Balochistan Mdcat 2011 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Find out the synonym: VULNERABL

• A. Huge
• B. Indanger✓
• C. Interior
• D. Exact

Explanation: The word "vulnerable" describes a state of being open to harm, attack, or damage. A person or thing that is vulnerable is in a position where they can be easily harmed or hurt. The phrase "in danger" conveys a similar meaning, indicating that someone or something is at risk of harm or threat. Therefore, "in danger" is a synonym for "vulnerable."

Q2. Find out the synonym: SUBSEQUENT

• A. Records
• B. Forced
• C. Broad
• D. Later✓

Explanation: The word "subsequent" means occurring or coming after something in time. It refers to events, actions, or items that follow or happen later in a sequence. "Later" is a synonym for "subsequent" because it also denotes a point in time that is after the current moment or after a specific event, making it a suitable replacement in the context of time order.

Q3. Find out the synonym: RARELY

• A. Seldom✓
• B. Coax
• C. Diminish
• D. Mechanized

Explanation: "Rarely" means not often or infrequently. "Seldom" has a similar meaning, indicating something that does not happen frequently, making it the appropriate synonym in this context.

Q4. Find out the synonym: RELUCTANT

• A. Multiple
• B. Hesitant✓
• C. Resistance
• D. Narrow

Explanation: "Reluctant" describes someone who is unwilling or hesitant to do something. "Hesitant" conveys a similar meaning, indicating a lack of willingness or confidence, making it the appropriate synonym in this context.

Q5. Find out the synonym: QUERY

• A. Legal
• B. Forgiveness
• C. Question✓
• D. Unhappily

Explanation: "Query" means a question, especially one addressed to an official or organization for information. "Question" has a similar meaning, making it the appropriate synonym in this context.

Q6. Complete the sentences with appropriate word(s)A rolling stone _ no moss

• A. Gathers✓
• B. Gainers
• C. will gather
• D. Gathered

Explanation: The phrase "A rolling stone gathers no moss" is a well-known proverb that conveys the idea that a person who is constantly moving, exploring, or changing will not accumulate negative qualities or burdens. In this context: "Gathers" is the appropriate word because it is the present tense form of the verb, which matches the tense of the sentence. The proverb uses "gathers" to imply that moss (representing negative qualities or stagnation) does not accumulate on a rolling stone (representing a person who keeps moving or changing). The sentence would not convey the intended meaning if a different form of the verb, such as "gather" (base form), "will gather" (future tense), or "gathered" (past tense), were used.

Q7. Unless you _ hard, you cannot succeed.

• A. do not work
• B. Work✓
• C. Worked
• D. Had worked

Explanation: In the given sentence, "Unless you work hard, you cannot succeed," the phrase "work hard" is in the present simple tense. The present simple tense is used to express general truths, habitual actions, and things that are always or generally true. In this case, it represents a general truth: if someone wants to succeed, they need to work hard. Options (A) "do not work," (C) "worked," and (D) "had worked" do not correctly convey the present tense action needed to complete the sentence meaningfully.

Q8. All the students except All _ present.

• A. Was
• B. Were✓
• C. Had been
• D. Had

Explanation: Option (B) "were" is the appropriate choice because it agrees with the plural noun "students." In the past tense, when referring to a group of people (students, in this case), "were" is the correct form of the verb "to be."

Q9. If you had worked hard, you _ the examination last year.

• A. Passed
• B. had passed
• C. would have passed✓
• D. Should pass

Explanation: Option (C) "would have passed" is the correct choice for a conditional sentence in the past perfect conditional form. This form is used to talk about a situation that did not happen in the past, but if it had happened, the result would have occurred. In this case, if the person had worked hard, they would have passed the examination.

Q10. The clerks _ on strike since Monday.

• A. have been✓
• B. were
• C. will be
• D. are

Explanation: Option (A) "have been" is the correct choice because the sentence is describing an action that started in the past (since Monday) and is still ongoing in the present. The present perfect continuous tense is used to indicate an action that began in the past, continues into the present, and may continue into the future. In this case, the clerks started their strike on Monday, and the action (being on strike) has continued from that time up to the present moment. Therefore, "have been" accurately reflects the ongoing nature of the action.

Q11. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of tint part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). Shanghai is bigger than any city of the world

• A. Shanghai is
• B. bigger than any city
• C. of the world✓
• D. No error

Explanation: In English, the correct preposition to use when comparing one thing to a group or category, such as cities in the world, is "in." So, when comparing Shanghai to any city in the world, the correct phrasing is "Shanghai is bigger than any city in the world." The preposition "of" is not suitable in this context. Using "of" would imply possession or belonging, which is not the intended meaning in this sentence. Therefore, "of the world" is a grammatical error, and the correct preposition to use in this case is "in." The phrase "of the world" is incorrect in this context. The correct preposition to use here is "in," so the corrected sentence does not contain any grammatical errors.

Q12. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of tint part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). The students were awaiting for the arrival of the chief guest

• A. The students were
• B. awaiting for✓
• C. the arrival of the chief gues
• D. No error

Explanation: The verb "await" already carries the meaning of waiting, so it does not need the preposition "for" after it. Using "awaiting for" is redundant and incorrect. The sentence should simply use "awaiting" without "for" to express waiting or anticipation.

Q13. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of tint part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). Sixty miles are a good distance

• A. Sixty miles
• B. are✓
• C. a good d!stance
• D. No error.

Explanation: The corrected sentence would be: "Sixty miles is a good distance." The subject "sixty miles" is a singular unit of measurement in this context, so the verb "is" should agree with the singular subject. Therefore, "are" should be corrected to "is" to maintain subject-verb agreement.

Q14. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of tint part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). When the dentist came in my tooth was stopped aching out of fear that I might lose my tooth.

• A. When the dentist came in
• B. my tooth was stopped aching✓
• C. out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
• D. No error

Explanation: The corrected sentence would be: "When the dentist came in, my tooth stopped aching out of fear that I might lose my tooth." The verb "stopped" should be used in its active form, and the preposition "in" should be added after "came" for proper phrasing. So, the correct form is "my tooth stopped aching" to indicate that the toothache ceased when the dentist arrived.

Q15. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of tint part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). I shall certainly,write you when shall reach home

• A. I shall certainly
• B. Write you
• C. When shall reach home✓
• D. No error

Explanation: In the sentence "I shall certainly write you when shall reach home," there is a subject-verb agreement error. The subject "I" is missing before the verb "shall reach." In English, when forming future tense statements, the subject is typically placed before the auxiliary verb "shall."

Q16. Fill in the blanks witppropriate words. He is travelling road

• A. On
• B. At
• C. For
• D. By✓

Explanation: The preposition "by" is used to indicate the means or method of transportation. In this context, "travelling by road" means using the road as the means of transportation. For example: He is travelling by car/train/bus/plane/road.

Q17. Fill in the blanks witppropriate words. What is time _ your watch?

• A. On✓
• B. In
• C. By
• D. From

Explanation: The preposition "on" is used in this context because it indicates a specific point in time displayed on a surface like a watch or clock. When we ask for the time, we are referring to the numbers or hands displayed on the watch face or clock face. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "What is the time on your watch?" Prepositions in English can be quite specific and are used based on the context of the sentence. In this case, "on" is the appropriate preposition to describe the relationship between the time and the surface of the watch.

Q18. Fill in the blanks witppropriate words. He is suffering _ malaria.

• A. By
• B. From✓
• C. For
• D. With

Explanation: "He is suffering from malaria." The verb "suffering" is often followed by the preposition "from" when indicating the cause of someone's distress, illness, or difficulty. In this case, "from" is used to show that the person is experiencing the illness known as malaria.

Q19. Fill in the blanks witppropriate words. The rain prevented me _ reaching the college.

• A. From✓
• B. On
• C. With
• D. Into

Explanation: The preposition "from" is used after the verb "prevent" to indicate the source, cause, or origin of the prevention. When something prevents you from doing something, it means that the first action hinders or stops the second action from happening. In the sentence "The rain prevented me from reaching the college," the rain is the cause or source of the prevention – it stopped the speaker from reaching the college. Therefore, "from" is the correct preposition to use in this context.

Q20. Fill in the blanks witppropriate words. Horatio was loyal _ hamlet

• A. For
• B. Of
• C. To✓
• D. With

Explanation: The preposition "to" is used in this context because it indicates the direction of Horatio's loyalty or allegiance. When someone is described as being loyal to someone else, it means they are devoted or faithful to that person. In this case, Horatio's loyalty is directed towards Hamlet, so "to" is the appropriate preposition to convey that meaning.

Q21. The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to.

• A. The cell theory
• B. The theory of spontaneous generation
• C. Experimental embryology
• D. Population genetics✓
• E. The germ theory of disease

Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg principle, also known as the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, is a fundamental concept in population genetics. It describes the relationship between the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population that is not evolving. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, in a large, randomly mating population with no mutation, migration, genetic drift, or natural selection, the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in the population will remain constant from generation to generation. The principle provides a mathematical framework to understand the inheritance of genetic traits within a population over time. The other options you provided (A) the cell theory, (B) the theory of spontaneous generation, and (E) the germ theory of disease, are unrelated to the Hardy-Weinberg principle. (C) experimental embryology is a broad field of study that includes various experimental approaches to understanding embryonic development, but it is not directly related to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, which specifically deals with population genetics.

Q22. The cell of a corn plant contains a diploid number of 20 chromosomes. When it divides by mitosis. what is the number of chromosomes in each of the resulting cells?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20✓
• D. 30
• E. 40

Explanation: During mitosis, a cell undergoes a process of division resulting in two genetically identical daughter cells. The number of chromosomes in each of the resulting cells remains the same as the original cell. In this case, the original cell of a corn plant contains a diploid number of 20 chromosomes.

Q23. If a family has four children. three boys and a girl, what are the chances that the next child will be a girl?

• A. 0
• B. 1 in 2✓
• C. 1 in 3
• D. 1 in 4
• E. 1 in 8

Explanation: The gender of a child is determined by the combination of chromosomes from the parents. Each child has a 1 in 2 chance (or 50%) of being a girl and a 1 in 2 chance of being a boy, assuming no underlying genetic factors influence the gender ratio.

Q24. In which of the following organisms does aerobic respiration take place? I. Mammals ll. Higher green plants lll. Protozoa

• A. I only
• B. ll only
• C. I and lll only
• D. ll and III only
• E. I, II, and III✓

Explanation: Aerobic respiration is the process by which cells use oxygen to produce energy from carbohydrates. This process occurs in various organisms, including mammals, higher green plants, and protozoa, among others. Here's why each of the given options undergoes aerobic respiration: I. Mammals: Mammals, including humans, have specialized organs like lungs that enable them to breathe in oxygen. Oxygen is transported by the circulatory system to cells, where it is used for aerobic respiration to produce energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate). II. Higher green plants: While plants are well-known for photosynthesis (where they use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen), they also undergo aerobic respiration. Plants respire aerobically in their cells, just like animals do, to release energy from glucose molecules produced during photosynthesis. III. Protozoa: Protozoa are single-celled organisms. Many protozoa live in environments where oxygen is present, and they utilize aerobic respiration to extract energy from nutrients.

Q25. The structure of a lipid contains all of the following EXCEPT

• A. a carboxyl group✓
• B. a CH, O basic structure
• C. a glycerol molecule
• D. a fatty acid molecule
• E. an OH group

Explanation: The structure of a lipid includes a glycerol molecule and one or more fatty acid molecules. Lipids do not typically contain a carboxyl group (A), which is a characteristic feature of organic acids.

Q26. During replication, a portion of a DNA molecule will separate between adenine and

• A. Guanine
• B. Thymine✓
• C. Cytosine
• D. Uracil
• E. Adenosine triphosphate

Explanation: During DNA replication, a portion of the DNA molecule will separate between adenine (A) and thymine (B). Adenine always pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds in the DNA double helix structure.

Q27. RNA is found in.

• A. The nucleus only
• B. The cytoplasm only
• C. Both the nucleus and the cytoplasm✓
• D. Proteins
• E. Amino acids

Explanation: RNA is found in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm of a cell. RNA plays various roles in cells, including serving as a messenger (mRNA) for protein synthesis in the cytoplasm and being involved in other cellular processes.

Q28. Which of the following statements about proteins is true?

• A. All proteins are enzymes
• B. All proteins have catalytic properties.
• C. Proteins that are enzymes speed up chemical reactions dealing with the transformation of energy.✓
• D. The 20-odd amino acids are synthesized from proteins.
• E. DNA and RNA are highly structured proteins.

