Sindh Mdcat 2023 Retake — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which row correctly shows the areas of the gas exchange system that containcartilage, ciliated epithelium and goblet cells?

• A. Bronchus, trachea/ Nasal cavity, trachea/Bronchus, trachea✓
• B. Bronchus, Alveoli/ Nasal cavity, trachea/Bronchus, trachea
• C. Bronchus, trachea/ lungs, trachea/Bronchus, trachea
• D. Bronchus, trachea/ Nasal cavity, trachea/adam’s apple, trachea

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Both the bronchus and trachea contain cartilage, ciliated epithelium, and goblet cells. The cartilage helps to keep the airways open, the ciliated epithelium sweeps mucus upwards to be expelled, and the goblet cells produce mucus to trap particles.

Q2. During which stage of meiosis do centromeres divide?

• A. Metaphase I
• B. Anaphase II✓
• C. prophase I
• D. Telophase I

Explanation: During Anaphase II of meiosis, the centromeres divide, allowing the sister chromatids to be pulled apart to opposite poles of the cell.

Q3. Two animals are mated. One is homozygous dominant for one character andhomozygous recessive for another. The other animal is heterozygous for both characters. How many phenotypes are expected in the offspring of this cross?'

• A. 2✓
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 6

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Since we're dealing with two traits, each with two alleles, the possible combinations are 2^2 = 4. However, one of these combinations is redundant (both dominant or both recessive). Therefore, we have 4 - 1 = 3 unique phenotypic combinations.

Q4. Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell hemoglobin?

• A. tRNA^Val✓
• B. tRNA^Glu
• C. tRNA^Met
• D. tRNA^Lys

Explanation: tRNA^Val is the correct answer. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single amino acid substitution in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin from glutamic acid to valine. Therefore, the tRNA that carries valine to the ribosome, tRNA^Val, is involved in the formation of this mutated part of the hemoglobin molecule.

Q5. Which of the following are animals with pointed ends and a tube like digestive track?

• A. Arthropods✓
• B. Annelids
• C. Nematodes
• D. Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Arthropods are animals with segmented bodies, jointed appendages, and a well-developed nervous system. They have a tube-like digestive system that runs from the mouth to the anus, and their bodies often have pointed ends. Examples of arthropods include insects, crustaceans, and spiders.

Q6. Leukemia is associated with increased number of —-----in blood.

• A. Red blood cells
• B. Platelets
• C. White blood cells✓
• D. Neutrophils

Explanation: White blood cells are the primary cells affected in leukemia. The bone marrow produces an excessive number of abnormal white blood cells, which don't function properly.

Q7. Pepsin works best at a pH of—---

• A. 2.0✓
• B. 7.2
• C. 8.5
• D. 9.0

Explanation: Pepsin is an enzyme found in the stomach that breaks down proteins. It works optimally in an acidic environment, with a pH around 2.0. This acidic environment is created by hydrochloric acid secreted by the stomach lining.

Q8. The excretion of hypertonic urine in humans is associated best with the—-

• A. Loop of Henle✓
• B. Distal convoluted tubule
• C. Proximal convoluted tubule
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: The Loop of Henle is the primary structure responsible for concentrating urine and allowing the excretion of hypertonic urine. This structure creates a concentration gradient in the medulla of the kidney, which enables the reabsorption of water and solutes from the collecting ducts, resulting in a more concentrated urine.

Q9. The active uptake of sodium in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle ispromoted by the action of.

• A. Aldosterone✓
• B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Explanation: Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that promotes the reabsorption of sodium ions (Na+) in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron. This reabsorption of sodium leads to the retention of water, increasing blood volume and blood pressure. While aldosterone primarily acts on the distal tubule and collecting ducts, it also plays a role in regulating sodium reabsorption in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.

Q10. How would an ammonium group affect on benzene ring for subsequent reactions?

• A. Activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution
• B. Deactivates the benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution✓
• C. Has no effect on the reactivity of the benzene ring
• D. Makes the benzene ring more reactive towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution

Explanation: This is the correct answer. As explained above, the ammonium group deactivates the benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution

Q11. The eggs of a chick is laid at which of the following stages?

• A. Blastula✓
• B. Morula
• C. Gastrula
• D. Neuralation

Explanation: The blastula is an early stage in embryonic development, characterized by a hollow ball of cells. In birds like chickens, the embryo reaches the blastula stage before the egg is laid. This stage is crucial because it sets the foundation for further development once the egg is laid and incubation begins. The embryo at this stage is often referred to as a blastoderm in avian species

Q12. Class elasmobranch have an exoskeleton of

• A. Placoid scales✓
• B. Cycloid scales
• C. Ctenoid scales
• D. Ganoid scales

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Elasmobranchs, which include sharks, rays, and skates, have a unique type of exoskeleton called placoid scales. These scales are small, tooth-like structures embedded in the skin, providing protection and streamlining the body for swimming.

Q13. The complete, mature and infection virus particle is known as.

• A. Virion✓
• B. Capsid
• C. Genome
• D. Nucleocapsid

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A virion is the complete, mature, and infectious particle of a virus. It consists of a nucleic acid genome (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid. In some viruses, the capsid may be further enclosed by an envelope.

Q14. Which of the following is true about amoeba?

• A. They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia✓
• B. They have a rigid cell wall
• C. They are multicellular organisms
• D. They are autotrophic

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Amoebas are single-celled organisms that move by extending and retracting temporary, finger-like projections of their cytoplasm called pseudopodia. These pseudopodia help them engulf food and navigate their environment. Therefore, the statement that is true about amoebas is that they move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia.

Q15. in roots the apoplast pathway of water is disrupted when water reaches.

• A. Endodermis✓
• B. Epidermis
• C. Cortex
• D. Xylem

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The apoplast pathway is the movement of water through the cell walls and intercellular spaces of plant tissues. In roots, the apoplast pathway is disrupted by the endodermis, a layer of cells that surrounds the vascular bundle. The endodermal cells have a specialized structure called the Casparian strip, which is a waterproof band that seals the cell walls, preventing water from moving freely through the apoplast. This forces water to enter the symplast pathway, passing through the cytoplasm of endodermal cells and then into the xylem. This mechanism helps to control the movement of water and ions into the xylem, ensuring that only essential substances are transported to the rest of the plant.Therefore, the apoplast pathway of water in roots is disrupted when water reaches the endodermis.

Q16. Which of the following statements is true about savannah?

• A. Dry season is very long and temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year✓
• B. Dry season is very short and temperature ranges less than 18°C throughout the year
• C. Dry season is very long and temperature ranges less than 18°C throughout the year
• D. Dry season is very short and temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Savannas are characterized by a distinct dry season, which can last for several months. The temperatures in savannas are generally warm to hot throughout the year, with average temperatures often exceeding 18°C. Therefore, the statement that is true about savannas is that the dry season is very long and temperature ranges more than 18°C throughout the year.

Q17. Movement of ions and large molecules with the help of protein molecules in

• A. Facilitated diffusion✓
• B. Active transport
• C. Simple diffusion
• D. Endocytosis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport that allows specific molecules, such as ions and large molecules, to move across the cell membrane from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration with the aid of membrane proteins. These proteins act as channels or carriers, allowing the molecules to pass through the membrane more efficiently than they would be able to do on their own.Therefore, the movement of ions and large molecules with the help of protein molecules is called facilitated diffusion.

Q18. Pseudopodia are found in:

• A. Rhizopods✓
• B. Ciliates
• C. Flagellates
• D. Sporozoans

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Rhizopods are a group of protozoans characterized by the presence of pseudopodia, which are temporary, finger-like projections of the cytoplasm used for movement and feeding. Examples of rhizopods include amoebas and foraminifera.

Q19. Select a method which cause the oxidation of constituent of a bacterial cell wall

• A. Dry Heat✓
• B. Moist Heat
• C. Filtration
• D. Ultraviolet Radiation

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Dry heat is a method of sterilization that involves exposing microorganisms, including bacteria, to high temperatures in a dry environment. This process causes the oxidation of the constituents of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death.Therefore, dry heat is the method that primarily causes the oxidation of the constituents of a bacterial cell wall.

Q20. Which one of the following "myogenic" types of muscle?

• A. Cardiac Muscle✓
• B. Skeletal Muscle
• C. Smooth Muscle
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Cardiac muscle is a specialized type of muscle tissue found only in the heart. It is myogenic, meaning it can contract on its own without external stimulation from the nervous system. This property is essential for the heart to beat rhythmically and pump blood continuously.

Q21. The scientific name of Thorn apple is:

• A. Datura stramonium✓
• B. Datura alba
• C. Solanum nigrum
• D. Nicotiana tabacum

Explanation: This is the correct scientific name for Thorn apple. It's a poisonous flowering plant in the nightshade family (Solanaceae). Other common names for Datura stramonium include Jimsonweed, Devil's trumpet, and Mad apple.

Q22. What happens to the volume of the thorax and the air pressure in the lungs during breathing in?

• A. Volume of the thorax increases, and air pressure in the lungs decreases✓
• B. Volume of the thorax decreases, and air pressure in the lungs increases
• C. Volume of the thorax remains constant, and air pressure in the lungs decreases
• D. Volume of the thorax remains constant, and air pressure in the lungs increases

Explanation: During breathing in (inspiration):The diaphragm contracts and moves downward.The intercostal muscles contract, pulling the rib cage upward and outward. This increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. According to Boyle's law, as the volume of a gas increases, its pressure decreases. Therefore, the air pressure in the lungs decreases. This lower pressure inside the lungs compared to the atmospheric pressure causes air to rush into the lungs.

Q23. Which of the types of cell are found in the secondary xylem of angiosperms?

• A. Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma but no collenchyma✓
• B. Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma, and collenchyma
• C. Vessels, tracheids, parenchyma, but no fibers
• D. Vessels, tracheids, collenchyma, but no parenchyma

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Secondary xylem in angiosperms is composed of four main cell types:Vessels: These are elongated cells with perforated end walls (called perforation plates) that allow water and minerals to flow through them efficiently.Tracheids: These are elongated cells with tapered ends and pits that allow for lateral movement of water.Fibers: These are thick-walled cells that provide structural support to the plant.Parenchyma: These are thin-walled cells that store nutrients and function in various metabolic processes.Collenchyma cells are not typically found in secondary xylem. They are more commonly found in the primary plant body, where they provide mechanical support and flexibility.Therefore, the correct answer is Vessels, tracheids, fibers, parenchyma but no collenchyma.

Q24. Alleles both have an effect on the phenotype heterozygous organism

• A. Codominance✓
• B. Incomplete dominance
• C. Dominance
• D. Recessive

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Codominance occurs when both alleles of a heterozygous individual are expressed simultaneously in the phenotype. Neither allele is dominant over the other, and both contribute equally to the observed trait. A classic example of codominance is the ABO blood type system, where the IA and IB alleles are codominant.

Q25. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of cell membranes?

• A. Hydrophobic exclusion✓
• B. Cohesion
• C. Adhesion
• D. High specific heat capacity

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Hydrophobic exclusion is the tendency of water molecules to minimize their contact with nonpolar (hydrophobic) substances. In the case of cell membranes, the phospholipid bilayer has a hydrophobic core and hydrophilic heads. Hydrophobic exclusion forces the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids to associate with each other, forming a stable barrier between the inside and outside of the cell. This helps to maintain the integrity of the cell membrane.

