Sindh Mdcat Mock Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option:There _ many students waiting to hear the results of the test.

• A. Has
• B. Have
• C. Was
• D. Are✓

Explanation: Students are plural. So, the helping verb should also be plural, which are “have” and “are”.Have can not be used here because it is used in perfect tense which has the 3rd form of verb while here we have the continuous form of verb i.e. “waiting”. So, the answer is D.

Q2. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized one.UNAMBIGUOUS:

• A. Exact
• B. Clear✓
• C. Intresting
• D. Sufficient.

Explanation: Ambiguity refers to something being not clear and easily understood. Since the word here is Unambiguous, clear will is the word closest in meaning to it.

Q3. Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices below:He would like _ have a job in the same office as his brother.

• A. Too
• B. To✓
• C. Of to
• D. Get

Explanation: The correct preposition to use over here will be "to" because all others don't make sense here grammatically.Too is used to imply collectiveness, which is not the context here. Of to and get don't make any sense when plugged in.

Q4. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.DEMONSTRATE:

• A. Show
• B. Display
• C. Conceal✓
• D. Expose

Explanation: Demonstrate means to clearly show the existence or truth of (something) by giving proof or evidence. Conceal means to not allow to be seen; hide, so totally opposite, hence option C is correct.

Q5. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:Children depend on their parents for food and clothing.

• A. Depend
• B. Their
• C. For
• D. And
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The sentence 'Children depend on their parents for food and clothing' is correctly constructed with no grammatical errors. Each component, including the verb phrase 'depend on,' the possessive pronoun 'their,' the preposition 'for,' and the conjunction 'and,' is used appropriately. Therefore, Option E: No error is the correct choice. Options A-D are incorrect because each word they highlight is used correctly in the sentence.

Q6. Choose the correct spelling:

• A. Defnite
• B. Defanit
• C. Dafanite
• D. Definite✓

Explanation: "Definite" is the correct spelling which means “to be on point”.

Q7. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. I wish I have been a millionaire.
• B. I wish I am being a millionaire.
• C. I wish I were a millionaire.✓
• D. I wish I was a millionaire.

Explanation: The correct sentence is:I wish I were a millionaire.The sentence is used by the speaker to express an unfulfilled desire (to be a millionaire). This means that the person is referring to an event in the past that they wanted to be trueHence, Option C is correct option.

Q8. Fill in with the appropriate Article: _apple _ day keeps _doctor away.

• A. the/a/a
• B. an/a/an
• C. an/the/the
• D. a/a/the
• E. an/a/the✓

Explanation: Articles an/a/the are the correct articles to be used here so option E is correct answer.

Q9. Fill in with a suitable Verb: The teacher_ completed this chapter.

• A. Have
• B. Is
• C. Are
• D. Has✓
• E. They

Explanation: The correct use of verb is: The teacher_has_ completed this chapter. Has is use because teacher is a singular person. So option D is the correct option.

Q10. Lipids store double amount of energy as compared to carbohydrates because of:

• A. High proportion of oxygen
• B. Low proportion of carbon
• C. Lower proportion of C-H bonds
• D. High proportion of C-H bonds✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Lipids store more energy than carbohydrates primarily because they have a higher proportion of carbon-hydrogen (C-H) bonds. These bonds are strong and release a large amount of energy when broken, which accounts for the higher energy content of lipids. In contrast, carbohydrates have more oxygen-hydrogen bonds, which release less energy. Option A is incorrect because lipids have a lower proportion of oxygen, not higher. Option B is incorrect because lipids have a high proportion of carbon. Option C is incorrect as lipids have more C-H bonds, not fewer.

Q11. Bones of the skull are joined by:

• A. Fibrous joints✓
• B. Sliding joints
• C. Pivot joints
• D. Hinge joints
• E. Gliding joints

Explanation: Fibrous joints are characterized by being immovable and are primarily found in the skull, where they are known as sutures. These joints provide stability and protection for the brain by holding the skull bones firmly together. Other joint types, such as sliding, pivot, hinge, and gliding joints, allow varying degrees of movement and are not suitable for the protective function required by the skull.

Q12. Lysosomes function in:

• A. Protein synthesis
• B. Processing of cellular materials
• C. Intracellular digestion✓
• D. Lipid synthesis
• E. Carbohydrate synthesis

Explanation: Lysosomes are specialized organelles within the cell that contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of breaking down macromolecules like proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. Their primary function is intracellular digestion, where they degrade and recycle cellular waste, damaged organelles, and material ingested by the cell. Unlike ribosomes, lysosomes do not synthesize proteins, and they are not involved in lipid or carbohydrate synthesis, which occur in other organelles. Options such as 'protein synthesis', 'lipid synthesis', and 'carbohydrate synthesis' refer to processes that take place outside of lysosomes, highlighting their specialized role in cellular maintenance through digestion.

Q13. Which of the following factors affect enzyme activity?

• A. Temperature
• B. pH
• C. Concentration of substrate
• D. Radiation
• E. All of these✓

Explanation: All of these factors can influence enzyme activity:Temperature: Enzymes generally work faster with rising temperatures until they reach an optimum point. Beyond this, high temperatures can cause denaturation.pH: Each enzyme has an optimal pH range. Deviations from this range can alter the enzyme's shape and reduce its efficiency.Concentration of substrate: Increasing substrate concentration can boost reaction rates up to a point of saturation.Radiation: While not typically considered an immediate factor, radiation can cause oxidative damage to enzymes, impeding their function.Thus, all these factors are relevant, making Option E the correct choice. Options A, B, C, and D describe individual factors, but only 'All of these' encompasses the full scope of influences on enzyme activity.

Q14. Some enzymes require the presence of a non protein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n):

• A. Holoenzyme
• B. Apoenzyme✓
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Zymoenzyme

Explanation: Enzyme with a non-proteinous part is called Holoenzyme; without that non-proteinous part, it is called Apoenzyme.

Q15. The gland known as the" gland of emergency" is the

• A. Pituitary
• B. Adrenal gland✓
• C. Thyroid
• D. Parathyroid
• E. Pancreas

Explanation: The adrenal glands are often referred to as the "glands of emergency" because they play a crucial role in the body's stress response. These glands produce hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol, which prepare the body to respond to stressful situations by increasing heart rate, raising blood pressure, and mobilizing energy resources.

Q16. All of the following are sexually transmitted diseases except:

• A. Syphilis
• B. Gonorrhea
• C. Alzheimer's disease✓
• D. Genital herpes
• E. AIDS

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder unrelated to sexual activity, primarily influenced by genetic and age-related factors. In contrast, syphilis, gonorrhea, genital herpes, and HIV/AIDS are all conditions that are transmitted through sexual contact. Identifying Alzheimer's disease as the exception is key to answering this question correctly.

Q17. Water acts as universal solvent because of:

• A. Heat of vaporization
• B. High polarity✓
• C. Hydrogen bonding
• D. Cohesion and Adhesion

Explanation: Heat of vaporization: The heat of vaporization is the amount of heat energy required to convert a liquid into a gas at a constant temperature and pressure. While water does have a relatively high heat of vaporization, it is not the primary reason why water acts as a universal solvent. High polarity: The correct option is high polarity. Water is a polar molecule, meaning it has a partial positive charge on one end (the hydrogen atoms) and a partial negative charge on the other end (the oxygen atom). This polarity arises due to the unequal sharing of electrons in the water molecule. The oxygen atom is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms, pulling the electrons closer to itself and creating a dipole moment.Because of its polarity, water molecules are attracted to other polar or charged molecules, including ions and other polar substances. When a solute (substance to be dissolved) is added to water, the water molecules surround and solvate the solute, effectively breaking its interactions and allowing it to disperse evenly throughout the water. This ability to dissolve a wide variety of polar and charged substances is the reason why water is often referred to as the "universal solvent." Hydrogen bonding: Hydrogen bonding is a specific type of intermolecular bonding that occurs between hydrogen atoms bonded to electronegative atoms (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) and lone pairs on nearby electronegative atoms. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other due to the polarity of the water molecule. While hydrogen bonding does contribute to water's unique properties, including its high heat of vaporization and high surface tension, it is not the primary reason why water acts as a universal solvent. Cohesion and adhesion: Cohesion refers to the attraction between water molecules, causing them to stick together, while adhesion refers to the attraction between water molecules and other substances. These properties are responsible for phenomena like surface tension and capillary action. While cohesion and adhesion play essential roles in various biological processes, they are not the primary reasons why water acts as a universal solvent.In conclusion, option b) High polarity is the correct option. Water's high polarity allows it to act as a universal solvent, enabling it to dissolve a wide range of polar and charged substances, making it an essential medium for various biological and chemical processes.

Q18. The complete, mature, and infectious virus particle is known as:

• A. Capsomere
• B. Genome
• C. Virion✓
• D. Capsid

Explanation: The correct answer is c. Virion. A virion is the complete, mature, and infectious virus particle, consisting of the viral genome (DNA or RNA) enclosed within a protective protein coat called the capsid. Unlike the genome or capsid alone, which are only parts of a virus, the virion represents the fully assembled unit capable of infecting host cells.

Q19. Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

• A. Four chambered heart
• B. Internal fertilization
• C. Nucleated RBCs
• D. Ureotelic mode of excretion✓

Explanation: Excretion of urea is known as ureotelism and the animals which excrete urea are called ureotelic. Ureotelic animals include Ascaris, earthworm (both are ammonotelic and ureotelic), cartilaginous fishes like sharks and sting rays, semiaquatic amphibians such as frogs and toads, aquatic or semiaquatic reptiles like turtles, terrapins and alligators, and man and all other mammals. Urea is less toxic and less soluble in water than ammonia. Hence, it can stay for some time in the body. Amphibian tadpole (e.g., tadpole of frog) excrete ammonia but after metamorphosis frog excretes urea.

Q20. Five steps of the lytic cycle of a T4 stage are given below: The T4 phage uses its tails to stick to specific receptor The cell’s metabolic machinery, directed by phage DNA, produces phage proteins and nucleotides from the cell's degraded DNA. The phage then directs the production of an enzyme that digests the cell. The empty capsid of the phage is left as a ghost outside the cell The sheath of the tail contracts, thrusting a hollow core through the wall and membrane of the cell.Which of the following is the correct sequence of the cycle?

• A. 3-5-4-2-1
• B. 2-4-5-1-3
• C. 5-1-4-2-3
• D. 1-5-4-2-3✓
• E. 4-5-1-3-2

Explanation: The correct sequence of the lytic cycle for a T4 phage is attachment, penetration, uncoating, biosynthesis, and maturation. Option D, 1-5-4-2-3, accurately represents this order:Attachment (1): The T4 phage uses its tails to stick to specific receptors on the host cell.Penetration (5): The sheath of the tail contracts, thrusting a hollow core through the wall and membrane of the cell.Uncoating (4): The empty capsid of the phage is left as a ghost outside the cell.Biosynthesis (2): The cell's metabolic machinery, directed by phage DNA, produces phage proteins and nucleotides from the cell's degraded DNA.Maturation (3): The phage then directs the production of an enzyme that digests the cell.The other options do not follow this logical sequence and therefore represent incorrect orders of the lytic cycle stages.

Q21. Testes are structures that produce:

• A. Spores
• B. Sperms✓
• C. Seeds
• D. Ova

Explanation: The testes (or testicles) are critical to the male reproductive system, primarily producing sperm and the hormone testosterone. This makes them essential for both reproduction and secondary sexual characteristics in males. Spores are not relevant to animal reproduction and are associated with fungi and plants. Seeds are a plant reproductive structure, resulting from the fertilization of ovules, while ova are female reproductive cells produced by the ovaries, not the testes.

