Sindh Mdcat Exclusive Course Week 6 Test — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Movement of the hip joint is which type of synovial joint?

• A. Gliding joint
• B. Ball and socket joint✓
• C. Pivot joint
• D. Hinge joint

Explanation: The hip joint allows movement in all directions, including rotation. This wide range of motion is characteristic of a ball and socket synovial joint.

Q2. Bones of the skull are joined by:

• A. Fibrous joints✓
• B. Sliding joints
• C. Pivot joints
• D. Hinge joints
• E. Gliding joints

Explanation: Fibrous joints are characterized by being immovable and are primarily found in the skull, where they are known as sutures. These joints provide stability and protection for the brain by holding the skull bones firmly together. Other joint types, such as sliding, pivot, hinge, and gliding joints, allow varying degrees of movement and are not suitable for the protective function required by the skull.

Q3. Hinge joint occurs in:

• A. Elbow✓
• B. Skull
• C. Ankle
• D. Backbone

Explanation: Hinge joints are specialized structures that permit movement predominantly in one direction, akin to the opening and closing of a door. The elbow is a quintessential example of a hinge joint, allowing for bending and straightening of the arm (flexion and extension). Contrarily, the skull contains immovable joints (sutures), the ankle involves a more complex hinge-like movement, and the backbone consists of gliding joints, each enabling a range of complex motions but not fitting the strict definition of a hinge joint.

Q4. The multinucleated mass of the bone-breaking cells is called:

• A. Osteoclasts✓
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Osteogenesis
• D. Osteocytes

Explanation: 'Osteoclasts' are multinucleated cells that derive from hematopoietic progenitors in the bone marrow, which also give rise to monocytes in peripheral blood. Osteoclasts break down bone tissue, and along with that, osteoblasts and osteocytes form the structural components of bone.

Q5. Movement of the hip joint is which type of synovial joint?

• A. Gliding joint
• B. Ball and socket joint✓
• C. Pivot joint
• D. Hinge joint

Explanation: The hip joint allows movement in all directions, including rotation. This wide range of motion is characteristic of a ball and socket synovial joint.

Q6. Which of the following is not an important function of bone?

• A. Regulation of ion concentration
• B. Muscular contraction
• C. Organ and nerve protection
• D. Regulation of pH through hydration✓

Explanation: Bones help buffer blood pH by absorbing or releasing alkaline salts, but hydration is not the mechanism involved in this regulation. This phrase is misleading and not considered a valid function of bone.

Q7. Which cells secrete flexible, elastic, non-living matrix collagen that surrounds the cartilage?

• A. Osteocytes
• B. Osteoclasts
• C. Chondrocytes✓
• D. Osteoblasts

Explanation: 'Chondrocytes' are the first chondroblast cells that produce the collagen extracellular matrix (ECM) and then get caught in the matrix. Options A, B, and D are wrong because all three cells are related to bone, whereas option C is related to cartilage.

Q8. Cartilage is a form of:

• A. Cardiac tissue
• B. Connective tissue✓
• C. Epithelial tissue
• D. Nervous tissue

Explanation: The correct option is B. Cartilage is a form of connective tissue. Cartilage is a strong, flexible connective tissue that protects your joints and bones. It acts as a shock absorber throughout your body. Cartilage at the end of your bones reduces friction and prevents them from rubbing together when you use your joints or perform movements.

Q9. The connection between two bones is called:

• A. Ligament
• B. Joint✓
• C. None of these
• D. Tendon

Explanation: A joint is a point at which two or more bones meet or where the connection between two bones occurs. They are responsible for movement, such as the movement of limbs, and stability, such as the stability found in the bones of the skull. A ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone and usually serves to hold structures together and keep them stable. This is incorrect as the question asks about the connection between 2 bones and not the name of the structure that joins 2 bones. A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone. It serves to move the bone.

Q10. Excess uric acid in the body causes:

• A. Juvenile arthritis
• B. Gout✓
• C. Osteoarthritis
• D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Explanation: Gout is a condition caused by too much uric acid in the body, i.e., hyperuricemia. In such a condition, uric acid accumulates in joints and causes inflammation and pain. Gout usually affects the big toe.

Q11. Osteoarthritis is a _ disease.

• A. Autoimmune
• B. Hormonal
• C. Nutritional
• D. Degenerative✓

Explanation: Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis. Some people call it a degenerative joint disease or “wear and tear” arthritis. It occurs most frequently in the hands, hips, and knees. Symptoms of this disease include pain, swelling, joint creaking, tenderness, and stiffness.

Q12. What are osteocytes?

• A. White blood cells
• B. Bone cell✓
• C. Brain cell
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option A: White blood cells: Cells involved in the immune system’s defense against infections and foreign substances. Option B: Osteocytes are a type of bone cell that are embedded within the bone tissue. They are the most abundant and mature cells in the bone. They are involved in regulating bone remodeling, mineral homeostasis, and detecting mechanical stress on the bone. Option C: Brain cell: Neurons, or brain cells, transmit signals and facilitate communication in the nervous system.

Q13. Which type of cartilage is the most abundant in the human body?

• A. Hyaline cartilage✓
• B. Elastic cartilage
• C. Fibrocartilage
• D. None of these

Explanation: Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage. Where bone ends meet to form a joint, they are covered by hyaline cartilage. This cartilage appears bluish white and glistening in a normal, healthy joint. Its primary function is to provide some cushioning and minimize friction between the bone ends.

Q14. All of the following are inflammatory arthritis except:

• A. Rheumatoid Arthritis
• B. Osteoarthritis✓
• C. Gouty arthritis
• D. Psoriatic arthritis

Explanation: Osteoarthritis. This is the most common form of arthritis and is considered a non-inflammatory type of arthritis.

Q15. Knee, elbow, ankle, and interphalangeal joints are examples of:

• A. Saddle joint
• B. Condyloid joint
• C. Ball and socket joint
• D. Hinge joint✓

Explanation: Hinge joints are a type of joint that functions much like the hinge on a door, allowing bones to move in one direction back and forth with limited motion along other planes.

