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Sindh Zoology 2018 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 18 MCQs from Sindh Zoology 2018, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Sindh / DUHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Sindh / DUHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. Stone from the kidney & urethra is removed by:
- A. Biopsy
- B. Endoscopy
- C. Hemodialysis
- D. Lithotripsy✓
Explanation: Lithotripsy is a procedure used to break up kidney stones into smaller pieces so they can pass more easily through the urinary tract. It's commonly used for larger kidney stones. There are different types of lithotripsy, including shock wave lithotripsy (using shock waves to break up the stones) and laser lithotripsy (using a laser to break up the stones).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Biopsy is a procedure where a small sample of tissue is taken for examination under a microscope to diagnose diseases like cancer. It's not used for removing kidney or urethral stones.
- B. Endoscopy involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera attached (endoscope) into the body to view internal organs. In the context of kidney or urethral stones, endoscopy can be used to visualize the stones and, in some cases, to break them up or remove them directly.
- C. Hemodialysis is a treatment for kidney failure that involves filtering a person's blood outside their body to remove waste and extra fluids. It's not used for removing kidney or urethral stones.
Q2. Joints move freely with reduced friction due to:
- A. Coelomic fluid
- B. Cerebrospinal fluid
- C. Synovial fluid✓
- D. Lymph
Explanation: This is the correct answer. Synovial fluid is found in joint cavities, where it lubricates the joints, reducing friction and allowing for smooth movement.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This fluid is found in the coelom, the body cavity in many animals. While it helps with cushioning organs, it's not directly related to joint movement in humans.
- B. This fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and support, but it's not involved in joint movement.
- D. Lymph is a clear fluid that circulates throughout the lymphatic system, primarily involved in immunity and maintaining fluid balance, but it's not directly involved in joint movement.
Q3. Parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction which requires:
- A. One gamete✓
- B. Two gametes
- C. Three gametes
- D. Four gametes
Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where an egg develops into an embryo without fertilization by a sperm. It involves only one gamete. Essentially, it's when an organism, typically female, can produce offspring from unfertilized eggs. It's seen in some insects, reptiles, and even fish.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where an egg develops into an embryo without fertilization by a sperm. It involves only one gamete. Essentially, it's when an organism, typically female, can produce offspring from unfertilized eggs. It's seen in some insects, reptiles, and even fish.
- C. Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where an egg develops into an embryo without fertilization by a sperm. It involves only one gamete. Essentially, it's when an organism, typically female, can produce offspring from unfertilized eggs. It's seen in some insects, reptiles, and even fish.
- D. Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where an egg develops into an embryo without fertilization by a sperm. It involves only one gamete. Essentially, it's when an organism, typically female, can produce offspring from unfertilized eggs. It's seen in some insects, reptiles, and even fish.
Q4. Each primary Ooctye ultimately develops into:
- A. One ovum✓
- B. Two ova
- C. Three ova
- D. Four ova
Explanation: Each primary oocyte ultimately develops into one ovum, not multiple ova. The process starts during fetal development in females, where primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to form secondary oocytes, which then proceed to meiosis II. However, only one mature ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, along with polar bodies that do not develop into ova.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Each primary oocyte ultimately develops into one ovum, not multiple ova. The process starts during fetal development in females, where primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to form secondary oocytes, which then proceed to meiosis II. However, only one mature ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, along with polar bodies that do not develop into ova.
- C. Each primary oocyte ultimately develops into one ovum, not multiple ova. The process starts during fetal development in females, where primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to form secondary oocytes, which then proceed to meiosis II. However, only one mature ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, along with polar bodies that do not develop into ova.
- D. Each primary oocyte ultimately develops into one ovum, not multiple ova. The process starts during fetal development in females, where primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to form secondary oocytes, which then proceed to meiosis II. However, only one mature ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, along with polar bodies that do not develop into ova.
Q5. This part of the brain connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres:
- A. Cerebellum
- B. Corpus Callosum✓
- C. Pons
- D. Thalamus
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The corpus callosum is a thick band of nerve fibers that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres, allowing them to communicate and share information.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This part of the brain is located underneath the cerebral hemispheres and is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining posture and balance.
