Balochistan Mdcat 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the correct spelling from the given words:

• A. Patriarchal✓
• B. Patreachal
• C. Partriarchel
• D. Patriarrchal

Explanation: The correct spelling from the given word is "patriarchal". Patriarchal refers to a social system or structure that is dominated by men, where power and authority are primarily held by male. Hence, option A is selected.

Q2. The antonym of "asylum" is:

• A. Security
• B. Refuge
• C. Danger✓
• D. Protection

Explanation: Danger is the opposite of safety and protection, making it the antonym of 'asylum'.Security refers to safety and protection, with can be associated with 'asylum'. It is a synonym of 'asylum'.Refuge is also a synonym of 'asylum', not an antonym.Protection is closely related to the concept of asylum, so it is not an antonym.This makes option C the correct answer.

Q3. Choose the correct option.

• A. Newton discovered that gravity pulled everything away from it.
• B. None of these is correct.
• C. Both of these are correct.
• D. Newton discovered that gravity pulls everything towards it.✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: 'Newton discovered that gravity pulls everything towards it.' This statement correctly identifies the nature of gravity as a universal force that attracts objects towards itself. In contrast, Option A incorrectly states that gravity pulls things away, which contradicts the fundamental concept of gravitational attraction. Option B is incorrect because it denies the existence of a correct statement, while Option C is flawed as it suggests that more than one option is correct when only one is. Thus, the key to this question lies in recognizing that universal truths are always expressed in the present tense, highlighting the importance of accurate scientific language.

Q4. For each of the following, choose the sentence with the correct punctuation.

• A. It is mentioned in the notification all of us should read it.
• B. It is mentioned in the notifications all of us should read it.
• C. It is mentioned in the notification? all of us should read it.
• D. It is mentioned in the notification, all of us should read it.✓

Explanation: The comma is correctly used to separate the introductory phase from the main clause. So, the correct sentence is:"It is mentioned in the notification, all of us should read it." Hence, option D is correct.

Q5. Choose the correct form of verbs to be filled in the blank: I _ with my parents.

• A. Lives
• B. Am living✓
• C. Is living
• D. Shall living

Explanation: In this sentence, the subject 'I' requires the first-person singular form of the verb 'to live'. The correct form in the present tense is "am living". So, the correct sentence is: "I am living with my parents." Hence, option B is accurate.

Q6. The most appropriate word to be filled is:The melody is _ not energetic like the hymns in church.

• A. Plaintive✓
• B. Baffling
• C. Blissful
• D. Perplexing

Explanation: 'Plaintive' meaning sad or expressing sorrow, it contrasts with the energetic nature of the hymns. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q7. Choose the correct tense option to fill in the blank. When I opened my eyes, I _ a strange sight.

• A. Am seeing
• B. Have seen
• C. Was seen
• D. Saw✓

Explanation: The sentence is in the past tense, and the action of seeing the strange sight occured after opening the eyes. Therefore, the simple past tense "saw" is the correct form of verb. So, the correct sentence is:"When I opened my eyes, I saw a strange sight." So, option D is correct.

Q8. The neighbours _ so loudly last night that they _ all awake until after midnight.

• A. are shouting/are keeping
• B. were shouting/kept✓
• C. shouted/have been keeping
• D. have shouted/had kept

Explanation: The sentence is describing a past event, so it should be in the past tense. "Neighbours" is the subject, and in the past tense, it should be "were shouting" (simple past tense). The second part of the sentence indicates that the action of keeping everyone awake continued until after midnight. Therefore, the correct form is "kept" (past tense). So, the correct sentence is:"The neighbours were shouting so loudly last night that they kept all awake until after midnight."

Q9. Which of the following will correct fill in the blank?Bread and butter is what the poor _ today.

• A. Need✓
• B. Needs
• C. Needed
• D. Needing

Explanation: In this sentence, "bread and butter" is a singular phrase representing a single concept of item. So it is followed by 'is' which is singular verb. However, the poor is a plural subject so it should follow plural verb which is 'need'.

Q10. Correct the given sentence:I like cats, I hate dogs.

• A. I like cats: I hate dogs
• B. I like cats I hate dogs
• C. I like cats' I hate dogs
• D. I like cats but I hate dogs✓

Explanation: The sentence need a conjunction to connect the two contrasting clauses "I like cats" and "I hate dogs". The conjunction "but" is commonly used to express a contrast between two ideas. So, the correct sentence is:"I like cats but I hate dogs."

Q11. Choose the sentence that means the same as this sentence:I will not tolerate his rudeness.

• A. I will not put up for his rudeness
• B. I will not put up with his rudeness✓
• C. I will not put up to his rudeness
• D. I will not put up by his rudeness

Explanation: The phrasal verb "put up with" means to tolerate or endure something, making it the appropriate choice in the context. Therefore option B is correct.

Q12. Which of the following is a correct sentence?

• A. The Bible says a person comes from the earth and has to go back to the earth✓
• B. The Bible says the person comes from the earth and has to go back to the earth
• C. The Bible says person comes from the earth and has to go back to the earth
• D. The Bible say the person comes from the earth and has to go back to the earth

Explanation: In this sentence, "person" is a singular noun, and the definite article "a" is needed before it to indicate any person in general. So, the correct sentence is:"The Bible says a person comes from the earth and has to go back to the earth."

Q13. Identify the part of the following sentence that carries error: I think it is they who is wrong.

• A. It
• B. Who
• C. Is✓
• D. Wrong

Explanation: The error lies in the subject-verb agreement. The pronoun "they" is the subject of the sentence and requires a plural verb form. In this case, the correct verb form should be "are" instead of "is." The correct sentence should be:"I think it is they who are wrong."

Q14. Identify correct spelling of the given word:

• A. Andoromeda
• B. Andromida
• C. Andremode
• D. Andromeda✓

Explanation: Correct spelling is "Andromeda". Andromeda, in Greek mythology, beautiful daughter of King Cepheus and Queen Cassiope of Joppa in Palestine (called Ethiopia) and wife of Perseus. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q15. Choose the correct preposition.Do not hanker _ worldly pleasures.

• A. For
• B. After✓
• C. Towards
• D. About

Explanation: In this sentence, "Don't hanker after worldly pleasures", the word "after" is the correct preposition to use. "Hanker after" is a common phrase that means to have a strong desire or longing for something. Thus, option B is the only correct answer.

Q16. Fill in the blank with the correct choice: Whatever she wants to do _ fine with me.

• A. the
• B. is✓
• C. are
• D. were

Explanation: In this sentence, the verb "is" is used to establish the subject-verb agreement. "Whatever she wants to do" is the subject of the sentence, and the singular form of the verb "to be" (is) is required to match the singular subject. So, the correct sentence is:"Whatever she wants to do is fine with me."

Q17. The word INCLUSIVE means

• A. Exclusive
• B. Comprehensive✓
• C. Diverse
• D. Embracing

Explanation: The word "inclusive" means comprehensive or encompassing. It refers to something that includes or cover a wide range or variety of things, ideas, or individuals. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q18. The designer window treatments in her house, installed 17 years ago, were outmoded. What does the underlined word mean?

• A. Unnecessary
• B. Pointless
• C. Out-of-date✓
• D. Worthless

Explanation: Outmoded means out-of-date.For example;If clothes, colours, styles, etc. are out of date, they are old and not fashionable: That radio looks so out of date. So, option C is correct.

Q19. All children are silly people. Some silly people are rich people. All rich people are big shots. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE?CONCLUSIONS:I. Some silly people are children.II. Some rich people are children.III. Some silly people are big shots.

• A. I and III✓
• B. II
• C. II and III
• D. I and II

Explanation: Let's analyze each conclusion one by one: I. "Some silly people are children." This conclusion is necessarily true based on the given statements. While it's mentioned that "All children are silly people," it implies that there are some silly people who are children. It's possible that there are other silly people who are not children. II. "Some rich people are children." This conclusion is not necessarily true based on the given statements. Although it's mentioned that "Some silly people are rich people" and "All children are silly people," it doesn't necessarily mean that there are rich people who are children. There could be rich people who are not children. III. "Some silly people are big shots." This conclusion is necessarily true based on the given statements. It's stated that "Some silly people are rich people" and "All rich people are big shots." Therefore, it's logically consistent that there must be some silly people who are big shots. So, the correct conclusion is: A. I and III I and III are necessarily true based on the given statements, while II is not necessarily true.

Q20. Read the following and choose the correct answer X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 31 but greater than 23. X is a prime number. Y is the largest odd number smaller than 35. Z is the smallest even number?

• A. X is 31, Y is 29 and Z is 24
• B. X is 29, Y is 29 and Z is 24✓
• C. X is 23, Y is 29 and Z is 24
• D. X is 27, Y is 31 and Z is 26

Explanation: According to the given question21 is not a prime number so, option A is incorrect.Z is 24 which is not a smallest even number this eliminating option C.As 27 which is not a prime number and z is 26 which is not a smallest even number this rules out option D as well.So the correct option is B.

Q21. Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing.Statement: An invigilator catches a student trying to cheat for the third time in a professional exam.Courses of action:I. Remove the student from the room and cancel his exam attempt.II. Give the student another stern warning.

• A. I✓
• B. II
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I and II

Explanation: In the suggested courses of action in the question the statement number 1 is logically correct but the statement number 2 is illogical there is no link present which proves that statement 2 is logical. Hence, only option A is correct.

Q22. Diastase/amylase acts on:

• A. Maltose
• B. Sucrose
• C. Lactose
• D. Starch✓

Explanation: Diastase is a common name for an enzyme (or group of enzymes) that breaks down starch into simpler sugars like maltose. It is found in saliva and pancreatic juices and plays a crucial role in carbohydrate digestion. Diastase is also used in various industries, such as food and beverage, brewing, textiles, and for determining honey freshness.

Q23. Which of the following is antagonistic to condensation?

• A. Decarboxylation
• B. Hydration
• C. Dehydration
• D. Hydrolysis✓

Explanation: Hydrolysis is antagonistic to condensation because it breaks apart the bonds that were formed during a condensation reaction. Also water is required for hydrolysis in contrast to condensation where water is formed. So, option D is correct.