Q16. The hinge joint and ball and socket joints are types of:

• A. Freely movable joints✓
• B. Slightly movable joints
• C. Immovable joints
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option A is the correct option because the six types of freely movable joints include ball and socket, saddle, hinge, condyloid, pivot, and gliding. Most joints within the human body are of this type. Motion is the purpose of the joint. Option B is not correct because in 'slightly movable' joints, two or more bones are held together so tightly that only limited movement is permitted. For example, the vertebrae of the spine. Option C is not correct because in 'immovable' joints, the two or more bones are in close contact, but no movement can occur. For example, the bones of the skull. Option D is not correct because Option A is correct.

Q17. What is not true about cartilage?

• A. There are many blood vessels in the cartilage✓
• B. It is a form of connective tissue
• C. It covers ends of the bone at the joint
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Option A is correct as "cartilage" is the main type of connective tissue found throughout the body in bones, joints, spine, lungs, and nose. It has structural and functional purposes and does not contain any blood vessels.

Q18. Which joints are held together by short collagen fibers embedded in connective tissue?

• A. Fibrous Joints✓
• B. Cartilaginous Joints
• C. Synovial Joints
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option A is correct since fibrous joints are connected by dense, tough connective tissue that is rich in collagen fibers. Option B is incorrect since cartilaginous joints are connected entirely by cartilage (fibrocartilage or hyaline). Option C is incorrect since, in synovial joints, the contiguous bony surfaces are covered with articular cartilage and connected by ligaments lined by synovial membrane. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

Q19. The joint that allows movement in two directions is called:

• A. Fibrous joint
• B. Cartilagenous joint
• C. Hinge joint✓
• D. Ball and socket joint

Explanation: A hinge joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement primarily in two directions, resembling the action of a hinge on a door. This design allows for flexion and extension movements. Hinge joints are found in various parts of the body, such as the elbow and knee joints.

Q20. The root of the tooth and the socket of the mandible and the maxilla is an example of which type of joint:

• A. Synovial joint
• B. Fibrous joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. None of these joints

Explanation: The root of the tooth and the socket of the mandible and the maxilla is an example of a fibrous joints.

Q21. The total number of cervical and thoracic vertebrae in human vertebral column is:

• A. 7
• B. 19✓
• C. 14
• D. 33

Explanation: There are 7 vertebrae in the cervical region and 12 in the thoracic region, so 19 is the correct answer.

Q22. The last four vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called:

• A. Sacrum
• B. Cervical vertebrae
• C. Pubis
• D. Coccyx✓

Explanation: The last 4 vertebrae in humans are fused into a triangular structure known as the coccyx.

Q23. In a human vertebral column, the number of _ vertebrae is 7.

• A. Cervical✓
• B. Thoracic
• C. Lumber
• D. Sacrum

Explanation: There are 7 cervical vertebrae in the human neck.

Q24. How many bones are present in the wrist?

• A. Four bones
• B. Six bones
• C. Eight bones✓
• D. Ten bones
• E. Many bones

Explanation: Your wrist is made up of eight small bones called carpal bones, while your forearm contains two long bones: radius and ulna.

Q25. Which of the following joints would allow no movements?

• A. Synovial joint
• B. Ball and Socket joint
• C. Fibrous joint✓
• D. Cartilaginous joint

Explanation: Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmosis, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull. An example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle. Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.

Q26. Glenoid cavity articulates:

• A. Clavicle with scapula
• B. Humerus with scapula✓
• C. Clavicle with acromion
• D. Scapula with acromion

Explanation: The glenoid cavity, a part of the scapula, articulates specifically with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint, which allows for a wide range of motion. The other options mention joints that do not involve the glenoid cavity. For instance, the clavicle connects to the scapula at the acromion process, not the glenoid cavity.

Q27. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?

• A. Fibrous cartilage
• B. Hyaline cartilage✓
• C. Elastic cartilage
• D. Calcified cartilage

Explanation: Articular cartilage at the ends of long bones is hyaline cartilage, reducing friction in joints.

Q28. It is not a true statement about bones and cartilages:

• A. Both contain living cells
• B. Both contain various types of living cells✓
• C. Both have ground matrix of collagen
• D. Both are part of endoskeleton

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: Both contain various types of living cells. This statement is incorrect because while bones have diverse cell types such as osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts, cartilage predominantly contains chondrocytes. Option A is incorrect because both bones and cartilage contain living cells. Option C is incorrect as both indeed have a collagen matrix, though the structure and density differ. Option D is incorrect because both are certainly part of the endoskeleton.

Q29. All of the following are true about collagen except:

• A. Inelastic
• B. Flexible
• C. Living✓
• D. Protein

Explanation: Collagen is the most abundant protein in your body. It is the major component of connective tissues that makeup several body parts, including tendons, ligaments, skin, and muscles. It is non living protein.

Q30. Cartilage is covered by:

• A. Periosteum
• B. Perichondrium✓
• C. Perimysium
• D. Perineurium

Explanation: The correct answer is the perichondrium, which specifically covers cartilage, providing protection and support. The periosteum, perimysium, and perineurium are coverings associated with bones, muscle fibers, and nerve fibers, respectively, and are not related to cartilage.

Q31. The joint that is immovable is called:

• A. Sutures✓
• B. Saddle
• C. Ball and socket
• D. Pubic symphysis

Explanation: The correct answer is sutures. These joints are immovable and classified as synarthroses, found in the skull where flat bones are held together by fibrous connective tissue. The other options, such as saddle, ball and socket, and pubic symphysis, are types of synovial joints that allow various degrees of movement, making them incorrect in the context of immovable joints.

Q32. Antibodies attack joints in:

• A. Osteoarthritis
• B. Juvenile arthritis
• C. Gouty arthritis
• D. Rheumatoid arthritis✓

Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is the correct answer as it involves an autoimmune response where antibodies attack the synovium, leading to inflammation and joint damage. In contrast, osteoarthritis is due to mechanical wear, juvenile arthritis encompasses various types with differing causes, and gouty arthritis is due to uric acid crystal deposits.