Explanation: Enzymes are a type of protein that acts as a biological catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions in cells. They are involved in various cellular processes and are crucial for the transformation of energy and the regulation of metabolic pathways. The other statements are incorrect

Q29. Which statement concerning ribosomes is true?

• A. They function in cell division
• B. They contain DNA
• C. They are the sites of carbohydrate synthesis.
• D. They are the sites of protein synthesis✓
• E. They Protein cells to contract

Explanation: Ribosomes are cellular structures composed of RNA and proteins, and they are responsible for protein synthesis in cells. During protein synthesis, ribosomes read the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) and use it to assemble specific sequences of amino acids, forming proteins.

Q30. Because urea is a nitrogen compound, it cannot be derived from the metabolism of

• A. Peptides
• B. Polypeptides
• C. Polysacharides✓
• D. Proteins
• E. Amino acids

Explanation: Urea is indeed a nitrogen compound that is a byproduct of protein metabolism in the liver. It is formed through the breakdown of amino acids and proteins. Therefore, urea cannot be derived from the metabolism of (C) Polysaccharides. Polysaccharides are carbohydrates, and they do not directly contribute to the formation of urea. Urea is primarily a product of amino acid and protein metabolism.

Q31. During the process of respiration. energy is transfered from glucose molecules to molecules of

• A. ACTH
• B. DNA
• C. RNA
• D. ATP✓
• E. BCG

Explanation: ATP is the primary energy carrier in cells and is generated during cellular respiration through the breakdown of glucose.

Q32. Rh blood disease can occur when a Rh-negative mother

• A. Develops erythroblastosis
• B. Fails to form antibodies
• C. Has to have her blood replaced
• D. Has an Rh-negative baby
• E. Has an Rh-positive baby✓

Explanation: Rh blood disease, also known as Rh incompatibility or hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), can occur when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive baby. In this condition, if the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, there is a risk of the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the Rh-positive blood cells of the baby, which can lead to complications such as hemolysis (destruction of red blood cells) in the baby.

Q33. The tube that brings urine from the kidneys to the bladder is the

• A. Urethra
• B. Ureter✓
• C. Uterus
• D. Eustachian tube
• E. Bile duct

Explanation: There appears to be an error in the options you provided. The tube that brings urine from the kidneys to the bladder is called the ureter. The correct answer is not listed in the options you provided.

Q34. A nerve cell that receives stimuli from the outside is known as a(n)

• A. Motor neuron
• B. Sensory neuron✓
• C. Efferent neuron
• D. Interneuron
• E. Ganglion

Explanation: A nerve cell that receives stimuli from the outside is known as a (B) sensory neuron. Sensory neurons are specialized neurons that detect stimuli from the external environment or internal body conditions and transmit this information to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) for processing.

Q35. Which of the following organelles lack a membrane in eukaryotic cells? 1 Golgi Appratus 2 Lysosome 3 RER 4 Ribosomes 5 Mitochondria 6 Centrosome

• A. 4 & 6✓
• B. 3 & 4
• C. 1 & 4
• D. 1 & 5

Explanation: Membrane-bound organelles are surrounded by a plasma membrane to keep their internal fluids separate from the cytoplasm of the rest of the cell. Non-membrane-bound organelles are more solid structures that are not fluid-filled, so they have no need for a membrane. Membrane bound organelles: - Mitochondria - Endoplasmic Reticulum - Lysosome - Peroxisome - Golgi apparatus - Vacuole - Vesicle Non Membrane bound organelles - Ribosome - Centrosome

Q36. Which of the following statements about Linnaeus's system of classification is FALSE?

• A. Every organism has a genus and a species name
• B. Organisms are classified mainly according to habitat.✓
• C. Humans are classified as Homo sapiens.
• D. A species consists of closely related organisms that are similar in structure and can interbreed
• E. A genus consists of one or more species thus show many similarities

Explanation: In Linnaeus's system of classification, organisms are primarily classified based on their structural similarities and shared characteristics, not their habitat. The classification system is hierarchical and includes categories such as kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species, with organisms grouped based on their morphological and genetic similarities.

Q37. The thyroid gland

• A. is known as the gland of emergency
• B. stimulates the liver to store glycogen
• C. controls the production of ACTH
• D. regulates the rate of metabolism✓
• E. Contains the islands of Langerhans

Explanation: The thyroid gland produces hormones, primarily thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which play a key role in controlling the body's metabolism. These hormones help regulate the rate at which the body uses energy and affect various physiological processes, including growth and development, body temperature, and heart rate.

Q38. A color-blind man marries a normal woman who is heterozygous for color vision. What are the chances Of their two sons being color blind?

• A. 0%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%✓
• D. 75%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait, carried on the X chromosome. In this case: The colour-blind man is XY (he only has one X chromosome, which carries the colour-blind allele). The normal woman who is heterozygous for colour vision is XX**'** (where X' represents the normal allele). Their possible offspring combinations are as follows: 1. Son inherits X chromosome from the father (X) and Y chromosome from the mother (Y): XY (normal vision) 2. Son inherits X chromosome from the mother (X') and Y chromosome from the father (Y): X'Y (color-blind) Therefore, out of the possible combinations for sons, there is a 50% (2 out of 4) chance of having colour-blind sons. So, the correct answer is (C) 50%.

Q39. The number of different gene combinations possible in the gametes of a trihybrid pea plant, TtYySs, is

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8✓
• E. 10

Explanation: To determine the number of different gene combinations possible in the gametes of a trihybrid pea plant (ItYySs), where "I," "Y," and "S" represent different gene loci, we use the principle of independent assortment. During gamete formation, alleles at different gene loci segregate independently of each other. For each gene locus, there are two possible alleles (assuming it's a diploid organism and follows Mendelian genetics). Therefore, for three gene loci, there are 2^3=8 different combinations of alleles in the gametes.

Q40. Which of the following organelles are exclusively present in plant cells?

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Glyoxisomes✓
• D. Peroxisomes

Explanation: Lysosomes and Peroxisomes are found in animal cells as well, and ribosomes are present in both plant and animal cells. Glyoxisomes are specialized organelles in plant cells that are involved in lipid metabolism, particularly in the conversion of fatty acids to sugars during seed germination.

Q41. Which of the following organelles are involved in ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation:

• A. Golgi bodies
• B. Mitochondria✓
• C. Ribosomes
• D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they produce the majority of the cell's ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, a process that occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Golgi bodies and ribosomes are not directly involved in ATP synthesis, and chloroplasts are specific to plant cells where they are involved in photosynthesis, not oxidative phosphorylation.

Q42. Which of the following types of cell division is exclusively present in diploid cells?

• A. Mitosis✓
• B. Meiosis
• C. Nuclear mitosis
• D. Binary fission

Explanation: Mitosis is the process by which a eukaryotic cell separates its duplicated chromosomes into two identical sets of chromosomes, resulting in two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. Mitosis is responsible for the growth and maintenance of somatic (body) cells in multicellular organisms. Meiosis, on the other hand, is a type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg cells) and reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in haploid cells. Nuclear mitosis and binary fission are terms not commonly used in the context of eukaryotic cell division.

Q43. Which of the following conditions arises due to the non-dysfunction of autosomes?

• A. Turner’s syndrome
• B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• C. Mongolism✓
• D. Jacob’s syndrome

Explanation: Mongolism is the outdated term for Down syndrome, which arises due to the non-dysfunction of autosomes. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, a condition known as trisomy 21, and is not related to the sex chromosomes (X or Y). Turner's syndrome (A) is caused by the complete or partial absence of one of the X chromosomes in females, leading to a monosomy X condition. Klinefelter's syndrome (B) is caused by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, resulting in XXY genotype. Jacob's syndrome (D) refers to XYY syndrome, where males have an extra Y chromosome. Both Klinefelter's syndrome and Jacob's syndrome involve abnormalities in the sex chromosomes (X or Y), not autosomes.

Q44. Which of the followings is/are not characters of cancer cell?

• A. Large and prominent nuclei
• B. Rapidly dividing cells✓
• C. High cytoplasm to nucleus ratio
• D. Less differentiated cells

Explanation: Rapidly dividing cells is not a characteristic specific to cancer cells. While cancer cells do typically exhibit rapid and uncontrolled cell division, this trait is not unique to cancer cells. Rapid cell division can also occur in normal, healthy cells during processes such as tissue repair and growth. The other options, A) Large and prominent nuclei, C) High cytoplasm to nucleus ratio, and D) Less differentiated cells, are all characteristics often associated with cancer cells. Cancer cells often have enlarged, irregularly shaped nuclei, a high ratio of cytoplasm to nucleus, and they are less differentiated (meaning they do not mature into specialized cell types as effectively as normal cells). These characteristics contribute to the abnormal behavior of cancer cells and their ability to invade surrounding tissues.

Q45. Process by which the number of chromosomes is reduced

• A. Meiosis✓
• B. Mitosis
• C. Fertilization
• D. Mutation
• E. Crossing-over

Explanation: Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in the formation of haploid cells (gametes) from diploid cells. This reduction in chromosome number is essential for sexual reproduction because it ensures that when gametes fuse during fertilization, the resulting zygote has the correct diploid number of chromosomes.

Q46. Process by which chromosomes exchange materials

• A. Meiosis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Fertilization
• D. Mutation
• E. Crossing-over✓

Explanation: Crossing-over occurs during meiosis, specifically during prophase I of meiosis I. It involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, resulting in genetic diversity among the offspring. This process contributes to the variation seen in sexually reproducing organisms.

Q47. All of the following scientists studied cells except

• A. Hooke
• B. van Leeuwenhoek
• C. Schleiden
• D. Schwann
• E. Linnaeus✓

Explanation: Linnaeus is the scientist who did not study cells among the options provided. Carl Linnaeus was a Swedish botanist and zoologist renowned for his work in taxonomy and classification of organisms, focusing on plants and animals. The other scientists mentioned (Hooke, van Leeuwenhoek, Schleiden, and Schwann) are known for their contributions to the study of cells and cell biology.

Q48. The nucleus contains all of the following structures except

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Chromatin
• C. Genes
• D. Nucleolus
• E. Nuclear membrane.

Explanation: Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles responsible for energy production in the cell and are not found inside the nucleus. The other structures mentioned—chromatin, genes, and nucleolus—are found within the nucleus.

Q49. A combination of a phosphate, a ribose, and a nitrogen base is characteristic of a

• A. Carbohydrate
• B. Lipid
• C. Protein
• D. Nucleotide✓
• E. Fatty acid

Explanation: Nucleotides are the basic building blocks of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA. They consist of a phosphate group, a pentose sugar (either ribose or deoxyribose), and a nitrogenous base.

Q50. An enzyme is a

• A. Deoxyribose
• B. Lipid
• C. Protein✓
• D. Ribose
• E. Polysaccharide

Explanation: Enzymes are biological molecules that function as catalysts to facilitate and speed up chemical reactions in living organisms. They are a type of protein, which is a class of biomolecules composed of amino acids.

Q51. The most favorable pH for maltase action is

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 7✓
• E. 9

Explanation: Maltase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of maltose (a disaccharide) into two glucose molecules. Enzymes often have an optimal pH at which they function most efficiently, and for many enzymes, including maltase, this optimal pH is close to the neutral pH of 7.

Q52. The net numbers of ATP molecules formed in aerobic and anaerobic respiration, respectively are

• A. 30 and 2
• B. 32 and 2
• C. 34 and 2
• D. 35 and 2
• E. 36 and 2✓

Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, which occurs in the absence of oxygen, the net production of ATP molecules is significantly lower than in aerobic respiration. One common type of anaerobic respiration, fermentation, yields a net production of 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

Q53. As the result of glycolysis, the three carbon molecule formed is

• A. DPN
• B. Oxaloacetate
• C. Citric acid
• D. Succinic acid
• E. Pyruvic acid✓

Explanation: Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration, where a molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid.

Q54. During fermentation, the final products formed are CO2 and either lactic acid or

• A. Water
• B. Glucose
• C. Alcohol✓
• D. Riboflavin coenzyme
• E. Cytochrome

Explanation: During fermentation, the final products formed can be either lactic acid or alcohol (ethanol), depending on the type of fermentation and the organism involved. So, the correct answer is (C) alcohol. In alcoholic fermentation, the products are ethanol and carbon dioxide, while in lactic acid fermentation, the product is lactic acid.

Q55. The muscles attached to the bones are

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Voluntary muscles are under conscious control, allowing us to move our bodies intentionally. Striated muscles have a striped appearance under a microscope due to the organization of their contractile proteins, giving them the name "striated." These muscles are also known as skeletal muscles and are responsible for body movements.