Q24. Which statement is wrong about saturated fats?

• A. They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids✓
• B. They are more common in animals than in plants
• C. They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms
• D. They generally solidify at room temperature

Explanation: Saturated fats do not have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids so option A is wrong about saturated fatty acids and so it is encircled.

Q25. Which of the following is a connective tissue?

• A. Cartilage✓
• B. Epithelium
• C. Muscle
• D. Nerve

Explanation: Cartilage is a connective tissue that is composed of cells called chondrocytes and an extracellular matrix that contains collagen and elastin fibers. It is tough but flexible tissue that provides support and cushioning to joints and other structures in the body. So, option A is correct.

Q26. A virion is designated as?

• A. Viral enzyme
• B. Viral genome
• C. Complete virus✓
• D. Viral lysosome

Explanation: A virion is designated as complete virus. A fully formed infectious particle that contains a viral genome and a protein coat called a capsid, which protects the genome and allows the virus to enter host cells. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q27. A cell without cell wall will burst in:

• A. Hypotonic solution✓
• B. Isotonic solution
• C. Hypertonic solution
• D. Solution having more electrolytes

Explanation: A solution in which the concentration of solutes is lower outside the cell than inside i.e. hypotonic solution. Water would move into the cell to equalize the concentration, causing the cell to swell and potentially burst without a cell wall to provide support. So, option A is correct.

Q28. Long term control such as rate of growth and sexual maturity is controlled by :

• A. Neurons
• B. Hormones✓
• C. Glands
• D. Hypothalamus

Explanation: Chemical messengers produced by glands in the endocrine system that travel through the bloodstream to target organs and tissues, where they regulate various physiological processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. This rate of growth and sexual maturity is controlled by hormones. So, option B is selected.

Q29. In which blood group both the antigens are present?

• A. Blood group A
• B. Blood group B
• C. Blood group AB✓
• D. Blood group O

Explanation: The blood group AB has both antigen A and antigen B on the surface of red blood cells, making it the only blood group that has both antigens. So, option C is correct.

Q30. Facilitated diffusion involves carrier molecules. The molecules are chemically carriers in nature?

• A. Glycolipids
• B. Lipids
• C. Proteins✓
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: Molecules that are composed of chains of amino acids and have a wide range of functions in the body. Some proteins act as carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion, allowing certain molecules to pass through the cell membrane. Therefore, option C is accurate.

Q31. Who proposed fluid mosaic model?

• A. Lorenz Oken and Brown
• B. Robert Brown and Palade
• C. Singer and Nicolson✓
• D. Singer and De-Duve

Explanation: The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane was proposed by S.J.Singer and Garth L.Nicholson in 1972. This model describes the structure of the cell membrane as a fluid, dynamic layer of lipids and proteins, with the proteins embedded within the lipid bilayer like a mosaic. So, option C is correct.

Q32. Two simplest amino acids are?

• A. Trypsin and glycine
• B. Trypsin and alanine
• C. Glycine and alanine✓
• D. Glutamate and alanine

Explanation: Glycine and alanine are the two simplest amino acids. Glycine is the smallest amino acid, with just a single hydrogen atom as its side chain, while alanine has a slightly larger side chain consisting of a methyl group. Both of these amino acids are important building blocks for proteins and are commonly found in a variety of organisms. So option C is encircled.

Q33. The animal which is not having soft body?

• A. Hirudo✓
• B. Unio
• C. Sepia
• D. Loligo

Explanation: Hirudo is a genus of segmented worms commonly known as leeches. Leeches are not soft-bodied animals, as they have a cylindrical, elongated body that is divided into segments. The body of a leech is covered in a tough, muscular outer layer called the cuticle, which provides protection and support. So, option A is the only correct answer.

Q34. Stage of menstrual cycle that starts after ovulation is:

• A. Menstrual stage
• B. Follicular stage
• C. Proliferative stage
• D. Secretory stage✓

Explanation: Secretory stage begins after ovulation and lasts until the end of the menstrual cycle. During this stage, the endometrium continues to thicken and secrete glycogen and other nutrients in preparation for implantation of a fertilized egg. If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium will eventually break down, leading to the start of a new menstrual cycle.

Q35. Animals having jointed legs and a chitinous exoskeleton are known as

• A. Chordates
• B. Arthropods✓
• C. Annelida
• D. Mollusca

Explanation: Arthropods are a group of invertebrate animals that have jointed legs and a chitinous exoskeleton. This group includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and others. Therefore, option B is accurate.

Q36. Similarity in the structure and function of DNA and RNA provides evidence that all organisms are:

• A. Heterophyletic
• B. Paraphyletic
• C. Monophyletic✓
• D. Polyphyletic

Explanation: Monophyletic refers to a group that includes an ancestor and all of its descendants, and thus shares a common evolutionary lineage. Hence, the similarity in structure and function of DNA and RNA provides evidence that all organisms are monophyletic.

Q37. Which are called naked viruses?

• A. Non enveloped viruses✓
• B. Enveloped viruses
• C. Prions
• D. Viroids

Explanation: Non-enveloped viruses are also called naked viruses because they donot have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q38. Maltose is a:

• A. Polysaccharides
• B. Disaccharide✓
• C. Oligosaccharide
• D. Monosaccharide

Explanation: Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide units linked by a glycosidic bond. Examples of disaccharides include sucrose, lactose, and maltose.

Q39. Lingual lipase is secreted by which gland?

• A. Parotid
• B. Submandibular
• C. Ebner's gland✓
• D. Pancreas

Explanation: Lingual lipase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the serous glands of the tongue, particularly the von Ebner's gland located in the circumvallate and foliate papillae. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q40. Which protein establishes the matrix of bone and cartilage?

• A. Myoglobin
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Fibrinogen
• D. Collagen✓

Explanation: Collagen is the protein that establishes the matrix of bone and cartilage, providing strength and support to these tissues. As a result, option D is selected.

Q41. How many phenotypes are possible for human ABO blood groups?

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: There are four possible phenotypes for human ABO blood groups. A, B, AB, and O. This is due to the presence or absence of two antigens (A and B) on the surface of red blood cells, and the presence of absence of antibodies against these antigens in the plasma.

Q42. Histamine causes blood vessels to?

• A. Dilate✓
• B. Constrict
• C. Block
• D. Rupture

Explanation: Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate, which increases blood flow to the affected area. Hence, option A is correct.

Q43. What is true about Smooth Endoplasm Reticulum?

• A. Involved in removal of storage and waste products
• B. Involved in transmission of impulses✓
• C. Involved in protein metabolism
• D. Involved in intracellular digestion

Explanation: The smooth ER within neurons modulates excitation and transmission of impulses from one cell to another. So, only option B is correct.

Q44. Maximum photosynthesis can occur when:

• A. Blue light is given to the plant
• B. Red light is given to the plant✓
• C. Green light is given to the plant
• D. Yellow light is given to the plant

Explanation: Red light is more effective in photosynthesis because both the photosystems absorb light of wavelengths between 680 and 700 nm, respectively. So, option B is correct.

Q45. Which of the following is devoid of cell wall?

• A. Archaebacteria
• B. Cyanobacteria
• C. Eubacteria
• D. Mycoplasma✓

Explanation: Mycoplasma species are devoid of cell walls, which possess a surface membrane structure and lose their ability to produce peptidoglycan structures. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q46. Polio virus is an example of?

• A. Spherical viruses✓
• B. Tadpole shaped viruses
• C. Rod shaped viruses
• D. Helical shaped viruses

Explanation: The poliovirus is a good example of a spherical (icosahedral) virus made up of only two main components: a protein shell and an RNA genome. The outer protein coat protects the viral RNA and helps it attach to host cells, while the RNA inside carries the genetic instructions needed for the virus to replicate once it enters the body.

Q47. Average sperm count per ml is:

• A. 20-150 million✓
• B. 2-10 million
• C. 20-150 thousand
• D. 2-10 thousand

Explanation: Average sperm count per ml of semen is 20 —150 million.

Q48. Average sperm count per ml is;

• A. 20-150 million✓
• B. 2-10 million
• C. 20-150 thousand
• D. 2-10 thousand

Explanation: Average sperm count per ml of semen is 20 —150 million.

Q49. When and who discovered Golgi Apparatus?

• A. 1888- Camillo Golgi
• B. 1898- Camillo Golgi✓
• C. 1988- George Golgi
• D. 1998- Kamillo Golgi

Explanation: Camillo Golgi in 1898 discovered golgi apparatus. So, option B is selected.

Q50. Which of the following is a DNA virus?

• A. Polio virus
• B. Influenza virus
• C. Herpes virus✓
• D. Mumps virus

Explanation: Herpes viruses are DNA viruses. HSV-1, like the other herpesviruses, carries double-stranded DNA as its genetic material.

Q51. The temperature at which inactive enzyme regains it's function is called as?

• A. Optimum temperature
• B. Maximum temperature
• C. Minimum temperature✓
• D. Favourable temperature

Explanation: Option C is correct as Minimum temperature is the temperature at which enzyme becomes activated again after it was previously deactivated. (Note : Low temperatures deactivate enzymes but do not denature them)

Q52. Optimum pH for digestive enzymes of stomach is?

• A. Highly acidic✓
• B. Highly alkaline
• C. Slightly acidic
• D. Slightly alkaline

Explanation: The stomach is known for its highly acidic environment, which is necessary for the activity of digestive enzymes like pepsin. Pepsin requires an acidic pH to function properly and break down proteins. So, option A is the correct answer.

Q53. Pseudomonas is an example of bacteria:

• A. Photoautorophic
• B. Saprophytic bacteria✓
• C. Symbiotic bacteria
• D. Parasitic bacteria

Explanation: Pseudomonas is a type of saprophytic bacterium, which means it obtains nutrients by decomposing dead organic matter. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q54. Which of the following is used in baking?

• A. Aerobic respiration
• B. External respiration
• C. Internal respiration
• D. Anaerobic respiration✓

Explanation: During the process of baking, anaerobic respiration is used by yeast to convert sugars in dough into carbon dioxide gas, which causes the dough to rise. So, option D is selected.

Q55. Treponema pallidum is the causative organism of which disease?

