number of turns in the secondary winding, we can use the relationship between the voltage, current, and number of turns in a transformer:Formula:(Vs / Vp) = (Ns / Np)Where: Vs is the voltage in the secondary winding Vp is the voltage in the primary winding Ns is the number of turns in the secondary winding Np is the number of turns in the primary winding We are given: Vs = 300 V Vp = 120 V Np = 400 turns Is = 0.06 A Ip = 2 Substituting the values into the formula: (300 V / 120 V) = (Ns / 400 turns) Simplifying: 2.5 = (Ns / 400 turns) Solving for Ns: Ns = 2.5 * 400 turns = 1000 turnsTherefore, the number of turns in the secondary winding is 1000 turns.This is the correct answer, as calculated above.

Q129. Which pair includes a vector quantity and a scalar quantity respectively?

• A. Force, kinetic energy✓
• B. Velocity,acceleration
• C. Acceleration, displacement
• D. mass and momentum

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Force is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude (size) and direction. Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude and does not depend on direction

Q130. A Fixed mass of an ideal gas absorbs 1000 J of heat and expands under a constant pressure of 20 kPa from a volume of 25 x 10-3 m3 to a volume of 50x10-3 m3 . What is the change in internal energy of the gas?

• A. +1000 J
• B. +5000 J
• C. 0J
• D. +500 J✓

Explanation: W = PΔVΔV = V2 - V1ΔV = 50 * 10-3 - 25 * 10-3 ΔV = 25 * 10-3 W = 20,000 * 25 * 10-3 W = 500 JCalculate the change in internal energy. ΔU = Q - W ΔU = 1000 J - 500 J ΔU = 500 J

Q131. One kilowatt hour equivalent by a factor—----- In Joules.

• A. 3.6 * 10^6 J✓
• B. 3.6 * 10^3 J
• C. 3.6 * 10^9 J
• D. 3.6 * 10^12 J

Explanation: 1 kilowatt (kW) is equal to 1000 watts (W).1 watt (W) is equal to 1 joule per second (J/s).1 hour is equal to 3600 seconds.1 kWh = 1000 W * 3600 s = 3,600,000 J = 3.6 * 10^6 J

Q132. The sum of all forms of molecular energies in a thermodynamic system is known as:

• A. Entropy
• B. Enthalpy
• C. Internal energy✓
• D. Red shift

Explanation: Internal energy is the sum of potential energy of the system and the system's kinetic energy. It is the sum of all possible molecular energies in a thermodynamic system.

Q133. The closeness of two measurements is evaluated by its.

• A. Precision✓
• B. Accuracy
• C. Certainty
• D. Error

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Precision refers to how close repeated measurements are to each other. It is a measure of the reproducibility of a measurement. A high degree of precision means that the measurements are consistent and repeatable.

Q134. The volume occupied by one kilogram by weight of pure water at 3.98° C is known as:

• A. Liter✓
• B. Gram
• C. Cubic meter
• D. Milliliter

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The volume occupied by one kilogram of pure water at 3.98°C is defined as one liter. This temperature is chosen because it is the temperature at which water has its maximum density.

Q135. In a npn transistor, the current lE that flows in the emitter circuit is:

• A. Ie = Ic + Ib✓
• B. Ie = Ic - Ib
• C. Ie = Ib / Ic
• D. Ie = Ic * Ib

Explanation: This is the correct relationship between the emitter current (Ie), collector current (Ic), and base current (Ib) in an NPN transistor. The emitter current is equal to the sum of the collector current and the base current. This is because the majority of the charge carriers (electrons) entering the emitter region either flow to the collector or recombine with holes in the base region.

Q136. During the process of nuclear disintegration, when beta particle emission occurs, atomic no. of the atom changes by _ and the mass number changes by _.