Q33. During an injury, the nasal septum gets damaged. Which cartilage is preferred for its recovery?

• A. Fibrous cartilage
• B. Hyaline cartilage✓
• C. Elastic cartilage
• D. Calcified cartilage

Explanation: Nasal septum is composed mainly of hyaline cartilage. This cartilage provides smooth surfaces and structural support, hence it is used for recovery.

Q34. The color of transition metal complexes is due to transition of electrons between:

• A. p to d orbitals
• B. d to d orbitals✓
• C. p to p orbitals
• D. d to p orbitals

Explanation: The color of transition metal complexes is due to the transition of electrons between different energy levels within the d orbitals of the metal ion. The d orbitals have different energy levels and can accommodate a varying number of electrons. When a transition metal ion forms a complex with ligands (atoms, ions, or molecules that surround the metal ion), the d orbitals split into different energy levels due to the influence of the ligands. This splitting is known as crystal field splitting. The energy difference between these split d orbitals corresponds to the energy of visible light. When white light passes through a colored solution containing transition metal complexes, certain wavelengths of light are absorbed by the electrons in the d orbitals, causing them to transition from a lower energy level to a higher energy level. The absorbed wavelengths are subtracted from the white light, resulting in the complementary color being observed. The specific color observed depends on the energy difference between the split d orbitals, which is influenced by factors such as the nature of the ligands and the oxidation state of the metal ion. Different ligands can induce different degrees of splitting, leading to variations in color. For example, complexes with ligands that create larger energy differences between the d orbitals tend to absorb longer wavelengths (lower energy) of light and appear yellow or red. Conversely, complexes with ligands that create smaller energy differences tend to absorb shorter wavelengths (higher energy) of light and appear blue or green. Overall, the absorption of specific wavelengths of light by transition metal complexes due to electron transitions within the d orbitals is responsible for their characteristic colors. When transition metals form complex ions or compounds, the d orbitals split into two energy levels. Electrons from the lower energy level absorb light of wavelength corresponding to the visible region in the EM spectrum and get excited to a higher energy level. The remaining unabsorbed wavelength is reflected and that gives the characteristic colour to the complex. As the energy difference between the high and lower energy levels of electrons varies for different complexes, the colour also varies. As discussed, the splitting occurs in d-orbital and transition of electrons between the two energy levels (d-d transition) is responsible for imparting different colours. Therefore option B is correct. (Source: PCTB book 2, page 102)

Q35. Transition Elements usually show:

• A. Para magnetism✓
• B. Diamagnetism
• C. Ferromagnetism
• D. Both Ferromagnetism and Paramagnetism

Explanation: It is useful, at the beginning, to identify the physical and chemical properties of transition elements which differ from main group elements (s-block). Properties of transition elements include: have large charge/radius ratio; are hard and have high densities; have high melting and boiling points; form compounds which are often paramagnetic; show variable oxidation states; form coloured ions and compounds; form compounds with profound catalytic activity; form stable complexes.

Q36. Which is the correct electronic configuration of Chromium (24Cr)?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 3s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d4
• C. 1s1, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5✓

Explanation: The atomic number of chromium = 24. Cr (Z = 24) = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

Q37. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d electrons?

• A. Mg2+
• B. Ti3+
• C. V3+
• D. Fe2+✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Fe2+. The electron configuration for Fe2+ is [Ar] 3d6, with the 3d subshell holding six electrons: four of these are unpaired due to Hund's rule, which states that electrons fill degenerate orbitals singly first. Mg2+ lacks d electrons entirely, Ti3+ has only one unpaired d electron ([Ar] 3d1), and V3+ has two unpaired d electrons ([Ar] 3d2).

Q38. The transition element which doesn't show variable valency?

• A. Cu
• B. Sc
• C. Zn✓
• D. Cr

Explanation: The answer to the question should be option C because Zinc does not show the variable valency as elements of the d-block. After all, the d-orbital is full. Its outer electronic configuration is 3d^10 4s^2 So, they tend to lose only 2 electrons from its outermost shell. Hence, only show a valency of +2 and no variable valency.

Q39. IUPAC name for [Pt Cl Br (NO2) (NH3)3] Cl is:

• A. Triammine chlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) Chlorate
• B. Triammine chlorobromonitroplatimate (IV) Chloride
• C. Triammine bromochloronitroplatinum (IV) Chloride✓
• D. Triammine nitrochlorobromoplatninum (III) Chloride

Explanation: We need to follow the alphabetical order while naming the compound. The oxidation number of metal is +4. Hence the IUPAC name is- Triammine bromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride.

Q40. Valence electronic configuration Cu+2 is (29Cu)

• A. 5d6
• B. 3d9✓
• C. 3d8
• D. 3d7

Explanation: The valence electronic configuration of Cu+2 is derived from the neutral atom of copper (Cu), which has an atomic number of 29. The electronic configuration of neutral copper (Cu) is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d¹⁰. When copper loses two electrons to form the Cu+2 ion, the two outermost electrons from the 4s orbital are removed. Therefore, the valence electronic configuration of Cu+2 is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁹.Cu is an element of d-block. Its electronic configuration is anomalous owing to the stability associated with half filled and as in the case of Cu, completely filled d-subshell. One electron from the 4s subshell jumps to 3d subshell, thereby making the electronic configuration:1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d10Now, for the formation of Cu2+ ion, the Cu atom must lose 2 electrons from the highest energy level. The important thing here is that the 4s orbital of an atom usually fills before electrons go into its 3d orbitals because the 4s orbital is slightly lower in energy than the empty 3d orbitals (n+l rule). However, once electrons are in the 3d orbital, the 4s is no longer lower in energy, it becomes higher in energy than 3d so when ionisation occurs electrons are lost from the 4s orbital before they're lost from the 3d orbitals.Hence, the first electron is lost from 4s and the one after that, from 3d. So the new electronic configuration from Cu2+ is:1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d9Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q41. The total number of transition elements is:

• A. 58✓
• B. 48
• C. 30
• D. 25

Explanation: This is a factual recall question. There are 58 transition metals in the periodic table of elements, of which 30 are outer transition elements (d-block) and 28 are inner transition elements (f-block). Therefore option A is correct. (Source: FTBB book 2 page 64)

Q42. Which of the following transition metals has the highest variable oxidation state?