Q26. Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

• A. Oleic acid✓
• B. Palmitic acid
• C. Stearic acid
• D. Myristic acid

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid, meaning it contains one double bond in its hydrocarbon chain. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds, while saturated fatty acids have only single bonds.

Q27. Lock & key model of enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggested that.

• A. Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type✓
• B. Enzymes are flexible and can catalyze multiple reactions
• C. Enzymes are non-specific and can bind to any substrate
• D. Enzymes are always active

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The lock-and-key model proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that enzymes are highly specific and can only catalyze one type of reaction. This is because the active site of an enzyme has a specific shape that complements the shape of its substrate, much like a lock and key. Only the correct substrate can fit into the active site and undergo the catalyzed reaction.

Q28. identify the bones in which the connecting joints are freely moveable joint:

• A. Synovial joints✓
• B. Fibrous joints
• C. Cartilaginous joints
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Synovial joints, also known as diarthroses, are the most movable type of joint in the human body. They are characterized by a fluid-filled joint cavity, cartilage-covered bone surfaces, and a surrounding capsule of connective tissue. Examples of synovial joints include the shoulder joint, elbow joint, hip joint, and knee joint.

Q29. Phenotype is.

• A. The observable physical characteristics or traits of an organism✓
• B. The genetic makeup of an organism
• C. The environmental factors affecting an organism
• D. The interaction between genotype and environment

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A phenotype refers to the observable characteristics of an organism, which can include physical features, behaviors, physiological properties, and susceptibility to diseases.

Q30. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual is called its.

• A. Karyotype✓
• B. Genotype
• C. Genome
• D. Allele

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes in a cell. It is used to visualize and analyze the number, size, and structure of chromosomes. The karyotype of an individual is unique and can reveal information about genetic disorders or abnormalities.

Q31. Which process can take place in the presence and absence of oxygen?

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Cellular respiration
• C. Fermentation
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate, producing ATP (energy) in the process.It is the first stage of cellular respiration and can occur both in the presence (aerobic conditions) and absence (anaerobic conditions) of oxygen.

Q32. The attraction between water molecules and cell wall of xylem is termed as :

• A. Adhesion✓
• B. Cohesion
• C. Capillary action
• D. Transpiration

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Adhesion refers to the attraction between molecules of different substances. In the case of xylem, the water molecules are attracted to the cellulose molecules in the cell walls. This adhesive force helps to pull water up the xylem vessels from the roots to the leaves.

Q33. The abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the CNS is called?

• A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)✓
• B. Glutamate
• C. Acetylcholine
• D. Dopamine

Explanation: This is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS). It helps to regulate brain activity and prevent excessive neuronal excitation.

Q34. Which one of the following organelles is required for aerobic respiration?

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Golgi apparatus

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they are responsible for producing energy through aerobic respiration. This process involves breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen to generate ATP, the cell's primary energy currency.

Q35. The process by which one molecule of Glucose splits up into molecules of pyruvate is called

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Cellular respiration
• C. Fermentation
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that breaks down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. It occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first stage of cellular respiration. Glycolysis can occur both in the presence (aerobic conditions) and absence (anaerobic conditions) of oxygen.

Q36. The technique used for identification of criminals is called:

• A. DNA fingerprinting✓
• B. Fingerprinting
• C. Handwriting analysis
• D. Voiceprint analysis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. DNA fingerprinting is a forensic technique used to identify individuals based on their unique DNA profiles. It involves analyzing specific regions of DNA that vary between individuals, creating a unique pattern that can be used for identification.

Q37. Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for a transmembrane carrier of:

• A. Cl- ions✓
• B. Na+ ions
• C. K+ ions
• D. Ca2+ ions

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the gene that codes for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. This protein is responsible for regulating the flow of chloride (Cl-) ions across the cell membranes of various organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and intestines. In CF patients, mutations in the CFTR gene disrupt the normal functioning of the CFTR protein, leading to an imbalance of salt and water in these organs. This imbalance results in the thick, sticky mucus characteristic of CF, which can cause respiratory problems, digestive issues, and other complications

Q38. Identify the correctly matched pair relating to a term and its meaning/ function/ example:

• A. Ecosystem — Organisms of the same species
• B. Habitat — The layer of the Earth’s atmosphere
• C. Niche — A large, distinct ecosystem
• D. Biosphere - Where life exists✓

Explanation: This is the correct match. The biosphere is the part of the Earth that supports life, including the atmosphere, hydrosphere (water), and lithosphere (land). It encompasses all ecosystems and living organisms.

Q39. Which bones meet at the elbow joint and what kind of movement they allow?

• A. Ulna and humerus - Back and forth✓
• B. Radius and ulna - Rotational movement
• C. Ulna and scapula - Flexion and extension
• D. Humerus and scapula - Abduction and adduction

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The elbow joint is primarily formed by the articulation between the ulna (a bone in the forearm) and the humerus (the upper arm bone). This joint allows for flexion and extension movements, which are back-and-forth motions.

Q40. The first step in nitrogen cycle is:

• A. Nitrification
• B. Nitrogen Fixation✓
• C. Denitrification
• D. Ammonification

Explanation: is the correct first step in the nitrogen cycle. During this process, organic nitrogen in dead plants and animals or waste products is converted into ammonia (NH₃) by decomposer organisms such as bacteria and fungi. This ammonia can then be utilized in other processes like nitrification. CORRECT OPTION

Q41. All of the following protect the body against the entrance of germs except:

• A. Red blood cells✓
• B. Skin
• C. Mucous membranes
• D. Cilia

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Red blood cells are primarily responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide from the body. They do not directly protect the body against the entrance of germs.

Q42. Referring to sexual reproduction, humans are:

• A. Viviparous✓
• B. Oviparous
• C. Ovoviviparous
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Humans are viviparous animals, which means they give birth to live young. The developing embryo grows inside the mother's body and receives nourishment through the placenta until it is ready to be born.

Q43. The diseases arises due to age is:

• A. Alzheimer's disease✓
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Sickle cell anemia
• D. Phenylketonuria

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that is most commonly associated with aging. It is characterized by progressive memory loss, cognitive decline, and behavioral changes.

Q44. The branch of science dealing with the classification of life forms is called:

• A. Taxonomy✓
• B. Ecology
• C. Morphology
• D. Physiology

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Taxonomy is the branch of biology that deals with the classification, naming, and identification of organisms. It involves grouping organisms based on their shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships.

Q45. Which of the following basic structural level of proteins is indicated by an association of two alpha and two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule?

• A. Quaternary Structure✓
• B. Primary Structure
• C. Secondary Structure
• D. Tertiary Structure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The quaternary structure of a protein refers to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) within a protein complex.In the case of hemoglobin, it consists of four subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains. These subunits interact to form the final, functional structure of the hemoglobin molecule.

Q46. The category of organisms which are able to make their own food is called:

• A. Autotrophs✓
• B. Heterotrophs
• C. Saprotrophs
• D. Decomposers

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Autotrophs are organisms that can produce their own food using energy from sunlight (photosynthesis) or inorganic chemicals (chemosynthesis). They are the primary producers in ecosystems and form the base of food chains.

Q47. The system responsible for fighting the pathogens is:

• A. Immune system✓
• B. Nervous system
• C. Endocrine system
• D. Circulatory system

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The immune system is a complex network of organs, cells, and proteins that defends the body against infection and disease. It recognizes and attacks pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, to protect the body from harm.

Q48. Which part of the cell does glycolysis occur in?

• A. Cytoplasm✓
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Nucleus
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Glycolysis, the initial stage of cellular respiration, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP.

Q49. Ice cream is an example of:

• A. Heterogeneous mixture✓
• B. Homogeneous mixture
• C. Compound
• D. Element

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Ice cream is a heterogeneous mixture because its components are not uniformly distributed. You can visually distinguish different parts of ice cream, such as the ice crystals, air bubbles, and the incorporated ingredients like chocolate chips or fruit.

Q50. A substance of definite composition by weight consists of atoms of two or more different elements is called as:

• A. Compound✓
• B. Element
• C. Mixture
• D. Solution

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A compound is a pure substance made up of two or more different elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio. The properties of a compound are different from the properties of its constituent elements. Examples of compounds include water (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and sodium chloride (NaCl).

Q51. Which of the following properties depends upon the amount of matter present in the system?

• A. Gibbs free energy✓
• B. Pressure
• C. Temperature
• D. Volume

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Gibbs free energy is a thermodynamic property that depends on the amount of matter present in the system. It is a measure of the maximum non-expansion work that can be obtained from a system at constant temperature and pressure. The Gibbs free energy of a system is directly proportional to the amount of matter present.

Q52. Which alkyl halide has the lowest reactivity for a particular alkyl group?

• A. R-F✓
• B. R-Cl
• C. R-Br
• D. R-I

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Alkyl halides are compounds in which a halogen atom (F, Cl, Br, or I) is bonded to a carbon atom. The reactivity of alkyl halides generally increases in the order R-F < R-Cl < R-Br < R-I. This trend is due to the decreasing bond strength between the carbon atom and the halogen atom as the size of the halogen increases.

Q53. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid oxygen is produced.

• A. Hydrogen✓
• B. Oxygen
• C. Both hydrogen and oxygen
• D. Neither hydrogen nor oxygen

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid, a process called electrolysis occurs. During electrolysis, water molecules are decomposed into hydrogen gas (H2) and oxygen gas (O2). The hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode (negative electrode), while the oxygen gas is produced at the anode (positive electrode).

Q54. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid oxygen is produced.

• A. Hydrogen✓
• B. Oxygen
• C. Both hydrogen and oxygen
• D. Neither hydrogen nor oxygen

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid, a process called electrolysis occurs. During electrolysis, water molecules are decomposed into hydrogen gas (H2) and oxygen gas (O2). The hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode (negative electrode), while the oxygen gas is produced at the anode (positive electrode).

Q55. The boiling point of water is highest than other hydrides because water molecules can form:

• A. Hydrogen bonds✓
• B. Ionic bonds
• C. Covalent bonds
• D. Metallic bonds

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Water molecules have a polar structure, with a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. This polarity allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with each other, which are strong intermolecular forces. These hydrogen bonds require a significant amount of energy to break, which contributes to the unusually high boiling point of water compared to other hydrides in the same group (such as hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen selenide, and hydrogen telluride).

Q56. How many chain isomers are shown by C5G12 ?

• A. 3✓
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Chain isomers have the same molecular formula but differ in the arrangement of their carbon atoms.For the molecular formula C5H12, there are three possible chain isomers: n-pentane: A straight chain of five carbon atoms. 2-methylbutane: A branched chain with four carbon atoms and a methyl group (CH3) attached to the second carbon. 2,2-dimethylpropane: A branched chain with three carbon atoms and two methyl groups attached to the second carbon. It's important to note that these are the only possible chain isomers for C5H12. There are no other unique arrangements of carbon atoms that can be formed while maintaining the same molecular formula.Therefore, the number of chain isomers shown by C5H12 is 3.

Q57. The melting point of NaCi is very high 801°,it is reduced to 600°C, it is by in Down's process

• A. Calcium chloride✓
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium chloride

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In the Down's process, a small amount of calcium chloride (CaCl2) is added to molten sodium chloride (NaCl) to lower its melting point from 801°C to around 600°C. This reduction in melting point makes it easier to electrolyze the molten salt to produce sodium metal.

Q58. The normal pH of blood is:

• A. 7.35✓
• B. 7.0
• C. 7.45
• D. 8.0

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The normal pH of blood is slightly alkaline and ranges from 7.35 to 7.45. Maintaining a stable blood pH is crucial for the proper functioning of the body's metabolic processes and other systems.