• A. One unit ; one unit
• B. One unit ; no units✓
• C. No units ; one unit
• D. No units ; no units

Explanation: Option A: This option is incorrect. When a beta particle is emitted, the atomic number of the atom changes by one unit, but the mass number of the atom does not change. Option B: The correct answer is one unit; no units. When a beta particle is emitted, a neutron in the nucleus decays into a proton and an electron. The electron is emitted as a beta particle, and the proton remains in the nucleus. This changes the atomic number of the atom by one unit, since the number of protons is one more than the number of neutrons. The mass number of the atom does not change, since the mass of the electron is very small compared to the mass of the neutron or proton. Option C: This option is incorrect. The atomic number of the atom changes when a beta particle is emitted, so this option cannot be correct. Option D: This option is incorrect. The mass number of the atom changes when a beta particle is emitted, so this option cannot be correct.

Q137. According to Bohr's theory of Hydrogen atom, only those atomic orbits with radil "P" and atomic shell "n" around the nucleus are allowed which have the angular momenta:

• A. nh/2π✓
• B. n^2h/2π
• C. h/2π
• D. n^3h/2π

Explanation: This is the correct answer. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is quantized and can only take on discrete values. The allowed values of angular momentum are given by L = nh/2π, where n is the principal quantum number (which determines the energy level of the electron), and h is Planck's constant.

Q138. A _ is a positively charged particle with properties similar to the α-particle. Its mass is one fourth and charge is one half of that of an α-particle. It is smaller in size and carries less energy at the same velocity.

• A. Beta particle
• B. Gamma ray
• C. Neutron
• D. Proton✓

Explanation: The correct answer is a proton. A proton is a positively charged particle with a mass that is one fourth that of an alpha particle and a charge that is one half of an alpha particle, making it the particle described in the question.Beta particles are incorrect as they are negatively charged particles akin to electrons. Gamma rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation and do not have mass or charge. Neutrons have no charge, so they do not fit the description of a positively charged particle.

Q139. Which unit expresses work per unit charge?

• A. Volt✓
• B. Ampere
• C. Coulomb
• D. Watt

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The unit of work per unit charge is the volt. One volt is defined as one joule of work done per coulomb of charge. Mathematically, it can be expressed as: 1 volt = 1 joule / 1 coulomb Therefore, the volt is the appropriate unit for expressing work per unit charge.

Q140. Which of the following gives the meaning of the prefix "tele"?

• A. Far✓
• B. Near
• C. Between
• D. Around

Explanation: The prefix "tele" generally means far or distant. It is often used to describe things that are remote or at a distance.

Q141. The synonym of "threatening" is?

• A. Aggressive✓
• B. Peaceful
• C. Friendly
• D. Gentle

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Aggressive means hostile, unfriendly, or threatening in behavior. It is a synonym for threatening.

Q142. There—------many students waiting to bear the result of the test.

• A. Are✓
• B. Is
• C. Was
• D. Were

Explanation: This is the correct verb to use because the subject "many students" is plural.

Q143. Out of the 13 types of finches collected by Darwin from the Galapagos:

• A. All were unique to individual islands
• B. All finches were red-beaked
• C. Some were unique to individual islands, and some were present on many islands✓
• D. The majority were unique to individual islands

Explanation: Among the birds Darwin collected on the Galapagos were 13 types of finches that, although quite similar, seemed to be different species. Some were unique to individual islands, while other species were distributed on two or more islands that were close together. This shows divergence in the evolution.

Q144. A mammal that lives only in America is:

• A. Armadillo✓
• B. Tasmanian Wolf
• C. Kangaroo
• D. Indus Dolphin

Explanation: The correct answer is "armadillo," as they are mammals native to the Americas. Armadillos are primarily found in various habitats across North America, Central America, and South America. The Tasmanian wolf, kangaroo, and Indus dolphin are native to Tasmania, Australia, and Pakistan, respectively, and not to America.

Q145. The evolutionary view of biogeography predicts that contemporary armadillos are modified descendants of earlier species that occupied:

• A. Asia
• B. Neighboring continents
• C. Other continents
• D. South America✓

Explanation: The evolutionary view of biogeography suggests that species evolve in the regions they currently inhabit, supported by historical presence and gradual adaptation. Thus, contemporary armadillos are considered modified descendants of species that occupied the same continents, specifically the Americas. This aligns with biogeographical evidence and the principle that species evolve in their current geographical locations rather than originating from distant or other continents. The incorrect options suggest origins from regions outside of their current habitat, which contradicts the evolutionary theory of biogeography.

Q146. A respiratory protein found in all aerobic species is?