• A. Gonorrhea
• B. Syphilis✓
• C. AIDS
• D. Diabetes

Explanation: Option B is correct because Treponema pallidum is the causative organism for Syphilis.

Q56. When two or more genes interact in a way that their effect is additive expression, it is;

• A. Co-dominance relation
• B. Polygenic inheritance✓
• C. Epistasis
• D. Incomplete dominance

Explanation: Polygenic refers to a trait that is controlled by multiple genes. Such traits are often influenced by the interaction of many genes and environmental factors. In polygenic inheritance, the effect of each gene is additive, meaning that the more genes an individual has for a particular trait, the greater the expression of that trait. For example, human height is a polygenic trait that is influenced by the interaction of many genes. Hence, option B is correct.

Q57. 14 chromosomes are found in?

• A. Potato
• B. Fruit fly
• C. Garden pea✓
• D. Rat

Explanation: Potato has 48 chromosomes.Fruit flies have 8 chromosomes.Garden peas have 14 chromosomes.Rats have 42 chromosomes.Hence, option C is correct.

Q58. Where does the Trachea lie in relation to the esophagus?

• A. Dorsal
• B. Ventral✓
• C. Medial
• D. Lateral

Explanation: The trachea (windpipe) is located ventral (in front of) the esophagus in the thoracic cavity. In other words, the trachea is positioned anteriorly (in front) to the esophagus.

Q59. A haemophilic male marries a haemophilia B carrier female have 4 children. 1 of their children is haemophilic and the remaining 3 are normal. What is the probability that their next child will be haemophilic?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: If a haemophilic male marries a carrier female, there is a 50% chance that their next child will be haemophilic.

Q60. Which of the following cell does not posses Golgi apparatus;

• A. Bacterial cell✓
• B. Animal cell
• C. Plant cell
• D. Fungal cell

Explanation: All bacterial cells lack Golgi apparatus and all prokaryotic cells lack membrane bounded organelles. Therefore, option A is selected here.

Q61. Corpus Luteum secretes the hormones:

• A. Testosterone
• B. Parathormone
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Progesterone✓

Explanation: Testosterones are secreted by gonads or leydig cells.Parathormone is secreted by four parathyroid glands.Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.Corpus luteum secretes a hormone known as progesterone. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q62. The maximum water potential of pure water is:

• A. -100
• B. 0✓
• C. 1
• D. 100

Explanation: We set the water potential of pure water to zero simply to give us a clear starting point. At standard temperature and pressure, pure water has nothing dissolved in it and nothing pressing on it, so its water molecules are as free to move as they can be. Since you cannot get a higher freedom of movement than this, it becomes the reference. Anything added, like solutes or pressure changes, only lowers that value below zero.

Q63. What is the study of joints called?

• A. Arthralgia
• B. Arthrology✓
• C. Myology
• D. Cytology

Explanation: Arthralgia is mainly pain and stiffness in joints. The study of joints is called arthrology. Myology is the study of the muscular system, including the study of structure, function, and diseases of muscles. Cytology is basically the branch of biology that deals with the morphology, structure, life cycle, and pathology of cells. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q64. Which of the following acts as lymphatic organ?

• A. Stomach
• B. Kidney
• C. Spleen✓
• D. Liver

Explanation: All the tissues and organs that store, produce and carry white blood cells against infections like spleen acts as a lymphatic organ. So, option C is correct.

Q65. What is true about nuclear membrane?

• A. Number of nuclear pores is highly variable✓
• B. Number of nuclear pores is highly constant
• C. It is a single membrane structure
• D. Outer membrane is continuous with Golgi apparatus

Explanation: Option A is correct as nuclear membrane has numerous pores called nuclear pores. Their number might vary in different cells as for example ;a) undifferentiated cells (such as eggs) have numerous pores (about 30,000 per nucleus)b) Red Blood Cells have only 3-4 pores per nucleus.

Q66. BCG vaccine can be used to treat:

• A. Pulmonary tuberculosis✓
• B. Typhoid
• C. Cholera
• D. Pneumonia

Explanation: The BCG (Bacillis Calmette-Guerin) vaccine is primarily used to prevent tuberculosis, a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. So, option A is encircled.

Q67. Mitochondria are present in which part of the sperm?

• A. Acrosome
• B. Head
• C. Mid piece✓
• D. Tail

Explanation: Option C is Correct as Mid-piece of sperm has the mitochondrion. (NOTE: The child gets mitochondrion from mothers).

Q68. Which of the following is not an example of disuse of organs?

• A. Snake's legs
• B. Shedding of milk teeth✓
• C. Muscle atrophy
• D. Movement of ear

Explanation: Shedding of milk teeth is a natural process that occurs as part of normal development, not a result of disuse of organs.

Q69. Enzymes catalyze all of the following except:

• A. Digestion
• B. Cellular respiration
• C. Photosynthesis
• D. Breathing✓

Explanation: Enzymes catalyze biochemical reactions in digestion, cellular respiration, and photosynthesis, "Breathing" is a physiological process (gas exchange) that does not directly involve enzymes.

Q70. Which of the following types of organisms first evolved about 1.5 billion years ago?

• A. Prokaryotes
• B. Animals
• C. Eukaryotes✓
• D. Seed plants

Explanation: Eukaryotes are organisms that have cells with a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles. The origin of eukaryotes is still a matter of debate, but it is generally believed to have occured around 1.5 billion years ago. Thus, option C is correct.

Q71. Dominance is the physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele occupying the;

• A. Same locus on same chromosome
• B. Different locus on same chromosome
• C. Same locus on respective homologue✓
• D. Different locus on respective homologue

Explanation: Dominance is the physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele occuping the same locus on respective homologue. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q72. During an involuntary action, a nerve impulse is passed through a pathway called?

• A. Reflex action of nerve impulse
• B. Reflex action of glands
• C. Reflex arc and reflex action
• D. Reflex arc✓

Explanation: During an involuntary action, a nerve impulse is passed through a pathway called the reflex arc. So, option D is correct. A reflex arc is the neural pathway that controls a reflex action, which is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous response to a stimulus. It bypasses the brain to allow for a rapid reaction by transmitting the signal directly through the spinal cord, which acts as the control center. A simple reflex arc typically involves a sensory neuron, a relay neuron (interneuron), and a motor neuron, though some may involve fewer neurons.

Q73. Which of the following can be considered as waste products of bacteria?

• A. Alcohol, acetic acid and lactic acid✓
• B. Alcohol, potassium and sulphur
• C. Alcohol, glycogen and phosphate
• D. Glycogen, fat and potassium

Explanation: Prokaryotes mostly keep Alcohol, lactic acid and acetic acid as wastes. Thus, option A is appropriate.

Q74. Most carbon dioxide is transported in the form of?

• A. Carboxyhemoglobin
• B. Plasma proteins
• C. Bicarbonate ions✓
• D. In dissolved form

Explanation: Carbon dioxide, produced as a waste product of cellular respiration, must be efficiently transported from tissues to the lungs for exhalation. While a small percentage of CO₂ is carried dissolved in plasma and some binds to plasma proteins or hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin, the largest share (about 70%) is transported as bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻). Inside red blood cells, carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of CO₂ and water into carbonic acid, which dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. The bicarbonate ions diffuse into the plasma and are carried to the lungs, where the reaction reverses, releasing CO₂ for exhalation. This bicarbonate pathway is the most efficient and therefore the dominant mode of CO₂ transport in humans.

Q75. Who held to the concept unity of life?

• A. Aristotle
• B. Lamarck
• C. Darwin✓
• D. Alfred

Explanation: Darwin held up the concept mentioned above via his theory of evolution linking all the organisms to one ancestor. Hence, other options are rendered as incorrect.

Q76. What is the number of hydrogen atoms in the molecular formula of Chlorophyll-a?

• A. Six
• B. Fifty five
• C. Seventy
• D. Seventy two✓

Explanation: Molecular formula of Chlorophyll-a is C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg.Hence, option D is correct because the number of hydrogen atoms in the molecular formula of Chlorophyll-a are seventy-two.

Q77. Alternation of generation is the character of _.

• A. Annelida
• B. Arthropoda
• C. Coelenterata✓
• D. Echinoderma

Explanation: The alternation of generations refers to a life cycle in which an organism alternates between a sexually reproducing stage (medusa) and an asexually reproducing stage (polyp). The alternation of generation is the character of certain cnidarians such as jellyfish and corals. Thus, option C is correct.

Q78. Which bacteria are called scavengers of earth?

• A. Parasitic bacteria
• B. Saprophytic bacteria✓
• C. Symbiotic bacteria
• D. Photosynthetic bacteria

Explanation: Saprophytic bacteria are called scavengers of earth because these bacteria decompose dead organic matter and obtain nutrients from decaying organic material, playing a viral role in recycling nutrients in the environment. So, option B is the most accurate answer.

Q79. Lysosomes are named so due to their:

• A. Size and shape
• B. Shape and structure
• C. Structure and role
• D. Composition and role✓

Explanation: Lysosomes are named so due to their composition and role in the cell. Lysosomes are membrane bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes, such as proteases, nucleases, and lipases. They play a crucial role in intracellular digestion, breaking down various cellular components, foreign particles, and waste materials. The term "lyso" refers to their function of lysing or breaking down substances, while "somes" denotes their membranous structure. Hence, the name "lysosomes" accurately reflects their composition (enzymes) and their role (digestion and breakdown) in the cell. So, option D is selected.

Q80. White matter in nervous system is made of;

• A. Dendrites
• B. Myelinated axons✓
• C. Cell bodies
• D. Unmyelinated axons

Explanation: White matter in the nervous system is primarily composed of myelinated axons, which are long projections of neurons covered with a fatty substance called myelin. Myelin acts as an insulating layer, increasing the speed and efficiency of nerve signal transmission. Therefore, option B is selected.

Q81. The catalytic site of enzyme is made up of how many amino acids?

• A. 3-12✓
• B. 30-50
• C. 50-100
• D. 100-1000

Explanation: The catalytic site of an enzyme is typically made up of a relatively small number of amino acids. The specific number can vary depending on the enzyme and its function. However, it is generally within the range of 3-12 amino acids.

