Balochistan Mdcat 2010 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Find out the synonym: CAPACIOUS.

• A. Huge✓
• B. Proficient
• C. Interior
• D. Exact

Explanation: The word CAPACIOUS means having a lot of space or room. A synonym for "CAPACIOUS" is "huge" because both words imply something that is large in size or has a lot of space. "Proficient," "interior," and "exact" do not have the same meaning as "CAPACIOUS."

Q2. Find out the synonym: COMPELLED

• A. Records
• B. Forced✓
• C. Performances
• D. Regrets

Explanation: The word "COMPELLED" means being forced to do something or under strong pressure. "Forced" has a similar meaning and can be used as a synonym for "COMPELLED." In the given options, "forced" is the correct synonym because it conveys the idea of being obligated or coerced into doing something, which aligns with the meaning of "COMPELLED."

Q3. Find out the synonym: DISPUTE

• A. Clash✓
• B. Coax
• C. Diminish
• D. Mechanized

Explanation: The word "DISPUTE" refers to a disagreement, argument, or conflict between parties. "CLASH" also means a violent confrontation or disagreement. In this context, "CLASH" is a synonym for "DISPUTE" because it represents a situation where there is a strong disagreement or conflict between individuals or groups, making it the most appropriate choice from the options given.

Q4. Find out the synonym: FRICTION

• A. Multiple
• B. Cheerful
• C. Resisstance✓
• D. Narrow

Explanation: The word "FRICTION" refers to the force that opposes the relative motion or tendency of such motion of two surfaces in contact. In this context, "RESISTANCE" is a suitable synonym because it also implies opposition to motion or movement, making it the appropriate choice from the given options. Both words convey the idea of something hindering or impeding the smooth movement of objects.

Q5. Find out the synonym: ALAS

• A. Luckily
• B. Forgiveness
• C. Mutiny
• D. Unhappily✓

Explanation: "Alas" is an exclamation used to express sorrow, regret, or disappointment, and "unhappily" carries a similar negative connotation.

Q6. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s) Most of the students in my class the _ Interviews very interesting

• A. Found✓
• B. Finding
• C. Finds
• D. Founds

Explanation: In the given sentence, the verb "found" should be in the past tense because the action (finding the interviews interesting) occurred in the past. The correct sentence is in the past tense: "Most of the students in my class found the interviews very interesting." Option (a) "found" is the past tense form of the verb "find," which is the appropriate choice in this context.

Q7. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s) Dogs always _ at strangers.

• A. Barks
• B. Bark✓
• C. Barked
• D. will bark

Explanation: In the given sentence, the verb "bark" should be in its base form because it is used with the auxiliary verb "do" to form a present simple tense sentence. When constructing a present simple tense sentence in the third person singular (as in the case of "dogs"), the base form of the verb is used without the "-s" ending. So, the correct sentence is: "Dogs always bark at strangers. "Option (b) "bark" is the base form of the verb and is the appropriate choice in this context for the present simple tense.

Q8. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s) They were accused _ theft.

• A. With
• B. Of✓
• C. By
• D. From

Explanation: The preposition "of" is used after the verb "accused" when indicating the offense or the crime someone is being accused of. In this context, "accused of" is the correct collocation. For example: Accused of theft Accused of murder Accused of fraud

Q9. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s) If we worked hard, we _ pass the examination.

• A. Would✓
• B. Will
• C. Would have
• D. Had

Explanation: In the given sentence, the use of "would" indicates a conditional or hypothetical situation. When expressing a condition and its possible result in the future, the conditional tense is used. In this case, the sentence is expressing a hypothetical situation: "If we worked hard," indicating a condition, and the result, "we would pass the examination," suggesting the possible outcome if the condition is met. So, "would" is used to convey this sense of a hypothetical or unreal condition, making option (a) the correct choice.

Q10. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s) Do not abstain _ smoking.

• A. Of
• B. To
• C. In
• D. From✓

Explanation: The correct preposition to use with the verb "abstain" in the context of refraining from a particular action is "from." When you abstain from something, it means you are deliberately avoiding or refraining from doing that specific thing. In the sentence "Do not abstain from smoking," the use of "from" indicates refraining from the action of smoking. So, the correct sentence is: "Do not abstain from smoking."

Q11. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be In one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there Is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, If any).

• A. On the busy Ring Road
• B. we witnessed a collusion✓
• C. between a truck and an auto
• D. No error.

Explanation: The sentence contains an error in the word "collusion" in line B which means a secret collaboration or unlawful conspiracy aimed at deceiving others. The correct word to use in this context is "collision," which refers to a violent impact between two objects, such as a truck and an auto. So the corrected sentence would be: We witnessed a collision between a truck and an auto

Q12. Spot the error. The result of the laboratory test are available at the administrative building near the campus center.

• A. Test
• B. Are✓
• C. Administrative
• D. Center

Explanation: The error in the sentence is the subject-verb agreement. The correct form should be: "The result of the laboratory test is available at the administrative building near the campus center." The verb "is" should agree with the singular subject "result."

Q13. Spot the error. Yesterday I went to the store and I was getting milk for my cereal.

• A. I
• B. store
• C. I was getting✓
• D. my

Explanation: “I was getting’’ is wrong. The verb tense in the second part of the sentence should be consistent with the past tense established in the first part.

Q14. Spot the error. His attitude snotty, short tempered and was impatient

• A. Snotty
• B. and
• C. was✓
• D. Impatient

Explanation: The original sentence, "His attitude snotty, short-tempered and was impatient," is grammatically incorrect because it lacks proper parallel structure. When listing multiple adjectives or attributes describing a noun, they should be in the same grammatical form. In this case, the adjectives "snotty," "short-tempered," and "impatient" should be consistent. The corrected sentence uses a parallel structure, maintaining the same form for all the adjectives: "His attitude was snotty, short-tempered, and impatient." In this corrected sentence: "was" establishes the past tense verb form. The adjectives "snotty," "short-tempered," and "impatient" are parallel in structure, all describing the noun "attitude." This version adheres to proper grammar and parallelism.

Q15. Spot the error. Alex has always enloyed snorkeling. but not to sail.

• A. has
• B. always
• C. enjoyed
• D. to sail✓

Explanation: The correct phrasing for the sentence would be: "Alex has always enjoyed snorkeling but not sailing." In this sentence, "sailing" is used as a gerund (the -ing form of the verb used as a noun) and is correctly paired with the infinitive "to snorkel." This structure maintains parallelism and makes the sentence grammatically correct.

Q16. Spot the error. I felt badly for the organizers because hardly no one attended the banquet.

• A. badly✓
• B. the
• C. because
• D. attended

Explanation: The correct phrasing of the sentence would be: "I felt bad for the organizers because hardly anyone attended the banquet." In this version "Bad" is the correct adjective form to describe how you felt. The word "badly" is an adverb and would be used to describe how an action is performed, not how you feel emotionally.

Q17. All of the following are components of the Cell Theory EXCEPT

• A. All living things are composed of cells.
• B. All living things possess mitochondria✓
• C. Cooperation among cells allows for complex functioning in hying things
• D. All cells develop from pre-existing cells

Explanation: Mitochondria are not part of cell theory because they're found only in some cells, not all. For instance, bacteria, which are a type of cell, don't have mitochondria. Cell theory focuses on more general principles that apply to all cells.

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue in the human body?

• A. Connective tissue
• B. Nervous tissue
• C. Adipose tissue
• D. Cytoplasmic tissue✓

Explanation: "Cytoplasmic tissue" is not a recognized type of tissue in the human body. Cytoplasm is a component found within cells, but it is not considered a distinct tissue type like connective, nervous, or adipose tissue. The diagram over shows you the cytoplasm of the cell.

Q19. Which of the following types of nucleic acid will never be found in a virus?

• A. Single-stranded DNA
• B. Double-stranded DNA✓
• C. Single and double-stranded RNA
• D. All of these can be found in a virus

Explanation: Double-stranded DNA is typically not found in viruses. Viruses can contain single-stranded DNA, single-stranded RNA, or double-stranded RNA, but double-stranded DNA is not a common configuration for viral genetic material.

Q20. Which of the following activities occurs in the Golgi apparatus?

• A. Synthesis of proteins
• B. Modification and packaging of proteins✓
• C. Breakdown of lipids and carbohydrate
• D. Photosynthesi

Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying and packaging proteins and other molecules for transport within or outside the cell.

Q21. Mitochondrial DNA

• A. Is circular
• B. Is self-replicating
• C. Is important in the synthesis of mitochondrial ribosomes
• D. Both a and b✓

Explanation: "Both a and b" is the correct answer because both statements a) and b) are accurate descriptions of mitochondrial DNA. This Diagram shows circular mitochondrial DNA. REFERENCE: you can read about mitochondrial DNA from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, From chapter THE CELL.

Q22. Which of the folio wing is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic mticulum?

• A. Lipid synthesis
• B. Poison detoxification
• C. Protein synthesis✓
• D. Transport of proteins

Explanation: It is not directly involved in protein synthesis, which is the role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). REFERENCE: you can read about the functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter THE CELL.

Q23. What is the main function of the nucleolus?

• A. Ribosomal RNA synthesis✓
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Cell division
• D. Chromosomal assembly

Explanation: The main function of the nucleolus is to synthesize ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assemble ribosomes, which are essential cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. REFERENCE: You can read about the functions about nucleolus from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter THE CELL.

Q24. In which of the following organelles is pH the lowest?

• A. Lysosomes✓
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Lysosomes are the organelles known for having the lowest pH due to their acidic environment, which is necessary for their function in breaking down cellular waste and other materials.

Q25. Whith of the following is NOT involved in cell movement ?

• A. Cilia
• B. Flagella
• C. Actin
• D. Centrioles✓

Explanation: Centrioles help with cell division, not cell movement. They're like organizers for separating chromosomes during division. REFERENCE: You can read about centrioles from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD =, from chapter The cell.

Q26. At which pH would poncreatk enzymes work at maximum activity?

• A. 5.3
• B. 6.7
• C. 7.2
• D. 8.5✓

Explanation: It is mentioned in PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD. Chapter: ENZYMES Pg no: 10

Q27. Some enzymes require the presence of a nonomtein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n)

• A. Holoenzyme
• B. Apoenzyme✓
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Zymoenzyme

Explanation: An enzyme without its non-protein part (cofactor or coenzyme) is referred to as an apoenzyme. REFERENCE: You can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter the enzyme

Q28. Which of the following factors determine an enzyme's spedficity?