Q22. Which of the following is NOT a difference that would allow one to distinguish between a prokaryotic and a eukaryotic cell? Presence or absence of the nucleus Presence or absence of the cell wall Membrane bound versus no membrane bound organelles

• A. I only
• B. II only✓
• C. III only
• D. I and II only
• E. I, II and III

Explanation: Eukaryotic cells have nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, which is not the property of prokaryotes.The cell wall is not a distinguishing feature between prokaryotes or eukaryotes.

Q23. Read the passage below to answer the question:Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not.Which of the following best explains the reason that Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha and Alia do not display symptoms of haemophilia, even though their father, Saad, is a haemophiliac.

• A. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and Saad can only pass on his Y chromosome
• B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Alia and Ayesha receive a hemophiliac X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X-chromosome.✓
• C. Haemophilia is a Y -linked disorder, and therefore cannot be displayed in females
• D. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder ,and Ahmed and Ali must have received an X Chromosome from Saad
• E. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Ahmed and All received a Hemophilia X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X- chromosome.

Explanation: Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. Males (XY) only need one affected X chromosome to express the disorder, but females (XX) need two affected X chromosomes. Since Sara is normal, she provides a normal X chromosome to Alia and Ayesha, making them carriers but not affected.

Q24. The Law of Dominance Is illustrated in the garden pea by:

• A. Homozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• B. Heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• C. Homozygous tall x homozygous tall
• D. Pure short x pure short
• E. Homozygous tall x pure short✓

Explanation: The Law of Dominance states that in a heterozygous individual, the dominant allele will determine the phenotype while the recessive allele is masked. In this case, the cross between a homozygous tall plant (TT) and a pure short plant (tt) clearly illustrates this law, as all offspring (Tt) will be tall, demonstrating that the dominant allele 'T' expresses itself over the recessive 't'.The other options do not adequately illustrate the Law of Dominance: the first option shows both parents expressing the tall phenotype, while the second option leads to a mix of phenotypes. The third option results in only tall offspring, but both parents are homozygous dominant, failing to demonstrate dominance. The fourth option produces only short offspring, which lacks any dominant allele.

Q25. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. Which Blood group is their child most likely to have?

• A. A and B
• B. B and AB
• C. A and AB
• D. A, B, AB or O✓

Explanation: Blood group inheritance is determined by allele combinations from the parents. A person with blood group 'A' can have genotype IAIA or IAi. A person with blood group 'B' can have genotype IBIB or IBi. If both parents are heterozygous (IAi and IBi), their child could inherit a combination of these alleles, resulting in blood groups A, B, AB, or O. Options A, B, and C do not include all possible blood groups the child could inherit, making them incorrect.

Q26. The muscles attached to the bones are

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Voluntary muscles are under conscious control, allowing us to move our bodies intentionally. Striated muscles have a striped appearance under a microscope due to the organization of their contractile proteins, giving them the name "striated." These muscles are also known as skeletal muscles and are responsible for body movements.

Q27. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?

• A. Increase in Aldosterone levels✓
• B. Increase in Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) levels
• C. Decrease in aldosterone levels
• D. Decrease in Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) levels

Explanation: Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating sodium and potassium balance in the body. It enhances sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron by increasing the number of sodium channels and sodium-potassium pumps. This process helps retain sodium in the body, contributing to increased blood pressure and reduced urine volume. In contrast, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily focuses on water reabsorption, and changes in its levels do not directly affect sodium reabsorption. Therefore, the correct answer is an increase in aldosterone levels, which specifically targets sodium reabsorption.

Q28. The external solution having more concentration than the cell sap is known:

• A. Hypertonic solution✓
• B. Hypotonic solution
• C. Isotonic solution
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is a hypertonic solution. In osmoregulation, when a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the external environment has a higher concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the cell. This concentration difference causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis, leading to a decrease in cell volume and potential plasmolysis. Conversely, a hypotonic solution would cause water to move into the cell, and an isotonic solution would result in no net water movement. None of these is incorrect because the correct term for a solution with higher solute concentration than the cell sap is indeed a hypertonic solution.

Q29. Nutritional deficiency ( vitamin D ) results in softening of the bones. This disease is called?

• A. Rickets✓
• B. Cleft palates
• C. Microcephaly
• D. Down syndrome

Explanation: Rickets is a condition that primarily affects children and is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for calcium and phosphate absorption in the body, which are critical for healthy bone formation. Without adequate vitamin D, bones become soft and weak, leading to symptoms such as bowed legs and stunted growth. The other options are distinct medical conditions that do not involve vitamin D deficiency or bone softening. Cleft palate is a structural birth defect, microcephaly is a condition affecting brain size, and Down syndrome is a genetic disorder.

Q30. Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a colour-blind man marries a woman with normal vision whose father is colourblind and they have a daughter, what is the probability that she will be colourblind?

• A. 0
• B. 0.25
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.75

Explanation: To solve this, consider the genetics involved: The man is color-blind (XcY), and the woman, who has normal vision but a color-blind father, is a carrier (X+Xc). When they have a daughter, the possible combinations of X chromosomes are: X+Xc (carrier, normal vision) and XcXc (color-blind). Thus, there is a 50% chance that their daughter will be color-blind. Options A and D are incorrect as they underestimate and overestimate the probability, respectively. Option B is incorrect because it fails to account for both sources of the recessive allele.

Q31. The end product of Glycolysis is:

• A. Glucose-6-phosphate
• B. Fructose-6-phosphate
• C. Pyruvate✓
• D. 3-Phosphoglycerate
• E. Phosphoglyceraldehyde

Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate. During glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate, yielding a net gain of two molecules of ATP and two molecules of NADH. Pyruvate can then enter the mitochondria to be further processed in the citric acid cycle if oxygen is present, or it can undergo fermentation under anaerobic conditions. The incorrect options listed are intermediates in the glycolytic pathway, not final products.

Q32. Male honey bees are?

• A. Diploid
• B. Haploid✓
• C. Triploid
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Male honey bees, known as drones, are haploid because they develop from unfertilized eggs, meaning they inherit only one set of chromosomes. This is in contrast to female honey bees, which are diploid, receiving a set of chromosomes from each parent. Therefore, only option B correctly describes male honey bees. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the genetic composition of male honey bees.

Q33. The inhibitor which closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the enzyme activity by binding to the active site of the enzyme is called

• A. Feedback inhibitor
• B. Non-competitive inhibitor
• C. Allosteric modulator
• D. Competitive inhibitor✓

Explanation: In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (I) closely resembles the real substrate (S) and is regarded as a substrate analog. The inhibitor competes with the substrate and binds at the active site of the enzyme but does not undergo any catalysis. As long as the competitive inhibitor holds the active site, the enzyme is not available for the substrate to bind. A competitive inhibitor diminishes the rate of catalysis by reducing the proportion of enzyme molecules bound to a substrate. At any given inhibitor concentration, competitive inhibition can be relieved by increasing the substrate concentration. So, the correct answer is 'Competitive inhibitor'.

Q34. Which body function is controlled through a positive feedback mechanism?

• A. Labor contractions✓
• B. Body temperature
• C. Insulin production
• D. Thyroxine release

Explanation: A feedback mechanism is a loop system wherein the system responds to a perturbation. The response may be in the same direction (as in positive feedback) or in the opposite direction (as in negative feedback). An example of positive feedback is uterine contractions during childbirth. The hormone oxytocin, made by the endocrine system, stimulates the contraction of the uterus. This produces the pain sensed by the nervous system. In response, more oxytocin is released, which in turn stimulates the contractions even more. This loop of the 'pain induced from contractions stimulating the release of oxytocin, and oxytocin stimulating more contraction continues with increasing intensity' still the fetus is born. This is a positive feedback loop; hence, Option A is correct.

Q35. Which one of the following is common to all neurons?

• A. A cell body which contains a nucleus✓
• B. Presence of Nodes of Ranvier
• C. A thick myelin sheath
• D. Presence of Schwann cells

Explanation: The cell body (soma) is the main nutritional and metabolic center of all neurons, containing the nucleus and responsible for biosynthesis of proteins and energy for neuronal function.

Q36. The diagram shows some of the muscles and bones of the human arm.

• A. The tricep contracts to bend the elbow and the bicep relaxes.
• B. The bicep contracts to straighten the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• C. The tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes.✓
• D. The bicep contracts to bend the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• E. Both A and C are correct.

Explanation: The correct answer is that the tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes. In the human arm, the tricep and bicep are antagonistic muscles, meaning they work in opposition to each other to create movement. When the tricep contracts, it exerts force on the bones of the arm, causing the elbow to extend or straighten. During this action, the bicep must relax to allow the movement to occur smoothly. Option A is incorrect because the tricep does not bend the elbow; the bicep is responsible for bending the elbow by contracting. Option B is incorrect because the bicep does not straighten the elbow; that is the function of the tricep. Option D describes the action of bending the elbow, which is not the focus of the question about straightening the elbow. Option E is incorrect because it includes Option A, which is not correct.

Q37. Which of the following is NOT true for a gene?

• A. A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
• B. A gene is the basic unit of heredity.
• C. A gene codes for a molecule that has a function.
• D. A gene expresses to form chromosomes.✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D. Genes are segments of DNA that do not express themselves to form chromosomes. Instead, chromosomes are structures that contain many genes. Options A, B, and C are accurate descriptions of what genes are and what they do: they are sequences of nucleotides, the basic units of heredity, and they code for molecules with specific functions.

Q38. The phase in which bicuspid and tricuspid valves open & semilunar valve close which produce 2nd heart sound (dub or dup). This the phase is known as:

• A. Atrial diastole
• B. Ventricular diastole✓
• C. Ventricular systole
• D. Contraction of heart
• E. Systole

Explanation: The phase in which the bicuspid and tricuspid valves open & semilunar valve close produces 2nd heart sound (dub or dup). This phase is known as ventricular diastole. So option B is the correct answer.

Q39. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present?

• A. Plant cells
• B. Fungal cells
• C. Bacterial cells
• D. Liver cells✓

Explanation: A cell wall is a structural layer surrounding some types of cells, just outside the cell membrane. It can be tough, flexible, and sometimes rigid. It provides the cell with both structural support and protection, and also acts as a filtering mechanism. No cells in the human body have a cell wall, hence liver cells will not have one either. Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth. The cell wall is a characteristic structure of fungi and is composed mainly of glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins. The bacterial cell wall consists of peptidoglycan, an essential protective barrier for bacterial cells that encapsulates the cytoplasmic membrane.

Q40. A child with AB blood group who was born to a mother of the genotype IAIA cannot have the father of the genotype:

• A. IA IA✓
• B. IB IB
• C. IB IO
• D. IB IB and IB IO

Explanation: A is the correct option because the genotype of the mother is IA IA. A child with blood group AB will have a genotype IA IB. This genotype of the child is possible in 2 cases either if the genotype of the father is IB IB or IB IO. However a genotype IA IA of the father will not result in the AB blood group of the child. Thus the correct answer is option A.

Q41. Whenever a muscle contracts, a sarcomere can be shortened up to _ % of its total length.

• A. 15
• B. 25
• C. 35✓
• D. 45

Explanation: The correct answer is 35%. During a maximal muscle contraction, the sarcomere shortens by about 35% of its original length. This is because the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other, reducing the length of the sarcomere. Options 15% and 25% underestimate the typical shortening that occurs, while 45% overestimates it, making 35% the most accurate representation of sarcomere shortening during contraction.