Q82. Hormone that make uterus receptive for the implantation of zygote is:

• A. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
• B. Estrogen
• C. Progesterone✓
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is produced by the corpus leuteum in the ovary after ovulation. It plays a crucial role in preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. Progesterone helps to further thicken the endometrium, making it receptive to the implantation of a fertilized egg (zygote) and supports the early stages of pregnancy. Hence, option C is correct.

Q83. Acromegaly is caused by to oversecretion of:

• A. STH (Somatotrophic Hormone)✓
• B. TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)
• C. ICSH (Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone)
• D. FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

Explanation: Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of somatotropic hormone (STH), which is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Excessive STH leads to the enlargement of bones and tissues in the body. So, option A is encircled.

Q84. Glycoproteins are present in which of the following?

• A. Blood group antigen✓
• B. Chloroplast membrane
• C. Egg yolk membrane
• D. Myelin sheath of nerves

Explanation: Glycoproteins are present in blood group antigen. Blood group antigens are glycoproteins or glycolipids found on the surface of red blood cells, determining the blood type.

Q85. Open type circulatory system is found in _.

• A. Earthworm
• B. Cockroach✓
• C. Man
• D. Fish

Explanation: Cockroach has open type circulatory system and their blood is present in open spaces called hemocoel and their blood is known as haemolymph. So, option B is the correct answer.

Q86. During muscle contraction, troponin binds to all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Actin
• B. Tropomyosin
• C. Myosin✓
• D. Calcium

Explanation: Troponin does not directly bind to myosin. Instead, troponin regulates the interaction between actin and myosin by modulating the position of tropomyosin. So, option C is the most appropriate answer.

Q87. Blood group A negative can be donated to:

• A. O negative
• B. O positive
• C. A positive✓
• D. B positive

Explanation: If you have A negative blood you can donate to anyone with a blood type of A or AB regardless of the positive or negative. So only option C is consistent with this statement.

Q88. Oxygen, which is the last electron acceptor in electron transport chain is:

• A. Active
• B. At high energy level
• C. At low energy level✓
• D. Gets chemically deativated after electronic transfer

Explanation: Oxygen has high affinity for electrons which make it ideal to accept electrons so it is at low energy level so that it will accept more and more electrons and its behaviour remain idealSo, option C is accurate.

Q89. The receptors for the sensation of pain are known as:

• A. Thermoreceptor
• B. Nociceptors✓
• C. Chemoreceptors
• D. Photoreceptors

Explanation: Thermoreceptors detect a temperature change. Chemoreceptors detect changes in chemicals. Nociceptors detect pain. Photoreceptors detect light. Hence, option B is correct.

Q90. Cardiac muscles are the muscles of the?

• A. Heart walls only✓
• B. Heart wall and aorta
• C. Heart wall and the valves
• D. Heart wall and pulmonary artery

Explanation: Cardiac muscles are primarily found in the walls of the heart, allowing it to contract and pump blood. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q91. Which one of the following statement is true?

• A. Phenol is less acidic than alcohol
• B. Phenol is more acidic than HCl
• C. Phenol dissolves alkalies readily✓
• D. Phenol is more acidic than carboxylic acid

Explanation: Phenol is acidic due to resonance of pi bond that’s why it is easily dissolves alkalies. So, option C is correct.

Q92. The precipitation occurs if the ionic concentration is:

• A. Less than ksp
• B. More than ksp✓
• C. Equal to ksp
• D. Present in any amount

Explanation: Precipitation occurs when the ionic concentration in a solution exceeds the solubility product of the compound. The solubility product is a constant that represents the maximum concentration of ions that can exist in a saturated solution at a given temperature. If the ionic concentration exceeds this maximum value, the excess ions will come together and form a solid precipitate.

Q93. What is the name of CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH3 ?

• A. 2,3-octadiene
• B. 2,4-octadiene
• C. 2,5-octadiene✓
• D. 2,5-octadyne

Explanation: The parent chain is 8 carbons long so it is -octa and diene because of the 2 double bonds. Also the position of these double bonds is correctly indicated in option C.

Q94. Which of the following statement is correct about the Avogadro's constant?

• A. It is the mass of one mole of any element
• B. It is the mass of 6.023×10^23 atoms of any element
• C. It is the number of atoms in one mole of neon✓
• D. It is the number of atoms in 12g of any element

Explanation: Avogadro's constant defines the number of atoms present in one mole of any substance including neon. So option C is the most suitable answer.

Q95. Which of the following will have a meso isomer?

• A. 2-chlorobutane
• B. 2,3-dichloropentane
• C. 2,3-dichlorobutane✓
• D. 1,2-dichlorobutane

Explanation: Meso isomers have superimposable mirror images and chiral carbons must be present and this compound doesn't have a chiral carbon so it is correct.

Q96. Select the group whose elements easily lose electrons.

• A. IA✓
• B. VA
• C. VIA
• D. VIIA

Explanation: Group 1-A elements being the most electropositive easily loose electrons that’s why they are called reducing agents and alkali metals. So, option A is correct.

Q97. The reaction of alkyl halide with lithium dialkyl copper produce:

• A. Alkane✓
• B. Alkene
• C. Alkyl copper
• D. Alkenyl halides

Explanation: The reaction of an alkyl halide with lithium dialkyl copper, often referred to as the Gilman reagent, leads to the formation of an alkane. The Gilman reagent is an organocopper compound that can undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions with alkyl halides. During this reaction, the alkyl halide undergoes a nucleophilic substitution with a Gilman reagent, resulting in the transfer of the alkyl group from the alkyl halide to the copper atom. The byproduct of the reaction is an alkane.

Q98. Which pair of ions have five unpaired d-electrons?

• A. Fe+2 and Mn+2
• B. Fe+2 and Mn+3
• C. Fe+3 and Mn+3
• D. Fe+3 and Mn+2✓

Explanation: Fe+3 has five unpaired d-electrons, while Mn+2 also has five unpaired d-electrons. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q99. If four balloons are filled with different gases, which gas containg balloon will deflate first?

• A. Helium
• B. Oxygen
• C. Hydrogen✓
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: The reason hydrogen-filled balloon would deflate first is due to its lower molecular weight and smaller atomic size compared to the other gases. So, option C is encircled.

Q100. Which of the following has the least ionization potential?

• A. He
• B. Li✓
• C. Zn
• D. N

Explanation: Lithium is an alkali metal, and alkali metals have very low ionization potentials due to their single valence electron and large atomic size. Lithium requires the least amount of energy to remove its valence electron.

Q101. Which concept was introduced by the scientist Bohr?

• A. Energy levels✓
• B. Orbitals
• C. Sub-orbits
• D. Sub-m

Explanation: Neils Bohr, a Danish physicist, introduced the concept of energy levels in his Bohr model of the atom. According to Bohr's model, electrons orbit the nucleus in discrete energy levels or shells. Each energy level corresponds to a specific energy value, and electrons can transition between these levels by absorbing or emitting energy in discrete amounts. This model was a significant development in understanding the structure of atoms and explaining phenomena such as atomic spectra. So, option A is correct.

Q102. Which enzyme is used for the treatment of blood cancer in children?

• A. Throbmin
• B. L-asparaginase✓
• C. LDH-1
• D. Zymase

Explanation: L-asparaginase is an enzyme used in the treatment of blood cancer (leukemia) in children. It is specifically used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), a common type of blood cancer in children. So, option B is accurate.

Q103. Ideal gas equation helps to calculate the following properties of ideal gas except:

• A. Pressure
• B. Density
• C. Moles
• D. Molarity✓

Explanation: The ideal gas equation is given as: PV = nRTThe ideal gas equation allows us to calculate various properties of an ideal gas, including pressure, volume, and number of moles. However, it does not directly help us calculate the molarity. Molarity is a measure of the concentration of a solute in a solution, typically expressed as moles of solute per liter of solution. Thus, option D is correct.

Q104. Benzene also undergoes electrophilic substitution with fuming sulphuric acid for several hours. The electrophile in this reaction is:

• A. SO2
• B. SO3✓
• C. SO4
• D. H2SO4

Explanation: When benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution with fuming sulphuric acid (H2SO4), the electrophile involved in the reaction is SO3, which is derived from the sulphuric acid. So, option B is the appropriate answer.

Q105. Which one is not a nucleophile?

• A. C3H7O-
• B. SCN-
• C. H2C+✓
• D. NH3

Explanation: H2C+ is a carbocation, which is an electron-deficient species i.e. an electrophile. It is missing a pair of electrons and cannot donate a pair of electrons to act as a nucleophile.

Q106. The IUPAC name of CH3-O-C2H5 is

• A. Methoxy ethane✓
• B. Ethoxy ethane
• C. Methyl ethane
• D. Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for the compound CH3-O-C2H5 is Methoxy ethane.

Q107. A solution which does not tend to vary in pH is called?

• A. Acidic solution
• B. Buffer solution✓
• C. Bases solution
• D. Super saturated solution

Explanation: A solution that does not tend to vary in pH is called a buffer solution. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q108. What is the electronic configuration of C?

• A. 1s², 2s², 2p²✓
• B. 1s², 2s², 2p⁴
• C. 1s², 2s², 2p⁴, 3s²
• D. 1s², 2s², 2p⁴, 3s², 3p⁴

Explanation: The electronic configuration of carbon is: C = 1s², 2s², 2p²So, only option A is correct.

Q109. Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution. This characteristic is due to which of the following?

• A. Hydrogen bonding
• B. Inductive effect
• C. Strong mesomeric effect✓
• D. Weak mesomeric effect

Explanation: The presence of the hydroxyl group in phenol allows for extensive resonance delocalization of electrons in the benzene ring, resulting in a strong mesomeric effect. This mesomeric effect stabilizes the positive charge on the intermediate during electrophilic substitution, making phenol more reactive. Hence, option C is correct.

Q110. What is the correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition?