- C. The pons is a structure located in the brainstem that is involved in several functions, including relaying signals between the cerebrum and the cerebellum and controlling sleep and arousal.
- D. The thalamus is often referred to as the "gateway to the cortex" because it relays sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex and regulates consciousness, sleep, and alertness. However, it does not directly connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
Q6. Myelin sheath is formed by:
- A. Neuron
- B. Receptor
- C. Neuroglia✓
- D. T-cell
Explanation: Neuroglia, also known as glial cells, are the cells of the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons. Certain types of neuroglia, specifically oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS) and Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS), form the myelin sheath around axons. Myelin sheaths insulate and increase the speed of electrical impulse conduction along the axons.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Neurons are the cells responsible for transmitting information throughout the nervous system. While they play a crucial role in nerve signaling, they do not directly form the myelin sheath.
- B. Receptors are specialized proteins located on the surface of cells. They are involved in detecting stimuli from the external or internal environment and initiating cellular responses. Receptors do not form myelin sheaths.
- D. T-cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a central role in the immune response. They are not involved in the formation of the myelin sheath.
Q7. The egg of chick aid at this stage:
- A. Cleavage
- B. Blastula✓
- C. Morula
- D. Gastrula
Explanation: The morula undergoes further cell division and rearrangement, eventually forming a hollow ball of cells called a blastula. The blastula has a fluid-filled cavity called the blastocoel, surrounded by a single layer of cells known as the blastoderm. The blastula marks the early stage of embryonic development where cellular differentiation begins to occur.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This is the early stage of embryonic development characterized by rapid cell division without growth. During cleavage, the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division, resulting in the formation of smaller cells called blastomeres.
- C. As cleavage continues, the blastomeres begin to compact together, forming a solid ball of cells known as a morula. The morula typically consists of around 16 to 32 cells and resembles a mulberry, hence the name "morula," which means mulberry in Latin.
- D. During gastrulation, the blastula undergoes significant rearrangement and differentiation, leading to the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. These germ layers give rise to different tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The process of gastrulation involves the inward migration of cells, which creates an opening called the blastopore. The formation of the gastrula marks the beginning of organogenesis and the establishment of the embryo's body plan.
Q8. The embryological abnormality of R.B.Cs and haemoglobin causes this disease:
- A. Polydactyly
- B. Sickle Cell anaemia✓
- C. Turner's Syndrome
- D. Dextrocardia
Explanation: This disease is caused by a genetic mutation affecting hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Individuals with sickle cell anemia have abnormal hemoglobin molecules, causing their red blood cells to become stiff and sickle-shaped, leading to various complications.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This is a condition where a person is born with extra fingers or toes. It is not related to RBCs or hemoglobin abnormalities but rather to genetic mutations affecting limb development.
- C. This is a genetic condition that occurs in females and is characterized by the partial or complete absence of one of the X chromosomes. While it can lead to various health issues, it is not primarily related to RBC or hemoglobin abnormalities.
- D. This is a rare condition where the heart is positioned on the right side of the chest instead of the left. It is not related to RBC or hemoglobin abnormalities but rather to embryological development.
Q9. The non-coding part of genes is:
- A. Codon
- B. Exon
- C. Intron✓
- D. Anticodon
Explanation: An intron is a non-coding region of a gene that intervenes between exons. During gene expression, introns are transcribed into RNA but are removed during RNA processing (splicing) and do not contribute to protein synthesis.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in DNA or RNA that corresponds to a specific amino acid or signals the start or stop of protein synthesis. Codons are found in the coding regions of genes.
- B. An exon is a coding region of a gene that contains the sequences necessary to be transcribed into mRNA and translated into a protein. Exons are involved in the synthesis of proteins.
- D. An anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides in tRNA that is complementary to a specific codon in mRNA during protein synthesis. Anticodons are involved in matching tRNA to the appropriate amino acid.
Q10. This is the diagram of:
- A. Skeletal muscle✓
- B. Smooth muscle
- C. Cardiac muscle
- D. Epithelial tissue
Explanation: This is the diagram of the skeletal muscle.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. This is the diagram of the skeletal muscle.
- C. This is the diagram of the skeletal muscle.
- D. This is the diagram of the skeletal muscle.