Q42. How many meninges cover the human brain?

• A. 5
• B. 4
• C. 3✓
• D. 2
• E. 1

Explanation: There are three layers of meninges around the brain and spinal cord. The outer layer, the dura mater, is tough, white fibrous connective tissue. The middle layer of meninges is the arachnoid, a thin layer resembling a cobweb with numerous threadlike strands attaching it to the innermost layer.

Q43. Which of the following basic structural level of proteins is indicated by an association of two alpha and two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule?

• A. Quaternary Structure✓
• B. Primary Structure
• C. Secondary Structure
• D. Tertiary Structure

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The quaternary structure of a protein refers to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) within a protein complex.In the case of hemoglobin, it consists of four subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains. These subunits interact to form the final, functional structure of the hemoglobin molecule.

Q44. The menstrual cycle can be divided into:

• A. Single cycle
• B. Two cycles✓
• C. Three cycles
• D. Four cycles

Explanation: The menstrual cycle is governed by hormonal changes. These changes can be altered by using hormonal birth control to prevent pregnancy. Each cycle can be divided into two phases based on events in the ovary (ovarian cycle) or in the uterus (uterine cycle).

Q45. Which plant process is responsible for water loss from leaves?

• A. Guttation
• B. Transpiration✓
• C. Photosynthesis
• D. Respiration

Explanation: Water vapor is lost from leaves through stomata, creating a transpiration pull.

Q46. The average diameter of large viruses is approximately equal to

• A. 100 to 160 nm
• B. 100 to 200 nm
• C. 240 nm to 300 nm✓
• D. Always below than 100 nm

Explanation: a. 100 to 160 nm: This range represents a common size for the diameter of large viruses. Many viruses fall within this size range, but it is not the only range that describes the average diameter of large viruses. b. 100 to 200 nm: This range is also a reasonable estimate for the diameter of large viruses. Viruses can vary in size, and this range captures a broader spectrum. c. 240 nm to 300 nm: This is the correct answer. The average diameter of large viruses is indeed approximately in the range of 240 nm to 300 nm. This range encompasses many enveloped viruses, such as herpesviruses and poxviruses. d. Always below than 100 nm: This statement is not accurate. While many smaller viruses fall below 100 nm in diameter, large viruses can certainly have diameters exceeding this value. Correct Answer: c. 240 nm to 300 nm Explanation: The average diameter of large viruses falls within the range of 240 nm to 300 nm. Large viruses often include complex structures, such as those with complex capsids or envelopes, contributing to their size. Summary: The correct answer is c. 240 nm to 300 nm. This range represents the average diameter of large viruses. Understanding the size characteristics of viruses is essential for classification and comprehension of their structure and function.

Q47. Which diagram illustrates the distribution of sodium and potassium ions in a section of a non - myelinated axon which is at resting potential?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: K- don't exist so options B and C are incorrect. During resting potential, the relative charge inside the membrane is negative. When the membrane is at rest, K+ ions accumulate inside the cell due to a net movement with the concentration gradient. The negative resting membrane potential is created and maintained by increasing the concentration of cations outside the cell (in the extracellular fluid) relative to inside the cell (in the cytoplasm). So outside the concentration of Na+ ions is greater. So options C, D and E are incorrect. Option A is correct as it shows there is a high concentration of K+ ions inside and a comparatively high concentration of Na+ ions outside.

Q48. _ are more common in human males than females.

• A. X-linked dominant traits
• B. X-linked recessive traits✓
• C. Y-linked dominant traits
• D. Autosomal linked recessive traits

Explanation: Because it is unlikely that females will have two altered copies of this gene, males are affected by X-linked recessive disorders much more frequently than females.

Q49. Photophosphorylation takes place in the _ of the chloroplasts:

• A. Stroma
• B. Granum✓
• C. Inner membrane
• D. Outer membrane

Explanation: Photophosphorylation takes place in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts. This process, part of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, uses light energy to create a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane, which then drives the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

Q50. The family tree shows the inheritance of the ability to taste a certain substance. The allele for the ability to taste this substance is dominant to the allele for the inability to taste it. What percentage of children of Pasha and Hina would be ‘non-tasters’?

• A. 25%✓
• B. 50%
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: The ability to taste the substance is dominant (T) and the inability to taste is recessive (t). If Pasha and Hina are both heterozygous (Tt), their children can have the following genotypes: TT → tasterTt → taster tT → taster (same as Tt)tt → non-tasterThe genotype ratio is 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt, so the phenotype ratio is 3 tasters : 1 non-taster.Percentage of non-tasters: 25%.Conclusion: 25% of Pasha and Hina’s children are expected to be non-tasters.

Q51. Which one is NOT an involuntary function:

• A. Breathing
• B. Pumping of blood
• C. Skeletal muscle movement✓
• D. Blinking of eyes

Explanation: Involuntary functions are those that occur without our conscious control.Skeletal muscle movement is not an involuntary function;it is voluntary/intentional.Blinking of eyes, heart-pumping of blood, and breathing are all involuntary.

Q52. The following statements are about enzymes: 1. They are globular proteins except ribo-enzyme.2. They can be inhibited3. They are formed in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum 4. There are only found attached to Plasma membranes in the cell Which statements are correct for all enzymes?

• A. 1 and 4
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 1 and 2✓
• D. 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation: Enzymes are a type of protein, and they have a three-dimensional, globular shape. This shape is crucial for their function, as it allows them to interact specifically with their substrates. Competitive inhibitors are molecules that closely resemble the substrate of an enzyme. They compete with the substrate for binding to the active site of the enzyme. When a competitive inhibitor binds to the active site, it prevents the substrate from binding and, as a result, inhibits the enzyme's normal catalytic activity.

Q53. What does the following picture show?

• A. Motor Neuron
• B. Sensory Neuron✓
• C. Interneuron
• D. Nerve

Explanation: The diagram illustrates a sensory neuron. The defining feature is the cell body, which connects to the dendrites via dendron processes. This structure is specific to sensory neurons and is not found in motor neurons, where the cell body directly attaches to dendrites. Interneurons are characterized by processes that are similar in size to the cell body, which is not evident here. Lastly, the term 'nerve' refers to a collection of neurons, whereas the image shows only one neuron.

Q54. Glucose and fructose join together through _ to form sucrose.

• A. 1, 4 glycosidic linkage
• B. 1, 6 glycosidic linkage
• C. 1,2 glycosidic linkage✓
• D. 1,3 glycosidic linkage

Explanation: Fructose and glucose combine through condensation process to form sucrose. Glucose and fructose join together through a glycosidic bond to form sucrose. A glycosidic bond is a type of covalent bond that connects the two monosaccharides, glucose and fructose, to create the disaccharide known as sucrose. Specifically, the glycosidic bond forms between the anomeric carbon atom of glucose (C1) and the hydroxyl group of fructose (C2). This linkage results in the formation of a new molecule, sucrose, with the molecular formula C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁. Sucrose is commonly found in various plants, particularly in sugar cane and sugar beets. It serves as a major source of energy in the human diet and is commonly known as table sugar or cane sugar.

Q55. Which factor decides what type of variation should be flourished and passed on to the next generations?

• A. Species
• B. Population
• C. Survival
• D. Environment✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Environment. The environment exerts selection pressures that influence the success of certain variations over others. Variations that offer a survival advantage in a given environment are more likely to be passed on to future generations. While Species and Population provide the genetic pool from which variations arise, they do not select which variations are successful. Survival is a consequence of how well organisms are adapted to their environment but is not the deciding factor for variation inheritance.

Q56. A continuously varying trait is encoded by alleles of two or more different genes located at different loci, all influencing the same trait in an additive way is known as _.

• A. Polytraits
• B. Polygenes✓
• C. Multiple alleles
• D. Different genes
• E. Allele frequency

Explanation: Polygenic inheritance is a type of inheritance where a continuously varying trait is influenced by alleles of two or more different genes located at different loci. These alleles are said to be polygenes, and they all contribute to the phenotype of the individual in an additive way. Examples of traits that are controlled by polygenes include height, skin color, and intelligence.

Q57. Which of the following are instant sources of energy in living organisms, like glucose? Their general formula is:

• A. Cx(H2O)x
• B. C6H12O6
• C. Cx(H2O)y✓
• D. Cx(HO)y
• E. Cx(H2O2)y

Explanation: Carbohydrates are the instant sources of energy in living organisms. The general carbohydrate formula is Cx(H2O)y, where x and y are integers. This formula represents that carbohydrates are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1. Glucose, which has the formula C6H12O6, is an example of carbohydrate and is a primary energy source for the body's cells.

Q58. The biological catalysts are called:

• A. Proteins
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Vitamins
• D. Minerals
• E. Enzymes✓

Explanation: Enzymes are specialized proteins that function as biological catalysts, facilitating and accelerating various biochemical reactions by reducing the activation energy necessary. Although enzymes are proteins, not all proteins have catalytic functions, which differentiates enzymes from the broader category of proteins. Carbohydrates and minerals serve different roles in the body, such as energy provision and structural integrity, and are not involved in catalysis. Vitamins can act as coenzymes, enhancing enzyme function, but they do not act as catalysts themselves.

Q59. It is the non-living component of the cell, it is secreted and maintained by the living portion of the cell and is found only in plants. What is this structure?

• A. Golgi apparatus
• B. Lysosome
• C. Mitochondrion
• D. Cell wall✓
• E. Ribosomes

Explanation: The correct answer is the cell wall, which is a non-living component unique to plant cells among the options provided. It is secreted and maintained by the living parts of the cell, such as the plasma membrane and the Golgi apparatus. The cell wall provides structure, protection, and supports the plant cell against mechanical stress and osmotic pressure. It is primarily composed of cellulose in plants.Other options such as the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, mitochondria, and ribosomes are all living organelles involved in various cell functions and are found in both plant and animal cells. They do not serve the structural role that the cell wall does.

Q60. Genetic equilibrium is a:

• A. Change of allele and gene frequency in a population
• B. Stability of allele and gene quantity in a population
• C. Change of allele and gene number in a population
• D. Stability of allele and gene frequency in a population✓

Explanation: Genetic equilibrium refers to a condition where the allele and gene frequencies in a population remain constant over time, indicating no evolutionary change occurring. This stability is typically due to factors such as large population size, random mating, no mutation, migration, or selection. Option D is correct as it accurately defines this state of balance. The other options incorrectly describe scenarios where changes in allele frequencies or gene quantities occur, which are indicative of evolutionary processes rather than equilibrium.

Q61. Mendel’s work was rediscovered in:

• A. 1868
• B. 1882
• C. 1900✓
• D. 1950

Explanation: Will be added soon"

Q62. Which fish selectively feed on larvae of mosquitoes?

• A. Gambusia✓
• B. Rohu
• C. Clarias
• D. Exocoetus

Explanation: Gambusia affinis is regarded as a larvicidal fish as it selectively feeds on mosquito larvae. It forms an effective tool for biological control of mosquitoes.

Q63. All of the following are reflex actions EXCEPT:

• A. Change in the size of the pupil in response to light
• B. Swallowing of the bolus✓
• C. Sudden jerky withdrawal of hand when pricked
• D. Knees jerk in response to a blow

Explanation: Reflex actions are involuntary and instantaneous responses to stimuli. The change in pupil size, jerky withdrawal of the hand, and knee jerk are all reflex actions because they occur automatically and without conscious thought. However, swallowing of the bolus, while it begins with a reflexive component, is primarily a voluntary action because it requires conscious control, especially after the initial trigger, making it not purely reflexive.