Q59. Which one of the following is the pure carbon compound and used as reducing agent in industries?

• A. Coke✓
• B. Charcoal
• C. Graphite
• D. Diamond

Explanation: Coke is a form of carbon that is produced by heating coal in the absence of air. It is a pure carbon compound with a high carbon content and is widely used as a reducing agent in various industrial processes, such as the production of iron and steel.

Q60. One Calorie is equal to:

• A. 4.18 J✓
• B. 41.8 J
• C. 418 J
• D. 4184 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A calorie (cal) is a unit of energy, and 1 calorie is equivalent to 4.18 joules (J). This conversion factor is used to relate the two units of energy.

Q61. Absolute zero is considered to be the temperature at which.

• A. Molecular motion in gases would cease✓
• B. Molecular motion in gases would be maximum
• C. Molecular motion in gases would remain constant
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature that can be reached, theoretically. At this temperature, the kinetic energy of the particles in a substance would be zero, meaning that all molecular motion would cease.

Q62. A correct formula must:

• A. Always conform to the valency rules✓
• B. Always have a subscript of 1 for the first element
• C. Always have a subscript of 2 for the second element
• D. Always be written in alphabetical order of the elements

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A correct chemical formula must always conform to the valency rules. Valency is the combining capacity of an atom, and it determines the number of bonds an atom can form. In a correct formula, the total positive charge must equal the total negative charge, ensuring that the compound is electrically neutral.

Q63. Compound was found to contain nitrogen and oxygen in the ration 28 g: 80g. the formula of the compound is:

• A. N₂O
• B. NO₂
• C. N₂O₃
• D. N₂O₅✓

Explanation: To determine the empirical formula, we need to find the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms.Calculate the moles of each element:Nitrogen: 28g / 14g/mol = 2 molesOxygen: 80g / 16g/mol = 5 molesFind the simplest whole-number ratio:The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen is 2:5. This is already in its simplest whole-number ratio.

Q64. Electronic Configuration of M** Ion is 2,8,14 and its atomic weight is 56 amu. The number of neutrons is its nucleus are:

• A. 24
• B. 30✓
• C. 32
• D. 34

Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight - Atomic number Number of neutrons = 56 amu - 26 = 30 amuTherefore, the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the M²+ ion is 30.

Q65. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron is defined by:

• A. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• B. Principal quantum number
• C. Magnetic quantum number
• D. Spin quantum number

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The azimuthal quantum number, also known as the angular momentum quantum number, determines the shape of an atomic orbital. It is denoted by the letter l. The possible values of l depend on the principal quantum number (n). For a given n, l can have values from 0 to n-1. Each value of l corresponds to a different orbital shape: l = 0: s orbital (spherical) l = 1: p orbital (dumbbell-shaped) l = 2: d orbital (cloverleaf-shaped)l = 3: f orbital (more complex shapes)

Q66. Common name of Octadecanoic acid is:

• A. Stearic acid✓
• B. Palmitic acid
• C. Oleic acid
• D. Linoleic acid

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Octadecanoic acid is the IUPAC name for stearic acid. Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms. It is a common component of animal and vegetable fats.

Q67. What volume in dm3 of KCL is obtained in the following equation: 2KCIO3 - -> 2 KCI + 3O2.

• A. 2 dm³
• B. 0.04 dm³
• C. Cannot be determined from the given information✓
• D. Depends on the temperature and pressure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To determine the volume of KCl produced, we need additional information, such as the mass or moles of KClO3, as well as the temperature and pressure of the reaction.

Q68. JJ Thomson determined the:

• A. e/m value of an electron✓
• B. Charge of an electron
• C. Mass of an electron
• D. Size of an electron

Explanation: This is the correct answer. J.J. Thomson conducted a famous experiment using cathode ray tubes to determine the charge-to-mass ratio (e/m) of electrons. He measured the deflection of cathode rays in electric and magnetic fields to calculate this value

Q69. If the difference between electronegativity values between two atoms is less than 1.7, the bond is necessarily.

• A. Covalent✓
• B. Ionic
• C. Polar covalent
• D. Metallic

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When the electronegativity difference between two atoms is less than 1.7, the bond formed between them is generally considered covalent. In a covalent bond, the atoms share electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.

Q70. Consider the following reaction N2 + O2 —--> 2NO Kc = 0.1 at 2000° C. If original concentrations of N2 And O2 Were 0.1 M each. Calculate the concentrations of NO at equilibrium.

• A. 0.056 M✓
• B. 0.028 M
• C. 0.1 M
• D. 0.014 M

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To solve this problem, we can use the equilibrium constant expression (Kc) and an ICE table (Initial, Change, Equilibrium).Reaction: N2 + O2 <=> 2NO Kc: 0.1 Initial Concentrations: N2: 0.1 M O2: 0.1 M NO: 0 MICE Table: N2 O2 2NOInitial0.10.10Change-x-x+2xEquilibrium0.1-x0.1-x2xEquilibrium Constant Expression:Kc = [NO]^2 / ([N2] * [O2])Substituting the equilibrium concentrations from the ICE table:0.1 = (2x)^2 / ((0.1 - x) * (0.1 - x))Simplifying the equation:0.1 = 4x^2 / (0.01 - 0.2x + x^2)Rearranging and solving for x:0.01 - 0.2x + x^2 = 4x^23x^2 + 0.2x - 0.01 = 0Using the quadratic formula:x ≈ 0.028 MEquilibrium Concentrations:[N2] = 0.1 - 0.028 = 0.072 M[O2] = 0.1 - 0.028 = 0.072 M[NO] = 2 * 0.028 = 0.056 MTherefore, the concentration of NO at equilibrium is 0.056 M.

Q71. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are: Ans Angular and non-zero

• A. Angular and non-zero✓
• B. Linear and zero
• C. Angular and zero
• D. Linear and non-zero

Explanation: This is the correct answer. H2S has a bent or angular molecular geometry due to the presence of two lone pairs on the central sulfur atom. This bent geometry results in a non-zero dipole moment because the S-H bonds are polar, with the sulfur atom being more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms. The individual bond dipoles do not cancel each other out due to the angular arrangement, resulting in a net dipole moment for the molecule.

Q72. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

• A. Fe²⁺✓
• B. Mn4⁺
• C. Cr³⁺
• D. Cu²⁺

Explanation: The electron configuration of Fe²⁺ is [Ar] 3d⁶. In the 3d orbital, there are 4 unpaired electrons.

Q73. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COCH3 Is the functional isomer of

• A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO✓
• B. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3
• C. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
• D. CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COCH3

Explanation: This is the functional isomer of CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COCH3, as explained previously. Both molecules have the same carbon skeleton (six carbons) and the same number of hydrogen and oxygen atoms, but the functional groups differ.

Q74. Which of the following reactions is NOT shown in ketones?

• A. Nucleophilic Addition Reactions
• B. Reduction to Alcohols
• C. Formation of Hydrazones
• D. Reaction with Fehling's Solution✓

Explanation: Fehling's solution is used to test for the presence of reducing sugars and aldehydes. Ketones do not typically react with Fehling's solution because they lack the necessary functional group (an aldehyde) to reduce the copper(II) ion in the solution to copper(I) oxide. This is why ketones do not show a positive test with Fehling's solution.Conclusion: The correct answer is Fehling's Solution, which ketones do not react with, while the other options represent reactions that ketones typically undergo.

Q75. Lithium and beryllium are unique in such a way that they have higher charge densities which produce strong polarizing effects due to:

• A. Small size✓
• B. High electronegativity
• C. Low ionization energy
• D. Large atomic radius

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Lithium and beryllium have smaller atomic radii compared to other elements in their respective groups. This small size combined with their relatively high positive charges (Li+ and Be2+) results in a high charge density. This high charge density allows them to exert strong polarizing effects on the electron clouds of neighboring atoms or ions, leading to the formation of covalent bonds or polar covalent bonds.Therefore, the unique properties of lithium and beryllium, including their strong polarizing effects, are primarily due to their small size.

Q76. Which one of the following does not give iodoform test?

• A. CH3OH✓
• B. CH3CH2OH
• C. CH3COCH3
• D. CH3CHO

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Methanol (CH3OH) does not give a positive iodoform test because it does not have a methyl ketone group (R-CO-CH3) or a secondary alcohol with a methyl group in the alpha position (R-CH(OH)-CH3), which are the requirements for a positive iodoform test.

Q77. If constant temperature conditions are applied to a gas container, then the volume of the mass of that gas tends to increases by:

• A. Decreasing the applied pressure✓
• B. Increasing the applied pressure
• C. Increasing the temperature
• D. Decreasing the temperature

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a constant temperature. This means that if you decrease the pressure applied to a gas, its volume will increase. This is because the gas molecules have more space to move around when the pressure is lower.

Q78. When describing the isotopes of the same element, the most accurate statement is that they have:

• A. The same atomic number but different atomic masses✓
• B. The same atomic mass but different atomic numbers
• C. Different numbers of protons and neutrons
• D. Different numbers of electrons

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons (atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons. This difference in neutrons results in different atomic masses.

Q79. NH2 (amine) is an example of:

• A. Neutral ligand✓
• B. Anionic ligand
• C. Cationic ligand
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. An amine (NH2) is a neutral ligand because it does not carry a net charge. It donates a lone pair of electrons to form coordinate covalent bonds with metal ions

Q80. H2O has higher boiling point than HF because?

• A. H2O can form more hydrogen bonds✓
• B. HF has stronger hydrogen bonds.
• C. H2O has a higher molecular weight.
• D. HF is a polar molecule.

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Both H2O and HF can form hydrogen bonds, which are strong intermolecular forces. However, H2O can form more hydrogen bonds per molecule due to its tetrahedral geometry. Each water molecule can form up to four hydrogen bonds with neighboring molecules, while each HF molecule can only form two. This extensive hydrogen bonding network in H2O requires more energy to break, resulting in a higher boiling point compared to HF.

Q81. The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b= c, a = B = y = 90° is:

• A. Cubic✓
• B. Tetragonal
• C. Orthorhombic
• D. Monoclinic

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A tetragonal unit cell is characterized by three equal edge lengths (a = b = c) and three right angles (α = β = γ = 90°). The given dimensions match the definition of a tetragonal unit cell.

Q82. Strontium lies between calcium and barium in group lIA in the Periodic Table. Which of the following properties could be predicted for strontium?

• A. Forms a sparingly soluble sulfate✓
• B. Forms a soluble sulfate
• C. Forms a highly reactive sulfate
• D. Forms a volatile sulfate

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Strontium, like calcium and barium, is a Group 2A element (alkaline earth metal). Group 2A elements generally form sparingly soluble sulfates. This means that strontium sulfate (SrSO4) has a low solubility in water.Therefore, based on the trends observed in Group 2A elements, it can be predicted that strontium forms a sparingly soluble sulfate.

Q83. Magnesium oxide is used in the making of the lining of the blast furnace.It is extracted from seawater as follows. Aqueous seawater is added to seawater. Ca(OH)2(aq)+MgCl2 (aq)-------->Mg (OH)2(s) + CaCl2 (aq). The magnesium hydroxide is then filtered off and roasted. Which of the following comparisons between calcium and magnesium explains why magnesium hydroxide forms?

• A. The solubility product for Mg(OH)2 is lower than that for Ca(OH)2✓
• B. The atomic radius of Mg is smaller than that of Ca.
• C. Magnesium is more reactive than calcium.
• D. Calcium has a higher ionization energy than magnesium.