• A. Plastocyanin
• B. Cytochrome c✓
• C. Cytochrome F
• D. Ferredoxin

Explanation: Cytochrome c is a respiratory protein found in all aerobic species. Cytochrome c is a small heme protein located in the inner mitochondrial membrane of eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in the electron transport chain, a series of redox reactions that occur during cellular respiration.

Q147. What are the main points of Darwin's theory of evolution?

• A. Origin of species, descent with modification.
• B. Natural selection, adaptation.
• C. Struggle for existence, evolution.
• D. Descent with modification, natural selection, and adaptation.✓

Explanation: Darwin's theory of evolution rests on three main points: 'Descent with Modification,' which refers to the passing on of traits from parent to offspring with changes over generations; 'Natural Selection,' which is the process by which certain traits become more common in a population due to their advantage in survival and reproduction; and 'Adaptation,' which is the process by which species become better suited to their environment. Other options mention related concepts but miss one or more of these key points.

Q148. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in total darkness because of:

• A. Tectorial membrane
• B. Organ of corti
• C. Cochlea
• D. Vestibular apparatus✓

Explanation: The vestibular apparatus is present in the ear. It forms the labyrinth of the inner ear in association with the cochlea. This apparatus is responsible for the balance and sense of orientation of the body in the air. It consists of 3 semi-circular canals, the base of which consists of the ampulla, and the otolith organ, which consists of the utricle and saccule, which have a projecting ridge called the macula. When the body is oriented in a different form in the darkness or absence of light, the apparatus helps to determine the orientation. Thus, the correct answer is option D.

Q149. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

• A. Corpus callosum - communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
• B. Cerebrum - calculation and contemplation
• C. Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
• D. Cerebellum - language comprehension✓

Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance. Language comprehension is a function of the cerebrum.

Q150. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:

• A. Short ­term memory
• B. Co­ordination during locomotion
• C. Executive functions; such as decision making
• D. Regulation of body temperature.✓

Explanation: The hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. It provides an anatomical connection between the nervous and endocrine systems through its relationship to the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is a thermoregulatory centre. Hence, it is called the “thermostat” of the body. It keeps body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system. Any localised injury to the hypothalamus will, hence, disrupt the regulation of body temperature.

Q151. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in the loss of:

• A. Commissural impulses
• B. Integrating impulses
• C. Sensory impulses
• D. Voluntary motor impulses✓

Explanation: Peripheral motor nerves carry motor impulses from the spinal cord to voluntary muscles. The destruction of the cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord will result in the loss of voluntary motor impulses. This is because the cells of the anterior horn (also called the anterior gray column), which is the front column of gray matter in the spinal cord, contain motor neurons that innervate the axillary muscles.

Q152. In the mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center of the visual field where:

• A. Only rods are present
• B. More rods than cones are found
• C. High density of cones occurs, but it has no rods✓
• D. An equal number of rods and cones

Explanation: The fovea is the part of the retina with the highest concentration of cones, responsible for sharp central vision and color perception. Since cones are primarily used for detailed vision in bright light, the fovea has no rods, which are responsible for vision in low light conditions.

Q153. Which of the following joints would allow no movements?

• A. Synovial joint
• B. Ball and Socket joint
• C. Fibrous joint✓
• D. Cartilaginous joint

Explanation: Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmosis, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull. An example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle. Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.

Q154. Glenoid cavity articulates:

• A. Clavicle with scapula
• B. Humerus with scapula✓
• C. Clavicle with acromion
• D. Scapula with acromion

Explanation: The glenoid cavity, a part of the scapula, articulates specifically with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint, which allows for a wide range of motion. The other options mention joints that do not involve the glenoid cavity. For instance, the clavicle connects to the scapula at the acromion process, not the glenoid cavity.

Q155. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as:

• A. Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other✓
• B. When myofilaments slide pass each other, myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments do not shorten
• C. When myofilaments slide pass each other, actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments do not shorten
• D. Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other.