Q64. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four­ year­ girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency?

• A. Gene therapy✓
• B. Chemotherapy
• C. Immunotherapy
• D. Radiation therapy

Explanation: Gene therapy is a technique of genetic engineering which involves the replacement of a faulty/disease-causing gene by a normal healthy functional gene. The first clinical ex-vivo gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4­-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency. This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function and the deficiency of this enzyme can lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).

Q65. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

• A. Omega-3
• B. Vitamin A✓
• C. Vitamin B
• D. Vitamin C

Explanation: Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice (Oryza sativa) engineered to produce beta-carotene, a precursor to vitamin A. The grains appear yellow due to the presence of beta-carotene, hence the name 'golden rice.' This genetic modification is intended to combat vitamin A deficiency, which is prevalent in regions relying heavily on rice as a staple food. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because golden rice is not designed to address deficiencies in Omega-3, Vitamin B, or Vitamin C.

Q66. Animals cope with the temperature extremes through a homeostatic mechanism called:

• A. Evaporative Cooling
• B. Shivering Thermogenesis
• C. Non-shivering Thermogenesis
• D. Thermoregulation✓

Explanation: The process mentioned in 'A', 'B' and 'C' are partially supportive in temperature maintenance, however thermoregulation is the homeostatic process used in this regard.

Q67. Blood circulating from the gut to the heart passes through the:

• A. Aorta
• B. Kidneys
• C. Liver✓
• D. Lungs

Explanation: The hepatic portal system carries nutrient-rich blood from the gut to the liver before it enters systemic circulation.

Q68. Vaccine is available for all, EXCEPT:

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Malaria✓
• D. Polio

Explanation: Malaria does not currently have a widely available vaccine, unlike Hepatitis B, Tuberculosis, and Polio, which all have established vaccines used globally. The Hepatitis B vaccine is essential for preventing the Hepatitis B virus, the BCG vaccine protects against tuberculosis, and the polio vaccine prevents poliomyelitis. Ongoing research targets malaria vaccine development, but it is not yet universally implemented.

Q69. Lithotripsy is a technique used to breakup stones formed in the :

• A. Kidney
• B. Gall bladder
• C. Ureter
• D. Kidney, Ureter and gall bladder✓

Explanation: Kidney stones, ureteral stones, and gallstones can all be treated using lithotripsy techniques. By breaking up the stones into smaller fragments, lithotripsy helps facilitate their passage through the urinary or biliary system, avoiding the need for invasive surgery.

Q70. Immunity is a capacity to do following things EXCEPT:

• A. Recognition of foreign pathogens
• B. Effective and timely elimination of invaders
• C. Mobilization of immune cells and their products
• D. Blockage of entry of pathogens✓

Explanation: Blockage is not responsibility of immune system rather it is carried out by physical barriers.

Q71. Viral disease that is widely spread and caused by enveloped RNA virus is:

• A. HIV
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pox virus
• D. Influenza✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Influenza, as it is caused by an enveloped RNA virus and is known for its widespread occurrence, particularly during seasonal outbreaks. In contrast, HIV is a retrovirus that primarily affects the immune system and is not associated with respiratory disease. Hepatitis, while it can involve enveloped viruses, primarily causes liver inflammation and is not typically transmitted via respiratory routes. Finally, Pox virus refers to a group of viruses that are DNA-based and do not fit the criteria outlined in the question.

Q72. The diagram shows the four types of human teeth. Which teeth are used for cutting rather than grinding food?

• A. 1 and 2✓
• B. 2 and 3
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 4 and 1

Explanation: Most adults have 32 permanent teeth, including eight incisors, four canines, eight premolars, and 12 molars. Incisors and canines are used to cut and chew. Premolars and molars are used for grinding the food.

Q73. Which of the following bones are present in the palm of the hand:

• A. Carpals
• B. Metacarpals✓
• C. Phalanges
• D. Tarsal
• E. Radius

Explanation: The human forelimbs each consist of 30 bones: The humerus, which forms a ball and socket joint with the scapula, and two long parallel bones, the radius and ulna, at its distal end. The radius and ulna join the wrist with eight small carpal bones, which articulate with five metacarpals of the palm. From the palm extend the fingers containing 14 small bones called phalanges, arranged in 5 rows, one row in each finger. The relevant detail for this question is that the bones of the palm are called metacarpals, hence option B is correct.

Q74. Formation of _ will be greater with the faster breakdown of glucose and glycogen to compensate for energy requirements in anaerobic respiration.

• A. Enzymes
• B. Hormones
• C. Lactic acid✓
• D. Fat

Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, when oxygen is scarce, glucose and glycogen are broken down to meet energy needs, resulting in lactic acid as a byproduct. This process does not produce enzymes or hormones as byproducts. Fat metabolism mainly occurs in the presence of oxygen and is not involved in this type of respiration.

Q75. Transport of three protons through the ATPase complex is required for the production of one _.

• A. Sugar molecule
• B. NADP molecule
• C. ATP molecule✓
• D. NADPH molecule

Explanation: The ATPase complex, also known as ATP synthase, uses the energy from the flow of protons across the mitochondrial membrane to synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi). This process requires the movement of three protons for the production of one ATP molecule. This is a key step in oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration. The other options, such as sugar molecules, NADP, and NADPH, are not directly synthesized through the ATPase complex. Instead, they are involved in other metabolic pathways.

Q76. Which animals support Darwin's view of inheritance of desirable variation?

• A. Giraffe
• B. Galapagos finches✓
• C. Snake
• D. All of these

Explanation: Galapagos is an island where Darwin observed almost 13 types of finchis with distinct traits.

Q77. They are inhibitors of key enzymes in the nervous system:

• A. Calcium and Potassium
• B. Substrate and activators
• C. Hexokinase and glucose
• D. Magnesium and manganese
• E. Pesticides DDT and parathione✓

Explanation: The correct answer is E Pesticides DDT and parathione. Pesticides such as DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) and parathion are known to be inhibitors of key enzymes in the nervous system. DDT was commonly used as an insecticide, while parathion is an organophosphate insecticide. Both of these pesticides can affect the activity of enzymes in the nervous system, leading to adverse effects on the functioning of nerve cells.

Q78. Enzymes are generally inactivated rapidly by exposure to UV high and also a, ẞ rays because it alters the:

• A. Quantity of enzyme
• B. pH of enzyme
• C. Shape of enzymes✓
• D. Temperature of enzyme
• E. Nature of enzyme

Explanation: Exposure to UV, high-energy, and ionizing radiation, such as X-rays and gamma rays, can cause damage to enzymes and other biomolecules. The primary mechanism by which these radiations affect enzymes is by altering their molecular structure or shape. Therefore option C is correct.

Q79. Plant like character found in Euglena:

• A. Pyrenoid✓
• B. Cilia
• C. Photoreceptor
• D. Flagellum
• E. Pellicle

Explanation: The correct answer is A Pyrenoid. One of the plant-like characteristics found in Euglena is the presence of a pyrenoid. A pyrenoid is an organelle located within the chloroplast of certain algae and plants.

Q80. A hormone secreted from the duodenal mucosa that changes the inactive trypsinogen into trypsin is:

• A. Peptone
• B. Ecdysone
• C. Enterokinase✓
• D. Amylase
• E. Protease

Explanation: The correct answer is C Enterokinase. Enterokinase, also known as enteropeptidase, is an enzyme that is produced and secreted by the cells of the duodenal mucosa (lining of the duodenum). It plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins by converting the inactive pancreatic zymogen called trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin.

Q81. Each enzyme has a dimple or groove at a specific side called:

• A. Co-factor
• B. Active site✓
• C. Non active site
• D. Substrate
• E. Prosthetic group

Explanation: Each enzyme has a dimple or groove at a specific side called active site. This is where all the catalytic activity occurs. So option B is correct.

Q82. In which model do proteins float in membrane like icebergs in sea:

• A. Lock and key model
• B. Induced fit model
• C. Fluid mosaic model✓
• D. Lotka volterra model
• E. All of these

Explanation: As per the fluid mosaic model cell membranes have proteins as icebergs in a sea of lipids (lipid). Hence option C is correct.

Q83. What are the functions of the inter, motor and sensory neurons in a reflex response?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: To relay nerve impulses from within the CNS, interneurons are used. To conduct the nerve impulses from the CNS to the effector, motor neurons are used. To conduct the nerve impulses from the receptors to the CNS, sensory neurons are used.

Q84. A cross between a black cat and a tan cat produces a tabby pattern (black and tan fur together). What percent of kittens would have tan fur if a tabby cat is crossed with a black cat?

• A. 100%
• B. 50%
• C. 25%
• D. 0%✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 0%. The black cat is homozygous for the black fur gene (BB) and does not carry an allele for tan fur. The tabby cat, being a hybrid, has one black fur allele (B) and one tan fur allele (T). When crossed with a black cat, the potential offspring genotypes are BB (black) and BT (tabby), with no possibility of a TT (tan) genotype. Thus, none of the kittens will have tan fur. The other options are incorrect because they suggest the presence of a tan allele in the black parent, which is not possible given the genetic information provided.

Q85. Label the following phenomenon

• A. Exocytosis
• B. Osmosis
• C. Diffusion
• D. Phagocytosis.✓

Explanation: The diagram shows phagocytosis, which is the process by which a cell uses its plasma membrane to engulf a large particle, giving rise to an internal compartment called the phagosome. It is one type of endocytosis.Exocytosis is a form of active transport and bulk transport in which a cell transports molecules out of the cell. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules down the water potential gradient into or out of the cell. Diffusion is the movement of substances down the concentration gradient into or out of the cell.

Q86. The division of cocci in three planes form Sarcina, which is a cube of _ Cocci?

• A. 02
• B. 04
• C. 08✓
• D. 16

Explanation: Sarcina is a genus of bacteria that divides in three planes, resulting in the formation of packets of cells arranged in a cube-like structure. These packets, known as tetrads, consist of eight cells arranged in a 3-dimensional cubic configuration. Each of the three planes of division produces four daughter cells, resulting in a total of eight cells in the sarcina packet. Therefore, the cube of cells formed by the division of cocci in three planes is composed of eight individual cells.

Q87. Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

• A. Unknown x At
• B. Unknown x tt✓
• C. Unknown x AB
• D. Unknown x TT

Explanation: A test cross is a cross between an individual with an unknown genotype for a particular trait and an individual that is homozygous recessive for that trait. The purpose of the test cross is to determine the genotype of the unknown individual by observing the phenotypic ratios of the offspring. This cross involves a homozygous recessive individual (tt), which is the test cross. The offspring from this cross will reveal the genotype of the unknown individual.

Q88. Artificial selection in breeding provides evidence for evolution known as:

• A. Domestication✓
• B. Deme
• C. Gene pool
• D. Desire trait
• E. Genetic death

Explanation: One of the most notable examples of artificial selection is domestication, where humans have selectively bred plants and animals to suit their needs and preferences. Domestication has resulted in the development of various breeds and varieties that differ significantly from their wild ancestors. So option A is the correct answer.

Q89. Endocytosis which involves ingestion of solid material is called:

• A. Solidocytosis
• B. Phagocytosis✓
• C. Exocytosis
• D. Pinocytosis
• E. Autocytosis

Explanation: Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of solid food material into the cell. So option B is the correct option.