Explanation: This is the correct answer. As discussed previously, solubility product (Ksp) plays a crucial role in determining the extent to which an ionic compound dissolves in water. A lower Ksp signifies lower solubility. In this case, Mg(OH)2 has a lower Ksp compared to Ca(OH)2. This means Mg(OH)2 precipitates more readily from the solution when Ca(OH)2 is added, even though both Ca and Mg compete with the hydroxide ions.

Q84. For a gas obeying Boyl's Law if pressure doubled the volume becomes.

• A. One-half✓
• B. Doubled
• C. Unchanged
• D. Quadrupled

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume when the temperature is held constant. Mathematically, this can be expressed as: P1 * V1 = P2 * V2. If the pressure is doubled (P2 = 2 * P1), then the volume must be halved (V2 = V1 / 2) to maintain the equality.

Q85. The K.E the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero will be.

• A. Zero✓
• B. Maximum
• C. Infinite
• D. Unpredictable

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Absolute zero is the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases.Since kinetic energy is the energy of motion, the kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero would be zero.

Q86. In which of the following compound carbon uses sp" hybrid orbitals for bond formation?

• A. (CH3)3COH✓
• B. CO2
• C. C2H4
• D. CH3COOH

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In (CH3)3COH, the carbon atom is bonded to four other atoms (three hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom) through single covalent bonds. This requires the carbon atom to have four hybrid orbitals, which are sp3 hybridized.

Q87. How many electrons can have the value n=2, I=1 and s - ½ in the configuration 1S2?, 2S2?,2p3?

• A. 3✓
• B. 1
• C. 5
• D. 7

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Let's break down the quantum numbers:n = 2: This indicates that the electrons are in the second principal energy level. l = 1: This indicates that the electrons are in a p subshell.s = -1/2: This indicates that the electrons have a spin of -1/2. NNow, let's analyze each configuration:1s2: This configuration has 2 electrons in the 1s orbital. Since the 1s orbital has l = 0, none of these electrons can have l = 1. 2s2: This configuration has 2 electrons in the 2s orbital. Since the 2s orbital has l = 0, none of these electrons can have l = 1. 2p3: This configuration has 3 electrons in the 2p subshell. Each p orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, and each electron can have either s = +1/2 or s = -1/2. Therefore, there can be a maximum of 1 electron in the 2p subshell with n = 2, l = 1, and s = -1/2. Adding up the electrons from each configuration, we find that a total of 3 electrons can have the values n = 2, l = 1, and s = -1/2 in the given configurations.

Q88. Atomic number of C is 6 and H is 1. How many electrons are present in 1.6 grams of methane?

• A. 6.022 x 10^23 electrons✓
• B. 1.204 x 10^24 electrons
• C. 3.011 x 10^23 electrons
• D. 2.409 x 10^24 electrons

Explanation: Determine the molar mass of methane (CH4): The molar mass of CH4 is 12.01 g/mol (for carbon) + 4 * 1.01 g/mol (for hydrogen) = 16.05 g/mol. Calculate the number of moles of methane in 1.6 grams: Number of moles = mass / molar mass = 1.6 g / 16.05 g/mol = 0.0997 moles.Determine the number of molecules of methane: Number of molecules = number of moles * Avogadro's number = 0.0997 moles * 6.022 x 10^23 molecules/mol = 6.022 x 10^22 molecules. Calculate the total number of electrons in one molecule of methane: Each methane molecule has 10 electrons (6 from carbon and 1 from each hydrogen). Calculate the total number of electrons in 6.022 x 10^22 molecules of methane: Total electrons = 6.022 x 10^22 molecules * 10 electrons/molecule = 6.022 x 10^23 electrons. Therefore, there are 6.022 x 10^23 electrons present in 1.6 grams of methane.

Q89. Matter is made up of:

• A. Atoms✓
• B. Molecules
• C. Particles
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Atoms are the fundamental building blocks of matter. They are incredibly small particles that make up everything around us.

Q90. Which of the following has the smallest size?

• A. Al³⁺✓
• B. F⁻
• C. Na⁺
• D. Mg²⁺

Explanation: This ion has a 3+ charge, meaning it has lost three electrons. This results in a strong attraction between the nucleus and the remaining electrons, making it the smallest ion among the options.

Q91. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent:

• A. The direction of the electron's spin✓
• B. The energy level of the electron
• C. The orbital shape of the electron
• D. The number of electrons in an orbital

Explanation: The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 represent the direction of the electron's spin. Electrons can spin in either a clockwise or counterclockwise direction. The +1/2 and -1/2 values indicate these two possible spin orientations.

Q92. In free states, the mass of the nucleus is always:

• A. Equal to the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons
• B. Less than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons✓
• C. Greater than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons
• D. Unpredictable and varies depending on the nucleus

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The difference between the sum of the individual masses and the actual mass of the nucleus is known as the mass defect. This mass defect is converted into energy that binds the nucleons together, a phenomenon explained by Einstein's famous equation E=mc².

Q93. In electromagnetic spectrum of radiations, the wavelength spectrum that is visible to humans lies in the range of:

• A. 400-700 nanometers✓
• B. 300-600 nanometers
• C. 200-500 nanometers
• D. 100-400 nanometers

Explanation: The visible spectrum of light, which is the range of electromagnetic radiation that humans can see, lies between 400 and 700 nanometers.

Q94. There are different types of waves that exist in this universe. Which of the following waves do Not need any material medium to travel?

• A. Sound waves
• B. Light waves✓
• C. Water waves
• D. Earthquake waves

Explanation: Light waves are electromagnetic waves that do not require a material medium to travel. They can travel through a vacuum, as demonstrated by sunlight reaching Earth from the Sun.

Q95. If a car collides with a housefly, what will be the magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly?

• A. Much greater than the force experienced by the car
• B. Much less than the force experienced by the car
• C. Equal to the force experienced by the car✓
• D. Cannot be determined without knowing the masses of the car and the housefly

Explanation: According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This means that when the car collides with the housefly, the housefly exerts an equal force on the car. Therefore, the magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly is equal to the force experienced by the car.

Q96. The process in which light bends around an obstacle is called:

• A. Refraction
• B. Diffraction✓
• C. Reflection
• D. Polarization

Explanation: Diffraction is the bending of light around an obstacle or edge. This phenomenon is responsible for the spreading of light waves as they pass through narrow openings or around obstacles.

Q97. A handball is tossed vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s. approximately how high will it rise?

• A. 19.6 m✓
• B. 39.2 m
• C. 9.8 m
• D. 7.84 m

Explanation: This is the correct answer. We can use the equation of motion: v^2 = u^2 + 2as, where v is the final velocity (0 m/s at the maximum height), u is the initial velocity (19.6 m/s), a is the acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2), and s is the displacement (maximum height). Plugging in these values and solving for s gives us 19.6 m.

Q98. A stone is thrown horizontally from 2.4 m above the ground at 35 m/s . The wall is 14 m away and 1 m high. At what height the stone will reach? Where will the stone land?

• A. 1.62 m, 24.5 m✓
• B. 2.22 m, 31 m
• C. 3.22 m, 41 m
• D. 0.81 m, 12.25 m

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The stone's horizontal motion is independent of its vertical motion. We can calculate the time it takes to reach the wall using the horizontal distance and velocity: time = distance / velocity = 14 m / 35 m/s = 0.4 s. During this time, the stone falls vertically due to gravity. We can calculate the vertical distance fallen using distance = 0.5 * g * time^2 = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s^2 * (0.4 s)^2 = 0.784 m. Therefore, the stone's height when it reaches the wall is 2.4 m (initial height) - 0.784 m (distance fallen) = 1.616 m, which is approximately 1.62 m. To find where the stone lands, we need to calculate how long it takes to hit the ground after passing the wall. We can use the equation distance = 0.5 * g * time^2 and solve for time when the distance fallen is 2.4 m (initial height). We get time = sqrt(2 * 2.4 m / 9.8 m/s^2) = 0.7 s. Finally, the horizontal distance traveled after passing the wall is distance = velocity * time = 35 m/s * 0.7 s = 24.5 m. Therefore, the stone lands 24.5 m away from its starting point.

Q99. A person having a mass of 60 Kilograms exerts a horizontal force of 200 newtons in pushing a 90 kilogram object a distance of 6 meters along a horizontal floor. He does this at constant velocity in 3 seconds. The weight of this person is approximately, in newtons: (g=9.8m/s°)

• A. 600 N
• B. 580 N
• C. 588 N✓
• D. 540 N

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Multiplying the mass (60 kg) by the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²) gives exactly 588 N. This represents the accurate weight of the person.

Q100. Light can be polarized by:

• A. Reflection✓
• B. Refraction
• C. Diffraction
• D. Interference

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Light can be polarized by reflection, especially when it reflects off a non-metallic surface at a specific angle known as Brewster's angle. At this angle, the reflected light becomes completely polarized, with the electric field vector vibrating in a plane parallel to the reflecting surface.

Q101. When a 7000 N elevator moves from street level to the top of a building 300m above the street level, what is the change in gravitational potential energy?

• A. 2.1 x 10^6 J✓
• B. 2.1 x 10^3 J
• C. 2.1 x 10^9 J
• D. 2.1 x 10^12 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The change in gravitational potential energy (ΔPE) is calculated using the formula:ΔPE = m * g * Δhwhere:m is the mass of the objectg is the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²)Δh is the change in heightFirst, we need to calculate the mass of the elevator from its weight: m = W / g = 7000 N / 9.81 m/s² ≈ 713.8 kgThen, we can calculate the change in potential energy: ΔPE = (713.8 kg) * (9.81 m/s²) * (300 m) ≈ 2.1 x 10^6 J Therefore, the change in gravitational potential energy of the elevator is 2.1 x 10^6 J.

Q102. A conductor carrying a current I has length L. when it is placed in a magnetic field, Bat 90° it experiences a force

• A. BIL✓
• B. B/IL
• C. IL/B
• D. B + IL

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When a conductor carrying a current I is placed in a magnetic field B at an angle of 90°, it experiences a force given by the formula:F = BILwhere:F is the force on the conductorB is the magnetic field strengthI is the current flowing through the conductorL is the length of the conductor

Q103. The radius of third bohr orbit is:

• A. 0.529 * 3^2 Å✓
• B. 0.529 * 2^2 Å
• C. 0.529 * 4^2 Å
• D. 0.529 Å

Explanation: This is the correct answer. According to Bohr's model, the radius of an electron's orbit in a hydrogen atom is given by:rn = n^2 * a0where:rn is the radius of the nth orbitn is the principal quantum number (1, 2, 3, ...)a0 is the Bohr radius (5.29 * 10^-11 m or 0.529 Å)For the third Bohr orbit (n = 3):r3 = 3^2 * 0.529 Å = 9 * 0.529 Å = 4.761 ÅTherefore, the radius of the third Bohr orbit is 0.529 * 3^2 Å.

Q104. The ground state of an atom corresponds to a state of:

• A. Minimum energy✓
• B. Maximum energy
• C. Zero energy
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The ground state of an atom is the lowest energy state that its electrons can occupy. In this state, the electrons are in their most stable configuration, and the atom has the lowest possible energy.

Q105. When the number of significant figures in a measurement are indicated is shows the level of

• A. Certainty✓
• B. Precision
• C. Accuracy
• D. Error

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The number of significant figures in a measurement indicates the level of certainty or precision associated with that measurement. It reflects the number of digits that are known with certainty, as well as the first uncertain digit. More significant figures generally imply a higher level of precision.