• A. Benzaldehyde > Benzophenone > Acetophenone
• B. Benzophenone > Benzaldehyde > Acetophenone
• C. Acetophenone > Benzaldehyde > Benzophenone
• D. Benzaldehyde > Acetophenone > Benzophenone✓

Explanation: The reactivity towards nucleophilic addition is influenced by the electron-withdrawing or electron-donating groups present on the aromatic ring. Benzaldehyde has a more reactive carbonyl group due to the presence of the electron-withdrawing hydrogen atom on the benzene ring, making it the most reactive. Acetophenone has an electron-donating alkyl group, reducing its reactivity compared to benzaldehyde. Benzophenone has two electron-donating alkyl groups, further reducing its reactivity compared to both benzaldehyde and acetophenone. Therefore, the correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition is:Benzaldehyde > Acetophenone > Benzophenone

Q111. The outer shell configuration of transition block elements is given by:

• A. (n-1) d1-10 na2
• B. (n-1)d1-10(n-1)s0-2
• C. (n-1)d1-10ns0-2✓
• D. nd1-10ns0-2

Explanation: The formula for calculating the required electronic configuration is (n-1)d1-10, ns1-2. Hence, only option C is correct.

Q112. The atomic weight of an element is represented by:

• A. Amu✓
• B. Grams
• C. Kg
• D. Mole

Explanation: Atomic weight is measured in atomic mass units (amu), also called daltons. Hence, all the other options except A are incorrect.

Q113. What is the oxidation number of C12?

• A. 0✓
• B. +1
• C. -1
• D. -2

Explanation: Oxidation number of an element in free state is 0. So, C12 has oxidation number zero. Hence, only option A is consistent with this explanation.

Q114. Zwitter ion is also called?

• A. Double salt
• B. Internal salt✓
• C. Basic salt
• D. Acidic salt

Explanation: A zwitter ion is an ion that contains two functional groups. In simple terms, it is an ion possessing both positive and negative electrical charges. Therefore, zwitter ions are mostly electrically neutral (the net formal charge is usually zero). Zwitter ions are sometimes referred to as “inner salts“. Hence, Option A, C and D are incorrect.

Q115. Which of the following hydroxide of group I is less soluble in water?

• A. NaOH
• B. LiOH✓
• C. KOH
• D. RbOH

Explanation: Except lithium hydroxide,all the alkali metal hydroxides are highly soluble in water. LiOH is much less soluble on account of high lattice enthalpy. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q116. During the formation of chemical bond:

• A. Energy decreases✓
• B. Energy increases
• C. Energy doesnot change
• D. Energy first increases then decreases

Explanation: During bond formation, energy is released thus energy of the reacting substances is decreased or reduced. Hence, option A is correct and all the other options are regarded as incorrect.

Q117. Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the gas formed from?

• A. Destructive distillation✓
• B. Fractional distillation
• C. Steam distillation
• D. Vacuum distillation

Explanation: Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the gas formed from destructive distillation. Destructive distillation is a process in which a substance is heated strongly in the absence of air or oxygen, leading to the breakdown of the compound into smaller, volatile fragments. This process is commonly used to convert complex organic materials, such as coal or wood, into simpler and more useful products. In the case of benzene, it was first discovered by Faraday in the gas produced during the destructive distillation of organic substances.

Q118. IUPAC name of the following compound is CH3-(CH2)3-C(CH3)3?

• A. 2-methyl hexane
• B. Neo-octane
• C. 5,5-dimethyl pentane
• D. 2,2-dimethyl hexane✓

Explanation: Condensed formula for 2,2 dimethyl hexane is CH3-(CH2)3-C(CH3)3. So, option D is the accurate answer.

Q119. One of the reactants consumed earlier than others in a chemical reaction is called:

• A. Active reactant
• B. Excess reactant
• C. Limiting reactant✓
• D. More active reactant

Explanation: In a chemical reaction, the limiting reactant is the reactant that is completely consumed or used up first, thereby limiting the amount of product that can be formed. The other reactants are present in excess, meaning there is more of them than needed to react completely with the limiting reactant. The limiting reactant determines the theoretical yield of the product in the reaction. Hence, option C is correct.

Q120. Geometry of complexes depends upon?

• A. Number of ligands
• B. Hybridization of central metal✓
• C. Oxidation state of central metal
• D. Number of chelating agents

Explanation: The number of ligands affects the coordination number and overall stability of the complex. The geometry of complexes depends primarily on the hybridization of the central metal atom or ion. The oxidation state of the central metal affects the charge and electron distribution in the complex, but it does not directly determine the geometry. Chelating agents are ligands with multiple donor atoms that can form multiple bonds with the central metal. While chelation influences the stability and reactivity of the complex, it does not solely determines the geometry. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q121. The color of Mg metal flame is?

• A. Blue
• B. Violet
• C. Yellow
• D. White✓

Explanation: The color of the flame produced burning magnesium metal is a bright white. The high temperature of the flame excites the electrons in the magnesium atoms, causing them to emit visible light. The white color is a result of a broad spectrum of colors being emitted, which combines to give the appearance of white light.

Q122. Which species has greater reduction potential?

• A. Barium ion
• B. Calcium ion
• C. Magnesium ion
• D. Aluminum ion✓

Explanation: As we go down the electrochemical series , the reduction potential increases. (becomes less negative , approaches zero and then becomes positive). In an electrochemical series , Al3+ -> Al has E⁰ = -1.67V. It is less negative compared to others. (Note: Barium occurs after Li+ and prior to Mg²±)

Q123. Why a reaction is reversible?

• A. Reactants are reactive
• B. Reactants are stable
• C. Products are reactive✓
• D. Products are stable

Explanation: The reversibility of a reaction is determined by the reactivity of the products. In a reversible reaction, the products of the reaction can react with each other or undergo other chemical changes to reform the original reactants. This means that the products are reactive, and their reactivity allows the reaction to proceed in both the forward and backward directions. Therefore, option C is chosen.

Q124. Amphorous solids?

• A. Have perfect arrangement of atoms
• B. Have sharp melting point
• C. Can posses small regions of orderly arrangement of atoms✓
• D. Undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife

Explanation: Amorphous solids can possess small regions of orderly arrangement of atoms. Although the overall structure lacks long-range order, localized regions of short-range order may exist within the material. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q125. Which of the functional groups are present in ethyl acetate?

• A. Aldehyde group
• B. Carboxyl group
• C. Ester group✓
• D. Ether group

Explanation: The ester group is present in ethyl acetate. Ester groups consist of a carbonyl group (C=O) bonded to an oxygen atom, which is further bonded to an alkyl or aryl group. In ethyl acetate, the ester group consists of the carbonyl group bonded to an oxygen atom, which is further bonded to an ethyl group.

Q126. Which of the following compounds will react with Tollens reagent to give metallic silver?

• A. Methanal✓
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Ethyl alcohol
• D. Acetore

Explanation: Methanal is an aldehyde that can undergo oxidation with Tollen's reagent to produce metallic silver. The rest of the compounds won't react with Tollen's reagent so option A is correct.

Q127. What a catalyst work by:

• A. Increasing the frequency of collisions
• B. Increasing the proportion of particles with energy greater than the activation✓
• C. Increasing the activation energy
• D. Increasing the concentration

Explanation: A catalyst primarily functions by increasing the proportion of particles with energy greater than the activation energy required for the reaction to occur, allowing the reaction to proceed at a faster rate. Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Q128. Which of the following isomer of pentane have least melting and boiling points?

• A. n-pentane
• B. iso-pentane
• C. neo-pentane✓
• D. 2-methyl butane

Explanation: Neo-pentane (also known as 2,2-dimethylpropane) has the least melting and boiling points. Neo-pentane has a highly branched structure with three methyl groups attached to a central carbon atom. This branching reduces the surface area available for intermolecular interactions, leading to weaker intermolecular forces such as London dispersion forces. Weaker intermolecular forces result in lower melting and boiling points.

Q129. Rate of reaction when the reactants concentration is taken as unity is called?

• A. Arrhenius constant
• B. Ideal rate constant
• C. Molecularity
• D. Specific rate constant✓

Explanation: Specific rate constant, is the rate constant that relates the concentrations of reactants to the rate of reaction when the reactants' concentration is taken as unity. It is specific to a particular reaction and is determined experimentally. So, option D is correct.

Q130. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives which of the following?

• A. Acetaldehyde
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Acetone✓
• D. Ethane

Explanation: When calcium acetate is dry-heated, it undergoes a decarboxylation reaction, resulting in the formation of acetone.The reaction can be represented as:Calcium acetate → Acetone + calcium carbonate.Hence, option C is correct.

Q131. The volume of a given mass of a gas according to Charles law should be zero at:

• A. -273°C✓
• B. 273°C
• C. 100°C
• D. 25°C

Explanation: .Charles's Law theoretically states that an ideal gas's volume is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at constant pressure. Following this, the volume would theoretically become zero at absolute zero, which is 0 Kelvin or -273.15 °C. However, real gases condense before reaching this point, making it a theoretical limit.

Q132. Which of the following is Lucas reagent?

• A. AlCl3
• B. HCl
• C. ZnCl2
• D. Both b and c✓

Explanation: The Lucas reagent is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and anhydrous zinc chloride (ZnCl2). It is used in organic chemistry to test for the presence of alcohol functional groups. So, option D is correct.

Q133. Born-Haber's cycle enables us to calculate:

• A. Enthalpy of combustion
• B. Lattice energy of covalent compounds
• C. Lattice energy of ionic compounds✓
• D. Enthalpy of ionization

Explanation: The Born-Haber cycle is a powerful theoretical tool used in chemistry to indirectly calculate the lattice energy of an ionic solid. It does this by applying Hess's Law to a series of steps that form the ionic compound from its elements.

Q134. Why do electrons have opposite spins when they are in the same orbital?

• A. This condition reduces friction
• B. This condition creates more energy
• C. This condition results in zero magnetism and removes the charge of the electron
• D. This condition results in less repulsion and opposite magnetic fields✓

Explanation: When electrons have opposite spins, their magnetic fields align in opposite directions. This results in less repulsion between the electrons because their opposite spins create opposite magnetic fields, leading to a cancellation of magnetic interactions. As a result, option D is correct.