Q11. This gas is responsible for Global warming:
- A. Oxygen
- B. Carbon dioxide✓
- C. Nitrogen
- D. Chlorine
Explanation: Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rising as a result of various human activities, such as the use of fossil fuels in automobiles and industrial processes. Carbon dioxide absorbs high-energy radiation, causing the atmospheric temperature to rise. This temperature increase is referred to as global warming.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rising as a result of various human activities, such as the use of fossil fuels in automobiles and industrial processes. Carbon dioxide absorbs high-energy radiation, causing the atmospheric temperature to rise. This temperature increase is referred to as global warming.
- C. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rising as a result of various human activities, such as the use of fossil fuels in automobiles and industrial processes. Carbon dioxide absorbs high-energy radiation, causing the atmospheric temperature to rise. This temperature increase is referred to as global warming.
- D. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rising as a result of various human activities, such as the use of fossil fuels in automobiles and industrial processes. Carbon dioxide absorbs high-energy radiation, causing the atmospheric temperature to rise. This temperature increase is referred to as global warming.
Q12. This enzyme acts as scissors in recombinant DNA technology:
- A. Ligase
- B. Polymerase
- C. RNA Polymerase
- D. Restriction enzyme✓
Explanation: These enzymes, also known as restriction endonucleases, act as "molecular scissors" by cleaving DNA at specific recognition sequences. They are widely used in recombinant DNA technology to cut DNA at precise locations, facilitating the manipulation of DNA sequences for cloning, gene editing, and other applications.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This enzyme is involved in the joining of DNA fragments together by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the nucleotides. It is used in recombinant DNA technology to seal the gaps between DNA fragments that have been spliced together.
- B. Polymerases are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of nucleic acids, such as DNA or RNA, from nucleotide precursors. They are used in various molecular biology techniques, including PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction), where they amplify specific DNA sequences.
- C. This enzyme is responsible for synthesizing RNA molecules from a DNA template in a process called transcription. It is crucial for gene expression and is not directly involved in recombinant DNA technology, although it is used indirectly when transcribing genes of interest for cloning or other purposes.
Q13. The most abundant component of urine is:
- A. Urea
- B. Water✓
- C. Ammonia
- D. Uric acid
Explanation: Water is the most abundant component of urine by volume. It serves as a solvent for the various solutes, including urea, electrolytes, and other waste products, allowing them to be excreted from the body.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Urea is a nitrogenous waste product that forms in the liver during the breakdown of proteins. It is the primary component of urine, accounting for a significant portion of its solute content.
- C. Ammonia is a nitrogenous waste product that forms when proteins and amino acids are metabolized. While small amounts of ammonia may be present in urine, it is not typically the most abundant component compared to urea and water.
- D. Uric acid is another nitrogenous waste product that forms from the metabolism of purines, which are found in nucleic acids and certain foods. It is less abundant in urine compared to urea and is often present in higher concentrations in the urine of individuals with conditions such as gout.
Q14. Microcephaly is caused due to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Genetic disorder✓
- C. Bacteria
- D. Fungi
Explanation: Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is smaller than expected, often due to abnormal brain development. It can be caused by various genetic factors, including infections during pregnancy such as Zika (rubella) virus. It can lead to developmental delays and cognitive impairment. Early intervention and support are crucial for managing the condition.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is smaller than expected, often due to abnormal brain development. It can be caused by various genetic factors, including infections during pregnancy such as Zika (rubella) virus. It can lead to developmental delays and cognitive impairment. Early intervention and support are crucial for managing the condition.
- C. Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is smaller than expected, often due to abnormal brain development. It can be caused by various genetic factors, including infections during pregnancy such as Zika (rubella) virus. It can lead to developmental delays and cognitive impairment. Early intervention and support are crucial for managing the condition.
- D. Microcephaly is a condition where a baby's head is smaller than expected, often due to abnormal brain development. It can be caused by various genetic factors, including infections during pregnancy such as Zika (rubella) virus. It can lead to developmental delays and cognitive impairment. Early intervention and support are crucial for managing the condition.
Q15. Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of:
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin A✓
- D. Minerals
Explanation: Night blindness is primarily caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A. This essential nutrient is crucial for the functioning of the retina, particularly the cells responsible for vision in low light conditions. Without enough Vitamin A, the retina struggles to properly adjust to darkness, leading to impaired night vision.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Vitamin K deficiency doesn't directly relate to night blindness. Vitamin K is more known for its role in blood clotting and bone health.