Q90. Select the reagent X from the following choices for this conversion:

• A. Acidified Potassium hydroxide
• B. Acidified Potassium dichromate (VI)✓
• C. Acidified Phosphoric acid
• D. Acidified Oxalic acid

Explanation: The reaction above is oxidation of a secondary alcohol into a ketone. As such, an oxidizing agent must be chosen for reagent X. Among the options, 'Potassium dichromate (VI)' is an oxidizing agent so, the correct option is B. Another answer could be 'potassium manganate (VII)', but it is not mentioned in any of the options. The other options do not oxidize alcohols.

Q91. In anisotropic crystals, which property does not change with the change in direction of the crystalline structure?

• A. Electrical conductance
• B. Molar mass✓
• C. Thermal conductance
• D. Refractive index

Explanation: (B) Molar mass (Correct Answer) – Molar mass is a constant, irrespective of the direction in the crystal

Q92. According to which phenomenon, "the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number."

• A. Mendeleev's periodic law
• B. Newland's law of octaves
• C. Dobereiner's triads
• D. Lothar Meyer’s classification
• E. Modern periodic law✓

Explanation: The modern Periodic law can be stated as: “The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers”. The atomic number is equal to the number of electrons or protons in a neutral atom.

Q93. The unit of viscosity is:

• A. Joule
• B. N/m2
• C. Dynes/cm
• D. Poise✓
• E. Ergs

Explanation: The cgs unit of viscosity is poise (P) whereas the SI unit of viscosity is newton-second per square meter, which is usually expressed as pascal-second.

Q94. Ethanol, when reacted with PCI5 , gave A, POCl3, and HCI. A reacts with AgNO2 to form B and AgCl. A and B are respectively:

• A. C2H5Cl and C2H5OC2H5
• B. C2H6 and C2H5OC2H5
• C. C2H5Cl and C2H5NO2✓
• D. C2H6 and C2H5NO2
• E. C2H6 and C2H6NO

Explanation: The sequence of reactions begins with ethanol (C2H5OH) reacting with phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5), resulting in the formation of ethyl chloride (C2H5Cl), phosphorus oxychloride (POCl3), and hydrochloric acid (HCl). The ethyl chloride then reacts with silver nitrate (AgNO2), producing nitroethane (C2H5NO2) and silver chloride (AgCl). The correct products for A and B in the sequence are thus ethyl chloride and nitroethane, respectively. The other options involve incorrect products, such as diethyl ether, ethane, or incorrect formulas, and do not match the reaction steps provided.

Q95. The false statement regarding saline hydrides is:

• A. They conduct electricity in molten state
• B. They are used as reducing agents
• C. They give H2 from H2O
• D. They are covalent in nature✓

Explanation: Saline hydrides (also known as ionic hydrides or pseudohalides) are compounds form between hydrogen and the most active metals, especially with the alkali and alkaline-earth metals of group one and two elements, thus they are ionic, not covalent.

Q96. H2SO4 has great affinity for water because:

• A. It decomposes the acid
• B. It hydrolyses the acid
• C. Acid decomposes the water
• D. Acid forms hydrates with water✓

Explanation: Sulphuric acid is kept in air-tight bottles because if kept in the open it absorbs water vapors from the surrounding. It is a dehydrating agent. Sulphuric acid forms hydrate with water because the reaction of water and acid is highly exothermic and a great amount of heat in the form of fumes is liberated in that exothermic reaction of acid and water, acid produces stable hydrates-this shows the acid’s affinity for water.

Q97. The question attached below belongs to the topic of phenols:

• A. Resorcinol
• B. Aspirin
• C. Picric acid✓
• D. Mesitol

Explanation: The structure shown above is of Picric acid.

Q98. 30 grams of 2-propanol were mixed with excess acidified K2Cr2O7 and boiled under reflux for 20 minutes. The organic product was then collected by distillation. The yield of product was 75.0%. What is the mass of product produced?

• A. 1.74g
• B. 21.75g✓
• C. 2.74g
• D. 29 g

Explanation: To calculate the mass of the product produced, you can use the yield percentage. The yield percentage is calculated as follows: Yield (%) = Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield × 100 In this case, the yield is given as 75.0%, and mass of 2-propanol is 30 grams. The molecular formula of 2-propanol (isopropanol) is C3H8O. Molar mass of C3H8O = (3 * 12.01 g/mol) + (8 * 1.01 g/mol) + (1 * 16.00 g/mol) = 60.03 g/mol Theoretical Yield = (Mass of 2-propanol) × (Theoretical Yield / Molar Mass of 2-propanol) Theoretical Yield = (30 g) × (1 mol / 60.03 g) = 0.4999 mol Now, calculate the actual yield using the given yield percentage: Yield (%) = (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) × 100 75.0% = (Actual Yield / 0.4999 mol) × 100 Actual Yield = (75.0% / 100) × 0.4999 mol = 0.3749 mol Now, convert the actual yield from moles to grams using the molar mass of the product you expect to obtain. Actual Yield (grams) = 0.3749 mol × 60.03 g/mol = 22.51 g So, the mass of the product produced is approximately 22.51 grams, which is closest to option (b) 21.75g.

Q99. Cl + e ----> Cl-ΔH = -348kJ/molThe value -348KJ/mol in this case will be:

• A. Ionization energy
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Entropy
• E. Free energy

Explanation: As it can be seen in the equation, electrons are gained by the element chlorine to form a negative ion (anion). The process in which electrons are gained is called electron affinity.

Q100. H2S is an example of _ hydride.

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent✓
• C. Complex
• D. Metallic
• E. Border-line hydride

Explanation: Covalent hydrides are formed when hydrogen reacts with other similar electronegative elements like Si, C,etc. H2S is a covalent hydride because the two elements used in the formation of this hydride are non-metals.

Q101. The formula of “rock salt” is:

• A. NaCl✓
• B. NaHCO3
• C. Na2CO3
• D. CuSO4

Explanation: Halite more commonly known as Rock salt is a mineral formed from sodium chloride. Its chemical formula is NaCl and this also includes other variations of salt such as common salt and table salt.

Q102. Zwitter ion is formed when proton goes from:

• A. Amino to the carboxyl group
• B. Carboxyl to an amino group✓
• C. Carboxyl group only
• D. Amino group only

Explanation: Zwitter ion is a dipolar ion which is formed on the combination of a carboxyl group and an amino group. As a result, it is mostly formed by an amino acid. The carboxyl group in a zwitter ion carries a negative charge while the amine group carries a positive charge. There is an internal transfer of a hydrogen ion from the -COOH group to the -NH2 group to leave an ion with both a negative charge and a positive charge. This is called a zwitter ion. This is the form that amino acids exist even in the solid state.

Q103. For the following exothermic reaction, a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards: 2NO(g) + O2 (g) -> 2NO2 (g)

• A. Left
• B. The Point of Equilibrium
• C. Both Directions
• D. Right✓

Explanation: For an exothermic reaction like 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g), a decrease in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards the right. This shift helps to increase the temp as heat is released in exothermic reactions, as the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Therefore this option is correct.

Q104. What will be the product of the following reaction?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: Step 1: Starting compoundWe have p-cresol (4-methylphenol).Step 2: Reaction with CHCl₃/NaOHThis is the Reimer–Tiemann reaction.In this reaction, an aldehyde group –CHO gets introduced at the ortho position to the –OH group.So product A is o-formyl-p-cresol (4-methyl-2-hydroxybenzaldehyde).Step 3: Reaction with HCNAn aldehyde reacts with HCN to give a cyanohydrin.The –CHO group becomes –CH(OH)CN.So compound B is o-(CH(OH)CN)-p-cresol.Step 4: Hydrolysis with H₃O⁺On hydrolysis, –CN group converts to –COOH.So the final product C is o-(CH(OH)COOH)-p-cresol.Step 5: Match with given optionsLooking at the options:(a) has –CH₂COOH (wrong, no hydroxyl group)(b) also has –CH₂COOH (wrong)(c) has –CH(OH)COOH but with two methyls (wrong position)(d) has –CH(OH)COOH correctly at the ortho position to OH, with a para –CH₃ substituent (correct).

Q105. The enthalpy of certain reactions at 273 K is -20.75 kJ. The enthalpy of the same reaction at 373 K (if heat capacities of reactants and products are the same) will be:

• A. －20.75 kJ✓
• B. -2075 kJ
• C. Zero
• D. －20.75 x 373/273 kJ

Explanation: As it is provided in the given statement that heat capacities of reactants and products are the same, therefore there will be no energy change in the reaction. By Kirchoff's Rule; ∆Cp=∆H2-H1/T2-T1∆Cp(T2-T1)=∆H2-H1As, ∆Cp= 0 , ∆H2=H1 , therefore;H2= -20.75KJ

Q106. How many atmospheres correspond to 1050 torr?

• A. 1.050
• B. 10.38
• C. 1.380✓
• D. 2.760

Explanation: In ancient times, the Torr was defined as a millimetre of Hg. So, as 1 atm = 760 mm Hg, therefore, 1 atm is also considered to be equal to 760 torrs. Now, we can calculate the atmospheres corresponding to 1050 torr, ∴ 1050 torr = 1050/760 atm = 1.38 atm

Q107. The mass of an electron is:

• A. 1.008 amu
• B. 1.009 amu
• C. 0.000550 amu✓
• D. 0.5500 amu

Explanation: The mass of an electron is approximately 0.000550 amu, which is much smaller compared to the masses of protons and neutrons (approximately 1 amu each). This small mass is due to the electron's relatively lower contribution to the overall mass of an atom. The incorrect options suggest masses closer to those of protons and neutrons, highlighting the importance of distinguishing between the masses of different subatomic particles.

Q108. The rate of E1 reaction depends upon:

• A. Concentration of the nucleophile
• B. Concentration of the substrate as well as the alkyl halide
• C. Concentration of the substrate only✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The E1 (elimination, unimolecular) reaction proceeds in two steps, with the first step—the formation of a carbocation— being the slow, rate-determining step. Since only the substrate (alkyl halide) is involved in this step, the rate of the reaction depends only on the concentration of the substrate.

Q109. In which pair one has all Unpaired d orbitals while other have all paired d orbitals?

• A. Cu and Zn
• B. Cr and Fe
• C. Cr and Cu✓
• D. Mn and Co

Explanation: The correct answer is Cr and Cu. Chromium (Cr) has an electron configuration of [Ar] 3d5 4s1, which results in five unpaired electrons in its d orbitals. On the other hand, Copper (Cu) has an electron configuration of [Ar] 3d10 4s1, meaning all its d electrons are paired. The other options are incorrect because:Cu and Zn: Copper has unpaired electrons, and Zinc (Zn) has all paired electrons (3d10 4s2).Cr and Fe: Both Chromium and Iron have unpaired d electrons; Chromium has five unpaired and Iron has four unpaired.Mn and Co: Both Manganese and Cobalt have unpaired d electrons; Manganese has five unpaired and Cobalt has three unpaired.Thus, Cr and Cu is the only correct pair with one element having all unpaired d orbitals and the other all paired.

Q110. Identify the type of isomerism:

• A. Chain Isomerism
• B. Position Isomerism✓
• C. Functional Group Isomerism
• D. Metamerism
• E. Optical Isomerism

Explanation: The type of isomerism in which a functional group is placed to different carbons in the organic compound is called position isomerism, which is what can be seen in the above diagram.