• A. The three-dimensional shape of the active site✓
• B. The Michaelis constant
• C. The type of cofactor required for the enzyme to be active
• D. The prosthetic group on the enzyme

Explanation: An enzyme's specificity is like a lock and key. The enzyme's shape (the lock) matches perfectly with its specific substrate (the key), allowing it to work on that substrate and catalyze a specific reaction. It's all about the enzyme's unique active site shape. REFERENCE: You can read about the characteristics of enzyme from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter the enzyme The other options, b) the Michaelis constant, c) the type of cofactor required, and d) the prosthetic group, are factors related to enzyme kinetics and cofactor requirements but are not primarily responsible for determining an enzyme's specificity.

Q29. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by

• A. Decreasing the activation energy.✓
• B. Increasing the overall free energy of the reaction.
• C. Both (A) and (B).
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. This reduction in activation energy makes it easier for reactant molecules to reach the transition state and proceed with the reaction REFERENCE: you can read about enzymes from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter the enzymes. Enzymes do not increase the overall free energy of the reaction, and the answer is not "both a and b" or "none of the above."

Q30. Which of the following INCORRECTLY pairs a metabolic process with Its site of occurrence?

• A. Glycolysis -> cytosol
• B. Citric acid cyle -> mitochondrial membrane✓
• C. All phosphorylation -> cytosol and mitchondria
• D. Electron transport chain -> Inner mitochondrial membrane

Explanation: The citric acid cycle happens inside the mitochondria but not in the mitochondrial membrane. It occurs in the watery part of the mitochondria called the matrix, not in the membrane. Rest all the options a,c and d are correct.

Q31. In which of the following reactions is the reactant oxidized?

• A. FAD -> FADH2
• B. NAD -> NADH✓
• C. NADPH -> NADP+
• D. ADP -> ATP

Explanation: When NAD turns into NADH, NAD gets oxidized. This means it loses electrons and gains an H+ ion, which is why it's called NADH (with an extra H for hydrogen).

Q32. In which part of the Cell would you expect to find cytochrome c?

• A. Mitochondrial matrix
• B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
• C. Inner mitochondrial membran✓
• D. Cytosol

Explanation: Cytochrome c is like an electron shuttle in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It helps move electrons between parts of the cell's energy production process, leading to ATP production. All the other options a,b and d are wrong.

Q33. Which of the following correctly describes the amount of ATP produced from the high energy carrier coenzymes?

• A. 1 FADH2 -> 1 ATP
• B. 1 FADH2 -> 3 ATP
• C. 1 NADH -> 1 ATP
• D. 1 NADH -> 3 ATP✓

Explanation: 1 NADH produces 3 ATP. This is because NADH donates electrons to the electron transport chain, leading to the pumping of protons (H+ ions) across the mitochondrial inner membrane. The flow of protons back through ATP synthase enzyme channels drives the synthesis of ATP.

Q34. What is the total amount of ATP yielded by the catabolism of one glucose molecule via the Krebs cycle?

• A. 6 ATPs
• B. 12 ATPs
• C. 24 ATPs
• D. 36 ATPs✓

Explanation: During the catabolism of one glucose molecule via the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle or TCA cycle) and oxidative phosphorylation, a total of 36 ATP molecules can be produced through the process of cellular respiration. This includes ATP generated directly in the Krebs cycle and a larger portion produced during oxidative phosphorylation as electrons from NADH and FADH2 are transferred through the electron transport chain. All the other options a,b and c are wrong.

Q35. Upon ovulation, the oacyte is released Into the

• A. Fallopian tube✓
• B. Follicle
• C. Abdominal cavity
• D. Uterus

Explanation: After ovulation, the egg is released into the fallopian tube. It's in the fallopian tube where it might meet sperm for fertilization to occur. REFERENCE: you can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter Reproduction

Q36. Which Of the following INCORRECTLY pairs the term with its definition?

• A. Scrotum -> location of the testes
• B. Epididymis is the site of sperm maturation
• C. Vas deferens -> tube connecting the epididymis to the prostate✓
• D. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperms

Explanation: The vas deferens is a tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra, not the prostate. It serves as a pathway for sperm to travel from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation. REFERENCE: You can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter Reproduction.

Q37. Which of the following is true regarding prophase?

• A. The chromosomes seplrate and move to opposite poles of the cell.
• B. The spindle apparatus disappears
• C. The chromosomes uncoil.
• D. The nucleoli disappear.✓

Explanation: During prophase of mitosis, the nucleoli within the nucleus disappear, and the chromatin (long, thin strands of DNA) condenses into visible chromosomes. Remaining three events mentioned in option a,b and c do not take place during prophase.

Q38. Which of the following INCORRECTLY pairs the term with its definition

• A. Seminal vesicles secrete sperm✓
• B. Urethra is the tube through which sperm is expelled from the body
• C. Seminiferous tubules are the initial site of sperm formation
• D. Interstitial cells produce testosterone and other androgens

Explanation: Seminal vesicles make fluid, not sperm. Their fluid helps sperm, which are made in the testes, to swim and survive. REFERENCE: you can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter Reproduction.

Q39. Which of the following associations Is INCORRECT?

• A. Endoderm -> thyrold
• B. Endoderm -> lens of the eye✓
• C. Ectoderm -> nails
• D. Mesoderm-> kidneys

Explanation: The statement "lens of the eye from endoderm" is incorrect. The lens of the eye develops from the ectoderm, not the endoderm. All the other options a,c and d are correct.

Q40. From which of the following germ layers does the notochord form?

• A. Ectoderm
• B. Mesoderm✓
• C. Endoderm
• D. Archenteron

Explanation: The notochord, which plays a crucial role in the development of the vertebrate skeleton, is derived from the mesoderm layer.

Q41. The placenta releases all of the following hormones EXCEPT:

• A. Progesterone
• B. LH✓
• C. HCG
• D. Estrogen
• E. Minerals

Explanation: LH is made by your pituitary gland, a small gland located underneath the brain. LH plays an important role in sexual development and functioning. In women, LH helps control the menstrual cycle. It also triggers the release of an egg from the ovary. Rest is released by the placenta.

Q42. During muscle contraction, which of the following legions decreaseIsIin length?

• A. 2 only
• B. 3 only
• C. 4 only
• D. 2 3 and 4✓

Explanation: During muscle contraction, 2(I band), 3(H zone) and 4 (sarcomere) regions decreases in length. I-band only contains thin filaments, H-zone contains only thick filaments and sarcomere is the smallest structural and functional unit of muscle fiber. REFERENCE: You can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter support and movement.

Q43. Region 1 refers to

• A. The thick filaments only
• B. The thin filaments only
• C. The A band.✓
• D. The I band.

Explanation: The A band is a dark, thick band in a muscle sarcomere where actin and myosin filaments overlap. It remains relatively constant in length during muscle contraction, giving muscles their striped appearance. REFERENCE: You can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter support and movement.

Q44. Which region represents one sarcomere?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4✓

Explanation: A sarcomere is like a tiny muscle unit. It's what makes muscles contract. Think of it as the building block of muscle, and when these blocks shorten, your muscles contract, allowing you to move. They give muscles their striped look. REFERENCE: you can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter support and movement.

Q45. With which of the following molecules does Ca2+ released front the sarcopiasmic retkulum bind?

• A. Myosin
• B. Actin
• C. Troponin✓
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: Calcium hooks onto troponin, a muscle protein linked to actin. This connection is crucial because it lets myosin and actin work together, making your muscles contract. REFERENCE: you can read about muscle contraction from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter support and movement.

Q46. When a muscle is attached to two banes, usually only one of the bones moves. The part of the muscle attached to the stationary bone is always referred to as

• A. The origin✓
• B. Proximal
• C. Distal
• D. Insertion

Explanation: "The origin" is the correct term for the point of attachment to the stationary bone. REFERENCE: You can read about muscles from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter support and movement.

Q47. Which type of muscle is always multinudeated? I. Cardiac muscle II Skeletal muscle llI Smooth muscle

• A. l only
• B. ll only✓
• C. lll only
• D. l and ll only

Explanation: Only skeletal muscle is multinucleated.

Q48. Which of the following associations between the type of mane cell or gland and Its secretions is correct?

• A. Mucous cells -> HCl
• B. Chid cells -> perpsinogen✓
• C. Parietal cells -> mucus
• D. Pyloric glands -> gastric juice

Explanation: Chief cells secrete pepsinogen. REFERENCE: You can read the secretions from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter nutrition.

Q49. Which of the following is NOT part of the small intestine?

• A. Ileum
• B. Cecum✓
• C. Jejunum
• D. Duodenum

Explanation: Cecum is the part of large intestine while all the other options a,c and d are the parts of small intestine.

Q50. Where are proteins digested?

• A. Mouth and stomach
• B. Stomach and large intestine
• C. Stomach and small intestine✓
• D. Small and large intestine

Explanation: Proteins start to break down in the stomach, thanks to the acid and an enzyme called pepsin. Then, in the small intestine, more enzymes join in to chop proteins into tiny pieces called amino acids, which your body uses. REFERENCE: You can read about this from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, from chapter nutrition

Q51. Microscope was invented by

• A. Galileo
• B. Robert Hooke
• C. Leeween Hooke✓
• D. Lorenz

Explanation: Microscope was invented by Leeween Hooke REFERENCE: It is mentioned in PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, in chapter Kingdom Prokaryotae (Monera) on page 2.

Q52. Both respiration and Photosynthesis require

• A. Sunlight
• B. Glucose
• C. Chlorophyll
• D. Cytochrome✓

Explanation: Both respiration and photosynthesis require cytochrome.

Q53. Primary Consumers are

• A. Sheep
• B. Goat
• C. Lion
• D. Both A and B✓
• E. All of the above

Explanation: Primary consumers are organisms that feed on plants or plant-based materials, and in this case, both sheep and goats are examples of primary consumers because they primarily graze on vegetation. Lions (c) are not primary consumers; they are carnivores that feed on other animals.

Q54. Which one of the following is green bile pigment

• A. Biliverdin✓
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Urobilin
• D. Urobilinogen

Explanation: Biliverdin is a blue-green pigment made during heme breakdown. It turns into yellow bilirubin, which you might see in bruises or bile.

Q55. Exocrine part of pwicreas produces

• A. Insulin
• B. Glucagon
• C. Growth hormone
• D. Pepsin
• E. Trypsin✓

Explanation: Trypsin is made by the pancreas to digest proteins. REFERENCE: You can read about hormones from PUNJAB TEXTBOOK BOARD, form chapter coordination and control.