Explanation: During muscle contraction, the laterally projecting heads (cross-bridges) of the thick myosin myofilaments come in contact with the thin actin myofilaments and rotate on them. This pulls the thin myofilaments toward the middle of the sarcomere, past the thick myofilaments. The Z lines come closer together, and the sarcomere becomes shorter. Length of the A band remains constant. Myofilaments (both actin and myosin) stay the same length. Free ends of actin myofilaments move closer to the centre of the sarcomere, bringing Z lines closer together. I bands shorten, and the H zone narrows. A similar action in all the sarcomeres results in shortening of the entire myofibril and thereby of the whole fibre and the whole muscle.

Q156. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:

• A. The neuromuscular junction✓
• B. The transverse tubules
• C. The myofibril
• D. The sarcoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: The correct answer is the neuromuscular junction, where a motor neuron communicates with a muscle fiber. This junction includes the axon terminals of the neuron and the motor end plate of the muscle fiber. The transverse tubules, myofibrils, and sarcoplasmic reticulum have different roles in muscle function. Transverse tubules aid in action potential propagation, myofibrils are the contractile units, and the sarcoplasmic reticulum stores calcium ions, but none of these are directly involved in the initial neuron-muscle fiber interaction.

Q157. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by:

• A. Pushing it upward
• B. Pushing and pulling it, respectively
• C. Pulling it upward
• D. Pulling and pushing it, respectively✓

Explanation: Transpiration creates a pulling force that draws water upward through xylem. Root pressure generates a pushing force from the roots toward the stem. Together, transpiration pull and root pressure help in the ascent of sap.

Q158. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal opening?

• A. Starch hydrolysis
• B. Guard cell photosynthesis
• C. Transpiration
• D. Potassium influx and efflux✓

Explanation: Modern research shows stomatal opening is driven by ion movements in guard cells. Potassium ions enter guard cells, lowering water potential and causing water uptake. This increases turgor in guard cells, opening the stomata.

Q159. In a ring-girdled plant:

• A. The shoot and root die together
• B. Neither root nor shoot will die
• C. The shoot dies first
• D. The root dies first✓

Explanation: Girdling involves removing a ring of bark from a plant's stem, which also removes the phloem, halting the transport of organic solutes from the leaves to the roots. As a result, nutrients collect above the girdle, leading to vigorous growth above it. However, the tissues below the girdle, including the roots, are deprived of necessary nutrients, causing them to die first. Eventually, the whole plant dies. This demonstrates the crucial role of phloem in transporting nutrients to the roots. Thus, option D is correct. The other options are incorrect because they either misunderstand the order of death or the effects of nutrient disruption caused by girdling.

Q160. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

• A. Transport saturation
• B. Uphill transport✓
• C. Requirement of special membrane proteins
• D. High selectivity

Explanation: Facilitated transport is a passive process that moves molecules down their concentration gradient with the help of specific membrane proteins. Option B, 'Uphill transport,' is incorrect for facilitated transport because it involves moving substances against their gradient, requiring energy input, which is characteristic of active transport. Option A, 'Transport saturation,' is a valid feature of facilitated transport as it reaches a maximum rate when all proteins are occupied. Option C, 'Requirement of special membrane proteins,' is true since facilitated transport depends on specific proteins to move molecules. Option D, 'High selectivity,' accurately describes facilitated transport as it allows only specific molecules to pass through the membrane.

Q161. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having:

• A. Cytoskeleton
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Chloroplasts✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: Chloroplasts. Guard cells are distinct from other epidermal cells because they contain chloroplasts, allowing them to conduct photosynthesis. This photosynthetic activity is vital for managing the turgor pressure within the guard cells, thereby controlling the opening and closing of stomata. On the other hand, the other options do not uniquely differentiate guard cells from other epidermal cells: the cytoskeleton, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum are all common cellular components found in both guard and other epidermal cells. Thus, these options do not highlight the unique characteristic that sets guard cells apart.

Q162. Root pressure develops due to

• A. Passive absorption
• B. Active absorption✓
• C. Increase in transpiration
• D. Low osmotic potential in soil

Explanation: Root pressure develops due to active absorption of mineral ions by root cells. This lowers the water potential inside the roots, causing water to enter by osmosis. The inward movement of water generates a positive pressure called root pressure.

Q163. Which of the following alkenes is the most reactive towards the addition of bromine?