Q135. Viscosity of liquid decreases with an increase in:

• A. Molecular mass
• B. Temperature✓
• C. Atmospheric pressure
• D. Intermolecular forces

Explanation: As the temperature of a liquid increases, the average kinetic energy of the molecules also increases. This increased kinetic energy leads to more rapid molecular motion and a reduction in intermolecular forces. As a result, the liquid's viscosity decreases, and it flows more easily. Therefore, option B is accurate.

Q136. With the increase in the value of Principal Quantum number 'n' the size of the s-orbitals?

• A. Decrease
• B. Increase✓
• C. May or may not remain the same
• D. Remain the same

Explanation: As the principle quantum number 'n' increases, the size of the s-orbital increases. The principle quantum number represents the energy level or shell in which the electron is located. In an atom, as the electron moves to higher energy levels or shells (higher n values), the distance from the nucleus increases.

Q137. Which of the following is not a primary bond?

• A. Ionic bond
• B. Hydrogen bond✓
• C. Dative bond
• D. Covalent bond

Explanation: Ionic bond is a type of primary bond because an ionic bond is formed when valence electrons are transferred from atom to another to complete the outer electron shell.Hydrogen bond is the stronger form of secondary bonding and is formed from polar molecular bonding. It is not a type of primary bond.The dative (coordinate covalent bond) is a type of primary bonding in which the two electrons derive from the same atom.The covalent bond is the primary type of bonding because it forms when one or more pairs of valence electrons are shared between atoms. Hence, option B is correct.

Q138. Which of the following has sp³ hybridized carbon?

• A. Benzene
• B. Butane✓
• C. 2-butyne
• D. 1-pentene

Explanation: The hybridization of carbon in organic compounds determines the arrangement of its electron orbitals and affects the geometry of the molecule. In Butane, the carbon atoms are bonded to ten different atoms or groups (hydrogen and carbon atoms), indicating sp³ hybridization. Hence, option B is correct.

Q139. Which one of the following is not a crystalline solid?

• A. Copper sulphate
• B. Sugar
• C. NaCl
• D. Rubber✓

Explanation: Copper sulfate is a crystalline solid. It forms blue crystals with a specific crystal structure.Sugar, or sucrose, is also a crystalline solid. It forms white or colorless crystals with a regular arrangement of sucrose molecules. Sodium chloride, or table salt (NaCl), is also a crystalline solid. It forms cubic crystals with a regular arrangement of sodium and chloride ions. In the case of rubber, constituent particles are not arranged in a perfectly ordered manner so it is not a crystalline solid, as it is an amorphous solid. So, option D is the correct option.

Q140. Bond energy is expressed in:

• A. kJ/mol✓
• B. Calories
• C. Joules
• D. Volt

Explanation: Bond energy is typically expressed in units of kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol) or kilocalories per mole (kcal/mol). These units represent the amount of energy required to break one mole of a particular chemical bond in a substance. Hence, option A is correct.

Q141. The resonance hybrid structure of benzene is _ kJ/mol more stable than the hypothetical 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene.

• A. 358.5
• B. 208
• C. 150.5✓
• D. 231.5

Explanation: The resonance hybrid structure of benzene is 150.5 KJ/mol more stable than the hypothetical 1,3,5-Cyclohexatriene due to the delocalization of electrons in the benzene ring.

Q142. The main structural feature of proteins is:

• A. Peptide linkage✓
• B. Glycoside linkage
• C. Ester linkage
• D. Ether linkage

Explanation: Peptide linkage refers to the covalent bond formed between amino acids in a protein, creating a polypeptide chain. So, option A is the only correct option.

Q143. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because of which of the following reasons?

• A. It decomposes on increasing temperature
• B. It has less degree of ionization✓
• C. It has -COOH group
• D. It has more inductive effect

Explanation: Acetic acid is weaker than sulfuric acid because it has a lesser degree of ionization. Acetic acid partially dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and acetate ions (CH3COO-), whereas sulfuric acid is a strong acid that completely dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and sulfate ions (SO42-). The degree of ionization refers to the extent to which an acid dissociates into ions in a solution.

Q144. Conversion of sodium into sodium ions is:

• A. Exothermic process
• B. Endothermic process✓
• C. Neutral process
• D. Sublimation process

Explanation: The conversion of sodium into sodium ions involves the removal of one electron from a sodium atom, resulting in the formation of a sodium ion (Na+). This process is known as ionization or ionization energy. Since energy is required to remove an electron from an atom, the conversion of sodium into sodium ions is an endothermic process.

Q145. The maximum value of induced emf in a rotating coil in a magnetic field does not depend on?

• A. Resistance of the coil✓
• B. Number of turns in the coil
• C. Area of the coil
• D. Frequency of rotation of the coil

Explanation: The maximum induced emf is determined by factors such as the number of turns in the coil, the area of the coil, and the frequency of rotation of the coil. However, the resistance of the coil does not directly affect the maximum value of induced emf. Resistance is related to the current flowing through the coil and the power dissipated in the coil but does not impact the maximum magnitude of the induced emf. Hence, option A is selected.

Q146. Which one of the following is ohmic device?

• A. Filament bulb
• B. Transistor
• C. Semiconductor diode
• D. Copper wire✓

Explanation: Copper wire is an ohmic device, as voltage rises current in it also rises.Option A,B and C are non ohmic devices because they don't obey ohm's law.

Q147. An induced emf is produced in a circuit when?

• A. Electric flux changes
• B. Magnetic flux changes✓
• C. No magnetic flux produced
• D. Magnetic flux remains constant

Explanation: According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, an induced emf is generated in a circuit whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux through the circuit. This change in magnetic flux can occur due to various factors such as a change in the magnetic field strength, the orientation of the magnetic field, or the area of the circuit loop. The induced emf creates an electric current in the circuit, which can be used to do work or power electrical devices. So, option B is the appropriate answer.

Q148. A circuit that converts pulsating voltage of the rectifier to smooth voltage is known as:

• A. Generator
• B. Transformer
• C. Filter✓
• D. Choke

Explanation: A filter is typically used to convert the pulsating or fluctuating voltage output from the rectifier into a smoother or more constant voltage output. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q149. According to the right-hand rule, the direction of angular displacement is along the?

• A. Curl of fingers
• B. First finger
• C. Pointing thumb✓
• D. Second finger

Explanation: The direction of angular displacement is determined by right hand rule. According to the right-hand rule, if you hold the axis with your right hand and rotate the fingers in the direction of motion of the rotating body then your thumb will point in the direction of the angular displacement. Hence, option C is accurate.

Q150. During a projectile path, air friction affects:

• A. Initial velocity of launch
• B. Horizontal motion only
• C. Vertical motion only
• D. Both horizontal and vertical motions✓

Explanation: Air friction, also known as air resistance or drag, affects both the horizontal and vertical motions of a projectile. It acts in the opposite direction to the motion of the projectile, reducing its speed and altering its trajectory in both dimensions. Therefore, option D is selected.

Q151. A wave is characterised by the physical parameters:

• A. Amplitude, wavelength and acceleration
• B. Frequency, wavelength and acceleration
• C. Wavelength, frequency and speed of wave✓
• D. Displacement, wavelength and speed of wave

Explanation: A wave is typically characterized by the following physical parameters:1. Wavelength (λ): The distance between two consecutive points on the wave that are in phase with each other.2. Frequency (f): The number of oscillations or cycles of the wave per second.3. Speed of wave (v): The distance traveled by the wave per unit time.These three parameters are related by the wave equation:v = λf

Q152. Which of the following experiments prove the particle nature of light?

• A. Interference
• B. Diffraction
• C. Reflection
• D. Photoelectric effect✓

Explanation: The photoelectric effect is an experiment that proves the particle nature of light. It shows that light can act as discrete packets of energy called photons, where the ejection of electrons from a material depends on the intensity and frequency of light, rather than its wave properties alone. This experiment provided strong evidence for the particle-like behavior of light.

Q153. For better results, actual spectrometer makes use of?

• A. Capacitors
• B. Diffraction grating✓
• C. Mica window
• D. Polarizers

Explanation: Diffraction gratings are widely used in spectrometers to disperse light into its constituent wavelengths. They consist of a surface with many closely spaced parallel grooves that cause light to diffract, separating it into its spectral components. This allows for the analysis of different wavelengths present in a light source. So, option B is correct.

Q154. A bar magnet is falling inside a long copper tube. The acceleration of the magnet inside the copper tube is?

• A. Equal to g
• B. Greater than g
• C. Less than g✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: When a magnet falls inside a long copper tube, it experiences a phenomenon called electromagnetic damping or electromagnetic braking. As the magnet falls, it induces eddy currents in the copper tube, which in turn produce magnetic fields that oppose the motion of the magnet. These opposing magnetic fields create a resistive force that slows down the magnet's descent. As a result, the acceleration of the magnet inside the copper tube is reduced compared to the acceleration due to gravity (g). The exact value of the acceleration depends on various factors such as the strength of the magnet, the properties of the copper tube, and the dimensions of both. However, in general, the acceleration is significantly less than the acceleration due to gravity.

Q155. If a bulb has a 20W power, and is working at 50% efficiency. What is its output power?

• A. 10W✓
• B. 15W
• C. 18W
• D. 20W

Explanation: If the bulb has a 20W power and is working at 50% efficiency, its output power can be calculated by multiplying the input power by the efficiency factor.Output power = Input power×efficiencyOutput power = 20W × 0.5 (50%)= 10WTherefore, the closest answer 10W is correct.

Q156. The longitudinal waves travel faster through:

• A. Solids✓
• B. Liquids
• C. Gases
• D. Plasma

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation. These waves travel faster through solids compared to liquids, gases, or plasma. This is because solids have a higher density and a greater degree of intermolecular or interatomic interactions, which allows for faster transmission of the wave energy. In liquids and gases, the particles are more loosely arranged and have weaker intermolecular forces, leading to slower propagation of longitudinal waves. Therefore, the correct option is A.