Q56. Which of the following choices correctly illustrates the course that a piece of bread takes through the digestive tract?

• A. Mouth -> trachea -> esophagus -> cardiac sphincter -> stomach -> pyloric sphincter -> small intestine -> large intestine -> rectum -> anus
• B. Mouth -> pharynx -> esophagus -> cardiac sphincter -> stomach -> pyloric sphincter -> small intestine -> large intestine -> rectum -> anus✓
• C. Mouth -> pharynx -> esophagus -> pyloric sphincter -> stomach -> cardiac sphincter -> small Intestine -> large Intestine -> rectum -> anus
• D. Mouth -> pharynx -> esophagus -> cardiac sphincter -> stomach -> pyloric Sphincter -> small Intestine -> large Intestine -> anus -> rectum

Explanation: REFERENCE: The diagram is taken from Punjab textbook board from chapter ‘’NUTRITION’’ All the other options a,c and d are wrong.

Q57. Starch is hydrolyzed into maltose by

• A. Salivary amylase
• B. Maltase
• C. Pancreatic amylase
• D. Both (A) and (C).✓

Explanation: The correct answer is d) both a and c because salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase work together to break down starch into maltose at different stages of digestion.

Q58. The Intestinal capillaries transport nutrients from the intestinal to the

• A. Large intestine
• B. Liver✓
• C. Kidney
• D. Heart

Explanation: The intestinal capillaries transport nutrients from the intestines to the liver.

Q59. Which of the following associations between the two stages of respiration and the contraction of muscles is correct?

• A. Inhalation -> diaphragm relaxes
• B. Inhalation -> external intercostal muscles relax✓
• C. Exhalation -> diaphragm contracts
• D. Exhalation-> external intercostal muscles relax

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q60. What does negative-pressure breathing refer to?

• A. Breathing in low-oxygen conditions
• B. Breathing in low-pressure conditions
• C. Inhalation✓
• D. Breathing with use of a ventilator

Explanation: Negative pressure breathing is how our lungs fill with air. When we inhale, our diaphragm and other muscles contract, creating lower pressure inside our chest compared to the outside air, which pulls air into our lungs. It's how most mammals, including humans, naturally breathe.

Q61. Which is the correct sequence of passageways through which air travels during inhalation?

• A. Pharynx -> trachea -> bronchioles -> bronchi -> alveoli
• B. Pharynx -> trachea -> lungs -> bronchi -> alveoli
• C. Larynx -> pharynx -> trachea -> bronchi -> alveoli
• D. Pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> bronchi -> alveoli✓

Explanation: The sequence of passage ways through which air travels during inhalation is: Pharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchi Alveoli All the other options are wrong.

Q62. Which Is the correct sequence of a cardiac impulse?

• A. SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His -> ventricles,✓
• B. AV node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> SA node -> ventricles -> atria
• C. SA node -> atria -> AV. node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> Ventricles
• D. SA node -> AV node -> atria -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> ventricles

Explanation: The cardiac impulse travels in the following sequence: SA node AV node Purkinje fiber Bundle of HIS Ventricles All the other options are wrong.

Q63. Which of the following correctly traces the circulatory pathway?

• A. Superior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta✓
• B. Superior vena cava → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta
• C. Aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → superior vena cava
• D. Superior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary veins → lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta

Explanation: This option correctly traces the circulatory pathway. It starts with the superior vena cava, which brings deoxygenated blood from the upper body into the right atrium. From there, the blood passes through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then pumps the deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs. In the lungs, the blood gets oxygenated, and the oxygenated blood is returned to the heart through the pulmonary veins. The pulmonary veins empty the oxygenated blood into the left atrium. From the left atrium, the blood passes through the mitral (bicuspid) valve into the left ventricle. Finally, the left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood out of the heart and into the aorta, the largest artery in the body, for distribution to the rest of the body.

Q64. The tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the

• A. Left ventricle into the left atrium.
• B. Aorta into the left ventricle.
• C. Pulmonary artery into the right ventricle.
• D. Right ventricle into the right atrium.✓

Explanation: The atrioventricular valves are located between the atria and the ventricles on both sides of the heart. Their role is to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. The valve on the right side of the heart has three cusps and is called the tricuspid valve. As such, it prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, making (D) the correct answer. The valve on the left side of the heart has two cusps and is called the bicuspid or mitral valve (early anatomists thought this valve looked like a miter, the hat traditionally worn by bishops). The mitral valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.

Q65. An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs on immediate blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you, as her doctor, give her?

• A. A+
• B. AB+
• C. O+
• D. O-✓

Explanation: In emergencies when you don't know a patient's blood type, give them O-negative (O-) blood. It's considered universal donor blood, safe for most recipients, reducing the risk of bad reactions due to different blood types.

Q66. Which of the following Is Involved in antibody production?

• A. Plasma cells✓
• B. Memory cells
• C. Helper cells
• D. Cytotoxic cells

Explanation: Plasma cells, a type of white blood cell, make antibodies to fight infections. Antibodies help identify and neutralize harmful invaders like viruses and bacteria.

Q67. Which of the following would most likely be filtered through the glomerulus Into Bowman's capsule?

• A. Erythrocytes
• B. Monosaccharides✓
• C. Platelets
• D. Proteins

Explanation: The glomerulus in the renal (kidney) nephron primarily filters small molecules and waste products from the blood into Bowman's capsule. Monosaccharides, being small molecules, are more likely to be filtered through the glomerulus. a)Erythrocytes (red blood cells), c)platelets, and d)proteins are generally too large to be filtered through the glomerular filtration barrier and are typically retained in the bloodstream.

Q68. Glucose reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the

• A. The loop of Henle
• B. distal convoluted tubule
• C. Proximal convoluted tubule.✓
• D. Collecting duct

Explanation: Glucose reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the primary site of glucose reabsorption in the nephron. It reabsorbs glucose and other valuable substances from the filtrate back into the bloodstream to prevent their loss in the urine.

Q69. Iodine deficiency may result in

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Cretinism✓
• C. Gigantism
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Explanation: Iodine deficiency can lead to cretinism, a condition characterized by severe intellectual and physical disabilities, especially when iodine deficiency occurs during pregnancy or early childhood. It affects proper thyroid hormone production, which is crucial for normal development.

Q70. Which of the following hormones is NOT derived from cholesterol?

• A. Aldosterone
• B. Testosterone
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Progesterone

Explanation: Oxytocin is not a hormone derived from cholesterol. It is a peptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. The other options, a)aldosterone,b) testosterone, and d)progesterone, are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol.

Q71. Ozytocin and vasopressin are

• A. Produced and released by the hypothalamus.
• B. Produced and released by the pituitary
• C. Produeed by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary.✓
• D. Produced by the pituitary and released by the hypothalamus.

Explanation: Oxytocin and vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone or ADH) are produced by the hypothalamus but released by the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus synthesizes these hormones and sends signals to the posterior pituitary to release them into the bloodstream when needed. All the other options are wrong.

Q72. If a male hemophiliac (X*Y) is crossed with a female carrier of both color blindness and hemophilia mot what is the probability that a female child will be phenotypically normal?

• A. 0%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%✓
• D. Same as for a male child

Explanation: Let's break down the given information and calculate the probability of a phenotypically normal female child when a male hemophiliac (X*Y) is crossed with a female carrier of both color blindness and hemophilia (XX). • The male is hemophiliac (X*Y), which means he carries the hemophilic allele on his X chromosome and a Y chromosome without the hemophilic allele. The female is a carrier of both color blindness and hemophilia (XX). This means she has one normal X chromosome(X) and one X chromosome with the hemophilic allele (X*). Now, let's calculate the probability for each gender: 1. Male child:In this case, the male child will inherit the Y chromosome from the father and one X chromosome from the mother (X). • The male child will be phenotypically normal because he does not inherit the X chromosome with the hemophilic allele. • Probability of a phenotypically normal male child = 100% (1.0). 2. Female child: In this case, the female child can inherit either the X chromosome without the hemophilic allele (X) or the X chromosome with the hemophilic allele（X*).The female child will be phenotypically normal if she inherits the Xchromosome without the hemophilic allele (X). Probability of a phenotypically normal female child = 50% (0.5). So, the probability that a female child will be phenotypically normal is 50% (option C). This probability is different from that of a male child because females inherit two X chromosomes, and they have a 50% chance of inheriting the normal X chromosome without the hemophilic allele.

Q73. In a species of plant, a homozygous dominant red flower (AR) Is crossed with a homozygous recesslue yellow flower (rr). If the F, generation is self-crossed and the F, generation has a phenotype ratio of red:orange:yellow of 1:2:1, which event accounts far these results?

• A. Codominance
• B. Incomplete dominance✓
• C. Penetrance
• D. Expressivity

Explanation: Incomplete dominance is the correct answer. In this case, the heterozygous condition (Rr) results in an intermediate phenotype (orange), which is a blending of the traits of the homozygous parents (red and yellow).This explains the phenotype ratio of 1:2:1. Representation: In the case of incomplete dominance, a Punnett square might be used to illustrate the expected phenotypic ratios in the offspring. Here's a simplified representation: • RR (red) x rr (yellow) • RR (red) x rr (yellow) F1 generation: Rr, all orange) • Rr (orange) × Rr (orange) (F2 generation: red:orange:yellow in a 1:2:1 ratio)

Q74. In the DNA of a fruit fly (Drosophilo melanoposter ). 20 percent of the bases are cytosines. What percent are adenines?

• A. 20%
• B. 30%
• C. 40%
• D. 60%✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer because adenines are present in the same proportion as cytosines (20% cytosines,20% adenines) due to the complementary pairing

Q75. You have just sequenced a piece of DNA that reads as follows: 5' -TCTTTGAGACATCC-3 What would be the base sequence of the mRNA transcribed from this DNA?

• A. 5'-AGAAACUCUGUAGG-3'
• B. 5'-GGATGTCCAAAGA-3'✓
• C. 5'-AGAAACTCTGTAGG-3'
• D. 5'-GGATGTCCAAAGA-3'

Explanation: This option correctly replaces thymine with uracil and matches the sequence provided

Q76. Plants cell differs front an animal cells In the absence of:

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Ribosomes
• D. Centrioles (Centrosome)✓

Explanation: Centrioles are an organelle found in animal cells that play a crucial role in cell division. They are typically absent in plant cells.