Q56. An axon is part of a

• A. Muscle cell
• B. Nerve cell✓
• C. Epithelial cell
• D. Bone cell
• E. Cartilage cell.

Explanation: Axons are long, slender projections of nerve cells (neurons) that transmit electrical impulses away from the cell body to other neurons, muscles, or glands. They are essential for the communication of information within the nervous system.

Q57. Of the following, the one that includes all the others is

• A. Blood
• B. Connective✓
• C. Epithelial
• D. Kidney
• E. Nerve

Explanation: Connective tissue is a category of tissue that includes various types of tissue such as blood, epithelial, and nerve tissues. Kidney tissue is a specific type of connective tissue. Connective tissues are characterized by having cells scattered within an extracellular matrix and serve to support, bind together, and protect tissues and organs of the body.

Q58. A by-product of photosynthesis

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Water
• C. Carbon monoxide
• D. Oxygen✓
• E. Nitrogen

Explanation: During photosynthesis, plants, algae, and some bacteria use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (a form of sugar) and oxygen. Oxygen is released into the atmosphere as a by-product of this process, and it is essential for the respiration of many organisms, including humans.

Q59. The-source of oxygen in photosynthesis is

• A. CO2
• B. Glucose
• C. ATP
• D. H2O✓
• E. T PN

Explanation: During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, water molecules are split into oxygen, protons, and electrons. Oxygen is released as a by-product into the atmosphere. This process is crucial for the production of oxygen on Earth and is a significant component of the planet's atmosphere.

Q60. All of the following are intermediate products of carbon fixation except

• A. PGA
• B. DNA✓
• C. PGAL
• D. RDP
• E. Fructose

Explanation: Carbon fixation refers to the process by which inorganic carbon is converted into organic compounds by living organisms. Intermediate products in this process include PGA (phosphoglyceric acid), PGAL (phosphoglyceraldehyde), RDP (ribulose diphosphate), and fructose, among others. DNA, on the other hand, is a complex macromolecule composed of nucleotides and is not an intermediate product of carbon fixation.

Q61. The part of the spectrum in which photosynthesis is most active is

• A. Green-yellow
• B. Yellow orange
• C. Blue-violet✓
• D. Blue-green
• E. Green-orange

Explanation: This is because chlorophyll, the primary pigment responsible for photosynthesis, absorbs light most effectively in the blue (around 430-450 nanometers) and red (around 640-680 nanometers) regions of the spectrum.Blue-violet light falls within this effective range and is crucial for initiating the photosynthetic process.

Q62. Green plants carry on respiration

• A. Only during the day
• B. Only at night:
• C. During both day and night✓
• D. Only when photosynthesis is going on
• E. Only when photosynthesis is not going on

Explanation: Respiration is the process by which cells generate energy from glucose and oxygen, and it is a continuous metabolic activity necessary for the plant's survival. While photosynthesis primarily occurs during the day when there is light available, respiration occurs 24/7 because plants need energy both for their daytime activities and to support basic functions like growth and maintenance during the night when there is no sunlight for photosynthesis. Therefore, plants respire both during the day and at night to maintain their life processes.

Q63. In human circulation, a part of the heart that receives blood from the rest of the body is the

• A. Left ventricle
• B. Right ventricle
• C. Right atrium✓
• D. Valves
• E. Aorta

Explanation: The right atrium is one of the heart's four chambers, and it receives deoxygenated blood returning from the body's tissues via the superior and inferior vena cava.This blood is then pumped into the right ventricle and subsequently sent to the lungs for oxygenation.

Q64. In the ciortal circulation, blood flows through the

• A. Liver.✓
• B. Lungs
• C. Skin
• D. Kidneys
• E. Entire body

Explanation: Portal circulation refers to the unique blood supply route that carries blood from the digestive organs (stomach, intestines, and spleen) to the liver before returning it to the general circulatory system. The liver plays a critical role in processing and detoxifying the nutrients and substances absorbed from the digestive system, making it a vital part of this specialized circulation. Blood flows through the liver's portal system before joining the rest of the body's circulation.

Q65. All of the following are found in plasma except

• A. Fibrogen
• B. Antibodies
• C. Harmones
• D. Starch✓
• E. Amino acids

Explanation: Plasma is the liquid component of blood and contains a variety of substances, including water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, waste products, and nutrients. However, starch, which is a polysaccharide, is not naturally found in plasma. Instead, starch is a type of carbohydrate found in food and needs to be broken down into simpler sugars for absorption into they bloodstream.

Q66. All of the following statements about white blood cells are true except

• A. They are formed in lymph glands
• B. They are formed in bone marrow
• C. They move like paramecia✓
• D. They destroy bacteria
• E. They have a nucleus

Explanation: They move like paramecia: This statement is not entirely accurate. White blood cells can exhibit different modes of movement, depending on the type. While some white blood cells move through amoeboid motion, it is not necessarily like paramecia

Q67. The correct sequence of steps-in the clotting of blood (1-platelet; 2-fibrin; 3- fibrinogen: 4. thrombin; 5-prothrombi n) is

• A. 1-3-2-54
• B. 1-2-3-5-4✓
• C. 1-2-3-4-5
• D. 1-5-4-3-2
• E. 1-S-4-2-3

Explanation: 1. Platelets (1) are involved in the initial formation of a plug at the site of injury. 2. Fibrinogen (3) is then converted into fibrin (2) through the action of thrombin (5). 3. Thrombin (5) is produced from prothrombin (4).

Q68. A person with Type A blood may safely receive a transfusion of

• A. Type AB
• B. Type A and Type AB
• C. Type AB and Type O
• D. Type A and Type O✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: This is the correct option. Type A individuals can safely receive Type A and Type O blood. Type O blood is considered the universal donor for the ABO blood group system, as it lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with Type A blood.

Q69. The percentages of nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide in exhd air are about.

• A. 79-20-0.04✓
• B. 79-16-43
• C. 20-79-0.04
• D. 16-79-4
• E. 79-4-16

Explanation: • Nitrogen (N2) makes up about 79% of the air we breathe. • Oxygen (O2) comprises roughly 20% of the air. • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is present in trace amounts, approximately 0.04% in exhaled air.

Q70. The passageway of the trachea is kept open by rings of

• A. Striited muscle
• B. Adenoids
• C. Cartilage✓
• D. Mucus
• E. Sinuses

Explanation: Cartilage is a tough, flexible connective tissue that forms C-shaped rings around the trachea. These rings of cartilage provide structural support to the trachea and help keep the airway open. This ensures that the trachea remains patent (open) for the passage of air during breathing.

Q71. The microscopic structures in the kidneys that remove wastes from the blood are

• A. Renal arteries
• B. Renal veins
• C. Renal veins✓
• D. Ureters
• E. Urethra

Explanation: Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney responsible for the filtration, reabsorption, and secretion of substances, including the removal of waste products from the blood to form urine.

Q72. On a humid day, a person is uncomfortable because

• A. He or she perspires more
• B. There is less evaporation of perspiration.✓
• C. Perspiration evaporates quickly
• D. Larger amounts of salt are excreted by the skin
• E. The surface of the skin is too dry

Explanation: This is the correct option. On humid days, the air is already saturated with moisture, making it more challenging for sweat to evaporate from the skin. Evaporation is a cooling process, so when it's less effective, the body has a harder time cooling downy resulting in discomfort.

Q73. Urine leaves the body through the

• A. Glomerulus
• B. Epiglottis
• C. Alveoli
• D. Ureters
• E. Urethra✓

Explanation: The urethra is the tube that connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the body, allowing urine to be eliminated from the body.

Q74. All of the following hormones are produced In the alimentary canal except

• A. Secretin
• B. Cholecystokinin
• C. Enterocrinin
• D. Gastrin
• E. Insulin✓

Explanation: Insulin is not produced in the alimentary canal. It is a hormone produced by the pancreas, specifically the islets of Langerhans, and is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and metabolism, rather than the digestive processes in the alimentary canal.

Q75. The adrenal glands are located above the

• A. Kidneys✓
• B. Heart
• C. Neck
• D. Brain
• E. Stomach

Explanation: Each person has two adrenal glands, one on top of each kidney. These glands play a crucial role in producing hormones like adrenaline and cortisol.

Q76. The gland known as the" gland of emergency" is the

• A. Pituitary
• B. Adrenal gland✓
• C. Thyroid
• D. Parathyroid
• E. Pancreas

Explanation: The adrenal glands are often referred to as the "glands of emergency" because they play a crucial role in the body's stress response. These glands produce hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol, which prepare the body to respond to stressful situations by increasing heart rate, raising blood pressure, and mobilizing energy resources.

Q77. A hormone that stimulates the production of cortisone is

• A. Adrenaline
• B. Cortin
• C. Auxin
• D. ATP
• E. ACTH✓

Explanation: ACTH, which stands for Adrenocorticotropic Hormone. ACTH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisone (a type of corticosteroid hormone) and other related hormones. Cortisone plays a role in various physiological processes, including the body's stress response and immune function.

Q78. During a heart attack. a doctor may inject

• A. Thyroxin
• B. Insulin
• C. Prolactin
• D. Adrenaline✓
• E. Enterocrinin

Explanation: Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, can be administered in emergency situations like a heart attack to help increase heart rate and blood pressure. This can help improve blood flow to the heart and vital organs during a cardiac emergency.

Q79. The spinal card serves as the center of

• A. Subconscious thought
• B. Reflex actions✓
• C. Habits
• D. Tropisms
• E. Synapses

Explanation: Reflex actions are rapid, involuntary responses to a specific stimulus that occur without conscious thought. The spinal cord is responsible for coordinating many of these reflex actions, allowing the body to respond quickly to various sensory inputs.

Q80. The breathing rate is controlled by the

• A. Lungs
• B. Medulla✓
• C. Cerebrum
• D. Cerebellum
• E. Sensory area

Explanation: The medulla oblongata, a region in the brainstem, plays a crucial role in regulating basic life-sustaining functions, including the breathing rate. It receives signals from chemoreceptors that monitor blood gas levels (primarily carbon dioxide) and adjusts the breathing rate to maintain proper oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

Q81. The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following activities except

• A. Secretion of digestive juice
• B. Peristalsis
• C. Sweating
• D. Thought✓
• E. Diameter of blood vessels

Explanation: Thought and conscious cognitive processes are primarily controlled by the central nervous system, including the brain. The autonomic nervous system is not directly involved in conscious thought.

Q82. The sense of balance. is maintained with the help of the

• A. Cochlea:
• B. Hammer
• C. Anvil
• D. Stirrup
• E. Semicircular canals.✓

Explanation: The semicircular canals are part of the inner ear and play a crucial role in detecting changes in head position and motion, which are essential for maintaining balance and spatial orientation.

Q83. A disease in which the red blood cells area attacked is

• A. Rabies
• B. Amebic dysentery
• C. Polio
• D. Trichinosis
• E. Malaria✓

Explanation: Malaria is a parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium parasites that invade and destroy red blood cells, leading to various symptoms, including fever, anemia, and organ damage.

Q84. Penicillin Was discovered by

• A. Ehrlich
• B. Fleming✓
• C. Waksman
• D. Koch
• E. Metchnikoff

Explanation: Sir Alexander Fleming, a Scottish bacteriologist, discovered penicillin in 1928. This antibiotic revolutionized medicine by effectively treating bacterial infections and saving countless lives. The discovery of penicillin is considered one of the most important developments in the history of medicine.

Q85. A chest X ray is useful in detecting a case of

• A. Diphtheria
• B. Typhoid
• C. Tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis✓
• E. Typhus

Explanation: Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. A chest X-ray can reveal the presence of characteristic lung lesions and abnormalities associated with TB.

Q86. The ectoderm develops into the

• A. Circulatory system
• B. Nervous system✓
• C. Liver
• D. Muscles
• E. Bones

Explanation: During embryonic development, the ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers, and it gives rise to various structures, including the nervous system, skin, hair, and nails. The central and peripheral nervous systems, including the brain and spinal cord, originate from the ectoderm.

Q87. The egg-producing structure of an animal is called the

• A. Oviduct
• B. Ovum
• C. Ovary✓
• D. Ovule
• E. Ovipositor

Explanation: The ovary is the female reproductive organ responsible for producing and releasing eggs (ova) in animals.

Q88. The human fetus is surrounded by

• A. Liquid✓
• B. Nitrogenous wastes
• C. Air
• D. Solid cells
• E. A fertilization membrane

Explanation: The developing fetus is enclosed within the amniotic sac, which is filled with amniotic fluid. This fluid provides protection, cushioning, and support for the growing fetus during pregnancy.

