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Sindh Zoology 2024 Model Paper — Solved Past Paper with Answers

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Q1. An injury sustained by the hypothalamus is most likely to interrupt:

  • A. Coordination during locomotion
  • B. Short-term memory
  • C. Regulation of body temperature
  • D. Executive function like decision-making

Explanation: C) Regulation of body temperature:The hypothalamus regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and other basic bodily functions. Injury to the hypothalamus could disrupt body temperature regulation, leading to hypothermia or hyperthermia.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Coordination during locomotion:The cerebellum, not the hypothalamus, is responsible for coordinating movements and maintaining posture and balance. Injury to the cerebellum would likely affect coordination during locomotion.
  • B. B) Short-term memory:The hippocampus, not the hypothalamus, plays a critical role in forming and consolidating new memories, including short-term memory. Injury to the hippocampus would likely affect short-term memory.
  • D. D) Executive function like decision making:The prefrontal cortex, not the hypothalamus, is responsible for executive functions like decision-making, problem-solving, and planning. Injury to the prefrontal cortex would likely affect executive function.

Q2. Even after the brain of a frog has been crushed, it still responds to a pinch on the leg by drawing it away. This act is an example

  • A. Conditioned reflex
  • B. Neurotransmitter induced response
  • C. Automated motor response
  • D. Simple reflex

Explanation: D) Simple reflex:A simple reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus, involving a direct connection between sensory and motor neurons. This is the best answer, as the frog's response to the pinch is a simple, automatic withdrawal of its leg, which can occur even without a functioning brain.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Conditioned reflex:A conditioned reflex is a learned response to a stimulus, acquired through repeated association with another stimulus. This is not an example of a conditioned reflex, as the frog's response is innate and not learned.
  • B. B) Neurotransmitter induced response:Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals between neurons. While neurotransmitters are involved in the frog's response, this is not the best answer, as the brain has been crushed, making it unlikely that neurotransmitters are playing a significant role.
  • C. C) Automated motor response:This option is similar to a reflex, but implies a more complex response. However, the frog's response is a simple, automatic response to a stimulus, rather than a complex motor response.

Q3. In humans, Parkinson's disease is linked with the deficiency of:

  • A. Acetylcholine
  • B. Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA
  • C. Glutamic acid
  • D. Dopamine

Explanation: D) Dopamine:Dopamine is a neurotransmitter playing a crucial role in motor control, motivation, and reward processing. Parkinson's disease is indeed linked to dopamine deficiency, specifically the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Acetylcholine:Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter involved in various functions, including muscle contraction and memory formation. While acetylcholine is important for neuromuscular transmission, Parkinson's disease is not directly linked to its deficiency.
  • B. B) GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid):GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, meaning it helps calm down neuronal activity. While GABA is important for regulating movement and muscle tone, Parkinson's disease is not primarily linked to GABA deficiency.
  • C. C) Glutamic acid:Glutamic acid is an excitatory amino acid, serving as a precursor to neurotransmitters like glutamate. While glutamate is involved in neuronal excitation, Parkinson's disease is not directly linked to glutamic acid deficiency.

Q4. All of the following are hormones of the anterior pituitary except:

  • A. Human growth hormone (GH)
  • B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Explanation: PTH is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Instead, it is produced by the parathyroid glands, which are located adjacent to the thyroid gland. PTH helps regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood and is involved in bone metabolism.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This hormone is indeed produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in growth, cell repair, and metabolism regulation.
  • B. FSH is another hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It is essential for the development and maturation of ovarian follicles in females and spermatogenesis in males.
  • D. TSH is also produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism, growth, and development.

Q5. The following hormones are responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response:

  • A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
  • B. Estrogen and progesterone
  • C. Thyroxin and melatonin
  • D. Insulin and glucagon

Explanation: A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine:Epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) are catecholamine hormones released by the adrenal glands in response to stress, stimulating the "fight-or-flight" response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and energy metabolism. They prepare the body for physical activity and emergency response.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. B) Estrogen and progesterone:Estrogen and progesterone are sex hormones involved in reproductive processes, such as menstruation, pregnancy, and embryogenesis. They have no direct role in the "fight-or-flight" response, which is a physiological response to stress or danger.
  • C. C) Thyroxin and melatonin:Thyroxin (T4) is a thyroid hormone regulating metabolism and energy production, while melatonin is a hormone regulating sleep-wake cycles. Neither is directly involved in the "fight-or-flight" response, which is a short-term stress response.
  • D. D) Insulin and glucagon:Insulin and glucagon are pancreatic hormones regulating blood sugar levels, with insulin lowering glucose levels and glucagon raising them. While they play a crucial role in glucose homeostasis, they are not directly responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response.