• A. W
• B. Pt
• C. Hg
• D. Mn✓

Explanation: The transition metals have variable oxidation states due to the presence of unpaired electrons in their d orbitals. The highest oxidation state is determined by the number of electrons that can be accommodated in the d orbitals. The maximum number of unpaired electrons is five, which corresponds to a +7 oxidation state. Manganese has five unpaired electrons in its d orbitals, which allows it to have a maximum oxidation state of +7, the highest among the transition metals.

Q43. Paramagnetic elements contain:

• A. All paired electrons
• B. All unpaired electrons
• C. Few unpaired electrons.✓
• D. Unequal electrons and protons

Explanation: Paramagnetic elements are those with one or more unpaired electrons. These unpaired electrons create a net magnetic moment, making the element attracted to an external magnetic field. Option C is correct because it acknowledges the presence of unpaired electrons, which is the primary cause of paramagnetism. Option A is incorrect because paired electrons result in diamagnetism, not paramagnetism. Option B is misleading as it implies that all electrons must be unpaired for paramagnetism, which is not true. Even one unpaired electron can result in paramagnetism. Option D is unrelated to paramagnetism; it describes ions, which have an imbalance of electrons and protons, resulting in a charge.

Q44. Choose the correct IUPAC name for the following complex.[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

• A. Trichlorotetra amine chromium (III)
• B. Tetraamminedichlorochromium (III) chloride✓
• C. Dichloro Tetra ammonia chromium (III) chloride
• D. Dichlorotetra amine chromate (III) chloride

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for the complex [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is Tetraamminedichlorochromium (III) chloride. The complex contains four ammine (NH3) ligands and two chloro (Cl) ligands, which are named in alphabetical order as 'tetraammine' and 'dichloro'. The oxidation state of the central metal ion, chromium, is +3, denoted as (III). The name ends with 'chloride' to indicate the presence of the counter ion Cl- outside the coordination sphere. Other options do not follow the IUPAC rules for naming coordination complexes, either by using incorrect prefixes, separating terms incorrectly, or misnaming the metal.

Q45. Which of the following sets is of coinage metals?

• A. Cu, Ag, Au✓
• B. Zn, Cd, Hg
• C. Au, Ag, Zn
• D. Li, Na, K

Explanation: The coinage metal comprise, at a minimum, those metallic chemical elements which have historically been used as components in alloys used to mint coins.

Q46. Oxidation Number of all the elements in the free state is?

• A. Unity
• B. Positive
• C. Zero✓
• D. Negative

Explanation: The oxidation number of an element in its free state is always zero.

Q47. Au3+ has _ configuration.

• A. 5d7
• B. 4d9
• C. 5d8✓
• D. 5d10

Explanation: C is the correct answer. The electronic configuration of Au in its neutral state is [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1. When Au loses three electrons to form Au3+, it loses the 6s1 and two 5d electrons, leading to the configuration [Xe] 4f14 5d8.

Q48. Which of the following properties are associated with transition metals?

• A. Color
• B. Complex formation
• C. Use as catalyst
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Correct option is D. The answer is all of these. Transition metals are known for their characteristic colors, their ability to form complexes, and their use as catalysts. Color: The colors of transition metal compounds are due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the d orbitals. These electrons can absorb certain wavelengths of light, which gives the compound its characteristic color. For example, copper(II) sulfate is blue because it absorbs red light. Complex formation: Transition metals can form complexes with other molecules or ions. A complex is a molecule or ion that contains a central metal atom or ion bonded to a group of other atoms or ions. The ability of transition metals to form complexes is due to the presence of vacant d orbitals that can accept electrons from other molecules or ions. Catalytic activity: Transition metals are often used as catalysts. A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being consumed in the reaction. Transition metals can act as catalysts because they can change the electronic structure of the reactants, which makes the reaction easier to happen. In addition to these three properties, transition metals are also known for their high melting points, their high densities, and their ability to conduct heat and electricity.

Q49. Hardness of transition metals is due to _?

• A. More melting point
• B. More electrons
• C. Variable oxidation state
• D. Higher binding energies✓

Explanation: Correct option is D. The d-orbital of transition elements which contain the unpaired electrons may overlap and form covalent bonds. Higher the number of unpaired electrons present in the transition metals, more is the number of covalent bonds formed by them and higher is the binding energies. This will further increase the hardness of the metal and its strength.

Q50. Unpaired electron trend of transition elements:

• A. Increases till Mn and decreases till Zn✓
• B. Remains unchanged
• C. Decreases
• D. Increase

Explanation: Unpaired electron trend of transition elements increases till Mn and decreases till Zn.

Q51. Which of the following is a transition metal?

• A. I
• B. Fe✓
• C. Ca
• D. Mg

Explanation: Out of the given options, Fe is the only transition element. Ca and Mg are alkaline earth metals whereas Iodine (I) is a halogen. The picture below enumerates the transition metals and their hallmark property of making coloured compounds.

Q52. What is the correct formula of Hexa-aquacobalt (II) ion?

• A. [Co(H₂O)]²⁺
• B. [Co(H₂O)₆]-
• C. [CO(H₂O)₆]
• D. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺✓

Explanation: From the written formula, (II) indicates the complex has a +2 charge. Hexa-aquacobalt means there are 6 water molecules attached to one cobalt. Hence, the correct formula is [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Q53. Which bonds are formed between transition elements and ligands?

• A. Ionic
• B. Coordinate covalent✓
• C. None of these
• D. Covalent

Explanation: A coordinate covalent bond, also known as a dative bond, is a kind of two-center, two-electron covalent bond in which the two electrons derive from the same atom.

Q54. The central transition metal atom along with ligands is called:

• A. Complex ion
• B. Ligand
• C. Coordination sphere✓
• D. Complex compound

Explanation: The correct option for the given question is C) Coordination sphere. The coordination sphere refers to the central transition metal ion along with all the ligands that are coordinated to it, forming a coordination complex.