• A. 2-Butene
• B. Ethene✓
• C. 2-Methyl-2-Butene
• D. Propene

Explanation: The reactivity of alkenes towards electrophilic addition generally decreases as substitution increases. Ethene is the least substituted alkene among the choices, making its double bond more exposed and reactive towards bromine.

Q164. The dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH gives:

• A. Only 2-butene
• B. Only 1-butene
• C. 2-butene as the major product✓
• D. 1-butene as the major product

Explanation: In the dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH, the elimination reaction follows Zaitsev's rule, where the more substituted alkene is more stable and formed preferentially. In this case, 2-butene is more substituted than 1-butene, making it the major product. The third carbon's hydrogen is removed to form 2-butene, which is more stable. Options suggesting only one product or 1-butene as the major product are incorrect due to the stability of 2-butene.

Q165. Sabatier Senderens reaction is an example of:

• A. Non thermic reaction
• B. Exothermic reaction✓
• C. Endothermic reaction
• D. None

Explanation: The Sabatier-Senderens reaction is the catalytic hydrogenation of unsaturated hydrocarbons. This process involves the breaking of a relatively weak pi bond and the formation of two strong sigma bonds, which releases a significant amount of energy, making it an exothermic reaction.

Q166. Consider the following reactions:

• A. But-1-yne✓
• B. But-1-ene
• C. But-2-yne
• D. But-2-ene

Explanation: Ammonical AgNO3 forms a white precipitate with terminal alkynes due to the formation of a silver acetylide, which is a characteristic of terminal alkynes. But-1-yne is the only terminal alkyne among the options and reacts with AgNO3 to form a white precipitate. The other options, But-1-ene and But-2-ene, are alkenes and do not exhibit this reaction. But-2-yne is an internal alkyne and does not react with AgNO3 to form a precipitate due to the lack of a terminal hydrogen.

Q167. The correct decreasing order of reactivity of alkenes towards hydrogen halides is:

• A. 2-Methylpropene > Propene > Ethene✓
• B. Ethene > Propene > 2-Methylpropene
• C. Propene > Ethene > 2-Methylpropene
• D. Ethene > 2-Methylpropene > Propene

Explanation: The reaction proceeds via a carbocation intermediate. The more stable the carbocation formed, the faster the reaction. 2-Methylpropene forms the most stable tertiary carbocation, followed by propene (secondary), and then athene (primary). so the reactivity order is 2-Methylpropene > Propene > Ethene.

Q168. When n-butane is heated in the presence of AlCl3 / HCl it will be converted into:

• A. Ethane
• B. Propane
• C. Butene
• D. Isobutane✓

Explanation: When n-butane is heated in the presence of AlCl3/HCl, it undergoes a rearrangement reaction to form Isobutane.Option A (Ethane), Option B (Propane), and Option C (Butene) are incorrect because the reaction of n-butane with AlCl3/HCl specifically leads to the formation of Isobutane due to the rearrangement of the carbon atoms.

Q169. The compressibility factor Z=PV/RT for 1 mol of a real gas is greater than unity at a pressure of 1 atm and 273.15 K. The molar volume of the gas at STP will be :

• A. Less than 22.4L
• B. Greater than 22.4L✓
• C. Equal to 22.4L
• D. None of these

Explanation: The compressibility factor Z=PV/RT. If Z > 1, it means the real volume is greater than the ideal volume. Since the ideal molar volume at STP is 22.4 L, the molar volume of this gas will be greater than 22.4 L.

Q170. A jar contains a gas and a few drops of water at 'T' Kelvin temperature. The pressure in the jar is 830 mmHg. The temperature of the jar is reduced by 1%. The vapour pressure of water at two temperatures is 30 and 25 mm of Hg, respectively. Calculate the new pressure in the jar?

• A. 817 mm of Hg✓
• B. 792 mm of Hg
• C. 830 mm of Hg
• D. 724 mm of Hg

Explanation: This is the following solution:Pressure in the jar =830 mm of Hg.Pressure of moisture =30 mm of Hg.Pressure of dry gas =830−30=800 mm of Hg.Since the volume is constant and the temperature is changing, using the ideal gas equation,​T1/P1 ​​=​T2/P2 ​​⇒ T1/800 ​​=​0.99T1/P2 ​​⇒P2​=0.99×800=792 mm of Hg.Therefore, the total pressure =792+25=817 mm of Hg. Also calculate with this solution given below

Q171. NH3 gas and HCl gas from the two flasks, at the same temperature and pressure, were injected simultaneously through pinholes of similar geometry, attached at the two ends of a 1.0 m long glass tube. At what distance from the ammonia end, the first flash of white fume would be observed?