Q77. Cell drinking process Is correct:

• A. Phagocytosis
• B. Exocytosis
• C. Pinocytosis✓
• D. Endocytosis

Explanation: Pinocytosis is the process of "cell drinking" and involves the ingestion of fluids and dissolved substances by the cell.

Q78. Primary cell wall chemically composed of:

• A. Ca* and Mg* pectate
• B. Hemicellulose and Cellulose✓
• C. Lignin, salts, waxes
• D. All of these

Explanation: The primary cell wall of plant cells is primarily composed of hemicellulose and cellulose. These are structural polysaccharides that provide strength and rigidity to plant cell walls, contributing to the cell's overall structural integrity.

Q79. Site of hereditary characters in cell is:

• A. Nucleus✓
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. Chromosomes
• D. Nucleolus

Explanation: The nucleus is the central and most essential organelle in a eukaryotic cell that contains genetic material in the form of chromosomes. It is the site of hereditary information, including genes that carry the instructions for the cell's activities and the inheritance of traits.

Q80. Plastid and Mitochondria contain:

• A. Respiratory pigments
• B. Glycolytic Enzymes
• C. Autonomic genome system✓
• D. Same structural characteristics

Explanation: Both plastids and mitochondria have their own DNA and can replicate independently. This is often referred to as an "autonomous genome system" because they can control their own genetic processes to some extent.

Q81. Mesosomes are found in:

• A. Prokaryotic cells✓
• B. Anaerobic cells
• C. Aerobic cells
• D. Virus

Explanation: Mesosomes are infoldings or invaginations of the plasma membrane in prokaryotic cells, specifically in bacteria. They are not found in eukaryotic cells or viruses.Mesosomes play a role in various cellular processes in prokaryotic cells, such as respiration and DNA replication.

Q82. Spindle are composed of mainly a protein Called:

• A. Histone
• B. Tubulin✓
• C. Zeatin
• D. Auxin

Explanation: The spindle fibers, also known as microtubules, are primarily composed of a protein called tubulin. Tubulin is a structural protein that polymerizes to form microtubules, which are essential for various cellular processes, including mitosis and meiosis.

Q83. Carotenoid means

• A. Carotene only
• B. Xanthophylls
• C. Both of these✓
• D. None of These

Explanation: Carotenoids encompass a wide range of pigments, including carotenes (like carotene) and xanthophylls. These pigments are responsible for the yellow, orange, and red colors found in various plants and fruits

Q84. Tonoplast is the membrane of:

• A. Vacuole✓
• B. Cell
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Nucleus

Explanation: The tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds the vacuole in plant cells. It separates the vacuole, which is a large, fluid-filled organelle, from the rest of the cell.

Q85. Polio virus are:

• A. Rod-shaped virus
• B. Tadpoles virus
• C. Gool ball-like virus
• D. Star-shaped viruses✓

Explanation: Polio viruses have an icosahedral (spherical) shape, not a star-shaped one. They are part of the Enterovirus genus.

Q86. Vaccination was introduced by:

• A. Louis Pasteur
• B. Robert Koch
• C. Edward Jenner✓
• D. Chamberland

Explanation: Edward Jenner is credited with introducing the concept of vaccination. He developed the smallpox vaccine in the late 18th century, a significant milestone in the history of immunization. His work laid the foundation for modern vaccination practices.

Q87. Common cold is caused to humans by the:

• A. Rhinovirus✓
• B. Parvovirus
• C. Adenovirus
• D. Oncovirus

Explanation: The correct answer is A. Rhinovirus, as rhinoviruses are one of the most common causes of the human common cold.

Q88. Which structure is absent In Euglena?

• A. Cell membrane
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. Nucleas
• D. Cell wall✓

Explanation: Euglena is a unicellular protist that possesses a flexible pellicle (a proteinaceous layer beneath the cell membrane) that provides structural support and shape to the cell. Unlike many other protists, Euglena lacks a rigid cell wall, allowing it to change its shape and exhibit motility through the use of its flagellum.

Q89. Trypsanosoma Is an example of _.

• A. Flagellata✓
• B. Oliata
• C. Sarcodina
• D. Sporozo

Explanation: Trypanosoma is a well-known member of the Flagellata group, which includes flagellated protists. Trypanosoma is characterized by its single flagellum and causes diseases like African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) and Chagas disease.

Q90. After penetrating into the hepatic cell each sporozolle grows and pass asexual reproduction called:

• A. Trophozoites
• B. Metaporozoite
• C. Schizont✓
• D. Cryptozoites

Explanation: Schizonts are the stage in which asexual reproduction occurs following the invasion of hepatic cells byt sporozoites. In the life cycle of certain parasitic protozoa, including Plasmodium (the causative agent of malaria), sporozoites are injected into the host's bloodstream by the bite of an infected mosquito. These sporozoites then invade the liver cells. Within the liver cells, they undergo asexual reproduction to form schizonts. Schizonts contain multiple daughter merozoites, which are subsequently released from the liver cells and go on to infect red blood cells, continuing the malaria infection cygle.

Q91. Malaria is caused by;

• A. Trypanosome
• B. Plasmodium✓
• C. Monocytis
• D. Entamoeba histolytica

Explanation: Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasite, with several species of Plasmodium responsible for different forms of the disease in humans.

Q92. Non-septate hyphae are called as:

• A. Tuber
• B. Coenocytic✓
• C. Both of them
• D. None

Explanation: Coenocytic (or coenocytic) hyphae are fungal hyphae that lack septa, which are the cross-walls typically found in the hyphae of most fungi. Instead, coenocytic hyphae are multinucleate and contain multiple nuclei within a continuous, undivided cytoplasm.

Q93. Pratonema is a stage in the lifecycle of:

• A. All bryophytes✓
• B. Ricissia
• C. Cycas
• D. None

Explanation: Protonema is the filamentous,photosynthetic stage in the life cycle of bryophytes (non-vascular plants) like mosses. It serves as the early stage following spore germination and eventually gives rise to the mature gametophyte plant.

Q94. Tracheophytes are:

• A. Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms✓
• B. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
• C. Pteridophytes and gymnosperm
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Tracheophytes are vascular plants that have specialized tissues (xylem and phloem) for the transport of water and nutrients. This group includes pteridophytes (ferns and allies), gymnosperms (conifers, cycads, etc.), and angiosperms (flowering plants).

Q95. Gymnosperms are characterized by the:

• A. Absence of seeds
• B. Presence of flowers
• C. Presence of seeds in cones✓
• D. Absence of vascular tissues

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q96. The endosperm in plants Is

• A. Absence of seeds
• B. Presence of flowers
• C. Post-fertilization tissue✓
• D. Absence of vascular tissues

Explanation: The endosperm is a nutritive tissue in the seeds of flowering plants (angiosperms). It develops after fertilization and serves to nourish the developing embryo. It is formed through a process that occurs post-fertilization.

Q97. HNO3 (aq)+ OH- (aq) -> H2O(l) + NO3-(aq) In the reaction above, which species is the conjugate acid?

• A. HNO3 (aq)
• B. OH- (aq)
• C. H2O (l)✓
• D. NO3-aq
• E. There is no conjugate acid in the above reaction.

Explanation: In this reaction, H20 gains a proton (H+) to form HNO2. This transformation from H2O to HNO2 makes H2O the conjugate acid. Now, let's explain the incorrect answers: (A, B, D, E) do not accurately represent the species acting as the conjugate acid in the given reaction.

Q98. A process involving no heat exchange is known as

• A. An isothermal process
• B. An isobaric process.
• C. An adiabatic process✓
• D. An isometric process.

Explanation: An adiabatic process is one where there is no heat exchange with the surroundings. The internal energy of the system changes due to work done on or by the system, but no heat is transferred.It's represented by the equation Q = 0. (A, B, D) represent different types of processes, but "adiabatic process" specifically refers to a process with no heat exchange.

Q99. In the equilibrium expression for the reaction BaSO4(s)= Ba2+ (aq) + SO42- (aq) Ksp is equal to

• A. [Ba2+][SO42-]
• B. [Ba2-][SO42-]/[BaSO4]
• C. [Ba2+][SO42-]/[BaSO4]✓
• D. [BaSO4]/[Ba2+][SO42-]

Explanation: The equilibrium constant expression (Ksp) for a sparingly soluble salt like BaSO4 is the product of the concentrations of the ions in the solution (Ba2+ and SO42-) divided by the solubility product of the solid salt (BaSO4). (A, B, D) represent variations of the equilibrium expression that do not match the correct form of the expression.

Q100. Which one of the following Serves to maintain charge neutrality in both half. reaction vessels

• A. Anode
• B. Cathode
• C. Salt bridge✓
• D. Voltmeter
• E. Electrical wire

Explanation: A salt bridge is used in electrochemical cells to maintain charge neutrality by allowing the flow of ions between the half-cells, preventing a buildup of charge that would inhibit the cell's operation. (A, B, D, E) do not serve the purpose of maintaining charge neutrality in an electrochemical cell

Q101. Location of oxidation in an electrochemical cell Is

• A. Anode✓
• B. Cathode
• C. Salt bridge
• D. Voltmeter
• E. Electrical wire

Explanation: In an electrochemical cell, oxidation occurs at the anode, where electrons are lost by the species undergoing oxidation. (B, C, D, E represent different components of an electrochemical cell but do not indicate the location of oxidation.)

Q102. 2Na+...Cl2 ->.. .2NaCl Which of the following Is true of the reaction given by the equation above?

• A. Chlorine oxidized
• B. Sodium is oxidized✓
• C. Sodium is oxidizing agent
• D. Both sodium and chlorine are oxidized
• E. Neither sodium nor chlorine are oxidized nor reduced.

Explanation: In this reaction, sodium (Na) goes from its elemental form (0 oxidation state) to forming Na+ ions (oxidation state +1). This change indicates that sodium is oxidized. (A, C, D, E) do not accurately identify the species undergoing oxidation in the given reaction.

Q103. The oxidation state of manganese (Mn) in the compound potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is

• A. +7✓
• B. +4
• C. 0
• D. -4
• E. -7

Explanation: • In potassium permanganate (KMO4), there is a potassium ion (Kt) and a permanganate ion (MnO4-). • To find the oxidation state of manganese (Mn), we can consider the oxidation states of the other elements in the compound. Potassium (K) is an alkali metal, and in compounds, it typically has an oxidation state of +1. • Oxygen (0) is generally assigned an oxidation state of -2 in compounds. • The sum of the oxidation states of all the elements in a compound should equal the overall charge of the compound. Now, let's calculate the oxidation state of manganese (Mn): • Let x be the oxidation state of Mn. • The oxidation state of potassium (K) is +1, and there is only one potassium ion in the compound, so its contribution is +1. The oxidation state of oxygen (0) is -2, and there are four oxygen atoms in the permanganate ion, so their total contribution is -2 * 4 = -8. • The overall charge of the permanganate ion (MnO4-) is -1. Now, we can set up an equation: x+1+ (-8) =-1 Simplifying the equation: x- 7=-1 Adding 7 to both sides: × = +7 So, the oxidation state of manganese (Mn) in potassium permanganate (KMO4) is +7.