Q55. What is the coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 7

Explanation: The coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4] is 6 because this compound has six ligands attached to the central Pt atom: one chloride (Cl), one nitrite (NO2), and four ammonia (NH3) molecules. Each of these ligands donates a pair of electrons to the platinum, contributing to the coordination number. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the total number of ligands bonded to the Pt atom.

Q56. The oxidation number of Mn in [MnO4]-2 is

• A. +7
• B. -7
• C. +6✓
• D. -6

Explanation: Oxidation no of Mn=?Oxidation no of O=-2Overall charge on coordination sphere=-2Mn+4(-2)=-2Mn-8=-2 Mn=8-2Mn=+6

Q57. Which of the following properties is not related to transition metals _?

• A. Complex formation
• B. Color
• C. Fixed valency✓
• D. D-orbital

Explanation: The transition metal ions have unpaired d electrons which jump from one orbital to another. Thus the transition metals have variable valency. However, they form complex and colored compounds. And they have a partially filled d-subshell. This is the only correct option because transition metals do not have a fixed valency.

Q58. The species which donates electrons to the central metal atom in the coordination sphere is called _.

• A. Anion
• B. Cation
• C. Ligand✓
• D. Acid

Explanation: A ligand is a specie that donates electrons to the central metal ion forming a dative covalent bond. Hence, the correct answer is C.A cation is a positively charged molecule and an anion is a negatively charged molecule. An acid is a specie that ionizes in an aqueous solution.

Q59. Why do transition metals have strong metallic bonding?

• A. Because of high melting point
• B. Because d-electrons of the outer shell take part in bonding
• C. Because s-electrons of the outer shell take part in bonding
• D. Both s and d electrons take part in bonding✓

Explanation: Metallic bonding is a type of chemical bonding that arises from electrostatic attractive forces between conduction electrons in the form of an electron cloud of delocalized electrons. The reason for metallic bonding in transition metals is that they can involve the 3d electrons in the delocalization as well as the 4s. The more electrons you can involve, the stronger the attractions tend to be.

Q60. If we double the separation between two charges, then coulomb's force will become?

• A. Doubled
• B. Half
• C. 4-times
• D. 1/4th✓

Explanation: The size of the force varies inversely as the square of the distance between the two charges. Therefore, if the distance between the two charges is doubled, the attraction or repulsion becomes weaker, decreasing to one-fourth of the original value.

Q61. A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate energy acquired by it.

• A. 9.6 × 10-19 J✓
• B. 12.1 × 10-19 J
• C. 14.5 × 10-19 J
• D. 16.7 × 10-19 J
• E. 18.5 × 10-19 J

Explanation: To find the energy acquired by the particle, use the formula: Energy = qV, where q is the charge and V is the potential difference. The charge of the particle is 2e, where e is the elementary charge, approximately 1.6 × 10-19 C. The potential difference is given as 3.0 V. Thus, Energy = 2e × 3 V = 6eV. Converting eV to joules gives: Energy = 6 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 9.6 × 10-19 J.Options B, C, D, and E are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation using the formula and given values.

Q62. If a dielectric material is placed between two plates of a capacitor, the net capacitance of the capacitor:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Zero

Explanation: ○The strength of the electric field is reduced due to the presence of dielectric. If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates. In this way, dielectric increases the capacitance of the capacitor.So, option A,C,D is wrong .

Q63. Two capacitors C1=3µF and C2=6µF are in series across a 90 volts D.C. supply. The total capacitance is given by:

• A. 9 µF
• B. 2 µF✓
• C. 10 µF
• D. 90 µF
• E. 5 µF

Explanation: 1/C1 + 1/C2 = 1/C⅓ + ⅙ = 1/C2 + 1 /6 = 1/C3/6 = 1/C½ =1 /CC = 2 µF

Q64. Two bodies are charged by rubbing one against the other. During the process, one becomes positively charged while the other becomes negatively charged. Then:

• A. Mass of each body remains unchanged
• B. Mass of each body changes marginally
• C. Mass of each body changes slightly and hence the total mass
• D. Mass of each body changes slightly but the total mass remains the same✓

Explanation: When two bodies are charged by rubbing, electrons are transferred from one body to the other. This leads to one body becoming negatively charged (gaining electrons) and the other positively charged (losing electrons). In this process, the mass of the negatively charged body slightly increases, while the mass of the positively charged body slightly decreases. However, according to the law of conservation of mass, the total mass of the system remains the same because the electrons are merely transferred from one body to the other, not created or destroyed.Option A is incorrect because it overlooks the mass change due to electron transfer. Option B notes a mass change but fails to recognize that the total mass remains constant. Option C incorrectly suggests that the total mass changes, which violates the conservation of mass. Option D correctly identifies that individual masses change while the total mass remains constant.

Q65. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C. If the distance between the plates halves, the capacitance will be?

• A. 0.5 C
• B. 4 C
• C. 0.25 C
• D. 2 C✓

Explanation: The capacitance is inversely proportional to distance between the plates. Halving the distance would double the capacitance giving us 2C.

Q66. The energy stored in the capacitor is written as:

• A. ½ CV2✓
• B. ⅓ CV2
• C. CV2
• D. None of these

Explanation: The energy stored in a capacitor is given by the formula:U = 1/2 CV2where U is the energy stored in the capacitor, C is the capacitance of the capacitor, and V is the potential difference across the capacitor.

Q67. Two capacitors C1 ( 12 uf ) and C2 (24 uf) are in series connected across a 360 volts d.c. supply. Calculate the charges on C1 and C2 respectively.