Q111. Nitrogen and phosphorus have 3 of their valence electrons unpaired because of:

• A. Auf bau principle
• B. Heisenberg's principle
• C. Hund’s rule✓
• D. Planck’s statement
• E. None of these

Explanation: Hund's rule states that every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.

Q112. The common name of the following aldehyde is:

• A. α - Methyl - Ɣ - Chloro Propionaldehyde
• B. β - Chloro - Ɣ - Methyl - Propionaldehyde
• C. β - Chloro - α - Methyl Propionaldehyde✓
• D. β - Methyl - α - Chloro Propionaldehyde

Explanation: Aldehydes take their name from their parent alkane chains. The -e is removed from the end and is replaced with -al. The aldehyde functional group is given the #1 numbering location and this number is not included in the name. For the common name of aldehydes start with the common parent chain name and add the suffix -aldehyde. Substituent positions are shown with Greek letters. When the -CHO functional group is attached to a ring the suffix -carbaldehyde is added, and the carbon attached to that group is C1. The alpha carbon is the carbon adjacent to the carbonyl group or the carbon having an oxygen atom linked to it via a double bond. Beta carbons are the carbons adjacent to the alphas excluding the carbon of the carbonyl group. Lastly, we name the side chains in alphabetical order as shown in the correct option where we have the Chloro group named earlier followed by the methyl group and not the order way around, again because the letter 'C' comes before the letter 'M'.

Q113. NH3 (amine) is an example of:

• A. Negative ligand
• B. Anionic ligand
• C. Neutral ligand✓
• D. Organic ligand
• E. Both Options A and B are correct.

Explanation: NH3 is a neutral ligand as it has no charge and can donate a lone pair of electrons to form a coordinate bond with a metal atom or ion.

Q114. The formula of Plaster of Paris is:

• A. (CaSO4).1/2H2O✓
• B. (CaSO4).5H2O
• C. (CaSO4).7H2O
• D. (CaSO4).9H2O

Explanation: The chemical name of the Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate because half a molecule of water is attached with calcium sulphate. The chemical formula of plaster of Paris is CaSO4.1/2H2O

Q115. Ionic, covalent and co-ordinate covalent bonds are simultaneously present in the molecular geometry of:

• A. Ammonia
• B. Ammonium hydroxide✓
• C. Hydrochloric acid
• D. Water
• E. Methane

Explanation: There are 3 covalent , 1 coordinate covalent bond in NH4+ ion, and 1 covalent bond in OH−. There is an ionic bond between NH4+ and OH-.So, this species simultaneously has 3 different types of bonds.

Q116. All amino acids contain the functional group:

• A. NH2✓
• B. CO2
• C. S2-
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: All amino acids contain an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), a hydrogen atom and a part where radical attaches.-CO2 is different from -COOH. -CO2 can be present in esters.

Q117. Dehydration of ethanol at 140 oC in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 gives:

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethane
• C. Ethyne
• D. Ether✓

Explanation: Dehydration of alcohol at 140°C gives etherreference # ftb 162

Q118. An ionic compound A+ B- is most likely to be formed when:

• A. The ionization energy of A is high and the electron affinity of B is low.
• B. The ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high.✓
• C. The ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is high.
• D. The ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is low.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: The ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high. This is because a low ionization energy allows A to easily lose an electron and form a cation, while a high electron affinity allows B to easily gain an electron and form an anion, facilitating the formation of an ionic compound A+ B-.Option A is incorrect because a high ionization energy and low electron affinity would not favor the formation of ions. Option C is incorrect because while a high electron affinity is favorable for B, a high ionization energy is not favorable for A. Option D is incorrect because while a low ionization energy is favorable for A, a low electron affinity is not favorable for B.

Q119. SN2 reactions can be best carried out with:

• A. Primary alkyl halides✓
• B. Secondary alkyl halides
• C. Tertiary alkyl halides
• D. Both primary and tertiary alkyl halides

Explanation: SN2 reactions involve a nucleophilic attack on the electrophilic carbon, leading to the inversion of configuration. The reaction is sensitive to steric hindrance around the electrophilic center. Therefore, primary alkyl halides are most suitable for SN2 reactions as they present the least steric congestion, allowing for efficient backside attack by the nucleophile. In contrast, secondary alkyl halides present moderate steric hindrance, making SN2 reactions possible but less favorable compared to primary halides. Tertiary alkyl halides are too sterically hindered for SN2 reactions and instead undergo SN1 reactions. Thus, primary alkyl halides are the best choice for SN2 reactions.

Q120. Name the main product formed as a result of the following reactionH3C - (CH2)5 - CH3 ————> Product n-heptaneConditions: 480 - 550 C, 150 - 399 psi V2O5

• A. Benzene
• B. Toluene✓
• C. Xylene
• D. Cyclohexane

Explanation: The above reaction leads to cyclization of n-heptane followed by the aromatization of that cyclic ring, this forms toluene, option B is correct. Benzene is the wrong option because benzene has six carbon while n-heptane has 7 carbon atoms. Cyclohexane is also the wrong option for the same reason. Xylene has 8 carbon atoms while our reactant has 7 carbon atoms.

Q121. Reaction mechanism of alkanes with halogens is known as;

• A. Propagation
• B. Free radical substitution✓
• C. Addition
• D. Elimination

Explanation: Halogenation of alkanes means the substitution of a halogen atom(s) by the removal of one or more hydrogen atoms in the alkane. The mechanism of halogenations occurs in three steps: chain initiation, chain propagation, and chain termination.The order of reactivity of the halogens towards the halogenations reaction of alkanes as follows: F2> Cl2> Br2> I2.The iodination reaction is reversible as follows:CH4+I2⇌CH3−I+HI.

Q122. The correct statement for 3dₓ², 4dₓ², and 5dₓ² is:

• A. All three orbitals have different shapes and different energy levels
• B. All three orbitals have different shapes but the same principal quantum number
• C. All three orbitals have the same shape but different sizes.✓
• D. All three orbitals have the same shape and same size.

Explanation: (c) All three orbitals have the same shape but different sizes. (Correct Answer) – The shape of d orbitals remains constant, but their size increases with higher energy levels.

Q123. Which type of forces exist between iodine molecules

• A. Dipole-dipole forces
• B. Dipole-induced dipole forces
• C. Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces✓
• D. Ion dipole forces

Explanation: (C) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (Correct Answer) – London dispersion forces (also called Van der Waals forces) are the dominant forces between nonpolar molecules like I₂.

Q124. Which of the following catalyst is used in the Friedel craft reaction?

• A. ZnCl2
• B. KMnO4
• C. AlCl3✓
• D. V2O5

Explanation: Anhydrous Aluminum Chloride is the catalyst used in the Friedel-craft reaction.

Q125. The type of isomerism existing in a compound of molecular formula C2H6O is:

• A. Functional group✓
• B. Position
• C. Chain
• D. Metamerism

Explanation: In a compound with the molecular formula C2H6O, which corresponds to ethanol (CH3CH2OH) as well as dimethyl ether ( CH3-O-CH3), the type of isomerism that exists is functional group isomerism. Following groups of organic compounds are functional group isomers of each other;1- Alcohols and ethers2- Aldehydes and ketones3- Carboxylic acids and esters.

Q126. Secondary alcohol is the product of reduction of which carbonyl compound?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Reduction of ketones gives secondary alcohols. The acidic work-up converts an intermediate metal alkoxide salt into the desired alcohol via a simple acid base reaction.

Q127. A diabetic person’s exhaled breath contains propanone. A student tries to test the diabetes by asking the person to bubble the reagent with his exhaled breath. Which of the following reagents would give a positive result?

• A. Aqueous Bromine
• B. Fehling’s reagent
• C. Tollen’s reagent
• D. Alkaline aqueous iodine✓

Explanation: Propanone contains the R-CO-CH3 group hence it gives a positive triiodomethane or iodoform test. Iodoform test is used to check the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure R-CO-CH3 or alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH3 in a given unknown substance. The reaction of iodine, a base, and a methyl ketone gives a yellow precipitate along with an “antiseptic” smell.

Q128. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form a negative ion is called:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Lattice energy
• E. Potential energy

Explanation: When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom to convert it into a negative ion, the enthalpy change accompanying the process is called Electron affinity enthalpy. Ionization potential, in chemistry, is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an isolated atom or molecule. Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. Lattice energy is defined as the energy required to separate a mole of an ionic solid into gaseous ions. Potential energy is energy that is stored – or conserved - in an object or substance.

Q129. Which of the following statements is NOT true for the first law of thermodynamics?

• A. Total energy of the system and surroundings is conserved
• B. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
• C. The first law is synonymous with the law of conservation of energy
• D. Total energy of the system is increasing✓

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics, also known as the law of conservation of energy, asserts that the total energy within an isolated system is constant. Energy may be transformed from one form to another or transferred between the system and its surroundings, but it cannot be created or destroyed. Therefore, the statement in Option D is incorrect as it contradicts this fundamental principle by suggesting that the total energy of the system is increasing.Options A, B, and C correctly reflect the principles of the first law of thermodynamics, emphasizing the conservation of energy and its equivalence to the law of conservation of energy.

Q130. According to the law of mass action, "The rate of chemical reaction" is proportional to the:

• A. The Amount of product formed
• B. Product of the molar concentration of the reactant✓
• C. The initial concentration of reactant
• D. Catalyst

Explanation: The law of mass action states that reaction rate depends on how frequently reactant molecules collide. This frequency increases with their molar concentrations, so the rate is proportional to their product. Thus, option B correctly describes the law of mass action.

Q131. If the reaction, P + Q → R + S, is described as being of zero-order with respect to P, it means that:

• A. P is a catalyst in this reaction
• B. No P molecules possess sufficient energy to react
• C. The concentration of P does not change during the reaction
• D. The rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of P✓
• E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the concentration of Q

Explanation: If the order of reaction with respect to P is 0 (zero), this means that the concentration of P doesn't affect the rate of reaction. Mathematically, any number raised to the power of zero (x0) is equal to 1. That means that that particular term disappears from the rate equation.

Q132. In which of the following nitrogen compounds, does N has the highest oxidation state?

• A. NH2OH
• B. N2H4
• C. HNO3✓
• D. NH3

Explanation: HNO3 has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen atom:+1+x+(-6)=0x=+5In NH3, N2H4, and NH2OH, the oxidation states, when calculated the same way, are 3-, 2+, and 1+ respectively.

Q133. Ketones can be made by oxidation of:

• A. Aldehydes
• B. Primary Alcohols
• C. Secondary Alcohols✓
• D. Tertiary Alcohols

Explanation: Option A; aldehydes oxidize into carboxylic acids.Option B; primary alcohols oxidize into aldehydes and then to carboxylic acids.Option C; secondary alcohols oxidize into ketones.Option D; tertiary alcohols are resistant to oxidation.

Q134. Which type of reaction takes place when a carbonyl compound is treated with a mixture of NaCN and an acid?

• A. Electrophilic addition reaction
• B. Substitution reaction
• C. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• D. Displacement reaction

Explanation: The given scenario is an example of a nucleophilic addition reaction, as the reactant, CN- is a nucleophile which adds across the carbonyl bond.Option A describes reactions undergone by alkenes, where an electrophile is added across the carbon-carbon double bond.Option B describes a reaction where one group of atoms is replaced by another group of atoms, but this is not the case here.Option D describes a reaction in which one element is replaced by another element in a compound.