Q89. The correct sequence of stages in the menstrual

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 8
• E. 16

Explanation: The menstrual cycle consists of several phases, and there are typically six stages when considering the entire cycle: 1. Menstruation 2. Follicular phase 3. Ovulation 4. Luteal phase 5. Secretory phase 6. Ischemic phase These stages involve hormonal changes, the development of ovarian follicles, the release of an egg, and the preparation of the uterus for possible pregnancy. The exact duration of each stage can vary among individuals, but this sequence represents a typical menstrual cycle.

Q90. If the sperm cell of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes, then the number of chromosomes in each body cell is

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 8
• E. 16

Explanation: The menstrual cycle consists of several phases, and there are typically six stages when considering the entire cycle: 1. Menstruation 2. Follicular phase 3. Ovulation 4. Luteal phase 5. Secretory phase 6. Ischemic phase These stages involve hormonal changes, the development of ovarian follicles, the release of an egg, and the preparation of the uterus for possible pregnancy. The exact duration of each stage can vary among individuals, but this sequence represents a typical menstrual cycle.

Q91. Polar bodies are formed during

• A. Somatic hybridization
• B. Spermatogenesis
• C. Oogenesis✓
• D. Spermiogenesis

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q92. When a chromosome duplicates, it forms a pair of

• A. Centrosomes
• B. Spindles
• C. Chromatids✓
• D. Centromeres
• E. Nucleoil

Explanation: Chromatids are the two identical copies of a chromosome that result from DNA replication during the cell cycle. These chromatids are held together by a structure called the centromere.

Q93. The Law of Dominance Is illustrated in the garden pea by

• A. Homozygous tall x heterozygous tall✓
• B. Heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• C. Homozygous tall x homozygous tall
• D. Pure short x pure short
• E. Homozygous tall x pure short

Explanation: The law of Dominance, one of Mendel's laws of inheritance, states that in a heterozygous individual (one with two different alleles for a trait), the dominant allele will determine the phenotype while the recessive allele will be masked. In the case of garden pea plants, "T" represents the dominant allele for tall height, and "t" represents the recessive allele for short height. When a homozygous tall plant (TT) is crossed with a heterozygous tall plant (Tt), the law of Dominance is illustrated because all the offspring will be tall, showing that the dominant allele (T) determines the phenotype.

Q94. When hybrids are crossed, the genotype ratio of the offspring is

• A. 1:1
• B. 3:1
• C. 1:2:1✓
• D. 4:1
• E. 3:2

Explanation: This is known as a monohybrid cross, involving the inheritance of a single trait (e.g., one gene with two alleles). The genotype ratio can be represented as follows: • 1/4 of the offspring are homozygous dominant (e.g., TT). • 1/2 of the offspring are heterozygous (e.g., Tt). • 1/4 of the offspring are homozygous recessive (e.g., tt). This ratio is based on Mendel's law of segregation, which describes how alleles segregate during gamete formation.

Q95. A cross in Which three-fourth of the offspring appear dominant is

• A. Ttx IT
• B. TT x tt
• C. Tt x tt
• D. Tt x Tt✓
• E. T X TT

Explanation: This is a monohybrid cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for a particular trait (Tt). In this case, the genotype ratio of the offspring is ¼ homozygous dominant (TT), 1/2 heterozygous (Tt), and 1/4 homozygous recessive (tt). The phenotypic ratio is 3/4 dominant and 1/4 recessive.

Q96. If a man who is color-blind marries a woman who is pure normal for color vision, the chances of their sons being color-blind are

• A. 0
• B. 100:1
• C. 50:50✓
• D. 75:25
• E. 25:50:25

Explanation: Color blindness is often linked to a recessive allele carried on the X chromosome. • The man is color-blind (genotype: XcY), which means he carries a color-blind allele on his X chromosome. • The woman is pure normal for color vision (genotype: XX). Their sons inherit one X chromosome from their mother and one Y chromosome from their father. Since the father only has a a Y chromosome to pass on, the determining factor for color vision in their sons is the X chromosome from the mother. The possible genetic outcomes for their sons are as follows: • 50% of their sons will inherit the X chromosome from the mother (X) and the Y chromosome from the father (Y),resulting in normal color vision (genotype:XY). • The other 50% of their sons will inherit the X chromosome from the mother (X) and the Y chromosome from the father (Y), resulting in color blindness (genotype: XcY). This leads to a 50:50 chance that their sons will be color-blind.

Q97. The blood-group alleles (' 1 ' are for blood group

• A. O✓
• B. A
• C. B
• D. AB
• E. M

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q98. The hemoglobin of people with sickle-cell anemia differs from normal hemoglobin by one

• A. Lipids
• B. Monosaccharides
• C. Disaccharides
• D. Fatty acids
• E. Amino acid✓

Explanation: In sickle-cell anemia, a genetic mutation leads to the substitution of a single amino acid in the hemoglobin protein. This substitution involves the replacement of glutamic acid with valine.The resulting abnormal hemoglobin, known as hemoglobin S (HbS), causes red blood cells to change shape, becoming rigid and forming a characteristic "sickle" shape under certain conditions.

Q99. Of the following, the combination of bases that cannot be present in DNA is

• A. AUCG
• B. ATCG
• C. ATTA✓
• D. CGTA
• E. GCAT

Explanation: In DNA, the four bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). The sequence AT TA contains the base "A" followed by "T," but it repeats "T" immediately after "A," which does not occur in DNA because adenine (A) pairs specifically with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G).Repeating "T" immediately after "A" is not a valid base pairing in DNA.

Q100. A sequence of three bases on messenger RNA is called

• A. tRNA
• B. rRNA
• C. A codon✓
• D. An anticodon
• E. A double helix

Explanation: In the genetic code, a codon is a three-nucleotide sequence that specifies a particular amino acid or a start or stop signal for protein synthesis. Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid, and they are crucial in the translation process during protein synthesis.

Q101. Which elements has higher ionization energy ?

• A. Li
• B. Be
• C. B✓
• D. Na

Explanation: The ionization energy generally increases as you move across a period from left to right on the periodic table. Therefore, among the given elements, Boron (B) has the highest ionization energy. So, the correct answer is (C)

Q102. Which of the following has all species isoelectronic

• A. F-, Cl-, Br-✓
• B. Li+1, Na+1, k+1
• C. F-, Ne, Na+
• D. H+, H-, H

Explanation: The species are isoelectronic when they have the same number of electrons. Among the options given, (A) F-, Cl-, Br- are all isoelectronic because they all have 18 electrons. So, the correct answer is (A) F-, Cl-, Br-.

Q103. What can effect the Magnitude of equilibdum constant K of a ieversible gaseous reaction?

• A. Temperature✓
• B. Pressure
• C. Catalyst
• D. Concentration

Explanation: The magnitude of the equilibrium constant K for a reversible gaseous reaction can be affected by changes in temperature. So, the correct answer is (A) Temperature. Changes in temperature can shift the position of the equilibrium and alter the value of K. Pressure, catalysts, and concentration changes may also impact the equilibrium position but do not directly affect the magnitude of K.

Q104. The preparation of H2SO4 by contact process is an example of

• A. Water-ethanol
• B. Chlorobenzene and bromobenzene
• C. Water-ether
• D. HCI and water✓

Explanation: The preparation of H2SO4 by the contact process involves the reaction between sulfur dioxide (SO2) and oxygen (O2) in the presence of a catalyst to form sulfur trioxide (SO3). The SO3 is then absorbed in concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4) to produce oleum (a solution of H2SO4 in SO3). This oleum is subsequently diluted with water to obtain concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4). The other options (A, B, and C) involve different substances and processes that are not related to the production of sulfuric acid through the contact process. Therefore, they are incorrect in the context of this specific chemical reaction.

Q105. Which is the unit of (K) rate order reaction

• A. s-1
• B. mol dm-3 s
• C. mol-1 dm3 s-1✓
• D. mol-2 dm6 s-1

Explanation: The unit for the rate constant (k) in a rate order reaction is determined by the overall reaction rate equation. In a rate order reaction, the rate of the reaction is expressed as: Rate = k[A]m[B]n Where: k is the rate constant. [A] and [B] are the concentrations of the reactants. m and n are the reaction orders with respect to A and B, respectively. To make the units of the rate equation consistent, the unit of the rate constant (k) must be such that it cancels out the units of the concentrations raised to the respective reaction orders. In this case, for the units to cancel out, k must have the unit of mol(-1) dm3 s(-1). This choice of units ensures that when you plug in the concentrations of the reactants with their respective units (e.g., mol dm(-3)), the units of k cancel out the units of the concentrations raised to the reaction orders, resulting in consistent units for the rate. This is a fundamental requirement for a rate constant to be meaningful in a rate order reaction.

Q106. The number of grams of NaOH are present in 500 cm3 of 0.1M NaOH

• A. 40
• B. 20
• C. 2✓
• D. 4

Explanation: To calculate the number of grams of NaOH in 500 cm3 of 0.1 M NaOH, you can use the formula: Grams = Molarity (M) × Volume (L) × Molar Mass (g/mol) First, convert the volume from cm3 to liters: 500 cm3 = 500 / 1000 = 0.5 liters The molar mass of NaOH is the sum of the atomic masses of its components: Na (Sodium) = 23 g/mol O (Oxygen) = 16 g/mol H (Hydrogen) = 1 g/mol Molar Mass (NaOH) = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g/mol Now, you can calculate the grams of NaOH: Grams = 0.1 M × 0.5 L × 40 g/mol = 2 grams So, the number of grams of NaOH present in 500 cm3 of 0.1 M NaOH is C) 2 grams.

Q107. Which one does not give borax bead test

• A. Copper sulphate
• B. Barium sulphate✓
• C. Cobalt sulphate
• D. Nickel sulphate

Explanation: Barium sulfate (B) does not give the borax bead test. The borax bead test is used to identify certain metal ions based on the color of the borax bead when the substance is heated on a loop of platinum wire in the presence of borax (sodium borate). Barium sulfate is not a compound that forms a colored bead in this test, while copper sulfate (A), cobalt sulfate (C), and nickel sulfate (D) can produce characteristic colors in the borax bead.

Q108. The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorus is

• A. White
• B. Red✓
• C. Black
• D. Violet

Explanation: The reactivity of different allotropes of phosphorus is primarily due to their structural differences and stability. Here's why red phosphorus is the most reactive: Structural differences: White phosphorus consists of P4 molecules, which are tetrahedral in shape and highly reactive. It can spontaneously ignite in air. Red phosphorus has a polymeric structure, where the P4 molecules are linked together into larger chains or networks. This structure is less reactive than white phosphorus. Black phosphorus and violet phosphorus have even more complex structures, making them less reactive than both white and red phosphorus. Stability: Red phosphorus is more stable and less likely to spontaneously ignite in air compared to white phosphorus. This makes it safer to handle and store. White phosphorus, on the other hand, is extremely reactive and can catch fire even at room temperature when exposed to air. So, the red phosphorus is considered the most reactive

Q109. Chemical composition of cinnabar is

• A. FeS2
• B. HgS✓
• C. PbS
• D. ZnS

Explanation: The chemical composition of cinnabar is B) HgS. Cinnabar is a mineral that primarily consists of mercury (Hg) and sulfur (S)

Q110. Which molecule has the highest bond energy among the halogens

• A. Fluorine✓
• B. Chlorine
• C. Iodine
• D. Bromine

Explanation: Among the halogen molecules, fluorine (A) has the highest bond energy. This is because the bond energy generally increases as you move from left to right across the halogen group in the periodic table. Fluorine, being the smallest and most electronegative halogen, forms a strong covalent bond in its diatomic molecule (F2).

Q111. The most paramagnetic elements is

• A. Iron
• B. Cobalt
• C. Chromium✓
• D. Manganese

Explanation: The most paramagnetic element among the options provided is C) Chromium (Cr). Chromium is highly paramagnetic due to its unpaired electrons in its electron configuration, making it more attracted to an external magnetic field. Iron (Fe) and cobalt (Co) are also paramagnetic, but chromium is typically more paramagnetic than both of them. Manganese (Mn) can also exhibit paramagnetic behavior but to a lesser extent compared to chromium.

Q112. In the complex [Cr(OH)3(H2O)3], the coordination number is

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 6✓

Explanation: The coordination number of a complex refers to the number of ligands bonded directly to the central metal ion. In the complex [Cr(OH)2(H2O)3], chromium (Cr) is bonded to a total of six ligands. There are three water molecules (H2O) directly bonded to the central chromium atom, and there are two hydroxide ions (OH-) bonded to the chromium atom as well. This adds up to a total of six ligands bonded to the chromium ion. Therefore, the coordination number is 6.