Q104. In the following diagram, which labeled arrow represents the activation energy for the reverse reaction ?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: In an energy diagram for a chemical reaction, you will typically see a curve representing the potential energy of the reactants on the left side and a curve representing the potential energy of the products on the right side. The activation energy for the forward reaction is the energy difference between the reactants and the highest point on the curve, which represents the transition state. To find the activation energy for the reverse reaction, you would look for the energy difference between the products and the highest point on the curve when going from products to reactants. It's essentially the energy required to overcome the energy barrier in the reverse direction

Q105. According to chemical kinetic theory, a reaction can occur

• A. If the reactants collide with the proper orientation.
• B. If the reactants possess sufficient energy of collision.
• C. If the reactants are able to a form a correct transition state
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: According to chemical kinetic theory, for a chemical reaction to occur, the reactants must collide with proper orientation (A), possess sufficient energy of collision (B), and be able to form a correct transition state (C). Therefore, all of the statements (A, B, and C) are true, leading to the correct answer D. For question 89, all the statements (A, B, C) are true, so none of them are incorrect.

Q106. At equilibrium

• A. The forward reaction will continue
• B. A change in reaction conditions may shift the equilibrium.
• C. The reverse reaction will not continue
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate, so the forward reaction will continue (A). However, a change in reaction conditions, such as temperature or concentration, may shift the equilibrium position (B). For question 90, the incorrect answers (A, C) do not accurately represent the characteristics of equilibrium. At equilibrium, both the forward and reverse reactions continue at the same rate (A), and equilibrium can be shifted by changing conditions (C).

Q107. H2SO4 is a strong add because it Is

• A. Slightly Ionized
• B. Unstable
• C. An organic compound
• D. Highly ionized✓

Explanation: H2SO4 (sulfuric acid) is considered a strong acid because it ionizes almost completely in water,releasing a large number of Ht ions (protons). The correct answer is D because it is highly ionized, leading to a high concentration of H+ ions in solution. the incorrect answers (A, B, C) do not accurately describe why H2SO4 is a strong acid. H2O4 is considered strong because it is highly ionized in water (D).

Q108. According to the Bronsted - Lowry Theory, an acid Is

• A. A proton donor✓
• B. A proton acceptor
• C. An electron donor
• D. An electron acceptor

Explanation: According to the Bronsted-Lowry Theory, an acid is a substance that can donate a proton (H+ ion). Therefore, it is a proton donor (A). The Bronsted-Lowry Theory is based on proton transfer in chemical reactions. the incorrect answers (B, C, D) do not accurately describe the Bronsted-Lowry Theory. According to this theory, an acid is a proton donor (A).

Q109. If 10 ml of 1 M HCL was required to titrate a 20-mLNaOH solution of unknown concentration to its end point, what was the concentration of NaOH

• A. 0.5 M.✓
• B. 1.5 M
• C. 2 M
• D. 2.5 M

Explanation: To find the concentration of NaOH, you can use the concept of stoichiometry in acid-base titrations. The balanced chemical equation for the reaction between HCI and NaOH is: HCI + NaOH → NaCI + H20 • The mole ratio between HCl and NaOH is 1:1, which means 1 mole of HCI reacts with 1 mole of NaOH. • Since the volume and concentration of HCI are known (10 mL of 1 M), you can calculate the moles of HCl used. Moles of HCI = Volume (L) × Concentration (M) = 0.010 L x 1 M = 0.010 moles of HCI • Because of the 1:1 mole ratio, this also represents the moles of NaOH used. • Now, calculate the concentration of NaOH using the moles and volume of NaOH used: Concentration (M) = Moles / Volume (L) = 0.010 moles / 0.020 L = 0.5 M By using the above formulas the other options are incorrect

Q110. The extent of ionization depends on the

• A. Nature of the solvent✓
• B. Nature of the solute
• C. Concentration of the solution
• D. Temperature of the solution

Explanation: The extent of ionization of a solute in a solution, particularly for weak electrolytes or non-electrolytes, is influenced by the nature of the solvent.Solvation (the interaction between solute and solvent molecules) plays a crucial role in determining the degree to which a solute dissociates into ions. Different solvents can have different solvating abilities, affecting ionization.

Q111. In the ekstrolysis of copper chloride the substance liberated t the anode is

• A. Copper
• B. Chlorine✓
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Copper chloride

Explanation: During the electrolysis of copper chloride (CuCI2), chlorine gas (CI2) is liberated at the anode. At the anode, chloride ions (CI-) are oxidized to form chlorine gas (CI2).

Q112. The cathode in an electrochemical cell is the electrode that is

• A. Always negative✓
• B. Always positive
• C. Always neutral
• D. The electrode at which reduction takes place

Explanation: The cathode is the electrode in an electrochemical cell where reduction (gain of electrons) takes place. Reduction results in a decrease in the oxidation state or a gain of negative charge, making the cathode always negative in terms of charge. So, the correct answer is "Always negative."

Q113. The most active nonmetallic element is

• A. Chlorine
• B. Fluorine✓
• C. Oxygen
• D. Sulfur

Explanation: Fluorine (F) is the most active nonmetallic element. It is highly reactive and has the highest electronegativity among the elements. Fluorine readily forms compounds by gaining electrons, making it the most reactive nonmetal.

Q114. The order of decreasing activity of the halogens is

• A. FI, Cl, Br
• B. F, Cl, Br, I✓
• C. CI, F, Br, I
• D. CI, Br, I, F

Explanation: The halogens are a group of elements in Group 17 (Group VIIA) of the periodic table. They become less reactive as you go down the group. Fluorine (F) is the most reactive halogen, followed by chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), and iodine (I), in that order. So, the correct order of decreasing activity is F > Cl > Br > I, which corresponds to option B.

Q115. A light-sensitive substance used on photographic films has the formula

• A. AgBr✓
• B. CaF2
• C. CuCI
• D. MgBr2

Explanation: AgBr, which stands for silver bromide, is a light-sensitive substance commonly used in photographic films and photographic papers. • When exposed to light, silver bromide undergoes a chemical reaction in which it decomposes into silver ions (Ag+) and bromine ions (Br-). This reaction forms latent image centers that can later be developed into visible images during the latent image centers that can later be developed into visible images during the photographic development process. • Silver bromide's light sensitivity and ability to capture images make it a key component in traditional film photography.

Q116. Ammonia is prepared commercially by the

• A. Ostwald process
• B. Haber process✓
• C. Arc process
• D. Contact process

Explanation: The Haber process is the industrial method for the production of ammonia (NH3) from nitrogen gas (N2) and hydrogen gas (H2). It involves a catalytic reaction under high pressure and temperature conditions to produce ammonia, which is widely used in various industries, including agriculture and chemical manufacturing.

Q117. An important ore of Iron is

• A. Bauxite
• B. Galena
• C. Hematite✓
• D. Smithsonite

Explanation: Hematite (Fe2O3) is a significant iron ore and one of the primary sources of iron used in the production of iron and steel. It is characterized by its reddish-brown color and is widely mined for its iron content.

Q118. Coke is produced from bituminous coal by

• A. Craciong
• B. Synthesis
• C. Substitution
• D. Destructive distillation✓

Explanation: Destructive distillation is a process in which organic materials, such as coal, are heated in the absence of air to break them down into simpler substances. When bituminous coal undergoes destructive distillation, it produces coke, volatile gases, and other byproducts. Coke is a valuable fuel and carbon source used in various industrial processes, especially in the production of iron and steel

Q119. The "lead" in a lead pencil is

• A. Bone black
• B. Graphite and clay✓
• C. Lead oxide
• D. Lead peroxide

Explanation: Contrary to its name, lead pencils do not contain lead. The "lead" in a lead pencil is a mixture of two main components: graphite and clay. • Graphite is a form of carbon that leaves marks on paper when it is applied. It is responsible for the pencil's ability to write or draw. • Clay is used as a binder to hold the graphite together and give it a solid form that can be easily used for writing and drawing.Lead pencils were historically named for the mistaken belief that they contained lead, but this misconception led to health concerns. Modern pencils are made with graphite and clay for safe and effective writing and drawing.

Q120. Slight oxidation of a primary alcohol gives

• A. A ketone
• B. An organic acid
• C. An ether
• D. An aldehyde✓
• E. An ester

Explanation: When a primary alcohol undergoes slight oxidation, it typically forms an aldehyde. • This oxidation reaction involves the removal of hydrogen atoms from the primary alcohol, leaving a carbony group (C=0) attached to one carbon atom. • Aldehydes are organic compounds with a carbony group at the end of a carbon chain, and they are denoted by the general formula RCHO, where R represents an alkyl or hydrogen group. • Aldehydes are intermediates in various organic reactions and are commonly encountered in organic chemistry.

Q121. The characteristic group of the organic ester is

• A. CO
• B. OOH
• C. CHO
• D. COO✓

Explanation: The ester functional group is denoted by the structure RCOO, where R represents an alkyl or aryl group. • In the ester group, there is a carbony! group (C=0) bonded to one oxygen atom (0), and another oxygen atom is bonded to the carbon atom (C) of the carbony! group. The COO group is responsible for the unique chemical properties and reactivity of esters. Esters are commonly used in the synthesis of various organic compounds and are known for their pleasant fruity or floral odors, often found in natural scents and flavors.