• A. 59.43 cm✓
• B. 52.12 cm
• C. 34.37 cm
• D. 49.23 cm

Explanation: According to Graham's Law of Diffusion, the distance traveled is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass. The ratio of distances dNH3 /d HCL= √(MHCL /MNH3). Solving this relationship along with d(NH3 ) + d(HCL ) = 100 cm gives the melting point at 59.43 cm from the ammonia end.

Q172. X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of O2 gas under identical conditions is:

• A. 10 seconds
• B. 20 seconds✓
• C. 25 seconds
• D. 35 seconds

Explanation: According to Graham's Law, the rate of effusion is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass, so the time taken is directly proportional to it. The ratio of times is t(O₂)/t(H₂) = √(MO₂/MH₂) = √(32/2) = √16 = 4. Therefore, the time for O₂ is 5 s × 4 = 20 seconds.

Q173. Gaseous benzene reacts with hydrogen gas in the presence of a nickel catalyst to form gaseous cyclohexane according to the reaction: C6H6(g)+ 3H2(g)→ C6H12(g) A mixture of C6H6 and excess H2 has a pressure of 60 mm of Hg in an unknown volume. After the gas had been passed over a nickel catalyst and all the benzene had been converted to cyclohexane, the pressure of the gas was 30 mm of Hg in the same volume and temperature. The fraction of C6H6 (by volume) present in the original volume is:

• A. 1/3
• B. 1/4
• C. 1/5
• D. 1/6✓

Explanation: Solution is given as an image.

Q174. If the temperature of an ideal gas in a sealed, rigid container is increased to 1.5 times the initial value (in K), the density of the gas:

• A. Becomes 1.5 times the initial value
• B. Becomes 1/1.5 times the initial value
• C. Becomes 2.25 times the initial value
• D. Remains the same✓

Explanation: Density is defined as mass divided by volume (d = m/V). In a sealed, rigid container, both the mass of the gas and the volume of the container are constant. Therefore, changing the temperature does not change the density.

Q175. Three blocks of masses m1, m2, and m3 are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface. A force of 40 N pulls the system. Calculate the value of T, if:

• A. 40 N
• B. 20 N✓
• C. 10 N
• D. 5 N

Explanation: The following is the solution:Let a be the acceleration of the system,F is the net pulling force on m1,T is the tension force exerted by m1 on m2 and by m2 on m1,A different tension force T' is exerted by m2 on m3, and by m3 on m2, as shown in the diagram. (While this force exists, we're not interested in it because the question doesn't ask for it). The blocks move as a single system, therefore, by Newton's second law:a = F/(m1+m2+m3)a = 40 / (10+6+4) = 40/20a = 2 m/s²Now, we need to find the tension force T acting on m1 in the direction opposite to the 40 N force. Consider the free-body diagram for m1. F - T = m1 × a40 - T = 10 × 2T = 20 N

Q176. All surfaces are frictionless and the pulley & strings are light. The acceleration of the block of mass 'm' is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q177. A block of mass 'm' is slipping down a rough inclined plane with constant speed. The force on the block by the plane is:

• A. mg
• B. mg/2
• C. Depends upon coefficient of friction
• D. Depends upon angle of inclination✓

Explanation: This option is correct. The total force on the block by the plane (which is a combination of the normal force and frictional force) depends on both the angle of inclination and the coefficient of friction. The normal force is N=mgcos⁡θ, and the frictional force is f=μmgcos⁡θ. Both of these forces depend on the angle of the incline θ\thetaθ. So, the total force exerted by the plane is influenced by the angle of inclination.