Q113. In 1-pentene yne the carbon number 1,2,3 exhibit hybridization, respective

• A. sp3 - sp2- sp
• B. sp3-sp-sp
• C. sp3-sp-sp2
• D. sp2-sp3-sp✓

Explanation: In 1-pentyne, the carbon atoms at positions 1, 2, and 3 exhibit the following hybridization, respectively: The carbon at position 1: sp hybridization The carbon at position 2: sp2 hybridization The carbon at position 3: sp3 hybridization So, the correct choice is D) sp2-sp3-sp.

Q114. Vinyl acetylene combines with hydrochloric acid produce

• A. Divinyl acetylene
• B. Ethylidine dichloride✓
• C. Chloroprene
• D. 1,3,3 - trichloro butane

Explanation: The reaction between vinylacetylene and hydrochloric acid involves the addition of HCl across the carbon-carbon triple bond in vinylacetylene. This addition reaction occurs due to the electrophilic nature of the hydrogen cation (H+) in HCl. The result is the formation of a dichloride compound. Specifically, when the hydrogen atoms from HCl add to the carbon atoms of the alkyne, it leads to the formation of ethylidine dichloride. The chemical reaction can be represented as follows: Vinylacetylene + HCl → Ethylidine dichloride So, in this reaction, ethylidine dichloride is the product formed when vinylacetylene combines with hydrochloric acid.

Q115. When benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450° C Yields

• A. Phenol
• B. Maleic anhydride✓
• C. Glyoxal
• D. Benzoic acid

Explanation: The reaction between benzene and V2O5 at 450°C is a well-known industrial process called the "vanadium oxide catalyzed oxidation of benzene." This reaction is used to produce maleic anhydride. Here's a brief explanation of why this reaction occurs: Vanadium Pentoxide (V2O5) serves as a catalyst: V2O5 acts as a catalyst in this process, helping to initiate and accelerate the reaction without itself being consumed. Catalysts provide an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy, making the reaction more favorable. Oxidation of Benzene: In the presence of oxygen (from air) and the V2O5 catalyst, benzene undergoes oxidation. The exact mechanism involves the breaking of benzene's double bonds and the introduction of oxygen atoms to form maleic anhydride. The overall reaction can be simplified as follows: Benzene + Oxygen (from air) + V2O5 → Maleic Anhydride Maleic anhydride is an important chemical intermediate used in the production of various products, including resins, polymers, and pharmaceuticals.

Q116. Which one of the following is not a good leaving group

• A. HSO4-✓
• B. Cl-
• C. OH-
• D. Br-

Explanation: The good leaving group should be stable after leaving the molecule. Among the options provided: A) HSO4- (hydrogen sulfate) is a weak leaving group and not a good choice. B) Cl- (chloride) is a good leaving group. C) OH- (hydroxide) is a weak leaving group and not a good choice. D) Br- (bromide) is a good leaving group. So, the answer is A) HSO4-.

Q117. The process of fermentation involves all the enzymes except

• A. Propane
• B. Propanal✓
• C. Propanoic acid
• D. Propanol

Explanation: The process of fermentation typically involves enzymes that convert sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide. Among the options provided: A) Propane is not related to the fermentation process. B) Propanal is not typically involved in fermentation. C) Propanoic acid is not typically involved in fermentation. D) Propanol 1 (also known as 1-propanol or n-propanol) can be produced during fermentation, making it a relevant component. So, the answer is B) Propanal.

Q118. Which one does not exhibit aldol condensation

• A. Ethanal
• B. Acetone
• C. Benzaldehyde
• D. Butan✓

Explanation: Aldol condensation is a specific reaction that involves the condensation (combination) of two molecules of an aldehyde or a ketone, with at least one of them having an α-hydrogen (a hydrogen atom attached to the carbon adjacent to the carbonyl group). This reaction proceeds by the formation of an enolate ion, followed by the elimination of a water molecule and the subsequent formation of a new carbon-carbon bond. In the case of the options provided: A) Ethanal is an aldehyde and can undergo aldol condensation. B) Acetone is a ketone and can undergo aldol condensation. C) Benzaldehyde is an aldehyde and can undergo aldol condensation. D) Butan is an alkane and does not contain a carbonyl group, and it lacks the necessary α-hydrogens for aldol condensation to occur. So, Butan (D) is the only compound listed that cannot exhibit aldol condensation because it does not have the required functional groups or α-hydrogens for this reaction.

Q119. The molecules of CO2 in dry ice form

• A. Covalent crystals
• B. Ionic crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Molecular crystals✓

Explanation: The question is related to the solid form of carbon dioxide, commonly known as dry ice. Dry ice is the solid state of carbon dioxide at a temperature of -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit). In this state, the carbon dioxide molecules are held together in a specific arrangement, forming a particular type of crystal structure.

Q120. Which of the following in pseudo solid

• A. Caf2
• B. NaCI
• C. Glass✓
• D. Diamond

Explanation: Among the options provided, "Glass" is often considered a pseudo solid. Glass is not a true crystalline solid like diamond, CaF2 (calcium fluoride), or NaCl (sodium chloride). It lacks a well-defined, repeating crystal lattice structure. Instead, glass is an amorphous solid, which means its atoms or molecules are arranged in a disordered and non-repeating fashion. This is why glass is sometimes referred to as a "pseudo solid" or "amorphous solid."

Q121. Quantum number values for 3p Orbitals are

• A. n=3 /=2
• B. n=3 /=0
• C. n=3 /=1✓
• D. n=3 /.3

Explanation: The quantum numbers for orbitals describe the energy level, shape, orientation, and spin of electrons in an atom. In the case of 3p orbitals: Principal Quantum Number (n): This quantum number defines the energy level or shell of the electron. For 3p orbitals, n = 3, which indicates that these orbitals are in the third energy level. Angular Momentum Quantum Number (l): This quantum number defines the shape of the orbital. For 3p orbitals, l = 1, which indicates that they have a dumbbell shape along the three spatial axes. Hence option C.

Q122. Which Specie has unpaired electrons in anti bonding molecular orbitals

• A. O2+2
• B. B2
• C. O2-2✓
• D. N22

Explanation: Species with unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals are typically reactive and less stable. To determine which of the given species have unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals, we can look at their molecular electron configurations: O2+2 (dioxygen cation): This species has lost two electrons compared to O2 (dioxygen). O2 has a paramagnetic nature due to unpaired electrons, and O2+2 would also have unpaired electrons, making it paramagnetic. B2 (diboron molecule): Boron atoms in B2 each contribute one unpaired electron to form a bond, resulting in two unpaired electrons in the molecule, making it paramagnetic. O2-2 (dioxygen dianion): O2 has unpaired electrons, but O2-2 would gain two electrons compared to O2, resulting in a filled antibonding molecular orbital. O2-2 is not paramagnetic. N22 (dinitrogen molecule): N2 is diatomic nitrogen, and it is well-known for its triple bond, which involves a sigma bond and two pi bonds. N22 would have additional unpaired electrons in the antibonding pi orbitals, making it paramagnetic. So, O2+2, B2, and N22 have unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals and are paramagnetic. O2-2 would have all of its electrons paired in the antibonding molecular orbitals, so it is not paramagnetic

Q123. For which system does the equilibrium constant Mc has unit of (concentration)-1

• A. N+3H2= 2NH3
• B. H2+I2=2Hl
• C. 2NO2= N2 O4✓
• D. 2HF = H2 +F2

Explanation: Ans is C due to the expression of Kc which is concentration of products over reactants raised to the power of their molar ratios. Only in option C it is mol/dm3 divided by (mol/dm3)2 and which ends up as (mol/dm3)-1

Q124. Stronger is the oxidizing agent, greater is the

• A. Oxidation potential
• B. Reduction potential✓
• C. E.M.F of cell
• D. Redox potential

Explanation: The stronger the oxidizing agent, the greater its ability to accept electrons from other substances during a redox (oxidation-reduction) reaction. Oxidizing agents are substances that are reduced in a chemical reaction by accepting electrons, causing the oxidation of another substance. In a redox reaction, the substance being oxidized loses electrons (it's the reducing agent), and the substance being reduced gains electrons (it's the oxidizing agent). A strong oxidizing agent has a high affinity for electrons and is capable of taking electrons from other substances more readily, leading to a more significant oxidation of the other substances involved in the reaction. So, the greater the strength of the oxidizing agent, the more effective it is at causing the oxidation of other substances in the reaction. Strong oxidizing agents typically have a higher standard reduction potential and a greater tendency to gain electrons.

Q125. Which of the following can be used in laptops?

• A. Silver oxide battery
• B. Fuel Cel
• C. Nickel cadmium cell✓
• D. Lead accumulator

Explanation: Silver oxide batteries are not commonly used in laptops.Fuel cells are not commonly used in laptops, although they are being explored for future applications.Nickel-cadmium (NiCd) cells have been used in older laptops, but they are less common now due to their lower energy density and environmental concerns.Lead-acid accumulators (batteries) are not used in laptops but are commonly found in larger applications, such as automotive batteries.Hence the answer is C.

Q126. Which is true about Zn-Cu Galvanic cell?

• A. Reduction occurs at anode
• B. K+1 ion transfer from salt bridge to left beaker of ZnSO4
• C. Oxidation occurs at cathode
• D. Anode is negatively charge✓

Explanation: In a Zn-Cu galvanic cell: Oxidation occurs at the anode: This statement is true. In the anode compartment, zinc (Zn) undergoes oxidation, releasing electrons and forming Zn2+ ions. Reduction occurs at the cathode: This statement is true. In the cathode compartment, copper (Cu2+) ions gain electrons and are reduced to form solid copper (Cu) metal. Anode is negatively charged: This statement is not true. The anode is the electrode where oxidation occurs, and it has an excess of electrons. As a result, it is negatively charged. The cathode, where reduction occurs, is positively charged. K+ ion transfer from the salt bridge to ZnSO4: This statement is not typically how a salt bridge operates. The salt bridge helps maintain electrical neutrality in the cell by allowing ions to move from one compartment to another. In a Zn-Cu cell, the salt bridge helps balance the charges created by the electron flow in the two half-cells. While K+ ions are often used in salt bridges, they would not transfer specifically to ZnSO4. The ions in the salt bridge maintain charge balance without specific reactions with the electrolytes in the half-cells. Ans is D

Q127. The common name of Propane -1,3-dioic acid is

• A. Oxalic acid
• B. Succinic acid
• C. Malonic acid✓
• D. Fumaric acid

Explanation: The common name for propan-1,3-dioic acid is "malonic acid." Malonic acid is a dicarboxylic acid with the molecular formula C3H4O4. It is used in various chemical reactions and is an important compound in organic synthesis.

Q128. A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol and 90g water. Mole fraction o water in the solution is

• A. 0.1
• B. 0.4
• C. 0.2
• D. 0.5✓

Explanation: To find the mole fraction of water in the solution, you need to calculate the number of moles of water and the total number of moles in the solution. Calculate the moles of each component: Moles of water (H2O): Moles = Mass (g) / Molar mass (g/mol) Moles of H2O = 90g / 18.015 g/mol (molar mass of H2O) = 4.990 moles (rounded to 3 decimal places) Moles of ethanol (C2H5OH): Moles = Mass (g) / Molar mass (g/mol) Moles of C2H5OH = 92g / 46.07 g/mol (molar mass of C2H5OH) = 1.995 moles (rounded to 3 decimal places) Moles of methanol (CH3OH): Moles = Mass (g) / Molar mass (g/mol) Moles of CH3OH = 96g / 32.04 g/mol (molar mass of CH3OH) = 2.995 moles (rounded to 3 decimal places) Calculate the total moles in the solution: Total moles = Moles of water + Moles of ethanol + Moles of methanol Total moles = 4.990 moles + 1.995 moles + 2.995 moles = 9.980 moles (rounded to 3 decimal places) Calculate the mole fraction of water: Mole fraction of water = Moles of water / Total moles

Q129. What is the'molarity of a solution when of a i'olution when 45g of glucose is present in 500cm2 of solution

• A. 5✓
• B. 2.5
• C. 3.5
• D. 4

Explanation: To calculate the molarity of a solution, you need to know the number of moles of the solute (glucose) and the volume of the solution in liters. First, calculate the number of moles of glucose: Moles of glucose = Mass (in grams) / Molar mass of glucose The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is approximately 180.16 g/mol. Moles of glucose = 45 g / 180.16 g/mol ≈ 0.25 moles Now, convert the volume from cubic centimeters (cm3) to liters (L): 1 cm3 = 1/1000 L So, 50 cm3 = 50/1000 = 0.05 L Now, you can calculate the molarity (M): Molarity (M) = Moles of solute / Volume of solution (in liters) Molarity = 0.25 moles / 0.05 liters = 5 M

Q130. Which of the following isotopes will have maximum deflection in magnetic field during mass spectrometric analysis

• A. C-12✓
• B. C-14
• C. C-14
• D. Same defection

Explanation: The deflection of charged particles in an electric field is determined by the charge-to-mass ratio (q/m) of the particle. The greater the charge-to-mass ratio, the more a particle will be deflected in the electric field. In this case, we are comparing isotopes of carbon, C12 and C14. Both carbon-12 (C12) and carbon-14 (C14) have the same charge because they have the same number of protons (which is 6). However, the key difference is in their mass. Carbon-12 (C12) has 6 protons and 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 (C14) has 6 protons and 8 neutrons. Since carbon-14 has a larger mass due to the extra neutrons, its charge-to-mass ratio (q/m) is smaller compared to carbon-12. Therefore, in an electric field, carbon-12 will experience a greater deflection than carbon-14. So, C12 will have the maximum deflection in an electric field compared to C14. And is A.