Q157. The electric potential at the center of uniformly charged conducting sphere is:

• A. Zero
• B. Less than that at the surface
• C. Greater than that at the surface
• D. Equal to that at the surface✓

Explanation: According to Gauss's law, the electric field inside a uniformly charged conducting sphere is zero. Therefore, the electric potential at any point inside the sphere, including the centre, is equal to the electric potential at the surface. This is because in a conductor, charges redistribute themselves on the surface to achieve electrostatic equilibrium. As a result, the excess charge resides on the outer surface of the conductor, causing equipotential surfaces to form. Since the electric potential is the same at all points on an equipotential surface, the electric potential at the center of the conducting sphere is equal to that at the surface.

Q158. In an experiment count rate of a sample of a radioactive element tale from 400 counts per second to 50 counts per second in 50 minutes. What is the half-life of radioactive element?

• A. 30 minutes
• B. 40 minutes
• C. 50 minutes✓
• D. 60 minutes

Explanation: To determine the half-life of a radioactive element, we can use the formula for exponential decay:Nt = No × (½)^(t / T½)Nt is the count rate at time tNo is the initial count rate.T½ is the half-life of the radioactive elementGiven that:No = 400 counts per secondNt = 50 counts per secondt = 50 minutesPutting values in the above equation:50 = 400 × (½)^(150 / T½)Dividing both sides of the equation by 400:⅛ = (½)^(150 / T½)Taking the logarithm (base 2)of both sides:-3 = (150 / T½) × log2(½)Simplifying:-3 = -150 / T½Cross-multiplying:T½ = 150/3= 50 minutesTherefore, the half-life of the radioactive element is 50 minutes.

Q159. Which one of these statements is true? A magnet attracts:

• A. Plastics
• B. Any metal
• C. Iron and steel✓
• D. Aluminum

Explanation: Iron and steel are ferromagnetic materials and are strongly attracted to magnets. They exhibit magnetic properties and can be magnetized themselves.

Q160. The kinetic energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is double of its potential energy at a point where instantaneous displacement is equal to:

• A. 1/2 (amplitude)
• B. 1/√2 (amplitude)
• C. 1/√3 (amplitude)✓
• D. None

Explanation: In a simple harmonic oscillator, the kinetic energy (KE) is equal to half the potential energy (PE) at any given point. Therefore, when the kinetic energy is double the potential energy, it implies that K.E = 2P.E. This condition is satisfied when the instantaneous displacement is equal to 1/√3 (amplitude) of the oscillation.

Q161. When a charged body is brought near an uncharged conductor in the insulating stand:

• A. The nearer end of the conductor acquires the same charge while the farther end opposite charge
• B. No charge is induced on the conductor
• C. The nearer end of the conductor acquires opposite charge and the farther end the same charge✓
• D. Both ends of the conductor acquires same charge

Explanation: When a charged body is brought near an uncharged conductor on the insulating stand then the nearer end of the conductor acquires opposite charge and the farther end the same charge. So, option C is correct.

Q162. Which of the following is the fractional change in resistance per kelvin?

• A. Conductivity
• B. Resistivity
• C. Temperature coefficient of resistivity
• D. Temperature coefficient of resistance✓

Explanation: The temperature coefficient of resistance represents how the resistance of a conductor changes with temperature. It is defined as the fractional change in resistance per Kelvin.

Q163. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it, he does:

• A. Negative work
• B. Positive work but not maximum
• C. No work at all✓
• D. Maximum work

Explanation: Option A: Negative work occurs when the force applied to an object is in the opposite direction of the displacement. In the given scenario, the wall does not move in any direction, so no work is done, let alone negative work.Option B: Positive work is done when the force applied to an object is in the same direction as the displacement. However, in this case, since the wall does not move at all, no work is done, and therefore it cannot be considered positive work, let alone maximum.Option C: Work is defined as the product of the force applied to an object and the displacement of the object in the direction of the force. In this case, although the man is applying a force by pushing the wall, the wall does not undergo any displacement in the direction of the force. Since there is no displacement, no work is done on the wall.Option D: This option does not apply in this scenario. Maximum work would imply that the force applied is in the same direction as the displacement and is exerted with the maximum possible magnitude. However, since no displacement occurs when the man pushes the wall, there is no work done, let alone maximum work.

Q164. The ratio of angular speed of a minutes hand to hours of the watch is?

• A. 1:8
• B. 6:1
• C. 1:12
• D. 12:1✓

Explanation: w=2π/T Here, w= angular speed T= time

Q165. Which of the following pairs has the same direction always?

• A. Force, displacement
• B. Force, velocity
• C. Force, acceleration✓
• D. Force, momentum

Explanation: According to second law of motion when force is applied on a body acceleration is produced in it in the same direction. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q166. The third law of motion explains:

• A. The effect of force
• B. The existence of a force
• C. The existence of two forces
• D. The existence of a pair of forces in nature✓

Explanation: According to the third law all the actions have reactions that’s why any force does not occur as a single it will be affected by the other force too that’s why forces are present in the form of pairs. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q167. Thermal equilibrium in environment occurs due to:

• A. Heat generation
• B. Heat dissipation
• C. Heat flow✓
• D. Heat absorption

Explanation: Thermal equilibrium occurs due to heat flow, which is the transfer of heat energy from a higher temperature region to a lower temperature region until both reach the same temperature and achieve thermal equilibrium.

Q168. A second pendulum starts its oscillation from the extreme position. What is the ratio of it's amplitude to the displacement after 7 seconds?

• A. 1:2✓
• B. 1:4
• C. 1:14
• D. Infinity

Explanation: For a simple pendulum, the ratio of the amplitude to the displacement after a given time is 1:2. This means that the amplitude of the pendulum is twice the displacement at any given point during the oscillation. In this case, the pendulum starts from the extreme position, which means the displacement at the beginning is equal to the amplitude. After 7 seconds, the displacement will be half of the amplitude, resulting in a ratio of 1:2.

Q169. Positron and electron anhilate into:

• A. Alpha-rays
• B. One y-ray photon
• C. Two y-ray photons✓
• D. X-rays

Explanation: In anhhilation of matter two gamma rays photon are produced.

Q170. An electric motor is used to operate an elevator. The motor does 140,000 J of work in 70 s. What is the output power of the motor?

• A. 0.50 milliwatts
• B. 2.0 watts
• C. 2.0 kilowatts✓
• D. 9.8 megawatts

Explanation: Power = work/timeP=140,000/70P=2,000 wattsTherefore, option C is correct.

Q171. The internal resistance of a battery is due to which of the following reasons?

• A. Electrolytes✓
• B. Ions moving charges
• C. Moving charges
• D. Static charges

Explanation: The internal resistance depends on the nature of electrolyte if it is conductive in nature there will be low resistance and vice versa. So, option A is accurate.

Q172. A magnetic field is produced by:

• A. Moving charges✓
• B. Stationary charges
• C. Both moving and stationary charges
• D. Only ions

Explanation: A stationary charge only produce electric field where as moving charge produce electric as well as magnetic field. So option A is correct.

Q173. Air is pumped into a bicycle tyre at constant temperature:

• A. More molecules strike the tyre wall per second✓
• B. The molecules are larger
• C. The molecules are farther apart
• D. Each molecule come close to other

Explanation: When air is pumped into a bicycle tire at a constant temperature, the process is considered an isothermal process. In an isothermal process, the temperature remains constant, which means the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules also remains constant. As more air is pumped into the tire, the volume of the gas increases. According to the ideal gas law (PV=nRT), at constant temperature, an increase in volume leads to a decrease in pressure. To maintain the pressure inside the tire, more air molecules need to strike the tire wall per unit of time.

Q174. The distance traveled by a wave in one period is called its:

• A. Frequency
• B. Time period
• C. Wavelength✓
• D. Wavenumber

Explanation: Frequency means the no. of vibrations occuring in one second.Time period is the time required to complete one cycle/vibrations.Wavelength is the distance travelled in one period.It is the number of waves occuring in one metre length.So, C is the accurate option.

Q175. Radio isotopes can be formed by bombardment with which particles:

• A. Neutron✓
• B. Photons
• C. Electrons
• D. Positron

Explanation: When neutron is bombarded on any element or particle its no. of neutron increase which result in the formation of a radio isotopesWhere as when photon is bombarded only photoelectric effect can be seen i.e electron is emitted from the element or atom.

Q176. A stone is dropped from a building's top 80 m high from the ground. In how much time will it touch the ground?

• A. 2 s
• B. 4 s✓
• C. 8 s
• D. 10 s

Explanation: According to second law of motion;h = vit + 1/2 at²Where, vi = 0So,h = 1/2 gt²t = √2h/gt = √2×80 ÷ 10t = √16t = 4

Q177. Magnetic flux is zero when angle between magnetic field and vector area is:

• A. Zero degree
• B. 90 degree✓
• C. 60 degree
• D. 30 degree

Explanation: The magnetic flux is a measure of the amount of magnetic field passing through a surface. When the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the surface, the magnetic flux is zero because no field lines are passing through the surface. This occurs when the angle between the magnetic field and the surface is 90 degrees.

Q178. Fillings in teeth should be made from a material which:

• A. Does not expand when heated
• B. Expands by the same amount as the tooth when heated✓
• C. Expands less than the tooth when heated
• D. Expands more than the tooth when heated

Explanation: When it comes to fillings in teeth, it is desirable for the filling material to have a similar thermal expansion coefficient as the tooth structure. This ensures that the filling material expands and contracts at a similar rate as the tooth when exposed to changes in temperature. By using a filling material that expands by the same amount as the tooth when heated, it helps maintain the integrity and stability of the tooth-restoration interface, minimizing the risk of complications and preserving the longevity of the dental restoration.

Q179. When a radioactive nucleus emits a gamma radiation then the mass number of atom is:

• A. Remain same✓
• B. Increased by a factor 2
• C. Decreased by a factor 1
• D. Increased by a factor 1

Explanation: Gamma rays have no charge and no mass therefore atomic and mass number remains same. It carries very high energy. So option A is accurate.

Q180. In the SI system of units, the centripetal force is measured in?

• A. J
• B. N✓
• C. T
• D. W

Explanation: Joules is used to measure work.Centripetal force is measured in newtonsand is calculated as mass multiplied by tangential velocity squared, divided by the radius.The SI unit of torque is newton per metre. Torque is the measure of force that can cause an object to rotate about an axis.Watt is the measurement of work per second and is used for electricity.Therefore, option B is correct.