Q178. Three weights W, 2W, and 3W are connected to identical springs suspended from a rigid horizontal rod. The assembly of the rod and the weights falls freely. The positions of the weights from the rod are such that:

• A. 3W will be farthest
• B. W will be farthest
• C. All will be at the same distance✓
• D. 2W will be farthest

Explanation: The following is the solution:At the time of free fall, Apparent weight=0, for all objects,As it is a weightlessness condition, the masses will lie a equal distances.

Q179. Consider the following statements about the blocks shown in the diagram that are being pushed by a constant force on a frictionless table:

• A. A only✓
• B. B only
• C. Both A and B
• D. Neither A nor B

Explanation: The following is the solution:By applying by a constant force on a frictionless table, all blocks move with the same acceleration. The net force on each block is different, as masses are different.F=ma, Since, F is constant, a will be constant as well.

Q180. Find the error of punctuation“Certainly, answered the man; “here, bring me a blanket and a good-sized mallet.”

• A. Certainly✓
• B. Man; “here
• C. Good-sized
• D. Mallet

Explanation: The sentence "“Certainly, answered the man; “here, bring me a blanket and a good-sized mallet.”" contains an error in punctuation. The word "Certainly" is a dialogue tag and should be followed by a comma, but the comma is incorrectly placed inside the quotation mark.The correct sentence would be: "“Certainly,” answered the man, “here, bring me a blanket and a good-sized mallet.”"

Q181. Find the error:One of them, however, said: “She was a very old woman, who must have died shortly in none case."

• A. However
• B. Very
• C. Have
• D. None✓

Explanation: The phrase “in none case” is wrong; it should be “in any case.”The pronoun around this phrase is incorrect, making 'none' the error.

Q182. Find the error in following sentence.And you did all this against your doctor’s orders!” “Which one.” he asked, laughing.

• A. Doctor’s
• B. Orders
• C. One✓
• D. Asked

Explanation: The word "one" itself is correct, but the punctuation following it is incorrect. The sentence should have a question mark after "Which one" to correctly punctuate the question. The correct answer is C) One because the punctuation after "Which one" is incorrect.To correct the punctuation error:Replace the period after "Which one" with a question mark. “And you did all this against your doctor’s orders!” “Which one?” he asked, laughing.This correction ensures the sentence is grammatically accurate by properly punctuating the question.

Q183. Find the error in following sentence.Over the rocky levels of the mountain was a streak of rust coloured air

• A. Over the rocky levels
• B. Of the mountain
• C. Rust coloured✓
• D. Air

Explanation: This is the problematic part. When used as a compound adjective to describe "air," it should be hyphenated as "rust-colored." This ensures clarity and correctness in modifying the nounThe correct answer is C) Rust coloured because the phrase should be hyphenated when used as a compound adjective. Hyphenate "rust coloured" to "rust-colored."Corrected Sentence:"Over the rocky levels of the mountain was a streak of rust-colored air."This correction ensures the compound adjective is correctly hyphenated, providing clear and accurate modification of the noun "air."

Q184. Find the error in following sentenceHaving had lunch; we went back to work.

• A. Having
• B. Lunch✓
• C. Went
• D. Back to work

Explanation: This phrase is correctly used as part of the main clause, indicating where the action "went" occurs. There is no error with "Back to work."Correct Answer:There is no single word or phrase in the options that is incorrect by itself. The error lies in the punctuation between the clauses.To correct the punctuation error, replace the semicolon with a comma:Corrected Sentence: "Having had lunch, we went back to work."This correction ensures the sentence uses appropriate punctuation to separate the dependent clause from the main clause

Q185. Identify the following Clause:I do not know what he will do.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. Adjective clause
• C. Adverb clause
• D. Independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "what he will do" acts as the object of the verb "know." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I do not know something").

Q186. Identify the following Clause:I want to see what had happened.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. Adjective clause
• C. Adverb clause
• D. Independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "what had happened" acts as the direct object of the verb "want to see." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I want to see something").

Q187. Identify the following Clause:I expect that I shall get a prize.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. Adjective clause
• C. Adverb clause
• D. Independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "that I shall get a prize" acts as the object of the verb "expect." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I expect something").

Q188. Identify the following Clause:He met a boy whose eyes were blue.

• A. Noun clause
• B. Adjective clause✓
• C. Adverb clause
• D. Independent clause

Explanation: An adjective clause modifies a noun or pronoun by providing additional information about it. Here, "whose eyes were blue" describes the boy by specifying his eye color.