Q6. A characteristic of territorial behavior in animals:

  • A. Migration
  • B. Hibernation
  • C. Defending an area from intruders
  • D. Herding

Explanation: C) Defending an area from intruders:Defending a specific area from other animals is a hallmark of territorial behavior, as individuals or groups mark and protect their territory from others to maintain access to resources, mating opportunities, and shelter.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Migration:Migration is a seasonal movement of animals from one region to another in search of food, water, or breeding grounds. It is not a characteristic of territorial behavior, as animals are not defending a specific area from others during migration.
  • B. B) Hibernation:Hibernation is a state of inactivity and reduced metabolism, often during winter months, to conserve energy and survive harsh conditions. It is not related to territorial behavior, as animals are not defending their territory while hibernating.
  • D. D) Herding:Herding refers to the behavior of animals gathering and moving together in groups, often for protection, foraging, or migration. While herding animals may have a home range, they do not necessarily defend a specific territory from others, making this option less characteristic of territorial behavior.

Q7. The following is an example of a learned behavior in animals:

  • A. Fish swimming upstream to spawn
  • B. Goose flying south for the winter
  • C. B) Bee performing a waggle dance
  • D. D) Rat navigating a Maz

Explanation: , the rat would explore the box feverishly, running this way and that. occasionally, it would accidentally press a lever, and a pellet of food would appear. At first, a rat would ignore the lever and continue to move about, but soon it learned to press A 'Skinner box'. ' lever to obtain food As the animal learns by chance i.e., trial so this type of learning has been lite11 named 'trial and error learning'.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. It is not example of learning behaviour instead it is instinct behaviour.
  • B. It is not example of learning behaviour instead it is instinct behaviour.
  • C. It is not example of learning behaviour instead it is instinct behaviour.

Q8. This is an example of innate behavior except :

  • A. A dog learning to sit on command
  • B. A cat chasing a mouse
  • C. A bird building a nest
  • D. A fish learning to swim in a tank

Explanation: A) A dog learning to sit on command:This is NOT an example of innate behavior, as dogs are not born knowing how to respond to this command. Instead, it is a learned behavior through training and reinforcement.Correct answer: A) A dog learning to sit on command

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. B) A cat chasing a mouse:This IS an example of innate behavior, as cats are born with the instinct to hunt and catch small animals, and do not need to learn this behavior through experience.
  • C. C) A bird building a nest:This IS an example of innate behavior, as birds are born with the instinct to construct a safe and suitable place to lay their eggs and raise their young, and do not need to learn this behavior through experience.
  • D. D) A fish learning to swim in a tank:This is an example of innate behavior, as while fish are born with the instinct to swim, they need to learn to navigate and adapt to a new tank environment through experience.

Q9. The correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis is:

  • A. A) Spermatocytes - Spermatids - Spermatogonia - Spermatozoa
  • B. B) Spermatogonia - Spermatids - Spermatocytes - Spermatozoa
  • C. C) Spermatocytes - Spermatogonia - Spermatids - Spermatozoa
  • D. D) Spermatogonia - Spermatocytes - Spermatids - Spermatozoa

Explanation: D) Spermatogonia - Spermatocytes - Spermatids - Spermatozoa:This sequence is correct! Spermatogonia are the undifferentiated cells, which develop into Spermatocytes, then mature into Spermatids, and finally become Spermatozoa (sperm cells).

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Spermatocytes - Spermatids -Spermatogonia - Spermatozoa:This sequence is incorrect because Spermatogonia is the earliest stage, followed by Spermatocytes, then Spermatids, and finally Spermatozoa. This sequence has the stages in reverse order.
  • B. B) Spermatogonia - Spermatids - Spermatocytes - Spermatozoa:This sequence is also incorrect because Spermatids come after Spermatocytes, not before.
  • C. C) Spermatocytes - Spermatogonia - Spermatids - Spermatozoa:This sequence is incorrect because Spermatogonia is the earliest stage, and Spermatocytes come later, not the other way around.