Q135. A body starts sliding on a rough horizontal surface with a speed of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, find the distance traveled by the body before coming to rest. (g = 10m/s)

• A. 15 m
• B. 25 m✓
• C. 35 m
• D. 40 m
• E. 55 m

Explanation: Given that: v = 10 and u = 0.2 and g = 10 Solution = Using F = μN then, = μmg (here N = mg) So from above (ma = μmg); we got a = μg Now a = 0.2×10 = 2 m/s2Now using equation of motion V2=u2+2as 0 = 10×10 +2×2×s In solving it, we got s = 100/4 = 25 m Hence we get the correct answer.

Q136. Coal and petrol are stores of chemical energy when are burnt, chemical energy is converted into heat energy i.e chemical energy = heat energy + _:

• A. Electrical energy
• B. Losses✓
• C. Gains
• D. Wind energy
• E. Nothing

Explanation: When coal or petrol is burned, the chemical energy stored in the fuel is primarily converted into heat energy. However, not all of this energy conversion is perfectly efficient; some energy is inevitably lost to the surroundings as waste heat, which is why 'Losses' is the correct answer. Electrical energy is not directly produced from combustion without additional equipment. Gains are incorrect because energy is not gained but redistributed with losses. Wind energy is unrelated to burning fuels. 'Nothing' is incorrect because energy transformations usually accompany some degree of energy loss.

Q137. Full wave bridge rectifier uses:

• A. One diode
• B. Two diodes
• C. Three diodes
• D. Four diodes✓

Explanation: Full wave bridge rectifier uses four diodes. However, centre tap transformer uses two diodes.

Q138. During adiabatic expansion internal energy decreases by 2J, then work done in this process is:

• A. 2J✓
• B. 1J
• C. -1J
• D. -2J

Explanation: The work done during adiabatic expansion can be calculated using the First Law of Thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy (ΔU) is equal to the heat added to the system (Q) minus the work done by the system (W). Since this is an adiabatic process, there is no heat added or removed from the system (Q=0). Therefore, ΔU = -2 J (as the internal energy decreases by 2J).Thus, W = -ΔU = -(-2 J) = 2 J. The rest options have incorrect values

Q139. A mass has constant acceleration, what is true about the force applied on it?

• A. Constantly increasing
• B. Constant but not zero✓
• C. Is directly proportional to square of displacement
• D. Is directly proportional to velocity

Explanation: According to F=ma, acceleration and force are both directly proportional to each other. If acceleration is constant then the force applied on the object will also be constant.

Q140. If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. 90
• C. 1
• D. -1

Explanation: Torque will be zero because the force on the object is zero, since it is not accelerating. And also if the body is at rest or rotating with uniform angular velocity the angular acceleration will be zero in this case the torque acting on a body will be zero.Torque is given by solution i.e. torque = r.F sin (theta)Here force = maAcceleration is given by change in velocity/timeIf the change in velocity is zero, acceleration is zero, force is zero, thus torque is also zero. Any other value is not remotely possible

Q141. A battery whose emf is 40 V has an internal resistance of 5 Ohms. If this battery is connected to a 15 Ohms resistor ‘R’, what will be the voltage drop across ‘R’:

• A. 10 V
• B. 30 V✓
• C. 40 V
• D. 50 V
• E. 70 V

Explanation: 40 = I x (15+ 5) 40= I x 20 I = 40/20 I= 2 AVoltage drop across resistor R V= IR V= 2 x 15 V= 30 V (hence B is the correct option)

Q142. Two capacitors C1=3 uF and C2=6 uF are in series across a 90 volts D.C. supply. The total capacitance is given by:

• A. 9 uF
• B. 2 uF✓
• C. 10 uF
• D. 90 uF
• E. 5 uF

Explanation: 1/C1 + 1/C2 = 1/C⅓ + ⅙ = 1/C2 + 1 /6 = 1/C3/6 = 1/C½ =1 /CC = 2 uF

Q143. The process of natural decay of some heavy nuclides is because of the phenomenon:

• A. Emission Spectra
• B. Nuclear fusion
• C. Nuclear fission
• D. Radioactivity✓

Explanation: Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of radiation in the form of particles or high-energy photons resulting from a nuclear reaction. It is also known as radioactive decay, nuclear decay, nuclear disintegration, or radioactive disintegration. Alpha, beta, and gamma decay are three common radioactivity processes

Q144. Which of the following statement shows that no work is done?

• A. Pushing a car to start it moving
• B. Lifting the weights.
• C. The moon Orbiting the earth.✓
• D. Writing an essay on a page.

Explanation: When the moon revolves around the earth, the displacement is normal to the direction of force on the moon. Therefore no work is done by the moon.Work is the dot product of force and displacement.W=F.dcos theta

Q145. The sum of all forms of molecular energies (kinetic and potential) of a substance is termed as:

• A. Elastic energy
• B. Absolute energy
• C. Internal energy✓
• D. Heat energy

Explanation: Elastic energy is a form of potential energy. Absolute energy does not exist. By definition, Internal energy is the sum of total kinetic and potential energy as defined in 1st law of thermodynamics.

Q146. Full wave bridge rectifier uses:

• A. One diode
• B. Two diodes
• C. Three diodes
• D. Four diodes✓

Explanation: Full wave bridge rectifier uses four diodes. However, centre tap transformer uses two diodes.

Q147. Which of the following losses in a transformer is zero even at full load?

• A. A: Eddy current loss
• B. B: Core loss
• C. C: Copper loss
• D. D: Friction loss✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: Friction loss. Transformers are static devices and do not have moving parts; therefore, they do not experience friction losses under any circumstances. Option A (Eddy current loss) and Option B (Core loss) are incorrect because they are inherent to the operation of transformers due to magnetic fields and do not disappear at full load. Option C (Copper loss) is incorrect as it is dependent on the electrical current flowing through the windings and varies with load, hence it is not zero at full load.

Q148. Object A has a charge of 15 mC, and object B has a charge of 10 mC. Which statement is true about the electric forces on the objects?

• A. FAB = -3 FBA
• B. FAB = - FBA✓
• C. 3 FAB = - FBA
• D. -3 FAB = 2 FBA

Explanation: Option B is correct option.

Q149. A loop of radius 1 m is placed on an incline of 60 degree with a magnetic field of 100 T. The corresponding flux will be:

• A. 314 Wb
• B. 107 Wb
• C. 157 Wb✓
• D. 435 Wb

Explanation: Magnetic flux formula: flux = BA cosθB = Magnetic Field A = areaThe angle is the angle between a perpendicular vector to the area and the magnetic field Φ = (100) 12 cos (60°) = (100) 3.1410.5 = 157

Q150. A vector such as the velocity of a body undergoing uniform translational motion, which can be displaced parallel to itself and applied to any point known as:

• A. Unit vector
• B. Free vector✓
• C. Null vector
• D. Position vector
• E. Resultant vector

Explanation: Option B is the correct answer because a free vector is one whose action is not confined or associated with a unique line in space. For a body in uniform translational motion, the velocity of any point in the body may be taken as a vector and this vector will equally well describe the velocity of all points in the body. Hence, the velocity of such a body may be represented by a free vector.

Q151. A special class of waves that does not need a material medium for their propagation are called

• A. Electric waves
• B. Magnetic waves
• C. Electromagnetic waves✓
• D. Sound waves
• E. Earthquake's shock waves

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves do not require a medium for travel since they are not transmitted by the vibration of particles. The waves are generated by the oscillation of electric and magnetic fields which can exist anywhere.Electric waves do not isolatedly exist rather they depend on the magnetic field to form EM waves.A sound wave is a pattern of disturbance caused by the movement of energy traveling through a medium (such as air, water, or any other liquid or solid ).Seismic waves are usually generated by movements of the Earth's tectonic plates but may also be caused by explosions, volcanoes, and landslides. When an earthquake occurs shockwaves of energy, called seismic waves, are released from the earthquake focus.A changing magnetic field will induce a changing electric field and vice-versa—the two are linked. These changing fields form electromagnetic waves. Electromagnetic waves differ from mechanical waves in that they do not require a medium to propagate.

Q152. Minimum frequency below which no electrons are emitted from the metal surface is called _ frequency.

• A. Minimum
• B. Angular
• C. Maximum
• D. Threshold✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the 'threshold frequency', which is the minimum frequency of electromagnetic radiation necessary to dislodge electrons from the surface of a metal. This concept is fundamental to the photoelectric effect, where no electrons are emitted if the incident light's frequency is below this threshold, regardless of its intensity. The other options, 'minimum', 'angular', and 'maximum', either lack specificity or pertain to different contexts within physics.

Q153. If during circular motion, tangential velocity of a body becomes double, then centripetal force becomes:

• A. Double
• B. One half
• C. Four times✓
• D. One fourth

Explanation: Fc= mv^2/ rF is directly proportional to the square of the linear velocity. If velocity doubles then Fc will quadruple.

Q154. A body having translatory motion possesses _ and _. In the same way a body having rotatory motion possesses _ and _.

• A. None of them
• B. Linear velocity... Linear momentum... Angular velocity... Angular momentum✓
• C. Linear momentum... Angular momentum... Linear velocity... Angular velocity
• D. Angular velocity... Angular momentum... Linear momentum... Linear velocity

Explanation: The correct answer is: Linear velocity... Linear momentum... Angular velocity... Angular momentum.In translatory motion, all points of a body move uniformly in a single direction, involving linear properties such as linear velocity and linear momentum. This type of motion does not change the orientation of the object.In contrast, rotatory motion occurs when a body rotates around its own axis, involving angular properties like angular velocity and angular momentum. For example, the Earth's rotation about its axis is a type of rotatory motion.All options except B do not properly align the motion types with their respective properties, which is why they are incorrect.

Q155. When photons are incident on a metal, electrons are emitted. The process is called:

• A. Photoelectric effect✓
• B. Pair production
• C. X-ray production
• D. Gamma ray production
• E. Radioactive capture

Explanation: Photoelectric effect, a phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

Q156. A disc, a hoop, and a sphere of the same mass and radius are rolled down from a frictionless, inclined plane. Which has a greater speed on reaching the ground?

• A. Disc
• B. Loop
• C. Sphere✓
• D. All have the same speed

Explanation: The sphere has most of its mass near the axis of rotation, so it will have the smallest moment of inertia and will reach the ground first.The disc has its mass uniformly distributed, so will have a greater moment of inertia and will arrive second.The hoop has all its mass concentrated away from the center, so will have the greatest moment of inertia. It will arrive last, but will then travel farther away on the horizontal plane than the other shapes, as it will have stored more of the original potential energy in the form of rotational energy.

Q157. Two unequal resistances are connected parallel across a battery. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Same current will flow through both resistances
• B. Current through smaller resistance is higher✓
• C. Current through larger resistance is higher
• D. Current can be higher in any resistance depending on emf of the cell

Explanation: Option A: The current cannot be the same through both resistances, because the resistances are different. Option B: The current through the smaller resistance is higher. In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is the same, but the current through each resistor is different. The current is inversely proportional to the resistance, so the current through the smaller resistance will be higher than the current through the larger resistance. Option C: The current cannot be the same through both resistances, because the resistances are different. Option D: The current cannot be higher through the larger resistance, because the current is inversely proportional to the resistance. The current cannot be higher in any resistance depending on the emf of the cell, because the emf of the cell only determines the voltage across the resistors, not the current through the resistors.