• A. 2880 x 10-6 C , 2880 x 10-6✓
• B. 4770 x 10-6 C, 4770 x 10-6
• C. 5810 x 10-6 , 6610 x 10-6
• D. 7170 x 10-6 , 8140 x 10-6
• E. 9090 x 10-6 , 8880 x 10-6

Explanation: Charge throughout the circuit is the same so either the answer is A or B, as only these options have the same charge throughout.Q=CVCapacitance in series can be calculated as:1/C=1/C1 + 1/C21/C=1/12 + 1/241/C=2+1/241/C=⅛C=8 microfarads.->Q=CVQ=(8x10^-6)(360) Q=2880 x 10-6 C

Q68. The values of electric intensity will _ due to the presence of dielectric medium:

• A. Increase
• B. Increase exponentially
• C. Decrease✓
• D. Remain same

Explanation: The strength of the electric field is reduced due to the presence of dielectric. If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates.

Q69. In what form is the energy stored in a charged capacitor?

• A. Gravitational
• B. Electrical potential✓
• C. Magnetic field
• D. Potential

Explanation: Energy is stored in a form of electrostatic field between plates of capacitor. This energy can be expressed in the form of work done by the battery.

Q70. Ohm multiplied by farad is equivalent to:

• A. Time✓
• B. Charge
• C. Distance
• D. Capacitor

Explanation: The formula for charging and discharging capacitor is RC=TR: resistance C: capacitanceT: time for charging/ discharging

Q71. If the potential difference of 1 volt is applied across the end of a conductor and the current flowing through the conductor is one ampere, then the resistance of the conductor is said to be?

• A. 1 Farad
• B. 10 Coulomb
• C. 1 Ohm✓
• D. 1 Coulomb
• E. 10 Ohm

Explanation: According to Ohm's Law, V = IR, where V is the potential difference, I is the current, and R is the resistance. Given a potential difference (V) of 1 volt and a current (I) of 1 ampere, the resistance (R) is calculated as R = V/I = 1 volt / 1 ampere = 1 ohm. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 Ohm.Options involving farads and coulombs are incorrect because they are units for capacitance and electric charge, respectively, not resistance. The option of 10 ohms is incorrect as it does not match the calculated resistance using the given values.

Q72. The total outward flux over any closed hypothetical surface called _ is equal to the total charge enclosed divided by ε irrespective of how the charge is distributed.

• A. Coulomb surface
• B. Gaussian surface✓
• C. Ohm surface
• D. Faraday surface

Explanation: Gauss's law states that the total electric flux through a closed surface, also known as a Gaussian surface, is equal to the total charge enclosed by the surface divided by the permittivity of the medium (ε). This law helps in calculating electric fields around charge distributions with symmetry. The other terms, 'Coulomb surface', 'Ohm surface', and 'Faraday surface', do not apply to this context. Coulomb is related to charge, Ohm to resistance, and Faraday to electromagnetic induction, none of which define such a surface for Gauss's law.

Q73. When a charge Q on a capacitor is doubled, then energy stored U will be:

• A. 2U
• B. 3U
• C. U/2
• D. 4U✓

Explanation: The energy stored in a capacitor (U) is given by the formula:U = (1/2) * C * V^2where C is the capacitance of the capacitor and V is the voltage across the capacitor.When a charge (Q) on a capacitor is doubled, the voltage (V) across the capacitor remains the same if the capacitance (C) is constant. This is because the capacitance of a capacitor is defined as the ratio of charge to voltage, and if the charge is doubled while the voltage remains the same, the capacitance remains unchanged.So, in this case, if Q is doubled, the voltage V remains the same. Substituting this into the formula for energy stored in a capacitor:U = (1/2) * Q^2/CSince V remains constant, the energy stored U is proportional to the square of the charge Q. Thus, when the charge on a capacitor is doubled, the energy stored in the capacitor will be quadrupled (i.e., multiplied by a factor of 4).

Q74. The charge on neutron is:

• A. 1.6 x 10-27 C
• B. Zero✓
• C. 1.6 x 10-31 C
• D. 9.11 x 10-19 C
• E. 9.6 x 10-15 C

Explanation: Neutrons are electrically neutral, meaning they have no charge. This is because they have an equal number of protons and electrons, which have opposite charges. The charge of a proton is +1, and the charge of an electron is -1. So, when you add up the charges of a neutron, they cancel each other out, leaving a net charge of 0.

Q75. Electron Volt is the unit of:

• A. Voltage
• B. Current
• C. Energy✓
• D. Power

Explanation: Some of the common units for Energy are: Joules (J), Electron Volt (eV) which is equivalent to 1.60x10-19J, kilowatt-hour (kWh) which is equivalent to 3.60 x 106J, and erg which is equivalent to 1.0x10-7JVolt is the unit for Voltage/EMF, Ampere is the unit for Current and Watt is the unit for Power.

Q76. The force between two point charges separated by a certain distance is F. If each charge is doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, then the force would be:

• A. 2 F
• B. F✓
• C. F/2
• D. 4 F

Explanation: The correct option is B.

Q77. What is the change in kinetic energy of a proton when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 2MV?

• A. 0.32 μJ
• B. 0.32 nJ
• C. 0.32 pJ✓
• D. 0.32 fJ

Explanation: Change in Kinetic energy is equivalent to work done.We know that W = VqWhere W is the work done, V is the potential difference through which the charged particle is accelerated, and q is the magnitude of charge.W = 2x106 (1.6x10-19) = 3.2x10-13J = 0.32 pJ

Q78. If two point charges of charge q1 and q2 are placed at distance d. The force between them is proportional to:

• A. d
• B. d2
• C. 1/d
• D. 1/d2✓

Explanation: Force between two charges q1 and q2 separated by a distance r is proportional to q1 x q2 / r2

Q79. What is the formula for Coulomb's law?

• A. F=Kq1q2/r2✓
• B. F=2Kq1q2/r3
• C. F=Kq1/r
• D. F=Kq1/q2

Explanation: Coulomb’s law states that electric force is directly proportional to the product of two point charges and inversely proportional to the square of separation. It should be notes that when the sign of proportionality is removed, we add a constant in the equation so that it becomes Force = Kq1q2 / r2

Q80. Two unlike charges attract each other with a force of 10 N. If the distance between them is doubled, the force between them is:

• A. 40 N
• B. 20 N
• C. 5 N
• D. 2.5 N✓

Explanation: Correct option is '2.5 N'.