Q10. decreased level of this hormone causes menstruation

  • A. Progesterone
  • B. Luteinizing
  • C. Estrogen
  • D. Oxytocin

Explanation: A) Progesterone:A decrease in progesterone levels causes menstruation, as progesterone prepares the uterus for pregnancy, and a drop in levels signals the uterus to shed its lining, leading to menstrual bleeding. This is a crucial step in the menstrual cycle.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. B) Leutinizing:Leutinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation, but its levels do not directly affect menstruation. LH surges mid-cycle, causing the ovary to release an egg, but it is not responsible for the shedding of the uterine lining
  • C. C) Estrogen:Estrogen levels fluctuate throughout the menstrual cycle, but a decrease in estrogen does not directly cause menstruation. Estrogen helps prepare the uterus for pregnancy, but it is the drop in progesterone that triggers menstruation.
  • D. D) Oxytocin:Oxytocin is involved in uterine contractions during childbirth and lactation, but it does not play a role in menstruation. Oxytocin levels do not directly affect the shedding of the uterine lining.

Q11. The period of rapid physical and sexual maturation during adolescence is called:

  • A. Menopause
  • B. Andropause
  • C. puberty
  • D. D) Midlife Crisis

Explanation: C) Puberty:Puberty is the period of rapid physical and sexual maturation during adolescence, typically occurring between ages 10-14 in girls and 12-16 in boys. It is characterized by the onset of sexual development, growth spurts, and hormonal changes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Menopause:Menopause is the period when women reach the end of their reproductive years, typically around age 50, marked by the cessation of menstrual cycles. It is not related to adolescence or rapid physical and sexual maturation
  • B. B) Andropause:Andropause, also known as late-onset hypogonadism, is a condition where men experience a decline in testosterone levels, leading to symptoms like low sex drive and fatigue. It is not related to adolescence or rapid physical and sexual maturation
  • D. D) Midlife crisis:Midlife crisis is a term used to describe a period of emotional upheaval and self-reflection that some people experience in their 40s or 50s, often triggered by feelings of aging and mortality. It is not related to adolescence or rapid physical and sexual maturation.

Q12. This disorder is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, resulting in infertility anddevelopmental abnormalities

  • A. Down syndrome
  • B. Turner syndrome
  • C. Klinefelter syndrome
  • D. Fragile time X syndrome

Explanation: C) Klinefelter syndrome:Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an extra X chromosome in males (XXY), resulting in infertility, developmental abnormalities, and physical characteristics such as tall stature and breast enlargement. This is the correct answer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Down syndrome:Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in intellectual disability and physical abnormalities. It is not characterized by an extra X chromosome in males.
  • B. B) Turner syndrome:Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a missing or partially deleted X chromosome in females, resulting in short stature, infertility, and developmental abnormalities. It is not characterized by an extra X chromosome in males.
  • D. D) Fragile X syndrome:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an expansion of a repetitive DNA sequence on the X chromosome, leading to intellectual disability, developmental delays, and physical abnormalities. While it affects both males and females, it is not characterized by an extra X chromosome in males.

Q13. Aging is characterized by:

  • A. Increase in the consumption of oxygen
  • B. Increased metabolic activity
  • C. Increased anabolism
  • D. decrease in the metabolic activity

Explanation: The correct answer is D) decrease in metabolic activity.Aging is characterized by a gradual decline in physiological functions, including a decrease in metabolic activity. This means that the body's ability to convert energy and nutrients into vital functions, growth, and repair slows down with age.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Increase in consumption of oxygen: While oxygen consumption may increase temporarily during physical activity, it does not increase with age.
  • B. B) Increase in metabolic activity: Metabolic activity actually decreases with age, leading to a decline in physical functions and overall health.
  • C. C) Increase in anabolism: Anabolism is the process of building and repairing tissues, which slows down with age due to decreased metabolic activity and hormonal changes.