- B. Vitamin C deficiency is associated with scurvy, a condition characterized by symptoms like weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. While Vitamin C is important for eye health, it's not directly linked to night blindness.
- D. Mineral deficiencies can also affect eye health, but they are not typically associated with night blindness specifically. However, minerals like zinc and selenium are important for overall eye function.
Q16. A clone exactly resembles its:
- A. Mother
- B. Egg donor
- C. Diploid nuclear donor✓
- D. Father
Explanation: This is the correct option. The clone exactly resembles its diploid nuclear donor in terms of nuclear DNA, which carries the majority of genetic information. However, mitochondrial DNA, which is inherited from the mother, may contribute to certain traits.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The clone resembles its mother in terms of mitochondrial DNA, which is inherited exclusively from the mother. However, the nuclear DNA, which contains the majority of genetic information, is identical to the donor from which the nucleus was taken.
- B. The clone does not resemble its egg donor genetically because the nucleus from the egg donor's cell is replaced with the nucleus from the diploid nuclear donor. However, if the clone were to inherit any mitochondrial DNA, it would be from the egg donor.
- D. Cloning does not involve genetic material from a father, so the clone does not resemble its father genetically.
Q17. This vestigial organ is not found in man:
- A. Coccyx
- B. Vermiform appendix
- C. Eyelid✓
- D. Ear muscle
Explanation: Human vestigial organs are those organs that have lost all or most of their original functions through evolution There are about 90 such structures present in our body (1) Vermiform appendix is a vestige of the cecum. Coccyx or tailbone is the remnant of a lost tall (3) The wisdom teeth are vestigial third molars that human ancestors used to help in grinding down plant tissue (4) Humans have ear muscles that are minimally developed and non-functional, but some people are able to move their ears in various directions.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Human vestigial organs are those organs that have lost all or most of their original functions through evolution There are about 90 such structures present in our body (1) Vermiform appendix is a vestige of the cecum. Coccyx or tailbone is the remnant of a lost tall (3) The wisdom teeth are vestigial third molars that human ancestors used to help in grinding down plant tissue (4) Humans have ear muscles that are minimally developed and non-functional, but some people are able to move their ears in various directions.
- B. Human vestigial organs are those organs that have lost all or most of their original functions through evolution There are about 90 such structures present in our body (1) Vermiform appendix is a vestige of the cecum. Coccyx or tailbone is the remnant of a lost tall (3) The wisdom teeth are vestigial third molars that human ancestors used to help in grinding down plant tissue (4) Humans have ear muscles that are minimally developed and non-functional, but some people are able to move their ears in various directions.
- D. Human vestigial organs are those organs that have lost all or most of their original functions through evolution There are about 90 such structures present in our body (1) Vermiform appendix is a vestige of the cecum. Coccyx or tailbone is the remnant of a lost tall (3) The wisdom teeth are vestigial third molars that human ancestors used to help in grinding down plant tissue (4) Humans have ear muscles that are minimally developed and non-functional, but some people are able to move their ears in various directions.
Q18. Lamarck's theory is based on the following assumptions except the:
- A. Effect of environment
- B. Use and disuse of organs
- C. Natural selection✓
- D. Inheritance of acquired character
Explanation: Contrary to popular belief, Lamarck did not propose natural selection as a mechanism for evolution. This concept was later introduced by Charles Darwin. Natural selection involves the differential survival and reproduction of organisms due to differences in traits, leading to the gradual adaptation of populations to their environment.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Lamarck proposed that the environment could directly influence the traits of organisms. For example, he suggested that giraffes developed long necks by stretching to reach high branches, and this acquired trait was passed on to their offspring.
- B. Lamarck believed that organs would develop or deteriorate depending on their use or disuse by an organism. He argued that organs used extensively would become larger and stronger, while those not used would gradually shrink or disappear over generations.
- D. This is the hallmark of Lamarck's theory. He suggested that organisms could pass on traits acquired during their lifetime to their offspring. For example, the giraffe's long neck acquired through stretching would be passed on to its offspring.
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