Q106. Incident rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens, after refraction by the lens, will:

• A. Converge at the principal focus✓
• B. Diverge from the principal focus
• C. Pass through the optical center unchanged
• D. Be refracted parallel to the principal axis

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A convex lens is a converging lens, meaning it causes parallel incident rays to converge at a point called the principal focus. This is a fundamental property of convex lenses and is used in various optical instruments like cameras and telescopes. Therefore, incident rays parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens will converge at the principal focus after refraction.

Q107. The lightest element which exhibits radioactivity is:

• A. Tritium✓
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Helium
• D. Lithium

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. It has one proton and two neutrons in its nucleus, making it the lightest radioactive element. Tritium undergoes beta decay, emitting an electron and becoming helium-3.Therefore, tritium is the lightest element that exhibits radioactivity.

Q108. In simple harmonic motion, a particle is oscillating in such a way that its total energy remains conserved. When this particle reaches its two extreme positions, its potential energy at extreme positions becomes:

• A. Maximum✓
• B. Minimum
• C. Zero
• D. Unpredictable

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In simple harmonic motion (SHM), the total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) remains constant. At the extreme positions of the oscillation, the velocity of the particle is zero, and therefore, its kinetic energy is also zero. Since the total energy is conserved, all of the energy at the extreme positions must be in the form of potential energy. Therefore, the potential energy at the extreme positions is maximum.

Q109. When an electron and its anti particle position come close enough to each other, they Completely convert into radiation energy in the form of photons, this process Is called:

• A. Annihilation✓
• B. Pair production
• C. Compton scattering
• D. Photoelectric effect

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When an electron and its antiparticle, a positron, come into contact, they undergo a process called annihilation. In this process, the mass of both particles is completely converted into pure energy, which is emitted in the form of photons. This process is a fundamental interaction in particle physics and is essential for understanding the behavior of matter and antimatter.

Q110. The solar day is the time interval between two successive appearances of the sun overhead. The time that is referred to rotation of the earth about its axis is called:

• A. Sidereal Day✓
• B. Solar Day
• C. Lunar Day
• D. Apparent Solar Day

Explanation: A sidereal day is the time it takes for the Earth to complete one full rotation (360 degrees) relative to distant stars, not the Sun. This period is approximately 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds. It differs from the solar day because, due to the Earth's orbit around the Sun, the Earth needs to rotate a little more than 360 degrees for the Sun to appear in the same position in the sky, leading to the solar day being slightly longer.

Q111. Two forces equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and not acting along the same line constitute a couple

• A. Independent of the location of origin✓
• B. Dependent on the location of origin
• C. Always produces a net force
• D. Always produces a net torque

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A couple, consisting of two equal and opposite forces that do not act along the same line, produces a pure torque. The magnitude of this torque is independent of the location of the origin chosen to calculate it. This means that the rotational effect of a couple is the same regardless of where you measure it from.

Q112. A cyclist moving towards right with an acceleration of 4m/ Sec2 at t = 0, he as traveled 5m moving towards the right at 15m/Sec. what be his position at t=2 seconds?

• A. 38 meters
• B. 50 meters
• C. 25 meters
• D. 43 meters✓

Explanation: To find the position of the cyclist at t=2t = 2t=2 seconds, we can use the equations of motion for uniformly accelerated linear motion. Here’s how to approach the problem: The cyclist's position at t=2t is 43 meters,

Q113. A fixed mass of gas in a thermally insulated container is compressed. After compression, the temperature of the gas will have:

• A. Risen✓
• B. Decreased
• C. Remained constant
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When a gas is compressed in a thermally insulated container (adiabatic process), work is done on the gas. This work increases the internal energy of the gas, which is directly related to the kinetic energy of its molecules. As the kinetic energy of the molecules increases, the temperature of the gas rises.

Q114. Find the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 10 kg. when placed at a distance of 1 meter apart.

• A. 6.673 x 10^-9 N✓
• B. 6.673 x 10^-11 N
• C. 6.673 x 10^-7 N
• D. 6.673 x 10^-5 N

Explanation: To calculate the gravitational force between two objects, we use the formula:F = G * m1 * m2 / r²where:F is the gravitational forceG is the gravitational constant (6.673 x 10^-11 Nm²/kg²)m1 and m2 are the masses of the objectsr is the distance between the objectsSubstituting the given values:F = (6.673 x 10^-11 Nm²/kg²) * (10 kg) * (10 kg) / (1 m)²F = 6.673 x 10^-9 N

Q115. A body of mass 4 kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.04 m from its equilibrium position and then, if the spring constant is 400 N/m find the time period of vibration?

• A. 0.628 s✓
• B. 0.314 s
• C. 1.257 s
• D. 2.513 s

Explanation: The time period of a mass-spring system undergoing simple harmonic motion is given by:T = 2π√(m/k)where:T is the time periodm is the mass of the objectk is the spring constantSubstituting the given values:T = 2π√(4 kg / 400 N/m) = 2π√(0.01 s²/m²) = 0.628 sTherefore, the time period of vibration is 0.628 seconds.

Q116. What will be the position of the object, when a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, is used to form an erect image which is twice as large as the object.

• A. 10 cm✓
• B. 20 cm
• C. 30 cm
• D. 40 cm

Explanation: This is the correct answer. To form an erect image twice as large as the object using a convex lens, the object must be placed between the focal point and the optical center of the lens. Focal length (f): 20 cm Magnification (m): 2 (since the image is twice as large as the object)Using the lens formula:1/v - 1/u = 1/fWhere: v is the image distance u is the object distanceSince the magnification is positive for an erect image:m = v/u = 2Therefore: v = 2uSubstituting this into the lens formula: 1/(2u) - 1/u = 1/20 cm Solving for u:u = 10 cmTherefore, the object must be placed 10 cm from the lens to form an erect image twice as large as the object.

Q117. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon its:

• A. Temperature only✓
• B. Pressure only
• C. Volume only
• D. Pressure and volume

Explanation: This is the correct answer. For an ideal gas, the internal energy depends solely on its temperature. This is because the internal energy of an ideal gas is primarily due to the kinetic energy of its molecules, which is directly related to the temperature.

Q118. 760.0 have

• A. Four significant figures✓
• B. Three significant figures
• C. Two significant figures
• D. One significant figure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In determining the number of significant figures, we follow these rules:All non-zero digits are significant.Zeros between non-zero digits are significant.Trailing zeros are significant only if there is a decimal point present.In the number 760.0, all digits are non-zero, and the trailing zero after the decimal point is significant. Therefore, 760.0 has four significant figures.

Q119. In photodiode, the bias voltage is applied in bias form:

• A. Reverse bias✓
• B. Forward bias
• C. No bias
• D. Zener bias

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Photodiodes are typically operated in reverse bias mode. This means that an external voltage is applied to the photodiode in such a way that it opposes the natural flow of current through the PN junction. When light strikes the photodiode, it generates electron-hole pairs, which are then swept away by the electric field created by the reverse bias voltage, producing a photocurrent.

Q120. Consider the following examples of motion. I, The daily motion of the earth about its own axis.I. The motion of planets around the sun.IlI. Sugar cane crushing machine is run by a camel that moves in a circular path around the machine. IV. Rotation of the flywheel about its axis.Which of the following is correct?

• A. I, II, and III only
• B. I, II, and IV only
• C. I, III, and IV only
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Rotation of a flywheel about its axle: This is a classic example of rotational motion, where an object spins around a fixed axis.

Q121. The series limit for the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664A. Calculate ionization energy of hydrogen atom.

• A. 21.7 x 10^-19 J✓
• B. 13.6 x 10^-19 J
• C. 3.4 x 10^-19 J
• D. 8.2 x 10^-19 J

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The series limit for the Balmer series corresponds to the transition of an electron from n = ∞ (infinity) to n = 2. The energy of this transition can be calculated using the Rydberg formula:1/λ = R * (1/n1^2 - 1/n2^2)where:λ is the wavelength of the emitted photon R is the Rydberg constant (1.097 x 10^7 m^-1) n1 and n2 are the principal quantum numbers of the initial and final energy levels, respectively For the series limit, n1 = ∞ and n2 = 2. Substituting these values into the equation, we get: 1/λ = R * (1/2^2 - 1/∞^2) = R/4 Solving for λ, we get: λ = 4/R = 364.5 nm Now, we can calculate the energy of the emitted photon using the equation: E = hc/λ where: h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 J s) c is the speed of light (3.00 x 10^8 m/s) Substituting the values, we get: E = (6.626 x 10^-34 J s) * (3.00 x 10^8 m/s) / (364.5 x 10^-9 m) = 5.42 x 10^-19 J The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is the energy required to remove the electron from the ground state (n = 1) to infinity. Since the energy of the electron in the ground state is -13.6 eV (or -2.18 x 10^-18 J), the ionization energy is:Ionization energy = (-13.6 eV) * (1.602 x 10^-19 J/eV) = 21.7 x 10^-19 J Therefore, the ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 21.7 x 10^-19 J.

Q122. Which of the following best describes the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen?

• A. Several discrete series of lines with both intensity and spacings between lines decreasing as the wavenumber increases with each series✓
• B. A continuous spectrum with no distinct lines
• C. A few broad, overlapping lines
• D. A single, sharp line

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is characterized by several distinct series of lines, each representing transitions between different energy levels in the atom. The intensity and spacing between these lines decrease as the wavenumber (frequency) increases within each series. This pattern is a direct consequence of the quantization of energy levels in the hydrogen atom, as described by Bohr's model.Therefore, the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is best described as several discrete series of lines with decreasing intensity and spacing as the wavenumber increases within each series

Q123. The phenomenon in which certain elements emit invisible radiations is called:

• A. Radioactivity✓
• B. Fluorescence
• C. Phosphorescence
• D. Luminescence

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nuclei of unstable atoms. This radiation can take various forms, including alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays, which are all invisible to the human eye.

Q124. A 3-cm length of wire is moved at right angles across a uniform magnetic field with a speed of 2.0 m/s. If the flux density is 5.0 teslas, what is the magnitude of the induced e.m.f?

• A. 0.15 V
• B. 0.30 V✓
• C. 0.45 V
• D. 0.60 V

Explanation: To calculate the induced electromotive force (EMF) in this scenario, we can use Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, which states that the induced EMF is equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux. Formula:EMF = - (dΦ/dt)Where: EMF is the induced electromotive force (in volts) dΦ/dt is the rate of change of magnetic flux (in webers per second)Breaking down the problem:Magnetic flux (Φ): The magnetic flux is given by the product of the magnetic field strength (B) and the area (A) perpendicular to the field. In this case, the wire is moving perpendicular to the field, so the area is simply the length of the wire times its width (which we'll assume is negligible compared to its length). Φ = B * A = B * L * wRate of change of magnetic flux: Since the wire is moving at a constant speed, the area it sweeps through per second is constant. Therefore, the rate of change of magnetic flux is simply the product of the magnetic field strength and the speed of the wire. dΦ/dt = B * L * vSubstituting values:B = 5.0 TL = 3 cm = 0.03 mv = 2.0 m/sCalculation: EMF = - (dΦ/dt) = - (B * L * v) = - (5.0 T * 0.03 m * 2.0 m/s) = -0.3 VThe magnitude of the induced EMF is 0.3 volts.Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 0.30 V.