Q181. A charged particle moves in a uniform electric field between two oppositely charged parallel metal plates to calculate the force acting on the particle due to the electric field, which quantity is not required?

• A. Particle charge
• B. Particle speed✓
• C. Plate separation
• D. Potential difference between the plates

Explanation: The force on a charged particle in a uniform electric field is given by:Force = qEWhere the electric field E between two parallel plates is:E = V / dSo, to calculate the force, we need:Particle charge (q)Potential difference between the plates (V)Plate separation (d)The speed of the particle does not affect the electric force acting on it.

Q182. The best example of uniform circular motion is?

• A. The motion of the earth around the sun✓
• B. The motion of a mass attached with a string on a vertical circle
• C. The motion of a minutes hand in the clock
• D. The motion of a spinning top

Explanation: The motion of earth around the sun is the best example of uniform circular motion. Therefore, option A is the only correct answer.

Q183. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg m/s. A force of 0.2 N acts on it in the direction of motion of the body for 10 s. The increase in it's kinetic energy is:

• A. 2.8 J
• B. 3.2 J
• C. 3.8 J
• D. 4.4 J✓

Explanation: The initial momentum of the body is given as 10 kg m/s. Using the definition of momentum, we can find the initial velocity of the body as:p = mv10 = 5vv = 2 m/sThe force acting on the body is 0.2 N and it acts for a duration of 10 seconds. Therefore, the work done by the force is:W = Fd = (0.2 N)(2 m/s)(10 s) = 4 JThe change in kinetic energy of the body is equal to the work done by the force:ΔK = W = 4 JThe final kinetic energy of the body can be calculated using the formula:Kf = (1/2)mv^2Kf = (1/2)(5 kg)(4 m/s)^2 = 40 JThe increase in kinetic energy is therefore:ΔK = Kf - Ki = 40 J - (1/2)(5 kg)(2 m/s)^2 = 4.4 JTherefore, the increase in kinetic energy of the body is 4.4 J.

Q184. If two equal masses are in motion with same individual speeds, we can conclude that:

• A. Their momentums are same
• B. Their momentums can be different from each other✓
• C. Their kinetic energies are different from each other
• D. Their total energies are same

Explanation: This is the accurate statement. As explained above, momentum is a vector. Even if the masses and speeds are identical, the directions of motion can vary. This variation in direction leads to different momentum vectors. For example, one mass could be moving east, and the other north. In this case, their momentums are not the same.

Q185. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 metres, what will be the field intensity?

• A. 400 N/C
• B. 800 N/C✓
• C. 600 N/C
• D. 1200 N/C

Explanation: The electric field intensity due to a point charge is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the charge. This relationship is expressed by the inverse square law: E ∝ 1/r². Initially, the field intensity at 4 meters is 200 N/C. When the distance is reduced to 2 meters (half of the original distance), the field intensity becomes four times greater because (1/2)² = 1/4 and the inverse makes it 4 times. Therefore, the field intensity becomes 800 N/C. The other options do not correctly apply the inverse square law and thus offer incorrect values.

Q186. The units of the equation of Compton's scattering ∆λ = h/mc(1-cos) are of:

• A. Length✓
• B. Time
• C. Mass
• D. Frequency

Explanation: The standard Compton wavelength is denoted by the Greek letter λ (Lambda) measured using the SI unit of length angstrom (metre). Therefore, option A is accurate.

Q187. Which type of energy does the capacitor store?

• A. Kinetic
• B. Potential✓
• C. Thermal
• D. Light

Explanation: A capacitor stores electrical potential energy. When a capacitor is charged, electrical potential energy is stored in the electric field between its plates. The amount of energy stored in a capacitor depends on its capacitance and the voltage across it.

Q188. When the distance between two charged particles is halved the coulomb force between them becomes:

• A. One fourth of the initial force
• B. Four times of the initial force✓
• C. Double the initial force
• D. One-half of the initial force

Explanation: When the distance between two charges is doubled, then the force among them will become one- fourth time.F= kq¹q² ( 2r)²= kq¹q² 4r²F = 4

Q189. When a body moves in a straight line then it's displacement concides with:

• A. Distance✓
• B. Force
• C. Acceleration
• D. Length

Explanation: Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final points. So, in other words, it is the distance measured along the straight lines joining the initial and final positions. And distance is the length of the total path travelled by the body between the initial and final points,Thus if the body moves along a straight line, distance will be equal to displacement.

Q190. Speed of sound is fast in moist air because:

• A. Moist air is heavier than dry air
• B. Value of gamma is more for moist air
• C. Density of moist air is less than density of dry air✓
• D. Density of moist air is more than density of dry air

Explanation: The speed of sound in dry air is 340m/s whereas the speed of sound in moist air is 346m/s. Keep in mind that the water vapour is lighter than dry air. As we remove the moisture from air, then its density increases and the speed of sound in moist air is inversely proportional to the root of its density.

Q191. The emf produced by an A.C generator is maximum when the plane of the coil and the magnetic field are:

• A. Perpendicular to each other
• B. Parallel to each other✓
• C. Inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to each other
• D. Inclined at an angle of 60 degrees to each other

Explanation: The induced electromotive force (emf) in an A.C. generator is maximized when the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field. This configuration allows for the greatest rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil, in accordance with Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. When the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the coil remains constant, resulting in zero induced emf. Angles of 45 degrees and 60 degrees yield intermediate values of induced emf, which are less than the maximum.

Q192. In an electronic transition, what can the atom not emit?

• A. Gamma rays✓
• B. Infrared radiation
• C. Ultraviolet radiation
• D. Visible light

Explanation: Gamma rays are not typically emitted during electronic transition. Gamma rays have the highest energy and shortest wavelength among the electromagnetic spectrum. They are typically associated with nuclear processes, such as radioactive decay or nuclear reactions, rather than electronic transitions within atoms. So, option A is correct.

Q193. Which of the following quantitiy is measured in kilowatt hours?

• A. Charge
• B. Current
• C. Energy✓
• D. Power

Explanation: Energy is basically termed as the capacity for doing work of it can also be defined as the power to do a work, such as the capacity to move an object by application of force. Energy can exist in a variety of forms such as electrical, mechanical, chemical, thermal or nuclear and can be easily converted from one form to another.As we know that the unit of power is watt (W) or it is in kilo watt (KW).Now when the power is multiplied by the time interval in which a specific device runs is known as electrical energy consumed by that device in that time interval.Where the time interval is always measured in hours.So power (P) in KW multiplied by time (t) in hr. = E (KWh)So KWh is the unit of electric energy.And 1 KWh = 1 unit of electric energy.So this is the required answer.

Q194. The parallel metal plates of the capacitor are separated by:

• A. Insulators✓
• B. Isolators
• C. Capacitors
• D. Resistors

Explanation: A capacitor consists of two conducting plates separated by an insulator and is used to store electric charge. If a voltage is applied to the capacitor, one plate becomes negatively charged and the other becomes positively charged. Thus, option A is correct.

Q195. Stationary waves can't transport:

• A. Energy
• B. Mass
• C. Both energy and mass✓
• D. Momentum

Explanation: FOR ENERGY:There is no energy transport in a standing wave because the two waves that make them up carry equal energy in opposite directions.FOR MASS:Mechanical waves travel through matter not stationary waves. They cause oscillations of particles in a solid, liquid or gas. The material through which they travel is called a medium . Electromagnetic waves cause oscillations in electrical and magnetic fields.So, the correct answer is C.

Q196. A child is swinging a swing, the minimum and maximum heights of swing are 0.75 m and 2 m respectively. The maxima velocity of the swing is:

• A. 5 m/s✓
• B. 10 m/s
• C. 15 m/s
• D. 20 m/s

Explanation: Drop in P.E = Gain in K.Emg (2-0.75) = 1 mv²v = √2g (1.25) = 5 m/s

Q197. In transformer, two coils are _ linked with each other?

• A. Electrically
• B. Magnetically✓
• C. Thermally
• D. Mechanically

Explanation: These two coils are not in electrical contact with each other but are instead wrapped together around a common closed magnetic iron circuit called the “core”. This soft iron core is not solid but made up of individual laminations connected together to help reduce the core's magnetic losses.

Q198. The Gaussian surface for a line charge will be:

• A. Sphere
• B. Cylinder✓
• C. Cube
• D. Cuboid

Explanation: For a line of charge the gaussian surface is a cylinder. To find the area of the surface we only count the cylinder itself. The two circles on either end cannot be part of a gaussian surface because they do not have a constant electric field, and the electric field is not perpendicular to the circles. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q199. All children are silly people. Some silly people are rich people. All rich people are big shots. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE?CONCLUSIONS:I. Some silly people are children.II. Some rich people are children.III. Some silly people are big shots.

• A. I and III✓
• B. II
• C. II and III
• D. I and II

Explanation: Let's analyze each conclusion one by one: I. "Some silly people are children." This conclusion is necessarily true based on the given statements. While it's mentioned that "All children are silly people," it implies that there are some silly people who are children. It's possible that there are other silly people who are not children. II. "Some rich people are children." This conclusion is not necessarily true based on the given statements. Although it's mentioned that "Some silly people are rich people" and "All children are silly people," it doesn't necessarily mean that there are rich people who are children. There could be rich people who are not children. III. "Some silly people are big shots." This conclusion is necessarily true based on the given statements. It's stated that "Some silly people are rich people" and "All rich people are big shots." Therefore, it's logically consistent that there must be some silly people who are big shots. So, the correct conclusion is: A. I and III I and III are necessarily true based on the given statements, while II is not necessarily true.

Q200. Read the following and choose the correct answer.X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 31 but greater than 23. X is a prime number. Y is the largest odd number smaller than 31. Z is the smallest even number?

• A. X is 31, Y is 29 and Z is 24
• B. X is 29, Y is 29 and Z is 24✓
• C. X is 23, Y is 29 and Z is 24
• D. X is 27, Y is 31 and Z is 26

Explanation: According to the given questionOption A: 31 is not a prime numberOption BThis is a correct optionOption C:Z is 24 which is not a smallest even numberOption D:As 27 which is not a prime number and Z is 26 which is not a smallest even number so, this option is incorrect.