Q189. Identify the following Clause:Fatima, whose mom is a nurse, sits behind me in class.

• A. Noun clause
• B. Essential adjective clause
• C. Adverb clause
• D. Non essential clause✓

Explanation: Non-essential Clause (Correct): A non-essential adjective clause provides additional information about a noun or pronoun but is not necessary to identify it. Here, the clause "whose mom is a nurse" gives extra information about Fatima but isn't essential to understand who she is in the context of the sentence.

Q190. I was _ at his brazenness as he was considered an obedient student.

• A. Surprise
• B. Surprised✓
• C. Surprising
• D. Surprises

Explanation: B is the correct option because this is the past participle form of the verb "surprise" used as an adjective. It correctly describes the speaker's reaction to the student's unexpected behavior.

Q191. Had the police not reached here on time, the traders _ robbed.

• A. Would have
• B. Would had
• C. Would have been✓
• D. Would had been

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the correct conditional perfect passive construction. It indicates that the traders would have been the recipients of the action (being robbed) if the police had not arrived on time.

Q192. The door _ by him.

• A. Was knocked at✓
• B. Knocked at
• C. Was knocking at
• D. Knocks at

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the passive voice construction in the past tense, which correctly indicates that the action of knocking was done at the door.

Q193. The police officers _ to the theatre and every nook and corner was completely checked.

• A. Sent to
• B. Were sent✓
• C. Sent
• D. Would have sent to

Explanation: The correct answer is B: 'were sent'. This choice accurately reflects the past tense passive voice. In this sentence, the police officers were the ones receiving the action of being sent, which is typical of a passive construction.Option A lacks the auxiliary verb needed for passive voice.Option C presents an active voice structure without the required auxiliary verb for passive construction.Option D uses the conditional perfect tense, which is inappropriate given the sentence's need for a simple past tense passive construction.

Q194. When the minister was shot dead, people _ here and there to save themselves.

• A. Were run
• B. Was run
• C. Ran✓
• D. Runs

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the correct past tense form of the verb "run" in the active voice, indicating that people performed the action of running.

Q195. Statements:I. Some pens are glass.II. All glass are wall.Conclusions:I. Some wall are pens.II. Some wall are glass.

• A. Only conclusion (l) follows
• B. Only conclusion (II) follows
• C. Both conclusion follow✓
• D. Neither conclusion (l) nor conclusion (II) follows
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions:I. Some wall are pens. (True) - It is clear from the given diagramII. Some wall are glass. (True) - It is clear from the given diagram

Q196. Statements:No cities are countries.No countries are villages.Conclusions:I. Some countries are city.II. No villages are city.

• A. Only conclusion I follows
• B. Only conclusion II follows
• C. Only conclusion I and II follow
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions:I. Some countries are city - False, it is not a definite case.II. No villages are city - False, it is not a definite case.So, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Q197. Statements :All cups are pencils.Some pencils are pens.Conclusions :I. Some pencils are cups.II. No pencil are cups.III. Some cups are pens.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Only conclusion III follows
• C. Only conclusion I and II follow
• D. Only conclusion II and III follow
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions :I. Some pencils are cups - True, it is a definite case.II. No pencil are cups - False, it is not a definite case.III. Some cups are pens - False, it is not a definite case.So, only conclusion I follow.

Q198. Statements :All fruits are leaves.Some fruits are grapes.Conclusions :I. Some leaves are grapes.II. All grapes are fruits.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Both conclusions I and II follow
• C. Only conclusion II follows
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions :I. Some leaves are grapes - True, it is a definite case.II. All grapes are fruits - False, as it is not a definite case.Clearly, only conclusion I follow.

Q199. Statements:All apples are bananas.No banana is a mango.Some mangoes are oranges.Conclusions:I. All oranges can never be bananas.II. Some mangoes are apples.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Only conclusion II follows
• C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
• E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.

Explanation: I. All oranges can never be bananas. - (True) - Since some of the part of orange is in mango. Therefore the conclusion is true.II. Some mangoes are apples. - (False) - It is clear from the diagram.Only conclusion I is follows.