Q125. Two springs fixed at one end are stretched by 5 cm and 10 cm, respectively, when masses 0.5 kg and 1 kg are suspended at their lower ends. When displaced slightly from their mean positions and released, they will oscillate with time periods in the ratio

• A. 1:√2✓
• B. 1:2
• C. 2:1
• D. √2:1

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The time period of a spring-mass system is given by T = 2π√(m/k), where T is the time period, m is the mass, and k is the spring constant. Since the spring constant is the same for both springs (as the same force produces the same extension), the ratio of the time periods will only depend on the ratio of the masses: T1/T2 = √(m1/m2). Substituting the given masses, we get T1/T2 = √(0.5 kg / 1 kg) = √(1/2) = 1/√2.

Q126. 48.86 can be round of,

• A. 48.9✓
• B. 48.8
• C. 49
• D. 50

Explanation: To round 48.86 to one decimal place, we look at the digit in the hundredths place, which is 6. Since 6 is greater than or equal to 5, we round up the digit in the tenths place (8) to 9. Therefore, 48.86 rounded to one decimal place is 48.9.

Q127. Gamma rays are emitted from nuclei of radioactive atoms. They are nothing

• A. High-energy electromagnetic radiations✓
• B. Electrons
• C. Protons
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Gamma rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light, X-rays, and radio waves. However, they have much higher energy and shorter wavelengths than these other types of radiation. Gamma rays are emitted from the nuclei of radioactive atoms as a result of nuclear decay processes, such as alpha decay or beta decay.

Q128. The process of natural decay of some heavy nuclides is because of the phenomenon.

• A. Radioactivity✓
• B. Fission
• C. Fusion
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nucleus of an unstable atom. This process is known as nuclear decay. Some heavy nuclides are unstable due to having an excess of neutrons or protons, and they undergo radioactive decay to achieve a more stable configuration.

Q129. When a transformer is connected to 120-volt ac, it supplies 300 V to a device. The current through the secondary winding then is 0.06 A and the current through the primary is 2 A. The number of turns in the primary winding is 400. The number of turns in the secondary winding is:

• A. 1200 turns
• B. 1000 turns✓
• C. 800 turns
• D. 600 turns

Explanation: To calculate the number of turns in the secondary winding, we can use the relationship between the voltage, current, and number of turns in a transformer:Formula:(Vs / Vp) = (Ns / Np)Where: Vs is the voltage in the secondary winding Vp is the voltage in the primary winding Ns is the number of turns in the secondary winding Np is the number of turns in the primary winding We are given: Vs = 300 V Vp = 120 V Np = 400 turns Is = 0.06 A Ip = 2 Substituting the values into the formula: (300 V / 120 V) = (Ns / 400 turns) Simplifying: 2.5 = (Ns / 400 turns) Solving for Ns: Ns = 2.5 * 400 turns = 1000 turnsTherefore, the number of turns in the secondary winding is 1000 turns.This is the correct answer, as calculated above.

Q130. Which pair includes a vector quantity and a scalar quantity respectively?

• A. Force, kinetic energy✓
• B. Velocity, speed
• C. Acceleration, displacement
• D. Momentum, mass

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Force is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude (size) and direction. Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude and does not depend on direction

Q131. A Fixed mass of an ideal gas absorbs 1000 J of heat and expands under a constant pressure of 20 kPa from a volume of 25 x 10' m' to a volume of 50x103 m* What is the change in internal energy of the gas?

• A. +1000 J
• B. +5000 J
• C. 0J
• D. +500 J✓

Explanation: To find the change in internal energy of an ideal gas, you need to use the First Law of Thermodynamics. Calculate the Work Done by the Gas: and then use the first law of thermodynamic

Q132. One kilowatt hour equivalent by a factor—----- In Joules.

• A. 3.6 * 10^6 J✓
• B. 3.6 * 10^3 J
• C. 3.6 * 10^9 J
• D. 3.6 * 10^12 J

Explanation: 1 kilowatt (kW) is equal to 1000 watts (W).1 watt (W) is equal to 1 joule per second (J/s).1 hour is equal to 3600 seconds.1 kWh = 1000 W * 3600 s = 3,600,000 J = 3.6 * 10^6 J

Q133. The sum of all forms of molecular energies in a thermodynamic system is known as:

• A. Internal energy✓
• B. Enthalpy
• C. Entropy
• D. Gibbs free energy

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Internal energy is a thermodynamic property that represents the total energy of a system, including the kinetic energy of its molecules and the potential energy stored in their bonds. It encompasses all forms of microscopic energy within the system.

Q134. The closeness of two measurements is evaluated by its.

• A. Precision✓
• B. Accuracy
• C. Certainty
• D. Error

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Precision refers to how close repeated measurements are to each other. It is a measure of the reproducibility of a measurement. A high degree of precision means that the measurements are consistent and repeatable.

Q135. The volume occupied by one kilogram by weight of pure water at 3.98° C is known as:

• A. Liter✓
• B. Gram
• C. Cubic meter
• D. Milliliter

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The volume occupied by one kilogram of pure water at 3.98°C is defined as one liter. This temperature is chosen because it is the temperature at which water has its maximum density.

Q136. In a npn transistor, the current lE that flows in the emitter circuit is:

• A. Ie = Ic + Ib✓
• B. Ie = Ic - Ib
• C. Ie = Ib / Ic
• D. Ie = Ic * Ib

Explanation: This is the correct relationship between the emitter current (Ie), collector current (Ic), and base current (Ib) in an NPN transistor. The emitter current is equal to the sum of the collector current and the base current. This is because the majority of the charge carriers (electrons) entering the emitter region either flow to the collector or recombine with holes in the base region.

Q137. During the process of nuclear disintegration, when alpha particle emission occurs, atomic no of the atom changes by and its mass number changes by

• A. Two units... four units✓
• B. Four units... two units
• C. Two units... two units
• D. Four units... four units

Explanation: This is the correct answer. When an alpha particle is emitted from a nucleus, the atomic number decreases by two units and the mass number decreases by four units. This is because an alpha particle consists of two protons and two neutrons.

Q138. According to Bohr's theory of Hydrogen atom, only those atomic orbits with radil "P" and atomic shell "n" around the nucleus are allowed which have the angular momenta:

• A. nh/2π✓
• B. n^2h/2π
• C. h/2π
• D. n^3h/2π

Explanation: This is the correct answer. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is quantized and can only take on discrete values. The allowed values of angular momentum are given by L = nh/2π, where n is the principal quantum number (which determines the energy level of the electron), and h is Planck's constant.

Q139. A —----- is positively charged particle with properties similar to the a- +particle. Its mass is one fourth and charge is one half of that of a particle. It is smaller in size and carries less energy at the same velocity.

• A. Positron✓
• B. Alpha particle
• C. Beta particle
• D. Neutron

Explanation: This is the correct answer. A positron is a positively charged electron. It has a mass that is one-fourth that of an alpha particle and a charge that is one-half that of an alpha particle. It is smaller in size and carries less energy at the same velocity compared to an alpha particle.

Q140. Which unit expresses work per unit charge?

• A. Volt✓
• B. Ampere
• C. Coulomb
• D. Watt

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The unit of work per unit charge is the volt. One volt is defined as one joule of work done per coulomb of charge. Mathematically, it can be expressed as: 1 volt = 1 joule / 1 coulomb Therefore, the volt is the appropriate unit for expressing work per unit charge.

Q141. Which of the following gives the meaning of the prefix "tele"?

• A. Far✓
• B. Near
• C. Between
• D. Around

Explanation: The prefix "tele" generally means far or distant. It is often used to describe things that are remote or at a distance.

Q142. Synonym of Threatening

• A. Aggressive✓
• B. Peaceful
• C. Friendly
• D. Gentle

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Aggressive means hostile, unfriendly, or threatening in behavior. It is a synonym for threatening.

Q143. There—------many students waiting to bear the result of the test.

• A. Are✓
• B. Is
• C. Was
• D. Were

Explanation: This is the correct verb to use because the subject "many students" is plural.

Q144. Out of the 13 types of finches collected by Darwin from Galapagos:

• A. All were unique to individual islands
• B. All finches were red beaked
• C. Some were unique to individual islands and some were present on many islands✓
• D. Majority were unique to individual islands

Explanation: Among the birds Darwin collected on the Galapagos were 13 types of inches that, although quite similar, seemed to be different species. Some were unique to individual islands, while other species were distributed on two or more islands that were close together. This shows divergence in the evolution.

Q145. A mammal that lives only in America is:

• A. Armadillo✓
• B. Tasmanian Wolf
• C. Kangaroo
• D. Indus Dolphin

Explanation: Armadillos are primarily found in the Americas, and their habitats can vary depending on the species. The nine-banded armadillo is the most well-known species and is often found in the Grasslands, Woodlands, Deserts, Scrublands, Semi-arid Regions, and Riparian Areas.

Q146. The evolutionary view of biogeography predicts that contemporary armadillos are modified descendants of earlier species that occupied:

• A. Distant continents
• B. Neighboring continents
• C. Other continents
• D. These continents✓

Explanation: The evolutionary view of biogeography predicts that contemporary armadillos are modified descendants of earlier species that occupied these continents(America). It is the PTB book line.

Q147. A respiratory protein found in all aerobic species is:

• A. Plastocyanin
• B. Cytochrome C✓
• C. Cytochrome F
• D. Ferredoxin

Explanation: Cytochrome c is a respiratory protein found in all aerobic species. Cytochrome c is a small heme protein located in the inner mitochondrial membrane of eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in the electron transport chain, a series of redox reactions that occur during cellular respiration.

Q148. Main points of Darwin's theory of evolution are:

• A. Origin of species, decent with modification
• B. Natural selection, adaptation
• C. Struggle for existence, evolution
• D. Decent with modification, natural selection and adaptation✓

Explanation: The main points of Darwin's theory of evolution are "Descent with Modification," "Natural Selection," "Adaptation". These concepts collectively form the foundation of his theory and provide an explanation for how species evolve and adapt to their environments over time.

Q149. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of:

• A. Tectorial membrane
• B. Organ of corti
• C. Cochlea
• D. Vestibular apparatus✓

Explanation: Vestibular apparatus is present in the ear. It forms the labyrinth of the inner ear in association with the cochlea. This apparatus is responsible for balance and sense of orientation of the body in the air. It consists of 3 semi-circular canals, the base of which consist of the ampulla, and otolith organ, which consist of utricle and saccule which have a projecting ridge called macula. When the body is oriented in a different form in the darkness or absence of light, the apparatus helps to know about the orientation. Thus, the correct answer is option D.

Q150. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

• A. Corpus callosum -­ communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
• B. Cerebrum -­ calculation and contemplation
• C. Medulla oblongata -­ homeostatic control
• D. Cerebellum -­ language comprehension✓

Explanation: Language comprehension is a function of the cerebrum.Cerebellum coordinates and controls rapid muscular activities such as running, typing etc. Although it does not initiate such voluntary movements, it is an important centre for coordinating movements and for controlling posture and balance. Cerebellum’s function is almost exclusively motor; but it is also implicated in some forms of learning.

Q151. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:

• A. Short ­term memory
• B. Co­ordination during locomotion
• C. Executive functions; such as decision making
• D. Regulation of body temperature.✓

Explanation: Hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. It provides anatomical connection between the nervous and endocrine systems by its relationship to the pituitary gland. Hypothalamus is thermoregulatory centre. Hence, it is called “thermostat” of the body. It keeps body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system. Any localised injury to hypothalamus will, hence, disrupt regulation of body temperature.