Q122. An ester can be prepared by the reaction of

• A. Two alcohols
• B. An alcohol and an aldehyde
• C. An alcohol and an organic acid✓
• D. An organic acid and an aldehyde
• E. An acid and a ketone:

Explanation: The formation of an ester typically involves a reaction between an alcohol and an organic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst. • This reaction is known as esterification, and it results in the formation of an ester and water.The general chemical equation for esterification is as follows: Alcohol + Organic Acid = Ester + Water

Q123. Compounds that have the same composition but differ in their structural formulas

• A. Are used for substitution products
• B. Are called Isomers✓
• C. Are called polymers
• D. Have the same properties
• E. Are usually alkanes

Explanation: Isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula (same types and numbers of atoms) but different structural arrangements or spatial orientations of the atoms.Isomers exhibit distinct chemical and physical properties because of the differences in their structural arrangements. This phenomenon is common in organic chemistry, where molecules with the same atoms can have multiple structural isomers. Incorrect Options A, C, and Dare not accurate descriptions of compounds with different structural formulas

Q124. Ethene Is first member of the

• A. Alkane series
• B. Saturated hydrocarbons
• C. Alkene series✓
• D. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
• E. Aromatic hydrocarbons

Explanation: Ethene, also known as ethylene, is the first member of the alkene series. Alkenes are a class of unsaturated hydrocarbons characterized by the presence of a carbon-carbon double bond (-C=C-).

Q125. Which of the following statements Is true of ethene?

• A. Both carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized, and the molecule is planar.✓
• B. Both carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized and all bond angles are approximately 109.5o.
• C. One carbon atom is sp hybridized while the other is sp2
• D. Both carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized, and all bond angles are approximately 109.5°
• E. Both carbon atoms are sp hybridized, and the molecule is planar

Explanation: Ethene (C2H4) is a planar molecule where each carbon atom is sp2 hybridized. It forms a carbon-carbon double bond, and the bond angles around each carbon atom are approximately 120 degrees. This results in a flat, planar structure.

Q126. Which of the following is the formulas for a noncydic, saturated hydrocarbon ?

• A. C7H12
• B. C7H14.✓
• C. C7H16
• D. C7H18
• E. C7H13

Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons composed of single carbon-carbon bonds and are characterized by the general formula CnH2n+2, where "n" represents' the number of carbon atoms. In this case, with seven carbon atoms (n =7), the formula would be C7H2(7)+2, which simplifies to C7H14.

Q127. What functional groups ore present in the compound below ?

• A. Ester and ether
• B. Ester and amine
• C. Ether and Carboxylic acid✓
• D. Ether and ketone

Explanation: The compound contains an ether functional group (C--O--C), which is characterized by an oxygen atom bonded to two carbon atoms.It also contains a carboxylic acid functional group (COOH), which is characterized by a carbonyl group (C=0) bonded to a group (COOH), which is characterized by a carbony group (C=0) bonded to a hydroxyl group (OH).

Q128. The Mg2+ ion has how many electron?

• A. 12
• B. 10 electrons✓
• C. 14
• D. 24

Explanation: Magnesium (Mg) typically has 12 electrons in its neutral state because its atomic number is 12. However, when it forms the Mg2+ ion, it loses two electrons, resulting in 10 electrons. This is because ions carry a charge equal to the difference between the number of protons and electrons. The other options are incorrect By the above explanation A C D options are incorrect

Q129. If the principal quantum number of a shell is equal to 2, what types of orbitals will be present ?

• A. s
• B. s and p orbitals
• C. s, p, and d orbitals✓
• D. s, p, d, and f orbitals

Explanation: When the principal quantum number (n) is equal to 2, there are three types of orbitals present in that shell: s, p, and d orbitals. These orbitals correspond to the various subshells within the second energy level.

Q130. Which of the following correctly represents an excited state of scandium?

• A. 2p
• B. 3S
• C. 3d
• D. 4s✓
• E. 3p

Explanation: An excited state of an atom occurs when one or more electrons have moved to higher energy orbitals. In scandium (Sc), the electron configuration in its ground state is 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p6 3d1 4s?. The 4s orbital is at a higher energy level than the 3d orbital. So, when scandium is in an excited state, one or more electrons from the 4s orbital can move to higher-energy orbitals, such asy the 3d orbital. Therefore, option D (4s) move to higher-energy orbitals, such as the 3d orbital. Therefore, option D (4s) correctly represents an excited state of scandium.

Q131. The order of the elements in the periodic Table is based on

• A. The number of neutrons
• B. The radius of the atom
• C. The atomic number✓
• D. The atomic weight
• E. The number of oxidation states

Explanation: The order of the elements in the periodic table is primarily based on the atomic number, which represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. The atomic number is a fundamental property of elements and uniquely identifies each element. Elements in the periodic table are arranged in order of increasing atomic number, which allows for a systematic organization of elements with similar chemical properties and trends in physical properties. This arrangement is a fundamental principle in chemistry and provides a logical and consistent way to categorize and study the elements.

Q132. Which equation defines the lattice energy of the ionic compound XY?

• A. X(s) + Y(s) -> Y(s)
• B. Xig) + Y(g) -> XY(s)
• C. X-(s) + Y(s) → XY(s)✓
• D. X+(g) + Y(g) ->XY(s)

Explanation: Lattice energy refers to the energy released when ions come together to form a solid ionic compound from their gaseous ions. It is essentially the energy change associated with the formation of an ionic solid from its constituent ions in the gas phase.Option C correctly represents this process, where X(s) and Y(s) represent solid ions coming together to form XY (s), the solid ionic compound.

Q133. Which of the following metals is most reactive?

• A. Sodium (Na)✓
• B. Magnesium (Mg)
• C. Copper (Cu)
• D. Gold (Au)
• E. Chlorine (CI)

Explanation: Sodium is highly reactive. It reacts vigorously with water, producing sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. It is stored under oil or in an inert atmosphere to prevent contact with moisture or air.

Q134. Which of the following represents on ordering of the period 4 elements bromine (Br), calcium (Ca), krypton (Kr), and potassium (K) by increasing atomic size?

• A. K, Kr, Ca, Br✓
• B. K, Ca, Br, Kr
• C. Kr, Br, Ca, K
• D. Ca, K, Br, Kr
• E. Br, Kr, Ca, K

Explanation: Atomic size generally increases as you move down a group (column) in the periodic table and decreases as you move from left to right across a period (row).• Potassium (K) is in the same group (Group1) as calcium (Ca) but is lower down in the periodic table, so it has a larger atomic size than calcium.• Krypton (Kr) is in Group 18 (noble gases) and is further down the periodic table, so it has a larger atomic size than both potassium and calcium. • Bromine (Br) is in the same period (Period4) as potassium, calcium, and krypton but is to the right of them, so it has a smaller atomic size compared to the others.Therefore, the correct order from smallest to largest atomic size is K < Ca < Br < Kr. Option A (K, Kr, Ca, Br) correctly represents this order.

Q135. If the rate of decay of a radioactive decreases from 200 counts per minute to 25 counts per minute after 24 hours, what is its half-life?

• A. 3 hours
• B. 4 hours
• C. 6 hours
• D. 8 hours
• E. 12 hours✓

Explanation: To determine the half-life of a radioactive substance, we can use the formula for exponential decay: N(t) = No * (1/2)^(t / half-life) Where: • N(t) is the quantity of the substance at time t. • No is the initial quantity. • t is the time. • The half-life is denoted as "half-life. In this case, we're given that the rate of decay decreases from 200 counts per minute to 25 counts per minute after 24 hours. We can consider the initial quantity as 200 counts per minute (No), and the final quantity as 25 counts per minute (N(24 hours)Now, we need to find the time it takes for the quantity to decrease by a factor of 2 (half). We'll rearrange the formula to find the half-life: (1/2)^(t / half-life) = N(24 hours) / No (1/2)^(t / half-life) = (25 counts per minute) / (200 counts per minute) Now, we can solve for t / half-life: (1/2)^(t / half-life) = 1/8 Since (1/2)^3 = 1/8, we can see that t / half- life = 3. Therefore, the half-life (t half-life) is 3 times the given time of 24 hours: t half-life = 3 * 24 hours = 72 hours.

Q136. Transition metals show variable oxidation state because.

• A. They have the capability to form complexes
• B. They have partially filled d-orbitals.✓
• C. They have less shielding effect among their shells
• D. They have more shielding effect among their shells

Explanation: Transition metals are elements found in the middle of the periodic table, specifically in groups 3 to 12. They have partially filled d-orbitals in their electron configurations.These d-orbitals can readily gain or lose electrons, allowing transition metals to exhibit a range of oxidation states. This ability to change oxidation states makes them versatile in forming various chemical groups 3 to 12. They have partially filled d-orbitals in their electron configurations.These d-orbitals can readily gain or lose electrons, allowing transition metals to exhibit a range of oxidation states. This ability to change oxidation states makes them versatile in forming various chemical compounds and complexes.

Q137. Which one of the following is smallest in size?

• A. Na+✓
• B. O2-
• C. F-
• D. N3-

Explanation: Magnitude of +ve charge on cation Jonic radius- Magnitude of -ve charge on anion So, order of ionic radius is N-3>O-2>F-1>Na+1

Q138. The property of an atom in a molecules to attract electrons towards it self is called

• A. Electrode Potential
• B. lonization Energy
• C. Electron Affinity✓
• D. Electronegativity

Explanation: Electron affinity is the measure of an atom's tendency or ability to attract and accept additional electrons when it forms a chemical bond. It represents the energy change when an electron is added to an atom to form a negative ion. The higher the electron affinity, the greater the attraction an atom has for electrons.

Q139. How many elements ore there in period 6

• A. 32
• B. 10
• C. 14✓
• D. 18

Explanation: Period 6 of the periodic table includes elements from atomic number 55 (Cesium, Cs) to atomic number 86 (Radon, Rn). These elements fill the 6th energy level, and there are 14 elements in total within this period.

Q140. Which one of the following sets of all colnage metals

• A. A. Cu, Hg, Au✓
• B. Ag, Au, Hg
• C. Cu, Ag, Au
• D. Cu, Fe, Au

Explanation: Coinage metals are a group of elements that have historically been used to make coins due to their relative stability and resistance to corrosion. The coinage metals are Copper (Cu), Mercury (Hg), and Gold (Au). These elements are often found in their metallic form and have been usedfor coinage throughout history. So, option C (Cu, Ag, Au) is also a valid set of coinage metals. However, option A (Cu, Hg, Au) is the most specific and complete set of coinage metals as traditionally defined in chemistry

Q141. Bleaching powder is a strong

• A. Reducing Agent
• B. Oxidizing Agent✓
• C. Acid
• D. Base

Explanation: This is the most common behavior of bleaching powder. It is widely used as an oxidizing agent, particularly in bleaching and disinfection processes. When bleaching powder dissolves in water, it releases hypochlorite ions (CIO-) that have a strong oxidizing effect, making it effective in bleaching and disinfecting.