Q131. Ice floats on the liquid water because

• A. Density of water is maximum at 4 *C✓
• B. Water freezes at 0°C and is less than liquid water
• C. Ice occupies less volume than water at 0°C
• D. Both B) and C)

Explanation: Ice floats on liquid water because the density of water is maximum at 4 °C. When water cools below 4 °C, it starts to contract and become denser. However, when water freezes into ice at 0 °C, it expands,becoming less dense than the liquid water around it. This lower density of ice causes it to float on top of the denser liquid water.

Q132. Rate of evaporation of a liquid does not depend on

• A. Surface area of liquid
• B. Material of container
• C. External pressure✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: External pressure can affect the boiling point of a liquid, but it doesn't significantly impact the rate of evaporation. Evaporation occurs when molecules escape from the liquid into the gas phase at temperatures below the boiling point. Changes in external pressure usually have a more noticeable effect on boiling, not on everyday evaporation.

Q133. Which pair of electrons of elements will have the same chemical properties

• A. 2, 24
• B. 2, 4
• C. 13, 22
• D. 13, 11✓

Explanation: These are elements in the same group (Group 13 or Group IIIA) with similar valence electron configurations. They will exhibit similar chemical properties.

Q134. Which one of the following electronic configuration represents an elements that form a simple ion with -3 charge

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
• C. 1s2, 2s2, 3p6, 3s2, 3p3
• D. 1s, 2s2, 3p1✓

Explanation: This electron configuration adds an extra electron to the 3p subshell, forming a negatively charged ion

Q135. The place between two orbitals where probability for finding the electron is zero known as

• A. Nodal plane✓
• B. Anti orbital
• C. Atomic hole
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct term, "nodal plane," is used to describe regions in a molecular orbital where the electron density is effectively zero. This is where the electron's wave functions have opposite phases, leading to destructive interference and no electron presence.

Q136. Dipole moment gives the information about?

• A. % ionic character✓
• B. Geometry of the molecules
• C. Bond angles
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Dipole moment provides information about the polarity of a molecule, and it can be used to estimate the degree of ionic character in a polar covalent bond.

Q137. The shape of H2O+ is

• A. Tetrahedral
• B. Angular✓
• C. Pyramidal
• D. CO2 and SO2

Explanation: • The shape of a water molecule (H2O) is angular or bent. It has two hydrogen atoms bonded to a central oxygen atom. • The bond angle between the two hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is approximately 104.5 degrees. • This angular shape arises from the arrangement of the electron pairs around the oxygen atom, with two lone pairs and two bonding pairs of electrons.

Q138. Which of the following molecule has non direction bond(s

• A. NH3✓
• B. NaCI
• C. H2O
• D. None of these

Explanation: NH3 has non-directional bonds. This is because it forms covalent bonds, and the electron density is shared equally between the nitrogen and hydrogen atoms.In NH3 (ammonia), the nitrogen-hydrogen bonds are covalent and exhibit non-directional characteristics because nitrogen and hydrogen have similar electronegativities. This leads to the sharing of electrons in a less polarized manner.

Q139. Which of the following is non-directional orbital

• A. 2s✓
• B. 2px
• C. 3pz
• D. 3dxy

Explanation: Orbitals like 2s are spherical and do not have directional characteristics. They are spherically symmetric around the nucleus, and the probability of finding an electron is equal in all directions from the nucleus.Hence, 2s is a non-directional orbital.

Q140. The hybridization of 'P' in PCI5 is

• A. Sp2
• B. sp3✓
• C. NH2
• D. None of these

Explanation: In PCI5 (phosphorus pentachloride), phosphorus (P) forms five sigma (a) bonds with five chlorine atoms. To do this, it undergoes sp3d hybridization. • This hybridization results in the formation of five sp3d hybrid orbitals, which are then used to overlap with the 3p orbitals of chlorine atoms to form sigma bonds. • The hybridization involves one 3s and three 3p orbitals, giving a total of four orbitals to form the sigma bonds.

Q141. 0n the basis of s-character which of the following bond is practically the strongest

• A. 25%✓
• B. 75%
• C. 50%
• D. 33%

Explanation: The strength of a covalent bond is related to the amount of s-character in the hybridized orbital. • Higher s-character in the hybrid orbital leads to a stronger bond. An s orbital is more spherical and closer to the nucleus, resulting in a stronger bond. • Among the given options, 25% represents the highest s-character, making it the strongest bond. The higher the percentage of s-character, the stronger the bond. B) 75%, C) 50%, and D) 33% correspond to different levels of s-character but are not as strong as 25%.

Q142. Which of the following theory explain the formula unit of NaCI

• A. VSEPR
• B. Molecular orbital theory
• C. Valence bond theory✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Valence bond theory is a chemical bonding theory that describes the formation of chemical bonds by the overlap of atomic orbitals. • In the case of NaCI (sodium chloride), the formation of the ionic bond between sodium (Na) and chlorine (CI) ions is explained by the valence bond theory. It describes how the 3s orbital of sodium overlaps with the 3p orbital of chlorine to explained by the valence bond theory. It describes how the 3s orbital of sodium overlaps with the 3p orbital of chlorine to form sigma bonds.

Q143. The Cell in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy is

• A. Galvanic cell
• B. Electrolytic cel✓
• C. Voltaic Cell
• D. All of these

Explanation: Explanation is given as image.

Q144. In a reaction Zn + HNO3 -> Zn(NO4), + NO + H2O

• A. "Zn" is reduced
• B. "N" is oxidized✓
• C. "N" is reduced
• D. Hydrogen is reduced

Explanation: In the reaction, nitrogen (N2) is oxidized from an oxidation state of 0 in N2 to +2 in NO.

Q145. Keeping in view the size of an atom, whichI statement is correct

• A. Mg > Sr
• B. Ne > Ar
• C. Rb < Cs✓
• D. CI > I.

Explanation: Rubidium (Rb) is smaller than cesium (Cs).

Q146. The radius of fluorine atom is 72pm end that of the fluoride ion (F) is

• A. 72 pm
• B. 133 pm✓
• C. Na, Cl
• D. Ca,Cl

Explanation: The radius of a fluoride ion (F-) is larger than that of a fluorine atom (F) because when an atom gains an electron to form an ion, it becomes negatively charged, and this extra electron increases the electron-electron repulsion, leading to an increase in the atomic radius.

Q147. An element having high ionization energy iind tends to be chemically in-active would most likely to be a/an:

• A. Alkali metal
• B. Nobel gas✓
• C. Transition acid
• D. Halogen

Explanation: An element having high ionization energy and tending to be chemically inactive is characteristic of a noble gas.Noble gases have high ionization energies because their electron configurations are stable with full valence electron shells. They are also chemically inactive because they have little tendency to gain or lose electrons to form compounds.

Q148. The oxidation state of chlorine state of chlorine in NaCIO is

• A. -1
• B. +1✓
• C. -1/2
• D. O

Explanation: In this compound, chlorine has a formal oxidation state of +1

Q149. Which of the following property of IIA group decreases down to the group?

• A. Atomic radius
• B. Reactivity of H2O
• C. Basicity of hydroxides
• D. lonization energy✓

Explanation: lonization energy decreases down a group. It takes less energy to remove an electron from an atom as you move down a group because the outermost electrons are farther from the nucleus and experience less attraction to the positively charged nucleus.

Q150. WhIch of the following ls less soluble in water

• A. Be(OH)2✓
• B. Mg(OH)2
• C. Ca(OH)2
• D. Sr(OH)2

Explanation: Beryllium hydroxide is the least soluble among the alkaline earth metal hydroxides. It has low solubility in water and tends to form a gelatinous precipitate. This is because beryllium is a small and highly charged cation, and the hydroxide ions have difficulty solvating it

Q151. Which of the following is the weakest reducing agent

• A. HF✓
• B. HI
• C. HCI
• D. HBr

Explanation: It is the weakest reducing agent among these options.

Q152. Tho weakest oxyacid of chlorine Is

• A. HCIO2
• B. HCIO3
• C. HCIO4✓
• D. HCIO

Explanation: Among these options, perchloric acid (HCIO4) is the weakest oxyacid of chlorine.

Q153. Which of the following transition elements used as a catalyst In Haber's process

• A. Fe✓
• B. Cr2O3
• C. Al2O3
• D. All of these

Explanation: Iron is commonly used as a catalyst in the Haber process, which is used to synthesize ammonia (NH3) from nitrogen (N2) and hydrogen (H2).

Q154. The Colour of Mn+ is

• A. Pink
• B. Voilet
• C. Purple✓
• D. Green

Explanation: Mn2+ ions have a purple or violet color in aqueous solutions or as part of certain compounds. • The specific shade of purple may vary depending on the surrounding conditions and ligands.

Q155. Which one of the following compound is not hoterocylic ?

• A. Pyridine
• B. Thiophene
• C. Phenol✓
• D. Pyrrole

Explanation: A heterocyclic compound contains a ring structure that includes at least one heteroatom (an atom other than carbon).Phenol, on the other hand, is not heterocyclic. It has a benzene ring with an -OH group attached to it but does not contain heteroatoms within the ring itself.

Q156. Which type of hybridization is present in primary carbonlum ion CH:

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp
• C. sp2
• D. dsp

Explanation: The primary carbanium ion (CH3+) has sp3 hybridization, meaning the carbon atom forms four sigma (0) bonds, which are achieved through the hybridization of one s and three p orbitals.

Q157. Which of the following test can be used for distinguishing an alkane and an alkene

• A. Bromine water test
• B. Ozonlysis
• C. Hydroxylation
• D. Both "A" and "C"✓

Explanation: Both the Bromine water test (Bromine addition) and Hydroxylation test can be used to distinguish between alkanes and alkenes. • Bromine water test: Alkenes will react with bromine water, turning it from orange to colorless, as the alkene undergoes addition reactions with the bromine, while alkanes do not react and the color remains unchanged. • Hydroxylation test: Alkenes can be hydroxylated (addition of an OH group) in the presence of certain reagents, while alkanes do not easily undergo this reaction. Incorrect options: B)ozonlysis is a different process

Q158. What is required other than anhydrous ALCL3, When toluene is prepared by friedal craft reaction?

• A. C6H6
• B. C6H5C2H5
• C. C6H5CH3CL✓
• D. Clemmenson reduction

Explanation: The correct answer is toluene (C6H5CH3). In the Friedel-Crafts reaction, toluene is indeed a product. AlCI3, which is mentioned in the question, is typically used as a Lewis acid catalyst in this reaction to facilitate the substitution of a hydrogen atom in the methy group of toluene with an acy group.

Q159. Which statement is incorrect about reactivity of alkyl halides

• A. Greater the bond energy of R-X, lesser the reactivity
• B. Greater the bond polarity of R-x, lesser the reactivity
• C. Greater the bond energy of R-X, lesser the stability
• D. Greater E.N difference of R-X, greater than stability✓

Explanation: This statement is correct. The reactivity of alkyl halides is often related to the electronegativity (E.N) difference between the carbon atom (R) and the halogen atom (X). A greater electronegativity difference leads to a more polar bond (due to the unequal sharing of electrons) and increased reactivity. This increased reactivity often corresponds to decreased stability of the alkyl halide because it's more prone to undergo chemical reactions.