Q152. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in the loss of:

• A. Commissural impulses
• B. Integrating impulses
• C. Sensory impulses.
• D. Voluntary motor impulses.✓

Explanation: Peripheral motor nerves carry motor impulses from the spinal cord to voluntary muscles.The destruction of the cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord will result in the loss of voluntary motor impulses.This is because the cells of the anterior horn (also called the anterior gray column), which is the front column of gray matter in the spinal cord, contain motor neurons that innervate the axillary muscles.

Q153. In the mammalian eye the ‘fovea’ is the center of the visual field where:

• A. Only rods are present
• B. More rods than cones are found
• C. High density of cones occur, but has no rods✓
• D. Equal number of rods and cones

Explanation: A small oval, yellowish area of the retina lying exactly opposite to the centre of the cornea is named the macula lutea or yellow spot which has at its middle a shallow depression, the fovea centralis. The fovea centralis has cone cells only. It is devoid of rods and blood vessels. The fovea centralis is the place of the most distinct vision.

Q154. Which of the following joints would allow no movements?

• A. Synovial joint
• B. Ball and Socket joint
• C. Fibrous joint✓
• D. Cartilaginous joint

Explanation: Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull, An example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle, Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.So, the correct answer is 'Fibrous joint'A. Synovial joints are freely moveable joints.B. Ball and socket joint are example of freely moveable joints.D. These joints allow little movement like pubic symphysis, intervertebral disc and coastal cartilage.FTB page # 42 STB page #39

Q155. Glenoid cavity articulates:

• A. Clavicle with scapula
• B. Humerus with scapula✓
• C. Clavicle with acromion
• D. Scapula with acromion.

Explanation: The glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the bone of the upper arm, the humerus, to form the shoulder joint.

Q156. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as:

• A. Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other✓
• B. When myofilaments slide pass each other, myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments do not shorten
• C. When myofilaments slide pass each other, actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments do not shorten
• D. Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other.

Explanation: During muscle contraction, the laterally projecting heads (cross bridges) of the thick myosin myofilaments come in contact with the thin actin myofilaments and rotate on them. This pulls the thin myofilaments toward the middle of the sarcomere, past the thick myofilaments. The Z lines come closer together and the sarcomere becomes shorter. Length of the A band remains constant. Myofilaments (both actin and myosin) stay the same length. Free ends of actin myofilaments move closer to the centre of the sarcomere, bringing Z lines closer together. I bands shorten and H zone narrows. A similar action in all the sarcomeres results in shortening of the entire myofibril and thereby of the whole fibre and the whole muscle.

Q157. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:

• A. The neuromuscular junction✓
• B. The transverse tubules
• C. The myofibril
• D. The sacroplasmic reticulum.

Explanation: A neuron that transmits a stimulus to muscle tissue is called motor neuron. A motor unit consists of a single motor neuron (nerve cell) and the muscle fibres it innervates. The portion of the muscle plasma membrane (sarcolemma) that lies beneath the nerve endings (axon terminals) is called the motor end plate. The axon terminals and the motor end plate together constitute the neuromuscular junction or neuromotor junction. B. Sarcolemma of muscle fibre penetrates deep into the cell to form a hollow elongated tube called transverse tubule.C. Muscle fibres of skeletal muscles are composed of myofibrils which are further of two types thick and thin myofibrils.D. Endoplasmic reticulum of muscles is called sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Q158. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by:

• A. Pushing it upward
• B. Pushing and pulling it, respectively
• C. Pulling it upward
• D. Pulling and pushing it, respectively✓

Explanation: The transpiration process, pulls water upwards with the help of cohesion and adhesion properties of water molecules. According to transpiration pull theory, due to transpiration, the water column inside the plant comes under tension. This is called ‘transpiration pull’. On account of this tension, the water column is pulled up passively from below to top of the plant (almost like a rope). Root pressure is the pressure that forces water, absorbed from the soil, to move through the roots and up (i.e., pushes it up) the stem of a plant. It may be due to both the osmosis of water from the soil into the root cells, and the active pumping of salts into xylem tissue which maintains a concentration gradient along which the water moves. Transpiration pulls upward while root pressure pushes water. First transpiration pulls water up and then root pressure develops pushing it into the roots and stem, hence first pulling then pushing. Transpiration process pulls water upward while root pressure pushes water into the roots and xylem. So correct option is D.

Q159. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal opening?

• A. Starch hydrolysis
• B. Guard cell photosynthesis
• C. Transpiration
• D. Potassium influx and efflux✓

Explanation: According to this theory, K + ion enter and accumulate in guard cells during daytime, causing opening of stomata and during night, K + ions move out of stomata and stomata closes. So option D is correct.

Q160. In a ring-girdled plant:

• A. The shoot and root die together
• B. Neither root nor shoot will die
• C. The shoot dies first
• D. The root dies first✓

Explanation: In girdling or ringing experiments, a ring of bark is cut from the stem. It also removes phloem. Nutrients collect above the ring, where the bark also swells up and may give rise to adventitious roots. Growth is also vigorous above the ring. The tissues below the ring not only show a stoppage of growth but also begin to shrivel. Roots can be starved and killed, if the ring is not healed after some time. The killing of roots shall kill the whole plant, clearly showing that bark or phloem is involved in the movement of organic solutes towards the root. Roots die first after that shoots die. Both will die slowly but first roots will die. Roots die first as tissues below the ring stop growing. So correct option is D.

Q161. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

• A. Transport saturation
• B. Uphill transport✓
• C. Requirement of special membrane proteins
• D. High selectivity

Explanation: Facilitated transport is the process of spontaneous passive transport or downhill transport of molecules or ions across a biological membrane via specific transmembrane integral proteins. The movement of molecules or ions is from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration is uphill transport. Thus, the correct answer is option (B), 'Uphill transport'. This refers to when all proteins are used for transport in facilitated transport. Facilitative does require membrane proteins for transport. It means membrane is highly selective it allows only certain molecules to pass through while prevent rest of them.

Q162. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having:

• A. Cytoskeleton
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Chloroplasts✓

Explanation: The leaf and stem epidermis is covered with pores called stomata (sing., stoma), part of a stoma complex consisting of a pore surrounded on each side by chloroplast­ containing guard cells, and two to four subsidiary cells that lack chloroplasts. The guard cells differ from the epidermal cells in the following aspects: The guard cells are bean­shaped in surface view, while the epidermal cells are irregular in shape. The guard cells contain chloroplasts, so they can manufacture food by photosynthesis (The epidermal cells do not contain chloroplasts). Guard cells are the only epidermal cells that can synthesis sugar. Both have cytoskeleton. Both have mitochondria. All cells (epidermal and guard cells) have endoplasmic reticullum. So correct option is D.

Q163. Root pressure develops due to:

• A. Passive absorption
• B. Active absorption✓
• C. Increase in transpiration
• D. Low osmotic potential in soil

Explanation: Root pressure is positive pressure that develops in the xylem sap of the root of some plants. It is a manifestation of active water absorption. So correct option is B.

Q164. Which of the following alkenes is the most reactive towards the addition of bromine ?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: The reactivity of alkenes towards the addition of bromine can be determined by the presence of electron-donating or electron-withdrawing groups, as well as the stability of the intermediate carbocation formed during the addition reaction. This alkene has three methyl groups attached to the first and second carbon atoms of the propene chain. Like option C, the presence of alkyl groups enhances the stability of the intermediate carbocation, making it the most reactive alkene among the given options.

Q165. The dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH gives :

• A. only 2-butene
• B. only 1-butene
• C. 2-butene as the major product✓
• D. 1-butene as the major product

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q166. Sabatier Senderen’s reaction is an example of:

• A. Non thermic reaction
• B. Exothermic reaction✓
• C. Endothermic reaction
• D. None

Explanation: During Sabatier-Sendern reaction, hydrogenation of alkene occurs, that breaks the doubke bond to produce single bond. The energy released in the formation of two sigma bonds is 174 kcal so the net released energy is 30 kcal/mole (i.e. in one step, in the formation of alkene from alkyne). This is called heat of hydrogenation (i.e. exothermic reaction).

Q167. Consider the following reactions:

• A. But-1-yne✓
• B. But-1-ene
• C. But-2-yne
• D. But-2-ene

Explanation: Ammonical AgNO3 forms white ppt. with aldehydes and terminal alkynes. This is also known as the silver mirror test. But-1-yne is a terminal alkyne. The unknown Reactant A is But-1-yne

Q168. The correct decreasing order of reactivity of alkenes towards hydrogen halides is:

• A. Pentene >butene>propene
• B. Butene>ethene>propyne
• C. Propene>butene> pentene✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Reactivity of alkenes is inversely proportional to the no. of carbon atoms. As the no. of carbon atoms increases, reactivity of alkenes decreases. Reactivity of alkenes also decreases by substitution of H atom attached to C = C double bond.

Q169. When n-butane is heated in the presence of AlCl3 / HCl it will be converted into:

• A. Ethane
• B. Propane
• C. Butene
• D. Isobutane✓

Explanation: When n-butane is heated in the presence of AlCl3/HCl it will be converted into Isobutane. It is a rearrangement reaction.

Q170. The compressibility factor Z=PV/RT for 1 mol of a real gas is greater than unity at a pressure of 1 atm and 273.15 K. The molar volume of the gas at STP will be :

• A. Less than 22.4L
• B. Greater than 22.4L✓
• C. Equal to 22.4L
• D. None of these

Explanation: The compressibility factor Z of a gas is defined as the ratio of the product of pressure P and volume V to the product of the number of moles n, universal gas constant R, and temperature T. Mathematically, it is expressed as: Z=PV/nRT At STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), which is defined as 0°C (273.15 K) and 1 atm, the molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.4 L. If the compressibility factor of a gas is greater than unity at a pressure of 1 atm and 273.15 K, then the gas behaves less ideally.In such cases, the molar volume of the gas at STP will be greater than 22.4 L for an ideal gas.So in short we can say,the gas is less compressible than ideal gas. Hence, Vm>22.4L.

Q171. A jar contains a gas and a few drops of water at 'T' Kelvin temperature. The pressure in the jar is 830 mm of Hg. The temperature of the jar is reduced by 1%. The vapour pressure of water at two temperatures are 30 and 25 mm of Hg respectively. Calculate the new pressure in the jar?

• A. 817 mm of Hg✓
• B. 792 mm of Hg
• C. 830 mm of Hg
• D. 724 mm of Hg

Explanation: This is the following solution: Pressure in the jar =830 mm of Hg.Pressure of moisture =30 mm of Hg.Pressure of dry gas =830−30=800 mm of Hg.Since the volume is constant and the temperature is changing, using the ideal gas equation,​T1/P1 ​​=​T2/P2 ​​⇒ T1/800 ​​=​0.99T1/P2 ​​⇒P2​=0.99×800=792 mm of Hg.Therefore, the total pressure =792+25=817 mm of Hg.

Q172. NH3 gas and HCl gas from the two flasks,at same temperature and pressure were injected simultaneously through pinholes of similar geometry, attached at the two ends of a 1.0 m long glass tube. At what distance from the ammonia end, the first flash of white fume would be observed?