Q81. Electric field lines due to a positive charge are:

• A. Always horizontal
• B. Always vertical
• C. Radially towards the charge
• D. Radially away from the charge✓

Explanation: Because positive charges repel each other, the electric field around an isolated positive charge is oriented 'radially outward'. When they are represented by lines of force, or field lines, electric fields are depicted as starting on positive charges and terminating on negative charges.

Q82. Charged body attracts uncharged body by _ induction.

• A. Electrostatic✓
• B. Magnetic
• C. Both A and B
• D. None of these

Explanation: 'Electrostatic induction', also known as "electrostatic influence" or simply "influence", is a redistribution of electric charge in an object, caused by the influence of nearby charges.

Q83. You have three capacitors, each of 2 C. In which of the following combinations of the three capacitors is the resultant capacitance 6 C?

• A. All three capacitors are in series
• B. Two capacitors are in series, one in parallel
• C. Two capacitors are in parallel, one in series
• D. All three capacitors are in parallel✓

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance is the sum of the individual capacitances.

Q84. Coulomb's law is given by the formula:F=kq1 q2 / r2The magnitude of k having the unit of Nm2 C-2 for free space is equal to:

• A. 9 x 107
• B. 6 x 107
• C. 10 x 109
• D. 9 x 109✓

Explanation: The Coulomb constant, the electric force constant, or the electrostatic constant (denoted ke, k or K) is a proportionality constant in electrostatics equations. In SI units it is equal to 8.9875517923(14)×109 (9*109)kg⋅m3⋅s−2⋅C−2

Q85. Joule/coulomb is a unit of:

• A. Electric Potential Difference✓
• B. Electric Field Strength
• C. Magnetic Field Strength
• D. Energy

Explanation: The unit of energy is the joule, the unit of magnetic field strength is Tesla, and the unit of electric field strength is Newton per Coulomb. The unit of electric potential difference is Joules per Coulomb.

Q86. Read the passage to answer the given question:It is of course a little absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism which has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the world and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilization of Christened, there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, an endeavor after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not only thinking of politics but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan.What can cultural uniformity not lead to?

• A. It will not lead to the formation of a great civilization✓
• B. It will lead to the formation of a great civilization
• C. It will lead to the formation of rich culture
• D. It will to the change of environment
• E. It will lead to the destruction of values

Explanation: “There is great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan”As mentioned in the extraction from the passage above, cultural uniformity can not lead to the formation of a great civilization.

Q87. Read the passage to answer the given question:It is of course a little absurd to speak of Asia as a unity, and only opposition to Western Imperialism which has caused people to think in these terms. Asia contains half the population of the world and at least three very distinct civilizations: that of Islam, that of India, and that of China. These differ from each other just as much as they differ from the civilization of Christened, there is not the faintest reason to expect them all to act in unison. What is to be hoped is, an endeavor after cultural or political unity, but a determination to uphold independence at home and to respect it elsewhere - and when I speak of independence, I am not only thinking of politics but also of culture. There is a great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan.What can cultural uniformity not lead to?

• A. It will not lead to the formation of a great civilization✓
• B. It will lead to the formation of a great civilization
• C. It will lead to the formation of rich culture
• D. It will to the change of environment
• E. It will lead to the destruction of values

Explanation: “There is great danger of too much cultural uniformity. No great civilization has ever been cosmopolitan”As mentioned in the extraction from the passage above, cultural uniformity can not lead to the formation of a great civilization.

Q88. Read the following passage to answer the given question;The fact that we were all as safe as kittens under a cook-stove did not, however, assuage in the least the fine despair and the grotesque desperation which seized upon the residents of the East Side when the cry spread like a grass fire that the dam had given way. Some of the most dignified, staid, cynical, and clear thinking men in town abandoned their wives, stenographers, homes, and offices and ran east. There are few alarms in the world more terrifying than 'The dam has broken!' There are few persons capable of stopping to reason when that clarion cry strikes upon their ears, even persons who live in towns no nearer than five hundred miles to a dam.The phrase "spread like a grass fire" means

• A. Rapid spread✓
• B. Firefighting
• C. Grass growth
• D. Dreadful sight
• E. Hidden news

Explanation: The phrase 'spread like a grass fire' is a metaphor used to describe something that spreads very quickly and widely, akin to how a fire can rapidly move through dry grass. In the passage, it illustrates the swift dissemination of panic among the residents.

Q89. Read the following passage to answer the given question;The fact that we were all as safe as kittens under a cook-stove did not, however, assuage in the least the fine despair and the grotesque desperation which seized upon the residents of the East Side when the cry spread like a grass fire that the dam had given way. Some of the most dignified, staid, cynical, and clear-thinking men in town abandoned their wives, stenographers, homes, and offices and ran east. There are few alarms in the world more terrifying than 'The dam has broken!' There are few persons capable of stopping to reason when that clarion cry strikes upon their ears, even persons who live in towns no nearer than five hundred miles to a dam.Identify the phrase in which the people of the East Side experienced one of the deadliest fears of their lives:

• A. "The dam has been destroyed!"
• B. "The dam is safe!"
• C. "The dam has broken!"✓
• D. "The dam has not broken!"
• E. "The dam is overflowing!"

Explanation: The phrase 'The dam has broken!' is explicitly mentioned in the passage as causing widespread fear and panic among the residents of the East Side. This fear is described as a 'clarion cry' that is particularly terrifying, leading even rational and clear-thinking individuals to act irrationally. Other options either do not appear in the passage or convey a meaning that would not instill fear.

Q90. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgements. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves - such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury - have always seemed to me contemptible.The author of the passage followed which of the following objectives?I.TruthII. GoodnessIII. BeautyIV. Saints

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I, II and III only
• D. I, II, III and IV✓
• E. I, II, III and IV

Explanation: I, II, AND III are clearly mentioned as the objectives in line 6. This question can be answered by directly inferring from the passage.

Q91. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgments. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves-such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury-have always seemed to me contemptible.Which of the following is contemptible for the author?