Q160. For a reaction A+2B→3C, if you start with 4 moles of A and 6 moles of B, what is the limiting reactant?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. Both A and B
• D. Neither A nor B

Explanation: To determine the limiting reactant, we need to compare the mole ratio of the reactants to the stoichiometric coefficients in the balanced equation. Given the balanced equation \(A + 2B \rightarrow 3C\), the mole ratio of A to B is 1:2. If you start with 4 moles of A, it would require \(4 \times 2 = 8\) moles of B for complete reaction. However, you only have 6 moles of B, which is less than the required amount. Therefore, B is the limiting reactant. So, the correct answer is: B) B

Q161. The voltage across the 4Ω resistor is

• A. 4 volts✓
• B. 8 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 16 volts
• E. 24 volts

Explanation: This can be calculated using Ohm's Law I = V / R = V / 4 We can now substitute this value of the current into Ohm's Law to calculate the voltage across the resistor: V = I * R = (V / 4) * 4 = V This means that the voltage across the resistor is equal to the voltage that we are trying to calculate. Therefore, the voltage across the resistor is 4 volts. Therefore, the answer is: (A) 4 volts

Q162. If a rotating amusement park ride completes 6 revolution in one minute, It frequency of rotation is

• A. 360 hertz
• B. 60 hertz
• C. 10 hertz
• D. 1 Hz✓
• E. 0.1 hertz

Explanation: Frequency is defined as the number of cycles per unit time. In this case, a cycle is one revolution of the amusement park. Since the amusement park completes 6 revolutions in 1 minute, the frequency of rotation is 6 revolutions/minute. We can convert this to hertz by dividing by 60 seconds/minute: 6 revolutions/minute * 1 minute/60 seconds = 0.1 revolutions/sec= 1 hertz The other options are not correct because they are either too high or too low.

Q163. The energy transferred between two bodies due to a temperature difference Is called

• A. Potential energy
• B. Nuclear energy
• C. Chemical energy
• D. Heat energy✓
• E. Temperature energy

Explanation: Heat energy is a form of energy that is transferred from a hotter body to a colder body. It is caused by the movement of fast-moving molecules from the hotter body to the slower-moving molecules of the colder body. Heat energy can be transferred in three ways: conduction, convection, and radiation.

Q164. How much energy does a 2,400 -watt micro wave oven use in 3 minute?

• A. 432,000 J✓
• B. 7,200J
• C. 800 J
• D. 24 J
• E. 13.3

Explanation: To calculate the energy used by a microwave oven, we can use the following formula: Energy = Power * Time In this case, the power of the microwave oven is 2400 watts and the time is 3 minutes, which is equal to 180 seconds. Therefore, the energy used by the microwave oven is: Energy = 2400 W * 180 s = 432000 J

Q165. The photoelectric effect is best explained by the

• A. Wave model of light
• B. Photon model of light✓
• C. Interference of light waves
• D. Diffraction of light waves
• E. Heisenberg of light waves

Explanation: The photoelectric effect is best explained by the particle model of light. So the answer is (B). The photoelectric effect is one of the most important pieces of evidence for the particle model of light. It has many applications in modern technology, such as solar cells and photomultiplier tubes. The other options are not correct because they are not related to the photoelectric effect.

Q166. If the average speed of the molecules of an ideal gas Is doubled the temperature of to the gas

• A. remain the same
• B. is doubled
• C. is halved
• D. is quadrupled✓
• E. is quartered

Explanation: The temperature of a gas is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of its molecules. Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the velocity. Therefore, if the average speed of the molecules of an ideal gas is doubled, the temperature of the gas will be quadrupled. This can be expressed mathematically as follows: KE = 1/2 mv2 T = KE/k

Q167. A series -of alternate bright and dark bands of Het appear on a screen .what most likely caused this pattern on the screen?

• A. Light passing through a converging lens
• B. Light passing through a diverging lens
• C. Light passing through a very narrow slits✓
• D. Photons emitted from a metal
• E. Photon in an emission spectrum

Explanation: This pattern is known as an interference pattern, and it is caused by the constructive and destructive interference of light waves. When light waves pass through two narrow slits, they interfere with each other and create a pattern of bright and dark bands on the screen. The position of the bands depends on the wavelength of the light and the distance between the slits.

Q168. The half-life of a particular element is 6 days What percent of the original sample of the element remains after 24 days?

• A. 100%
• B. 50%
• C. 25%
• D. 12.5%
• E. 6.25%✓

Explanation: In this case, the half-life of the element is 6 days. This means that after 24 days (4 half-lives), 6.25% of the original sample remains Half-life Percentage of original sample remaining 1 50% 2 25% 3 12.5% 4 6.25% The other options are not correct because they do not match the amount of the original sample that remains after 4 half-lives.

Q169. Which of the following is NOT an Isotope of uranium?

• A. 23592U
• B. 23692U
• C. 23892U
• D. 23992U✓
• E. 23591U

Explanation: Uranium-239 (U-239) is not an isotope of uranium with atomic number 92.

Q170. The diagram below represents two equal negative point charges be zero?

• A. On Y
• B. On Z
• C. On both Y and Z
• D. Midway between Y and Z✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: The electric field at the midpoint between two equal negative point charges is zero. This is because the electric fields of the two charges cancel each other out at this point.

Q171. A positive charge Is moving with constant speed at right angles to a uniform magnetic field, If the speed of the charge were doubled, the force exerted on the particle by the magnetic field would be

• A. Unaffected
• B. Quadrupled
• C. Doubled✓
• D. Halved
• E. Reduced to one fourth of the original value

Explanation: The force exerted on a moving charge by a magnetic field is given by the Lorentz force equation: F = qvBsin(θ) If the speed of the charge is doubled, the force exerted on the particle by the magnetic field will also be doubled. This is because the force is directly proportional to the speed of the charge.

Q172. Of the following, the particle whose mass is closest of that of the neutron is the

• A. Mesons
• B. Duteron✓
• C. Neutrino
• D. Proton
• E. Positron

Explanation: Particle Mass (MeV/c²) Mass relative to the neutron Neutron 939.5654133 1.0 Deuteron 1875.612668 2.000007 Proton 938.2720813 0.999765 Electron 0.511 MeV/c² 0.000548 Positron 0.511 MeV/c² 0.000548 The other particles on your list have different masses than the neutron

Q173. The time of one vibration of a simple pendulum may be decreased by

• A. Increasing the length of the pendulum
• B. Decreasing the length of the pendulum✓
• C. Using a heavier bob
• D. Using a lighter bob
• E. Taking the pendulum up to the top of the Empire State Building

Explanation: The time of one vibration of a simple pendulum may be decreased by decreasing the length of the pendulum. The period of a simple pendulum is given by the following equation: T = 2π√L/g As you can see, the period of the pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum. This means that if you decrease the length of the pendulum, you will also decrease the period of the pendulum.

Q174. According to electromagnetic theory Lenz's law can be explained best by which of the following laws of physics?

• A. Law of conservation of linear momentum
• B. Law of conservation of energy✓
• C. Law of conservation of energy
• D. Law of universal gravitation
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Lenz's law states that the direction of the induced current is such that the magnetic field it produces opposes the change in magnetic flux that induced it. This means that the induced current always works against the change in magnetic flux. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be converted from one form to another. Lenz's law ensures that the energy of the induced current comes from the energy used to cause the change in magnetic flux. The other options are not as good of an explanation for Lenz's law.

Q175. A 60-watt, 110-volt tungsten filament lamp is operated on 120 volts, which of the following statements regarding the lamp is (are)true? I. It will consume more than 60 watts while operating II. It will have a lower resistance than at 110 volts. lll. It will be brighter than at 110 volts. IV. It will burn out after operating 1/2 hour or less.

• A. l,ll.and lll only
• B. l and lll only✓
• C. ll and lV only
• D. iV only
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Statement 1: A 60 W 110 V tungsten filament lamp will consume more than 60 W while operating on 120 V. This is because the power consumed by a filament lamp is proportional to the square of the voltage applied. So, if the voltage is increased by 10%, the power consumed will increase by 21%. Statement 2: A 60 W 110 V tungsten filament lamp will have a lower resistance than 110 V when operated on 120 V. This is not true. The resistance of a tungsten filament lamp is a function of its temperature, not the voltage applied. So, the resistance of the lamp will remain the same even if the voltage is increased. Statement 3: A 60 W 110 V tungsten filament lamp will be brighter when operated on 120 V than when operated on 110 V. This is true. Because the power consumed by the lamp is increased, the temperature of the filament will increase, and the lamp will emit more light. Statement 4: A 60 W 110 V tungsten filament lamp will burn out after operating for half an hour if it is operated on 120 V.

Q176. Which of the following statements is (are)correct about the photoelectric effect? I. The number of electrons emitted is independent of the Intensity of the incident light. ll. The stopping potential decreases with increased frequency. lll. In a graph of maximum kinetic energy versus incident frequency, all metals have different threshold frequencies, but all have the same slope. IV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is independent of the emitted electrons is Independent of the intensity of the incident light.

• A. I only
• B. III only
• C. II and IV
• D. II, III, and IV
• E. I and IV✓

Explanation: Statement 1: The number of electron emitted is independent of the intensity of the incident light. This is true. The number of photoelectrons emitted depends on the frequency of the incident light, not its intensity. Statement 2: The stopping potential decreases with increased frequency. This is false. The stopping potential increases with increased frequency. Statement 3: In the graph of maximum kinetic energy versus incident frequency all metals have different threshold frequency but all have same slope. This is true. All metals have a different threshold frequency, but the slope of the graph is the same for all metals. The slope of the graph is equal to Planck's constant. Statement 4: The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is independent of the intensity of the incident light. This is true. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron depends on the frequency of the incident light, not its intensity.

Q177. Which of the following particles, all moving with the same velocity will have the longest de Broglie wavelength?

• A. An electron
• B. A proton
• C. A neutron
• D. An alpha particle
• E. A photon✓

Explanation: The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by the following equation: λ = h / (m * v) Since all of the particles in the question are moving with the same velocity, the only factor that will affect the de Broglie wavelength is the mass of the particle. The particle with the lowest mass will have the longest de Broglie wavelength. The following table shows the masses of the different particles in the question: Particle Mass (kg) Electron 9.11 x 10-31 Proton 1.67 x 10-27 Neutron 1.67 x 10-27 Alpha particle 6.64 x 10-27 Photon 0

Q178. Which of the following types of electromagetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

• A. Gamma rays
• B. Ultraviolet
• C. Blue light
• D. X-rays
• E. Orange light✓

Explanation: Electromagnetic radiation can be classified into different types based on its wavelength. The types of electromagnetic radiation, in order of increasing wavelength, are: Gamma rays X-rays Ultraviolet light Visible light Infrared light Microwaves Radio waves Therefore, the type of electromagnetic radiation with the longest wavelength is radio waves

Q179. An ohm Is defined as one-volt per ampere and an ampere is a coulomb per second. A farad, the unit for capacitance, is a coulomb per volt. An ohm times a farad is a unit of

• A. Voltage
• B. Resistance
• C. Energy
• D. Time✓
• E. Charge

Explanation: Ohm times farad is a unit of time. To see this, we can use dimensional analysis. Ohm = volt / ampere Farad = coulomb / volt Therefore, ohm times farad is: ohm * farad = (volt / ampere) * (coulomb / volt) Canceling out the volts, we get: ohm * farad = coulomb / ampere But coulomb / ampere is a unit of time, specifically the second.

Q180. Which of the properties change when a wave is refracted ? I. Speed ll. wavelength lll. frequency

• A. I only
• B. Il only
• C. I and II only✓
• D. Il and IlI only
• E. l, Il and IIl

Explanation: Speed: The speed of the wave changes when it enters a new medium with a different refractive index. Wavelength: The wavelength of the wave changes when it enters a new medium with a different refractive index. Frequency: The frequency of the wave does not change when it is refracted. Here is a diagram that shows how the speed and wavelength of a wave change when it is refracted:

Q181. The current through the copper is

• A. The same as that through the iron or nichrome.✓
• B. Greater than that through the iron or nichrome
• C. Less than that through the iron or nichrome
• D. Greater than that through the iron but less than that through the nichrome
• E. Greater than that through the nichrome but less than that through the iron

Explanation: The current through the copper will be the same as that through the iron or nichrome, assuming that they are all connected in series and have the same voltage applied across them. This is because the current through a series circuit is the same at all points in the circuit.