• A. 59.43 cm✓
• B. 52.12 cm
• C. 34.37 cm
• D. 49.23 cm

Explanation: By understanding the GRAHAM'S LAW OF DIFFUSION and it's numerical type questions this Question is very easy to solve. When two cotton plugs soaked in HCl and NH3 solutions are introduced in the open ends of 100 cm long tube simultaneously. HCl molecules travel a distance of 40.5 cm while NH3 molecules cover 59.5 cm in the same duration. They produce dense white fumes of ammonium chloride at the point of junction. Hence,Graham's Law the rate of diffusion or effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of it's density-molar mass at constant temperature and pressure is proved. This is the following solution:

Q173. X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of O2 gas under identical conditions is:

• A. 10 seconds: He
• B. 20 seconds: O2✓
• C. 25 seconds: CO
• D. 35 seconds: CO2

Explanation: The key to solve this question is the understanding GRAHAM's LAW OF DIFFUSION which states that: The rate of diffusion or effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of it's density at constant temperature and pressure. This is the following solution:

Q174. Gaseous benzene reacts with hydrogen gas in presence of a nickel catalyst to form gaseous cyclohexane according to the reaction: C6H6(g)+ 3H2(g)→ C6H12(g) A mixture of C6H6 and excess H2 has a pressure of 60 mm of Hg in an unknown volume. After the gas has been passed over a nickel catalyst and all the benzene converted to cyclohexane, the pressure of the gas was 30 mm of Hg in the same volume and temperature. The fraction of C6H6 (by volume) present in the original volume is:

• A. 1/3
• B. 1/4
• C. 1/5
• D. 1/6✓

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q175. If the temperature of an ideal gas in a sealed, rigid container is increased to 1.5 times the initial value (in K), the density of gas:

• A. Becomes 1.5 times the initial value
• B. Becomes 1/1.5 times the initial value
• C. Becomes 2.25 times the initial value
• D. Remains the same✓

Explanation: According to the formula and reference given below density should decrease. By increasing the temperature from 0°C to 27°C the density of gas has decreased from 0.7138 g dm-3 to 0.649 g dm-3. The increase of temperature makes the molecules of a gas to move away from each other. d= PM/RT d= m/V BUT for a sealed rigid container mass as well as volume remains a constant hence the density remains same at the temperature changes.

Q176. Three blocks of masses m1, m2, and m3 are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface. A force of 40 N pulls the system. Calculate the value of T, if:

• A. 40 N
• B. 20 N✓
• C. 10 N
• D. 5 N

Explanation: The following is the solution: Let a be the acceleration of the system, F is the net pulling force on m1, T is the tension force exerted by m1 on m2 and by m2 on m1, A different tension force T' is exerted by m2 on m3, and by m3 on m2, as shown in the diagram. (While this force exists, we're not interested in it because the question doesn't ask for it). The blocks move as a single system, therefore, by Newton's second law: a = F/(m1+m2+m3) a = 40 / (10+6+4) = 40/20 a = 2 m/s² Now, we need to find the tension force T acting on m1 in the direction opposite to the 40 N force. Consider the free-body diagram for m1. F - T = m1 × a 40 - T = 10 × 2 T = 20 N

Q177. All surfaces are frictionless and the pulley & strings are light. The acceleration of the block of mass 'm' is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q178. A block of mass 'm' is slipping down a rough inclined plane with constant speed. The force on the block by the plane is:

• A. mg
• B. mg/2
• C. Depends upon coefficient of friction
• D. Depends upon angle of inclination✓

Explanation: This is the following solution: The angle of inclination would give us the force, pushing the object down. The coefficient of friction wouldn't give us the answer, unless and until we have the angle of inclination.

Q179. Three weights W, 2W, and 3W are connected to identical springs suspended from a rigid horizontal rod. The assembly of the rod and the weights falls freely. The positions of the weights from the rod are such that:

• A. 3W will be farthest
• B. W will be farthest
• C. All will be at the same distance✓
• D. 2W will be farthest

Explanation: The following is the solution: At the time of free fall, Apparent weight=0, for all objects, As it is a weightlessness condition, the masses will lie a equal distances.

Q180. Consider the following statements about the blocks shown in the diagram that are being pushed by a constant force on a frictionless table:

• A. A only✓
• B. B only
• C. Both A and B
• D. Neither A nor B

Explanation: The following is the solution: By applying by a constant force on a frictionless table, all blocks move with the same acceleration. The net force on each block is different, as masses are different. F=ma, Since, F is constant, a will be constant as well.

Q181. “Certainly, answered the man;”here, bring me a blanket and a good-sized mallet.”

• A. Certainly
• B. Man here
• C. Good-sized
• D. Mallet✓

Explanation: This is correctly used as the object in the second part of the dialogue. There is no error with "mallet."Corrected Sentence:“Certainly,” answered the man, “Here, bring me a blanket and a good-sized mallet.”By correcting the punctuation and capitalization, the sentence becomes grammatically correct and the dialogue is properly presented.

Q182. One of them, however, said, ”She was a very old woman, who must have died shortly in any case.

• A. One of them
• B. Said✓
• C. She was a very old woman
• D. Case

Explanation: This verb is correctly used to attribute the following speech to the subject. There is no error with "said."Correct Answer:The correct answer is B) Said.Corrected Sentence:"One of them, however, said, 'She was a very old woman, who must have died shortly in any case.'"This correction ensures the sentence is grammatically accurate by using the singular noun "woman" and properly enclosing the dialogue in quotation marks.

Q183. And you did all this against your doctor’s orders!” “Which one.” he asked, laughing.

• A. Doctor’s
• B. Orders
• C. One✓
• D. Asked

Explanation: The word "one" itself is correct, but the punctuation following it is incorrect. The sentence should have a question mark after "Which one" to correctly punctuate the question.Correct Answer:The correct answer is C) One because the punctuation after "Which one" is incorrect.Explanation and Correction:To correct the punctuation error:Replace the period after "Which one" with a question mark.Corrected Sentence:“And you did all this against your doctor’s orders!” “Which one?” he asked, laughing.This correction ensures the sentence is grammatically accurate by properly punctuating the question.

Q184. Over the rocky levels of the mountain was a streak of rust coloured air

• A. Over the rocky levels
• B. Of the mountain
• C. Rust coloured✓
• D. Air

Explanation: This is the problematic part. When used as a compound adjective to describe "air," it should be hyphenated as "rust-colored." This ensures clarity and correctness in modifying the nounThe correct answer is C) Rust coloured because the phrase should be hyphenated when used as a compound adjective.Explanation and Correction:To correct the hyphenation error:Hyphenate "rust coloured" to "rust-colored."Corrected Sentence:"Over the rocky levels of the mountain was a streak of rust-colored air."This correction ensures the compound adjective is correctly hyphenated, providing clear and accurate modification of the noun "air."

Q185. Having had lunch; we went back to work.

• A. Having
• B. Lunch
• C. Went
• D. Back to work✓

Explanation: This phrase is correctly used as part of the main clause, indicating where the action "went" occurs. There is no error with "Back to work."Correct Answer:There is no single word or phrase in the options that is incorrect by itself. The error lies in the punctuation between the clauses.Explanation and Correction:To correct the punctuation error, replace the semicolon with a comma:Corrected Sentence:"Having had lunch, we went back to work."This correction ensures the sentence uses appropriate punctuation to separate the dependent clause from the main clause

Q186. I do not know what he will do.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. adjective clause
• C. adjective clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "what he will do" acts as the object of the verb "know." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I do not know something").

Q187. I want to see what had happened.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. adjective clause
• C. adverb clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "what had happened" acts as the direct object of the verb "want to see." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I want to see something").

Q188. I expect that I shall get a prize.

• A. Noun clause✓
• B. adjective clause
• C. adverb clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Noun Clause (Correct): A noun clause functions like a noun in a sentence. In this case, "that I shall get a prize" acts as the object of the verb "expect." It fills the position where a noun would typically go to complete the meaning of the sentence ("I expect something").

Q189. He met a boy whose eyes were blue.

• A. Noun clause
• B. adjective clause✓
• C. adverb clause
• D. independent clause

Explanation: Adjective Clause (Correct): An adjective clause modifies a noun or pronoun by providing additional information about it. Here, "whose eyes were blue" describes the boy by specifying his eye color.

Q190. Fatima, whose mom is a nurse, sits behind me in class.

• A. Noun clause
• B. essential adjective clause
• C. adverb clause
• D. non essential clause✓

Explanation: Non-essential Clause (Correct): A non-essential adjective clause provides additional information about a noun or pronoun but is not necessary to identify it. Here, the clause "whose mom is a nurse" gives extra information about Fatima but isn't essential to understand who she is in the context of the sentence.

Q191. I was _ his brazenness as he was considered an obedient student.

• A. surprise
• B. surprised✓
• C. surprising
• D. surprises

Explanation: B is the correct option because This is the past participle form of the verb "surprise" used as an adjective. It correctly describes the speaker's reaction to the student's unexpected behavior.

Q192. Had the police not reached here on time, the traders robbed.

• A. would have
• B. would had
• C. would have been✓
• D. would had been

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the correct conditional perfect passive construction. It indicates that the traders would have been the recipients of the action (being robbed) if the police had not arrived on time.

Q193. The door—----- by him.

• A. was knocked at✓
• B. knocked at
• C. was knocking at
• D. knocks at

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the passive voice construction in the past tense, which correctly indicates that the action of knocking was done to the door.

Q194. Police Officers _ to the theater and every nook and corner completely checked.

• A. sent to
• B. were sent to✓
• C. sent
• D. would have sent to

Explanation: B is the correct option because This is the correct past tense passive voice construction. It indicates that the police officers were the recipients of the action (being sent) to the theater.

Q195. When the minister was shot dead, people —----- here and there to save themselves.

• A. were run
• B. was run
• C. ran✓
• D. runs

Explanation: C is the correct option because This is the correct past tense form of the verb "run" in the active voice, indicating that people performed the action of running.

Q196. Statements: I. Some pens are glass. II. All glass are wall. Conclusions: I. Some wall are pens. II. Some wall are glass.

• A. Only conclusion (l) follows
• B. Only conclusion (II) follows
• C. Both conclusion follow✓
• D. Neither conclusion (l) nor conclusion (II) follows
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions: I. Some wall are pens. (True) - It is clear from the given diagram II. Some wall are glass. (True) - It is clear from the given diagram

Q197. Statements: No cities are countries. No countries are villages. Conclusions: I. Some countries are city. II. No villages are city.

• A. Only conclusion I follows
• B. Only conclusion II follows
• C. Only conclusion I and II follow
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions: I. Some countries are city - False, it is not a definite case. II. No villages are city - False, it is not a definite case. So, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Q198. Statements : All cups are pencils. Some pencils are pens. Conclusions : I. Some pencils are cups. II. No pencil are cups. III. Some cups are pens.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Only conclusion III follows
• C. Only conclusion I and II follow
• D. Only conclusion II and III follow
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions : I. Some pencils are cups - True, it is a definite case. II. No pencil are cups - False, it is not a definite case. III. Some cups are pens - False, it is not a definite case. So, only conclusion I follow.

Q199. Statements : All fruits are leaves. Some fruits are grapes. Conclusions : I. Some leaves are grapes. II. All grapes are fruits.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Both conclusions I and II follow
• C. Only conclusion II follows
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
• E. None of these

Explanation: Conclusions : I. Some leaves are grapes - True, it is a definite case. II. All grapes are fruits - False, as it is not a definite case. Clearly, only conclusion I follow.

Q200. Statements: All apples are bananas. No banana is a mango. Some mangoes are oranges. Conclusions: I. All oranges can never be bananas. II. Some mangoes are apples.

• A. Only conclusion I follows✓
• B. Only conclusion II follows
• C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
• D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
• E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.

Explanation: I. All oranges can never be bananas. - (True) - Since some of the part of orange is in mango. Therefore the conclusion is true. II. Some mangoes are apples. - (False) - It is clear from the diagram. Only conclusion I is follows.