Q14. The only treatment in case of uremia is:

  • A. Dialysis
  • B. Lithotripsy
  • C. Lung transplant
  • D. Kidney transplant

Explanation: D) Kidney transplant:A kidney transplant is a surgical procedure that replaces a diseased or damaged kidney with a healthy one, and is the only treatment that can cure uremia. It is the best option for those with end-stage kidney disease, offering a chance to regain normal kidney function and improve quality of life.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Dialysis:Dialysis is a medical treatment that filters waste products from the blood when the kidneys are no longer able to do so, helping to manage uremia. It is a life-sustaining treatment, but not a cure, and is typically used as a bridge to kidney transplantation or as a long-term treatment for those who are not candidates for transplantation.
  • B. B) Lithotripsy:Lithotripsy is a medical procedure that uses shock waves to break up kidney stones, allowing them to pass more easily, but has no relation to treating uremia. It is used to treat kidney stones, not kidney failure.
  • C. C) Lung transplant:A lung transplant is a surgical procedure that replaces a diseased or damaged lung with a healthy one, but has no relation to treating uremia or kidney disease. It is used to treat severe lung diseases such as cystic fibrosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Q15. Apart from the conventional use, Dialysis can also be used in scenarios of:

  • A. Blood transfusions
  • B. Acute poisoning
  • C. Low blood pressure
  • D. Extreme fever

Explanation: B) Acute poisoning:Dialysis can be used in cases of acute poisoning to remove toxins or drugs from the blood, helping to reverse the toxic effects. This is known as hemodialysis or hemodiafiltration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Blood transfusion:Dialysis is not typically used for blood transfusions, which involve transferring blood or blood products from a donor to a patient. Blood transfusions are used to treat blood loss, anemia, or clotting disorders.
  • C. C) Low Blood pressure:Dialysis is not typically used to treat low blood pressure (hypotension), which is usually managed with fluids, medications, or other treatments to raise blood pressure.
  • D. D) Extreme fever:Dialysis is not typically used to treat extreme fever, which is usually managed with antipyretic medications, cooling measures, or other treatments to reduce body temperature.

Q16. Immunosuppressant drugs are consumed with:

  • A. Major viruses
  • B. Peritoneal dialysis
  • C. Kidney transplant
  • D. Haemodialysis

Explanation: C) Kidney transplant: Immunosuppressant drugs are necessary after a kidney transplant to prevent the body's immune system from rejecting the transplanted kidney.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Major viruses: Immunosuppressant drugs are not typically consumed to treat major viruses, as they suppress the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections.
  • B. B) Peritoneal dialysis: Immunosuppressant drugs are not typically used with peritoneal dialysis, which is a treatment for kidney failure that involves cleaning the blood without removing it from the body.
  • D. D) Haemodialysis: Immunosuppressant drugs are not typically used with haemodialysis, a treatment for kidney failure that involves filtering the blood using a machine.

Q17. This is correct for muscle contraction:

  • A. Shortening of actin filaments
  • B. No change in A bands
  • C. Shortening of A, H and I bands
  • D. Sarcomere does not shorten

Explanation: D) Sarcomere does not shorten: Muscle contraction results in the shortening of the sarcomere, the basic functional unit of muscle tissue.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Shortening of actin filaments: During muscle contraction, actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, causing the sarcomere to shorten.
  • B. B) No change in A band: The A band, which contains thick myosin filaments, does not change in length during muscle contraction.
  • C. C) Shortening of A, H, I band: The A band remains the same length, the H band disappears, and the I band shortens during muscle contraction.

Q18. Each hip bone is formed by the fusion of three bones Pubis, Ilium and:

  • A. Sternum
  • B. Ischium
  • C. Scapula
  • D. Sphenoid

Explanation: B) Ischium: The ischium is one of the three bones that fuse to form the hip bone. It forms the lower and back part of the hip bone.The fusion of the pubis, ilium, and ischium forms the hip bone, also known as the os coxae or innominate bone.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A) Sternum: The sternum is a breastbone located in the chest and is not part of the hip bone.
  • C. C) Scapula: The scapula is a shoulder blade bone and is not part of the hip bone.
  • D. D) Sphenoid: The sphenoid bone is a cranial bone forming part of the base of the skull and is not part of the hip bone.

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