Q182. The potential difference across the copper

• A. The same as that across the iron or nichrome
• B. Greater than that across the iron or nichrome
• C. Less that that across the iron or nichrome✓
• D. Greater than that across the iron but less than that across the iron but less than that across the nichrome
• E. Greater than that across the nichrome but less than that across the iron

Explanation: This is because the resistance of copper is lower than that of iron or nichrome. When a voltage is applied to a circuit, the potential difference across each component in the circuit is proportional to its resistance. Therefore, the component with the lower resistance will have the lower potential difference across it. In this case, the copper has the lower resistance, so it will have the lower potential difference across it. All the other options are incorrect because the following statement is true: The potential difference across a material is proportional to its resistance. This means that the higher the resistance of a material, the higher the potential difference across it. Conversely, the lower the resistance of a material, the lower the potential difference across it. Copper has a lower resistance than iron or nichrome. Therefore, the potential difference across the copper will be lower than the potential difference across the iron or nichrome.

Q183. To make an ammeter, you need a galvanometer and a resistor, specifically, you should

• A. Not use the resistor at all
• B. Place a high resistance in series with the galvanometer coil
• C. Place a low resistance in series with the galvanometer coil
• D. Place a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer coil
• E. Place a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer coil✓

Explanation: The resistor is called a shunt resistor. The shunt resistor should have a low resistance so that most of the current flows through it. The value of the shunt resistor is chosen such that the ammeter has the desired full-scale range. For example, if you want to make an ammeter with a full-scale range of 10 amps, you would choose a shunt resistor with a resistance of 0.1 ohms.

Q184. Two heating coils, X and V. are each connected to a 120-volt direct current. The resistance of X is twice that of Y. The current through X is

• A. twice that through Y
• B. equal to that through Y
• C. One half that through Y.✓
• D. one-fourth that through I'
• E. One -eighth that through Y

Explanation: This is because the resistance of X is twice that of Y, and the current through a resistor is inversely proportional to its resistance. This means that the higher the resistance of a resistor, the lower the current flowing through it. Another way to think about it is to imagine that X and Y are two pipes of different diameters. The pipe with the larger diameter (X) will have a lower resistance to flow, and therefore more water will flow through it than the pipe with the smaller diameter (Y). All the other options are incorrect because the resistance of X is twice that of Y. Ohm's law states that the current through a resistor is inversely proportional to its resistance. This means that the higher the resistance of a resistor, the lower the current flowing through it. Therefore, the current through X will always be less than the current through Y. The specific ratio of the currents will depend on the exact values of the resistances of X and Y.

Q185. Two heating coils, X and V. are each connected to a 120-volt direct current. The resistance of X is twice that of Y. The rate at which X produces heat is

• A. 4 times that of Y✓
• B. 2 times that of Y
• C. the same as that of Y
• D. one half that of
• E. one fourth that of Y

Explanation: This is because the power dissipated by a resistor is given by the following equation: P = I2 * R In this case, the voltage across X and Y is the same, which is 120 volts. However, the resistance of X is twice that of Y. Therefore, the current through X will be one half that through Y. However, the power dissipated by X will be four times that of Y, because the power is proportional to the square of the current. Another way to think about it is to imagine that X and Y are two light bulbs of different wattages. The bulb with the higher wattage (X) will produce more heat than the bulb with the lower wattage (Y).

Q186. The pages of this book are visible because they

• A. Absorb light
• B. Emit light
• C. Reflects light✓
• D. Refract light
• E. Polarize light

Explanation: The pages of a book are made of paper, which is a white material. White materials are good at reflecting light. When light hits a white surface, most of the light is reflected back to our eyes. This is why we can see white objects.

Q187. As the loop rotates, the induced voltage will be maximum

• A. at 0o and 90o
• B. at 0o and 180o
• C. at 90o and 270o✓
• D. at 180o and 270o
• E. and constant throughout the rotation

Explanation: When the loop is rotating, the magnetic flux is constantly changing, but it changes the fastest at 90 degrees and 270 degrees. This is because at these angles, the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. When the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the maximum number of magnetic field lines are passing through the loop. As the loop rotates, it tilts away from the perpendicular position, and the number of magnetic field lines passing through the loop decreases. The induced voltage is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic flux. Therefore, the induced voltage will be maximum at 90 degrees and 270 degrees, when the magnetic flux is changing the fastest. At 0 degrees and 180 degrees, the magnetic flux through the loop is not changing. Therefore, the induced voltage at these angles will be zero. Here is a diagram of a rotating loop in a magnetic field: The induced voltage in the loop will be maximum at angles 90 degrees and 270 degrees, when the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Q188. The induced voltage will NOT be decreased by during each of the following EXCEPT

• A. increasing the speed of rotation
• B. using stronger magnets
• C. Using a rotating loop with an iron core
• D. using commutator✓
• E. Moving the north and south poles further apart

Explanation: Using a commutator, on the other hand, can decrease the induced voltage. A commutator is a device that reverses the direction of current in the coil at certain points in its rotation. This reversal reduces the overall induced voltage since it disrupts the continuous flow of current and the generation of a constant voltage. So, option D is the correct choice because it is the only one that decreases the induced voltage.

Q189. Assume that you have a coil of copper wire whose resistance is 100 ohms. To obtain a coil of copper wire with.less resistance which of the following may you use? I. Copper wire that has the same length but is thicker II Copper wire that has the same thickness but is shorter Ill. Copper wire that is thicker and shorter, thinner and longer. lV. Copper wire that is

• A. l, ll and lll only
• B. l and lll only✓
• C. ll and lll only
• D. lV only
• E. None of the above

Explanation: The resistance of a copper wire is given by the following equation: R = ρL / A To obtain a coil of copper wire with less resistance, you can either increase the cross-sectional area of the wire or decrease the length of the wire. Option 1: Using a copper wire that has the same length but is thicker will increase the cross-sectional area of the wire. This will decrease the resistance of the wire. Option 2: Using a copper wire that has the same thickness but is shorter will decrease the length of the wire. This will also decrease the resistance of the wire. Option 3: Using a copper wire that is thicker and shorter will both increase the cross-sectional area of the wire and decrease the length of the wire. This will result in the lowest resistance of the wire. Option 4: Using a copper wire that is thinner and longer will both decrease the cross-sectional area of the wire and increase the length of the wire. This will result in the highest resistance of the wire.

Q190. The electric field strength at a point some distance away from a source charge depends on all of the following:

• A. The magnitude of the source charge
• B. The sign of the source charge
• C. The distance from the source charge
• D. The nature of the medium surrounding the source charge
• E. None of these✓

Explanation: The electric field strength is given by the following equation: E = k * q / r^2 From this equation, we can see that the electric field strength is directly proportional to the magnitude of the source charge and inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source charge. The electric field strength is also affected by the sign of the source charge and the nature of the medium surrounding the source charge.

Q191. Which of the following equations best states the relationship between a material's coefficient of volume expansion due to heating, 6, and its coefficient of linear expansion, a?

• A. β=α
• B. β=α1✓
• C. β= α + α2
• D. β=α3
• E. β=3α3

Explanation: For linear expansion, LT=L0[1+αΔT]...(1) For volume expansion, VT=V0[1+βΔT]......(2) Now, VT=LT3and V0=L03​ So, V0[1+βΔT]=[L0(1+αΔT)]3∼L03[1+3αΔT] (by neglecting the higher order term ) or V0[1+βΔT]=V0[1+3αΔT] Thus, β=3α

Q192. Questions 116/117 and 118 refer to the circuit shown above. A 50-volt battery supplies 100 watts of power to each of the two identical Light Bulbs. The current passing through bulb 1 is 4 A. The voltmeter across bulb 1 will read

• A. 100 V
• B. 50 V✓
• C. 25 V
• D. 4 V
• E. Zero

Explanation: This is because the two bulbs are connected in series, which means that the same current flows through both bulbs. The voltage across a resistor is equal to the current flowing through the resistor multiplied by the resistance of the resistor. Since the two bulbs have the same resistance, and the same current flows through both bulbs, the voltage across each bulb will be the same. In this case, the total voltage of the battery is 100 volts, and the two bulbs are connected in series. Therefore, the voltage across each bulb will be 50 volts.

Q193. Questions 116/117 and 118 refer to the circuit shown above. A 50-volt battery supplies 100 watts of power to each of the two identical Light Bulbs. The current passing through bulb 1 is 4 A. The current through bulb 2 is

• A. 2 A✓
• B. 4 A
• C. 8 A
• D. 100 A
• E. Zero

Explanation: This is because the two bulbs are connected in series, which means that the same current flows through both bulbs. The current through a resistor is equal to the voltage across the resistor divided by the resistance of the resistor. Since the two bulbs have the same resistance, and the same voltage is applied across both bulbs, the current through each bulb will be the same. In this case, the voltage across each bulb is 50 volts, and the resistance of each bulb is 100 ohms. Therefore, the current through each bulb is 2 amperes.

Q194. The resistance of each bulb is most nearly

• A. 250 ohms✓
• B. 200 ohms
• C. 60 ohms
• D. 40 ohms
• E. 20 ohms

Explanation: To calculate the resistance of a bulb, we can use the following equation: R = V / I we can see that the voltage across each bulb is 100 volts. We are also given that the current through each bulb is 4 amps. Therefore, the resistance of each bulb is: R = 100 V / 4 A = 250 ohms

Q195. The device connected to the battery is generally called a

• A. Generator
• B. Capacitor✓
• C. Motor
• D. Charger
• E. Resistor

Explanation: The device in the image connected to battery is a parallel plate capacitor

Q196. A person who is moving parallel to the charge and at the same velocity as the charge will measure

• A. a magnetic field and at the same velocity as the charge will measure
• B. a magnetic field, but not an electric field due to the moving charge.✓
• C. an electric field, but not an magnetic field due to the moving charg
• D. neither an electric field nor a magnetic field nor a magnetic field due to the moving. charge
• E. a decrease in the amount of Charge

Explanation: This is because the electric field of a moving charge is cancelled out by the magnetic field of the moving charge in the reference frame of the observer who is moving at the same velocity as the charge. This is known as the Coulomb-Lorentz force cancellation. The magnetic field of a moving charge is given by the following equation: B = μ₀ * q * v / (2π * r) As you can see, the magnetic field strength is proportional to the magnitude of the charge, the velocity of the charge, and the inverse of the distance from the charge

Q197. Which of the above choices Is NOT constant throughout the flight of the projectile ?

• A. Horizontal velocity
• B. Vertical velocity✓
• C. Horizontal acceleration
• D. Vertical acceleration
• E. Angle at which the projectile is launched

Explanation: The vertical velocity of the projectile not constant throughout the flight of projectile due to the force of gravity, causing the projectile to accelerate downward while it moves horizontally at a constant velocity.the vertical component of velocity is acted upon by gravitational acceleration hence it is not correct

Q198. Which of the above partides would follow the path shown below while moving through the magnetic field?

• A. Proton
• B. Electron✓
• C. Neutron
• D. X-ray
• E. Photon of red light

Explanation: Electrons which are charged particles, do follow a curved path when they move through a magnetic field. F = q * v * B * sin(θ) In this equation, θ represents the angle between the velocity vector of the charged particle and the magnetic field lines. When the particle's velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field (θ = 90 degrees), the force is maximized and causes the particle to follow curved or helical path

Q199. Which of the above occurs when two waves that are in phase with each other meet at the same time in the same medium?

• A. Reflection
• B. Refraction
• C. Diffraction
• D. Constructive interference✓
• E. Destructive interference

Explanation: When two waves that are in phase with each other meet at the same time in the same medium, it results in constructive interference. Constructive interference occurs when the crests of one wave align with the crests of the other wave, and the troughs align with the troughs, leading to a reinforcement of the amplitudes of the waves. This reinforcement leads to a wave with a larger amplitude than either of the individual

Q200. The current through the 4 Ω resistor is

• A. 2A
• B. 4A✓
• C. 6A
• D. 8A
• E. 12A

Explanation: First we need to name them R1 is six ohm R2 is 3 ohm R3 is 4 ohm we need to find current through 4 ohm so If R1 nd R2 are connected in parallel then total resistance will be 2 ohm 1 / R= 1 / R1 + 1 / R2 In this case, R1 is 3 ohms, and R2 is 6 ohms. 1 / R = 1 / 3 ohms + 1 / 6 ohms Now, calculate the values: 1 / R = (2 + 1) / 6 ohms = 3 / 6 ohms = 1 / 2 ohms To find R, take the reciprocal of both sides: Req = 2 ohms So, when the two resistors of 3 ohms and 6 ohms are connected in parallel, the total (equivalent) resistance is 2 ohms. If R and R3 are connected in seIf you have two resistors, one with a resistance of 2 ohms (R) and another with a resistance of 4 ohms (R3), and they are connected in series, you can calculate the equivalent resistance as follows: Equivalent Resistance = R + R3 Req = 2 ohms + 4 ohms Req = 6 ohm In parallel volt remain same so if r1 an dr2 are connected in parallel then volt will be 24 volt So V is equal to V and v3