Q142. The correct order of oddity amongst halogen acids Is

• A. HXO3 > HXO3> HXO2> HXO✓
• B. НХО3 > НХO4 > НХO2 > НХО
• C. HXO < HXO2 < HXO3 < HXO
• D. HXO < HXO2 < HXO4 < HXO3

Explanation: This order suggests that perchloric acid (HXO4) is the strongest acid among the halogen acids, followed by chloric acid (HXO3), chlorous acid (HXO2), and hypochlorous acid (HXO). This order is correct.

Q143. Which of the following is the strongest alkali?

• A. NaOH
• B. Ca(OH)2
• C. CsOH✓
• D. KOH

Explanation: Cesium hydroxide is known for its extreme reactivity and high basicity, making it one of the strongest alkalis among common alkali metal hydroxides. The other options are incorrect Potassium hydroxide (KOH) is also a strong alkali but is not as strong as cesium hydroxide. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) are strong alkalis but are weaker than cesium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide in terms of basicity.

Q144. The amphoteric oxide Is

• A. NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide)
• B. Ca(OH)2 (Calcium Hydroxide)
• C. CaO✓
• D. KOH (Potassium Hydroxide)

Explanation: The formula for calcium oxide is CaO (Option C). It's commonly known as quicklime and is an oxide of calcium.

Q145. Which of the following Is a typical transition metal?

• A. Sc
• B. Cd
• C. Y
• D. Co✓

Explanation: Cobalt (Co). Transition metals are elements found in the d-block of the periodic table, and cobalt is one of these transition metals. It exhibits characteristic properties of transition metals, such as variable oxidation states and the ability to form colored compounds.

Q146. The geometry of [Fe(CO)3] is

• A. Pyramidal
• B. Octahedral✓
• C. Square planar
• D. Bi-pyramidal

Explanation: Fe(CO3) is iron carbonate. In its chemical structure, iron (Fe) is coordinated with six ligands (CO3) in an octahedral geometry. Octahedral geometry means that the central iron atom is surrounded by six ligands arranged at the vertices of an octahedron. In this representation, the iron (Fe) atom is at the center, and the six carbonate (CO3) ligands are attached to it in an octahedral arrangement. This geometry is a result of the iron atom forming coordinate bonds with the carbonate ligands. The octahedral shape maximizes the separation between the ligands and minimizes repulsion between electron pairs, leading to a stable molecular geometry.

Q147. Compounds sniveled by applied strong magnetic field are called

• A. Diamagnetic
• B. Both band d
• C. Paramagnetic
• D. Ferromagnetic✓

Explanation: Ferromagnetic substances are strongly attracted to a magnetic field. They have a spontaneous magnetic moment, and even in the absence of an external magnetic field, the magnetic domains within ferromagnetic materials are already aligned. When exposed to a magnetic field, they become strongly magnetized.

Q148. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by the following compounds: CH3 - O - CH3 and CH3CH2OH

• A. Chain Isomerism
• B. Metabolism
• C. Position Isomerism✓
• D. Functional Group Isomerism:

Explanation: Position isomerism, also known as positional isomerism, occurs when the same functional groups are present in the molecule, but they are attached to different positions within the carbon skeleton. For example, in the compound 2-chloro-2-methylpropane, the chlorine atom (CI) and the methyl group (CH3) are attached to different positions on the carbon chain, resulting in a positional isomer.

Q149. The formula of 2.chloro-2- methylpropane is?

• A. (СНЗ)2СН-CI✓
• B. CH3)3C(CI)2
• C. (Cl3)2C-CI
• D. CH3-(CH3)2-CI

Explanation: This compound is also known as tert-buty! chloride, and it is an example of a compound exhibiting positional isomerism because the chlorine atom (CI) and the methyl groups (CH3) are attached to different positions on the carbon chain.

Q150. Which of the following is not an organic compound

• A. HCN
• B. CH3Mgl✓
• C. CCI4
• D. CHCl3

Explanation: (Methylmagnesium lodide) is an organometallic compound, which contains a carbon-magnesium (C-Mg) bond. Organometallic compounds are typically considered part of organometallic chemistry rather than organic chemistry.While they contain carbon, they are distinct from traditional organic compounds due to the presence of metal atoms.

Q151. The geometdc Isomerism is caused by

• A. The restricted rotation of Pi bond✓
• B. Free rotation of pi-bond
• C. The presence of similar groups on a carbon atom
• D. The presence of a triple bond in a compound

Explanation: The restricted rotation of a pi bond is indeed one of the causes of geometrical isomerism. In compounds with double bonds (pi bonds), the rotation around the double bond is limited, leading to the formation of cis and trans isomers with different spatial arrangements.

Q152. Skeletal formula of on organic compound is given below Name of this compound is

• A. Phenanthrene
• B. Cunene
• C. Napthelene✓
• D. Anthacene

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q153. The dehydrating agents than can be used for alcohol dehydration:

• A. P4O10 with concentrated H2SO4
• B. Al2O3 (alumina)
• C. H3O4
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: All of the mentioned options can be used as dehydrating agents for alcohol dehydration

Q154. Hydrogenation of beruene in the presence of nickel or platinum produces

• A. Phenol
• B. Cyclohexanol
• C. Cyclohexene✓
• D. Hexachlorobenzene

Explanation: The hydrogenation of benzene in the presence of a catalyst like nickel or platinum typically produces cyclohexane (Option C). This reaction involves the addition of hydrogen gas (H2) across the carbon-carbon double bonds in benzene, leading to the formation of saturated hydrocarbons. The reaction can be represented as follows: C6H6 + 3H2 → C6H12 Here, benzene (C6H6) undergoes hydrogenation with three molecules of hydrogen (H2) to produce cyclohexane (C6H12).

Q155. According to Boyle's law the volume is

• A. Inversely proportional to temperature
• B. Inversely proportional to pressure✓
• C. Directly proportional to pressure
• D. Directly proportional to temperature

Explanation: According to Boyles's law statement" the pressure exerted by a gas (of a given mass, kept at a constant temperature) is inversely proportional to the volume. Hence Option B is correct

Q156. Which of the following thermometers has only positive degrees of temperature?

• A. Celsius
• B. Kelvin
• C. Fahrenhelt
• D. None✓

Explanation: We have the formula for conversion of Celsius temperature into Kelvin temperature, TK=TC+273 If we substitute −273∘C for TC, we get, TK=−273+273∴TK=0K Thus, we can see the Kelvin scale has the lowest temperature 0 K, and always has the positive values of the temperatures. So, the correct answer is option D

Q157. If the distance between two point charges to becomes double then the coulomb's force will be

• A. F/2✓
• B. 2F
• C. 4F
• D. F/4

Explanation: Explanation is given as image

Q158. Neutral zone in electric field of two similar charges is region where

• A. Both positive and negative charges are present
• B. Equal quantity of both positive and negative charges are present
• C. An electric dipole exists
• D. No electric field line passes✓

Explanation: Neutral zone in the electric field of two similar charges is a region where no electric field line passes further clarification refer to the diagram As explained in the diagram options A, B, and C are incorrect

Q159. Which of given is not the unit of electric intensity

• A. NC-1
• B. NV-1✓
• C. Vm1
• D. None of these

Explanation: Explanation is given below:

Q160. Electric field lines are originated from

• A. Negative charges
• B. Positive charges✓
• C. Both A&B
• D. None of these

Explanation: The electric field line originates from positive charges So Option B is correct Terminates on negative charges HENCE A, C, D options are incorrect

Q161. When resistances are connected in parallel the effective resistance will be:

• A. Product of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
• B. Product of the individual resistances
• C. Sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances✓
• D. Sum of the individual resistances

Explanation: Effective resistance in parallel combination is equal to the sum of reciprocals of the individual resistance Hence option C is correct From the formula, we infer that the effective resistance can't be the product of the resistance or reciprocal of resistance as we add the resistance so option A&B is incorrect Option D is incorrect as in parallel series we add the reciprocal of individual resistance not resistance for effective resistance

Q162. We have 3 resistors each of the value 30. How these are connected to get resultant of 2 Ohm.

• A. All in series
• B. Ail in parallel
• C. 2 in series and 1 is parallel✓
• D. 2 in parallel and 1 In series

Explanation: Considering the above diagram we conclude Option A is incorrect as by connecting all in series we get 9 ohm Option B is incorrect as by connecting all in parallel we get 1ohm Option C is CORRECT as by connecting two in series and 1in parallel we get our desired ANS 2 ohm Option D is incorrect as by connecting 2 in parallel and 1 In series we get 4.5

Q163. Three resistors are connected as shown in the diagram using connecting wires of negligible resistance What is the approximate resistance between point P and Q?

• A. 0.5 Ω✓
• B. 2 Ω
• C. 0.8 Ω
• D. 2.2 Ω

Explanation: Hence from the above solution, we deduce option A is correct and option B, C, and D is incorrect

Q164. A uniform resistance wire of length L and diameter 0 has a resistance R. Another wire of same material has length 4 L and diameter 20, its resistance will be

• A. 2R
• B. R/2
• C. CR✓
• D. R/4

Explanation: From this, we interpret that option C is correct. Hence, the rest of the options A, B, and D are incorrect

Q165. If the potential difference across a conductor is doubled the rate of heat production will become

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. √2 times
• D. Four times✓

Explanation: As the Production of heat is directly related to the square of potential difference by doubling the potential difference production of heat becomes four times Hence Option D is correct Options A, B, and C are wrong as the Production of heat is directly related to the square of potential difference

Q166. The direction of the magnetic lines of force can be found by using:

• A. Right hand rule✓
• B. Henry's law
• C. Left hand rule
• D. Faraday's law

Explanation: The right-hand rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor. To use the right-hand rule, point your thumb in the direction of the current, and your fingers will curl in the direction of the magnetic field.

Q167. = uol This is known as

• A. Coulomb's law
• B. Newton's law
• C. Ampere's circuital law✓
• D. Kirchhoff current law

Explanation: Ampere circuital law also known as Ampere law Accordingly, option C is correct Options A, B, and D are incorrect as these have nothing to do with the formula given in the question

Q168. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is

• A. Zero
• B. Non-uniform
• C. Infinites
• D. Uniform✓

Explanation: Option D is correct The magnetic field inside the solenoid behaves the same as that of the magnetic field of a bar magnet and is uniform i.e. same at all points. Options A, B, and, C are incorrect as the magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform

Q169. A step-up transformer

• A. Increases power-level
• B. Increases voltage-level
• C. Decreases current-level
• D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: Option D is correct Accordingly, options B and C are eliminated Option A is incorrect since the frequency will be the same at the input and output which means the power will also be the same at the input and the output.