Q158. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of the Balmer series and the last line of the Lyman series is:

• A. 0.5
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 4✓

Explanation: The correct option is 4. The following is the correct solution:

Q159. In half wave rectification, the output DC voltage is obtained across the load for:

• A. The positive half cycle of input AC✓
• B. The negative half cycle of input AC
• C. The positive and negative half cycles of input AC
• D. Either positive or negative half cycle of input AC

Explanation: In half wave rectification, the diode allows current to pass through during only one half of the AC input cycle, either the positive or the negative half, depending on the diode's orientation. This results in a pulsating DC output across the load for that half cycle only. Option D is correct as it encompasses both possibilities. Options A and B are correct under specific configurations but do not cover both scenarios. Option C is incorrect as it describes full wave rectification, where both half cycles are used.

Q160. A particle carrying a charge of 3e, accelerates through a potential difference of 2V. The energy acquired by it is:

• A. 1.6 X 10-19 J
• B. 9.6 X 10-19 J✓
• C. 9.6 X 10-18 J
• D. 1.6 X 10-18 J

Explanation: Energy acquired = 3e x 2V = 6eV = 6 x 1.6 x 10-19 = 9.6 x 10-19

Q161. For the radiotherapy of a patient, it is required to double the absorbed dose in gray. What step must be taken?

• A. Energy must be quadrated
• B. Energy must be halved
• C. Energy must be raised four times
• D. Energy must be doubled✓

Explanation: According to formula D=E/m, if the dose needs to be doubled the energy must be doubled.

Q162. A metallic circular ring is suspended by a string and is kept in a vertical plane. When a magnet is approached towards the ring then it will:

• A. Remain stationary
• B. Get displaced away from the magnet✓
• C. Get displaced towards the magnet
• D. Nothing can be said

Explanation: As the magnet is brought closer, the magnetic flux through the ring changes. By Lenz's law, a current will be induced in the ring that produces its own magnetic field which opposes the change in flux through the the ring. Therefore the induced magnetic field opposes the the field of the magnet. And hence, due to repulsion, the ring moves away from the approaching field.

Q163. In water pipes _ is used to detect leakages.

• A. Radioisotope✓
• B. Light
• C. Current
• D. Heat

Explanation: Radioisotope tracer technology is widely used to detect leakage of process pipe and heat exchanger system pipe that carries liquid and gas in the oil and gas industry. The same technique is also used to identify leaks in water pipes under the ground.

Q164. If the temperature is increased from 200K to 800K, then what would be the change in pressure at constant volume?

• A. Increases by factor 4✓
• B. Decreases by factor 4
• C. Increases by factor 2
• D. Decreases by factor 2

Explanation: PV=NRΔT V=constant ;R=constant; N=constant so P is directly proportional to T as the temperature increases 4 times as it increases from 200K to 800K so the pressure will also increase 4 times.Just be careful that the units (especially temperature) are absolute.

Q165. Which of the following is an instrument for monitoring radiations:

• A. GM tube
• B. Radar
• C. Wilson cloud chamber
• D. Both A and C✓

Explanation: The Geiger-Mueller (GM) detector is a common portable instrument choice for a general laboratory radioactive material survey. GM detectors are capable of detecting alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. However, this instrument is limited by its ineffectiveness in detecting lower energy beta and gamma emitters.Radars send out electromagnetic waves as short pulses which may be reflected by objects in their path, in part reflecting to the radar. When these pulses intercept precipitation, part of the energy is scattered back to the radar.A cloud chamber, also known as a Wilson cloud chamber, is a particle detector used for visualizing the passage of ionizing radiation.

Q166. When a conductor of a cross-sectional area 5x10-6 m2 carries a current of 6 A, the drift velocity of the conduction electrons is 1.2 x 10-4 ms1-. What is the number density (number per unit volume) of the conduction electrons?

• A. 4x10-28 m-3
• B. 1.6x10-27 m-3
• C. 2.5x10-27 m-3
• D. 6.3x1028 m-3✓
• E. 1.3x1034 m-3

Explanation: The formula for electric current relating the drift velocity is: I = neAV Where; I = Electric current n = Number of charges per unit volume e = Electron charge A = Cross sectional area V = Drift speed Solving for 'n' : n = I/eAV Here I = 6.0 Amp e = 1.6 x 10-19 C A = 5.0 x 10-6 m2 V = 1.2 x 10^-4 m/s Put all these values inabove equation and do the calculations: n = (6.0)/ (1.6 x 10-19) (5.0 x 10-6) (1.2 x 10-4) n = 6.3 × 1028 m-3 is the answer

Q167. According to the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = Q + W, where ΔU Is the increase in internal energy of the system, Q is the heat transferred to the system and W is the external work done by the system.Which of the following is NOT a correct expression?

• A. At constant temperature: Q = -W
• B. When no work is done: ΔU = Q
• C. In gaseous system: ΔU = Q + P Δ V
• D. When work is done by the system: ΔU = Q - W✓

Explanation: There are two sign conventions:1. ∆U= Q+W: Here, work done BYthe gas/system is taken POSITIVE. 2. ∆U= Q-W: Here, work done ON the gas/system is taken NEGATIVE. The equation provided in the question follows the first convention, according to which D is incorrect.

Q168. The half-life of C14 is about:

• A. 1637 years
• B. 892 years
• C. 10 years
• D. 100 years
• E. 5730 years✓

Explanation: Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,730 ± 40 years—i.e. half the amount of the radioisotope present at any given time will undergo spontaneous disintegration during the succeeding 5,730 years.

Q169. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the velocity of 98 m/sec, how high does the ball rise?

• A. 196 m
• B. 2 m
• C. 1/2 m
• D. 490 m✓
• E. 98 m

Explanation: s=u(t) + (at2)/2s= 98(t) - 4.9t20 = 98 - 9.81(t)t= 10 ss= 980 -490 = 490m This is the maximum height .

Q170. What is the relationship between Power, Current and voltage?

• A. P=V/I
• B. P=VI✓
• C. 2P=I+V
• D. All of them

Explanation: Correct option is B.Electrical power is the product of voltage and current. P = V X IP = E t.P = W t.P = V 2 /R.P=I2R

Q171. If '-' means'+', '+' means '-', '*' means '÷' and '÷' means '*' then which of the following will be the correct equation?

• A. 30 + 5 +14 -10 * 15 = 122
• B. 10 + 5 - 14 + 10 * 15 = 158
• C. 30 - 5 + 14 +10 * 15 = 162
• D. 30 * 5 - 4 + 10 - 30 = 30✓

Explanation: Option A: 30 + 5 +14 -10 * 15 = 122= 30 - 5 - 14 + 10 ÷ 15 (substituting the new symbols)= 30 - 5 - 14 + 0 (10 ÷ 15 = 0)= 11Option B: 10 + 5 - 14 + 10 * 15 = 158= 10 - 5 + 14 ÷ 10 - 15 (substituting the new symbols)= 10 - 5 + 1 - 15 (14 ÷ 10 = 1)= -9Option C: 30 - 5 + 14 +10 * 15 = 162= 30 + 5 - 14 - 10 ÷ 15 (substituting the new symbols)= 30 + 5 - 14 - 0 (10 ÷ 15 = 0)= 21 Option D: 30 * 5 - 4 + 10 - 30 = 30= 30 ÷ 5 + 4 - 10 + 30 (substituting the new symbols)= 6 + 4 - 10 + 30 (30 ÷ 5 = 6)= 30

Q172. Statement: A large number of students are reported to be dropping out of school in villages as their parents want their children to help them in farms.Courses of Action:I. The government should immediately launch a programme to create awareness among the farmers about the value of education.II. The government should offer incentives to those farmers whose children remain in schools.III. Education should be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 and their employment banned.

• A. Only I and II follow
• B. Only II and III follow
• C. Only I and III follow
• D. All follow✓

Explanation: Literacy at basic level is the utmost need to prepare good future citizens. So, all children need to be educated. This can be achieved by creating awareness, providing incentives, enforcing education and banning employment of children. Thus, all the three courses follow.

Q173. I. An interior minister has been found as the owner of assets more than the stated income.II. The prime minister has ordered all the ministers to unveil their assets.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.✓
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Both statements I and II are the effects of independent causes.

Explanation: In this scenario, Statement II (the prime minister's order for ministers to unveil their assets) is a direct response to the implications raised by Statement I (the discovery of the interior minister's assets exceeding declared income). Thus, Statement II is the effect of Statement I.Option A is incorrect because it reverses the cause-effect relationship. Option C is incorrect due to the absence of a common cause. Option D is also incorrect as both statements cannot be effects of independent causes; rather, they are part of a sequential cause-effect relationship.

Q174. Statements:All film stars are playback singers.All film directors are film stars.Conclusions:I. All film directors are playback singers.II. Some film stars are film directors.Which of the following is true?

• A. Only conclusion II follows
• B. Either I or II follows
• C. Neither I nor II follows
• D. Both I and II follows✓

Explanation: Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should not contain the middle term. So, I follow. II is the converse of the second premise and so it also holds.

Q175. Look at this series 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12. Which number do you think will be next?

• A. 10✓
• B. 13
• C. 7
• D. 12

Explanation: By examining the given series 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, and 12, we can identify a pattern where numbers alternate between increasing by 3 and decreasing by 2.To illustrate, we start with 7 and add 3 to obtain 10, then subtract 2 to yield 8. Continuing this pattern, we add 3 to 8 to get 11, subtract 2 to arrive at 9, and so forth.Applying this pattern to the series, the next number can be determined by subtracting 2 from 12, we get 10.

Q176. P. Q, R, S and T are five people in the family, if P is the daughter of Q. Q is the son of R, R is father of S, while T is the daughter of P then which if following is true:

• A. R is the uncle of P
• B. R is the grandfather of P✓
• C. P and R are sisters
• D. Q is daughter of S
• E. That's an incorrect option. P is sister of T.

Explanation: According to given statement, P is daughter of Q who is son of R, so R is grand-father of P.

Q177. In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs: 9 x 3 + 8 ÷ 4 - 7 = 28

• A. x and -
• B. + and -
• C. ÷ and +
• D. x and ÷✓

Explanation: By interchanging the '×' and '÷' signs, the equation becomes 9 ÷ 3 + 8 × 4 - 7. Following the order of operations, this simplifies to 3 + 32 - 7 = 35 - 7 = 28, which is correct.

Q178. In a code, TABLE = UBCMF, then CHAIR = ?

• A. DIBJS✓
• B. DIBKR
• C. DICJR
• D. DIBJR

Explanation: To solve this coding problem, observe that each letter in the word TABLE is shifted one position forward in the alphabet to form the code UBCMF. Therefore, 'T' becomes 'U', 'A' becomes 'B', 'B' becomes 'C', 'L' becomes 'M', and 'E' becomes 'F'. Applying this same logic to the word CHAIR, 'C' becomes 'D', 'H' becomes 'I', 'A' becomes 'B', 'I' becomes 'J', and 'R' becomes 'S', forming the code DIBJS. Therefore, DIBJS is the correct answer. Other options fail to consistently apply the shift, leading to incorrect results.

Q179. Statements: All dogs are animals. Some animals are cats. Conclusions: I. Some cats are dogs. II. All dogs are cats.

• A. Only II
• B. Only I
• C. Neither✓
• D. Both

Explanation: The correct answer is Neither. Based on the statements, 'All dogs are animals' and 'Some animals are cats,' we cannot definitively conclude that 'Some cats are dogs' or 'All dogs are cats.' Statement I is incorrect because the statement 'Some animals are cats' does not establish a direct relationship between cats and dogs. Statement II is incorrect because the statement 'All dogs are animals' does not imply that all dogs are cats. Therefore, neither conclusion logically follows from the given statements.