• A. Truth, goodness, and beauty
• B. Property, outward success, luxury✓
• C. Art and scientific research
• D. Sense of fellowship with men of like mind
• E. Preoccupation with the objective

Explanation: The writer mentions property, outward success, and luxury contemptible in lines 9 and 10(last two lines).

Q92. Read the following passage to answer the given question: However, it must be recognized that science has its limitations. Its methods apply only to those things which can be observed, measured, and treated mathematically. It has nothing to do with values - save those of truth and accuracy. It has nothing to do with happiness, goodness, beauty, courage, adventure, justice, altruism, friendship, love of family, and love of country. Yet all these values enter into a man's conception of what is a good personal life within a good society. Honest and intelligent men can differ profoundly on the nature of these values and their respective degrees of importance. Hence the contrast between the modern world's command of material things and its tragic failure to organize a harmonious world society.It can be inferred from the passage that the author thinks

• A. Science to be the necessary element of a good personal life
• B. Science brings happiness, goodness, beauty, courage adventure,justice, altruism, friendship, love of family and love of country to a man's life
• C. Science has successfully brought a balance between the modern world's command of material things and a harmonious world society
• D. A good personal life can be achieved by recognizing the nature of values and their degree of importance✓
• E. The limitations of science are negligible

Explanation: It can be inferred from the passage that a good personal life can be achieved by recognizing the nature of values and their degrees of importance.(Lines 5-7).

Q93. Read the following passage to answer the given question:However, it must be recognized that science has its limitations. Its methods apply only to those things which can be observed, measured, and treated mathematically. It has nothing to do with values- save those of truth and accuracy. It has nothing to do with happiness, goodness, beauty, courage, adventure, justice, altruism, friendship, love of family, and love of country. Yet all these values enter into a man's conception of what is a good personal life within a good society. Honest and intelligent men can differ profoundly on the nature of these values and their respective degrees of importance. Hence the contrast between the modern world's command of material things and its tragic failure to organize a harmonious world society.According to the paragraph, science applies certain values, which of the following describes these values?

• A. Truth and justice
• B. Love of country and accuracy
• C. Truth and accuracy✓
• D. Justice and accuracy

Explanation: Science applies to certain values such as truth and accuracy as mentioned is line 3.

Q94. Read the passage to answer the question:What is life? A little scum of no importance on the surface of an unimportant globe circling round a second-rate star? An accidental conglomeration of atoms which have come together by an odd chance, the result of an exceedingly improbable happening? That is what some astronomers would have us think. Looking out into the depth of space, they have discovered a universe of unthinkable dimensions. A billion suns in our own galaxy, beyond it perhaps a billion galaxies, only revealed to us as tiny smudges on a photographic plate. No wonder they are impressed by the enormous disparity between the scaffolding and the result. Life seemed to be, as Jeans said, ‘an utterly unimportant by-product’ in a universe which was clearly not designed for life, and which, to all appearances, is either totally indifferent or definitely hostile to it’. It seemed ‘incredible that the universe can have been designed primarily to produce life like our own; had it been so, surely we have might expected to find a better proportion between the magnitude of the mechanism and the amount of the product.The title of the passage can be:

• A. Gathering of atoms
• B. The life outside the earth
• C. Universe and it's unneeded vastness
• D. Life versus universe✓

Explanation: In this passage, the author can be seen talking about the majesty of the universe with respect to the existence of “life” in various respects. Hence the best title to this will be Life Versus Universe.

Q95. Read the passage to answer the question:What is life? A little scum of no importance on the surface of an unimportant globe circling round a second-rate star? An accidental conglomeration of atoms which have come together by an odd chance, the result of an exceedingly improbable happening? That is what some astronomers would have us think. Looking out into the depth of space, they have discovered a universe of unthinkable dimensions. A billion suns in our own galaxy, beyond it perhaps a billion galaxies, only revealed to us as tiny smudges on a photographic plate. No wonder they are impressed by the enormous disparity between the scaffolding and the result. Life seemed to be, as Jeans said, ‘an utterly unimportant by-product’ in a universe which was clearly not designed for life, and which, to all appearances, is either totally indifferent or definitely hostile to it’. It seemed ‘incredible that the universe can have been designed primarily to produce life like our own; had it been so, surely we have might expected to find a a better proportion between the magnitude of the mechanism and the amount of the product.According to the author if 'the universe had been designed primarily to produce life like our own' then:

• A. There would have been a smaller proportion for us
• B. There would have been a better proportion for us✓
• C. There would have been more luxuries in the universe
• D. There would have be many galaxies containing many creatures

Explanation: The author demeans the idea that the universe is primarily designed to produce life, supporting it by the fact that there is so little life in-universe as mentioned in the lines below:“It seemed ‘incredible that the universe can have been designed primarily to produce life-like our own; had it been so, surely we might be expected to find a better proportion”

Q96. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word: DERACINATE

• A. Inculcate
• B. Incarnate
• C. Pull up✓
• D. Send for

Explanation: Deracinate refers to uprooting someone from a given location. This is a tough question, but when compared to the other options, Option C is the most appropriate answer.

Q97. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:Meditative

• A. Selfish
• B. Thoughtful✓
• C. Heedless
• D. Opinion

Explanation: The correct answer is Thoughtful as it captures the essence of being deeply engaged in thought, which is a core aspect of being meditative. The other options do not align with this meaning.

Q98. Choose the nearest meaning to the given word:Relinquish

• A. Use
• B. Surrender✓
• C. Increase
• D. Retain

Explanation: The synonym of relinquish is surrender as they both refer to yield, abandon or leave. Hence, it is the correct option.

Q99. Antonym of Adapt will be:

• A. Approve
• B. Applaud
• C. Shed
• D. Reject✓

Explanation: The antonym of "adapt" is "reject." Here's an explanation of the options you provided:Reject: "Reject" is the correct antonym of "adapt." "Reject" means to refuse or dismiss something, indicating a lack of acceptance or adjustment. It is the opposite of "adapt," which involves making changes to accommodate new situations.Therefore, "reject" is the appropriate antonym for "adapt" out of the options you provided.