Q170. In a step up transformers the number of turns in

• A. Primary are less✓
• B. Primary and secondary are equal
• C. Primary are more
• D. Primary are infinite

Explanation: Option A is correct In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the primary is less than the number of turns in the secondary Hence, Options B, C, and D are eliminated

Q171. The prominent lines of the Balmer series life in

• A. Visible✓
• B. Infrared
• C. Ultraviolet
• D. Red

Explanation: Option A is correct. The prominent lines of the Balmer series lie in the Visible Region From this, we infer that Options B, C, and are incorrect

Q172. If the intensity of incident light is made double, then the maximum number of emitted electrons will become

• A. double✓
• B. eight times
• C. four times
• D. half

Explanation: Intensity ∝ No of electrons

Q173. The reverse process of photo electric effect is

• A. Annihilation of matter
• B. Pair production
• C. Production of X-rays✓
• D. Nuclear fission

Explanation: The reverse process of the photoelectric effect is b) pair production. The photoelectric effect involves the emission of electrons from a material when it absorbs photons, while pair production is the creation of particle-antiparticle pairs from high-energy photons.

Q174. The Davison and Germer experiment indicates

• A. Interference
• B. Polarization
• C. Electron diffraction✓
• D. Refraction

Explanation: Option C is correct as The Davisson and Germer experiment showed that electron beams can undergo diffraction when passed through the atomic crystals. By referring to the diagram we imply that Options A, B, and D are incorrect as interference, polarization, and refraction are not the conclusion of the Davisson and Germer Experiment.

Q175. Which one of the following represents the dimension for the units of torque:

• A. M2LT2
• B. M2LT-2
• C. M2LT2
• D. ML2T-2✓

Explanation: Correct Option is D The above derivation of Torque negates the Options A, B, and C

Q176. A force of 5 N is acting along Y-axis. Its components along x-axis is:

• A. 5N
• B. Zero✓
• C. 10N
• D. 5N

Explanation: Option B is correct The above solution proves Options A, C, and D as inaccurate

Q177. A train is brought to a sudden stop its:

• A. Acceleration is reduce to zero
• B. Velocity is reduced to zero✓
• C. Average acceleration is reduce is zero
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option B is right when the body suddenly stops its velocity reduces to zero

Q178. A boy sitting in train moving at a constant velocity throws a bail straight up Into the air the ball will drop:

• A. Behind him
• B. In front of him
• C. In his hand✓
• D. Beside him

Explanation: When the person throws up a ball in a train moving with uniform speed, the ball goes up with the initial velocity of the train. Hence, due to the inertia of motion, the ball will travel the same distance as the train and will fall into the hands of the person.

Q179. The unit of linear momentum is equal to:

• A. N/S
• B. N.S✓
• C. J/5
• D. N-m

Explanation: Option B is correct the unit of measurement of momentum is the kilogram meter per second (kg⋅m/s), which is equivalent to the newton-second It implies that the options A, C, and D are incorrect

Q180. A cricket ball is hit so that it travel straight up in air and it need 3 seconds to reach the maximum height. Its Initial velocity is:

• A. 10 ms-1
• B. 15ms-1
• C. 29.4 ms-1✓
• D. 12.2 ms1

Explanation: Option C is correct Accordingly, Options A, B, and D are incorrect

Q181. In Projectile motion a body covers

• A. Vertical distance only
• B. Horizontal distance only
• C. Horizontal and Vertical distance✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Projectile motion is a two-dimensional motion Hence, a body covers both horizontal and vertical distance

Q182. The relation b/w maximum hodzontai range and corresponding height Is

• A. R = 2h
• B. R= 4h✓
• C. R =h
• D. R= 3h

Explanation: Option B is correct This proves Options A, C, and D as incorrect

Q183. Walking on the ground is an example of:

• A. Friction
• B. Third law of motion✓
• C. Motion
• D. Torque

Explanation: Option B is correct as Walking on the ground can illustrate Newton's third law of motion, when we walk on the ground then our foot pushes the ground backward and, in return, the ground pushes our foot forward. The forward reaction force exerted by the ground on our foot makes us walk forward. Options A, C, and D are wrong as these don't illustrate the walking phenomenon

Q184. A photon is allowed to hit a nucleus; them will be _ of the ball

• A. A change in position
• B. A change in momentum✓
• C. A change in position & momentum
• D. No change in momentum &, Position

Explanation: A photon is allowed to hit a nucleus; there will be a change in the momentum of the ball

Q185. If the axis of rotation passes through the body itself, the corresponding rotatory motion is called

• A. Spin mobon✓
• B. Orbital motion
• C. Vibratory motion
• D. To-and-fro motion

Explanation: If the axis of rotation passes through the the body itself, the corresponding rotatory motion is called a spin motion

Q186. Which one of the following can be used to determine the mass of the earth?

• A. Kepler's law
• B. Newton's law of motion
• C. Coulomb's law
• D. Newton's law of gravitation✓

Explanation: The mass of the earth can be determined by using Newton's law of gravitation Newton's law of universal gravitation is usually stated as that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force that is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.

Q187. The weight of a body is minimum at

• A. The equator✓
• B. The poles
• C. A place in between pole and equator
• D. A & B

Explanation: We know that weight depends on the acceleration due to gravity 'g' and 'g' is inversely proportional to the radius of Earth. The radius of Earth is maximum at the equator. So 'g' is the minimum at the equator. Hence the weight of a body is minimal at the equator.

Q188. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle are "weightless" because

• A. Of their extreme distance from the earth
• B. The net gravitational force on them is zero
• C. There is no atmosphere in space
• D. The Space shuttle does not rotate
• E. They are in a state of free fall✓

Explanation: Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle are weightless because they are in a state of free fall.

Q189. Power is the dot product of

• A. Mass & velocity
• B. Force & velodty✓
• C. Force & energy
• D. Force and mass

Explanation: Option B is correct Option A is wrong as its formula of momentum Options C and D are wrong proven by the above solution

Q190. Electrical energy can be converted into mechanical energy by using a/an

• A. Elecifical motor✓
• B. Electrical generator
• C. Transformer
• D. Transistor

Explanation: Electrical energy can be converted into mechanical energy by using an Electrical motor

Q191. If the mass of a simple pendulum is doubled, its time period

• A. Becomes double
• B. Become
• C. Becomes one fourth
• D. Remains constant (same)✓

Explanation: Option D is correct Thperiodod of a pendulum does not depend on the mass of bob. So if the mass of bob doubled, the time period remains the same. Options A, B, and C are wrong as time period of simple pendulum is independent of mass

Q192. The frequency of the second pendulum is

• A. 0.5 hertz✓
• B. 1 hertz
• C. 1.5 hertz
• D. 2 hertz

Explanation: Option A is correct A seconds pendulum has time period T = 2 s. Thus, its frequency f=1/T= 0.5s−1or Hz This solution Negates Options B, C, and D

Q193. The waves which do not require medium for their propagation are:

• A. Sound waves
• B. Electromagnetic waves✓
• C. Magnetic waves
• D. None of these

Explanation: The waves that do not require medium for their propagation are Electromagnetic waves

Q194. The characteristics of Class Reptilia are:

• A. Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
• B. Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, airbladder to regulate buoyancy
• C. Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
• D. Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears✓

Explanation: Reptiles represent the first class of vertebrates fully adapted for life in dry places on land. The characters of reptiles are in fact a combination of characters that are found in fish and amphibians on one hand and birds and mammals on the other. Their exoskeleton is of horny epidermal scales, shields, plates and scutes. The skin is dry, cornified and devoid of glands. Reptiles lack external ears and have immovable eyelids.

Q195. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?

• A. Cnidaria
• B. Porifera
• C. Protozoa
• D. Ctenophora✓

Explanation: In ctenophores, asexual reproduction is absent. They are monoecious and fertilization is generally external. In cnidaria, asexual reproduction (budding) is found in the polyps and sexual reproduction is found in the medusa form. Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in porifera (sponges). Asexual reproduction occurs by budding and gemmules. In protozoa, asexual reproduction takes place by binary fission, budding etc. and sexual reproduction takes place by syngamy and conjugation.

Q196. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

• A. Millipede - Ventral Nerve Cord - Arachnida
• B. Sea Anemone - Triploblastic - Cnidaria
• C. Silverfish - Pectoral and Pelvic Fins - Chordata
• D. Duckbilled Platypus - Oviparous - Mammalia✓

Explanation: The duckbilled platypus is a unique mammal belonging to the order Monotremata within the class Mammalia. It is one of the few mammals that lay eggs (oviparous) instead of giving birth to live young.

Q197. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays because:

• A. Their gill slits are ventrally placed
• B. Their head and trunk are widened considerably
• C. There is distinct demarcation between body and tail
• D. Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies✓

Explanation: Sharks and dogfishes have a cylindrical body while skates and rays have both of their pectoral fins fused. It gives a winglike appearance and is not distinct from the body.

Q198. Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air or oxygen during respiration in the adult male Periplaneta Americana as it enters the animal body?

• A. Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheloes, oxygen diffuses into cells✓
• B. Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
• C. Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
• D. Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues

Explanation: The respiratory system is well developed in a cockroach in order to compensate the poorly developed circulatory system. It consists of tracheae, tracheoles and spiracles. The main tracheal trunks open to the exterior on body surface through 10 pairs of segmentally arranged apertures termed spiracles or stigmata. Two pairs of spiracles are thoracic, one between pro and mesothorax and the other between meso and metathorax. Haemocoel contains a network of elastic, closed and branching air tubes or tracheae. The ultimate finer branches of tracheae are called tracheoles which come in contact with the individual body cells. The elaborate tracheal system carries oxygen directly to all the body cells.

Q199. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from:

• A. Sugarcane roots
• B. Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter✓
• C. Soil insects
• D. Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc

Explanation: Pheretima (earthworm) and related organisms feed upon the decaying organic matter found in the soil. They also feed on the bits of plants and animal matter. Thus, they are omnivorous.

Q200. In which one of the following options are the genus name, its two characters and its phylum not correctly matched?

• A. Pila (i) Body segmented Mollusca (ii) Mouth with radula✓
• B. Asterias (i) Spiny skinned Echinodermata (ii) Water vascular system
• C. Sycon (i) Pore bearing Porifera (ii) Canal system
• D. Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages Arthropoda (ii) Chitinous exoskeleton

Explanation: Pila belongs to phylum mollusca. The body of molluscs (soft bodied animals) is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. Radula is found in the mouth of Pila.