Etea Mdcat 2014 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. 'CHUCKLE‘ mean:

• A. Bouquet of flowers
• B. Displeasing manner
• C. Suppressed laughter✓
• D. Religious movement

Explanation: Chuckling is a form of laughter that is done in a quiet manner.

Q2. 'Money Grubbing‘ impllies:

• A. Money saving
• B. Money making
• C. Money hunting✓
• D. Money spending

Explanation: Money-grubbing means ‘overeager to make money’."Money hunting" is not a commonly used phrase, and it does not have a standard or widely recognized meaning in the English language. It could potentially be a colloquial term or a unique expression used by a particular group or community, but without further context, it's challenging to determine its specific meaning. If "money hunting" refers to a specific concept or context, please provide more information, and I'll do my best to help you understand its meaning.

Q3. 'Get into a soup‘ impllies:

• A. Face a predicament✓
• B. Play a game of cards
• C. Swallow a fly in soup
• D. Go for hot spicy soup

Explanation: Get into a soup’ means to be in an unpleasant or difficult situation.Predicament is a difficult, unpleasant, or embarrassing situation. So option A is correct.

Q4. I eagerly look forward _ seeing you again.

• A. At
• B. To✓
• C. On
• D. By

Explanation: The question asks you to use correct ​​Adjective + Preposition Combination. The adjective here is ‘forward’ and ‘to’ is always used with forward as a correct preposition. ‘At’ is used after adjectives like ‘employed’, ‘good’ etc. ‘On’ is used after verbs e.g. ‘depend on’. ‘By’ is used after adjectives like ‘composed’, ‘employed’, etc.

Q5. You will be the perfect in charge _ this group.

• A. Of✓
• B. To
• C. By
• D. On

Explanation: The correct preposition to use in the given sentence is "of." The sentence would be: "You will be the perfect in charge of this group." In charge of’ means having control of or responsibility for something i.e. the ‘group’ in this case.

Q6. 'ARABLE‘ means:

• A. Not grown since long
• B. Recently ploughed field
• C. Watered the night before
• D. Fit for cultivation✓

Explanation: Arable refers to land suitable for growing crops.

Q7. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Does your tram leaw before eight o'clock?
• B. Does your train leave before eight clock?
• C. Does your train leave before eight o'clock?✓
• D. Do your train leave before eight o'clock?

Explanation: The correct sentence is Option C: "Does your train leave before eight o'clock?" This sentence correctly uses "Does" as the auxiliary verb with the singular subject "your train" to form the present tense question. It also includes the correct spelling of "leave" and "o'clock."Option A is incorrect due to the misspelling of "leaw," which should be "leave." Option B omits "o'clock," making it incomplete in expressing time. Option D uses "Do" incorrectly with the singular subject "train," which requires "Does."

Q8. A _ child, she was soon bored in class; she already knew more mathematics than her junior school teachers.

• A. Contemporary
• B. Lethargic
• C. Obdurate
• D. Precocious✓

Explanation: The correct word to fill in the blank is "precocious."The sentence would be: "A precocious child, she was soon bored in class; she already knew more mathematics than her junior school teachers.""Precocious" means having developed certain abilities or talents at an early age, often beyond what is typical for children of that age. In the given context, it describes a child who is intellectually advanced and shows great maturity and understanding at a young age.Precocious refers to a child having developed certain abilities or inclinations at an earlier age than is usual or expected.

Q9. Sea-fungi is related to:

• A. Zygomycota
• B. Ascomycota✓
• C. Basidiomycota
• D. Deuteromycota

Explanation: Sea fungi are related to Basidiomycota.Basidiomycota is a phylum of fungi that includes many well-known groups, such as mushrooms, toadstools, and puffballs. They are often found in various terrestrial habitats, including forests, grasslands, and gardens, but some species can also be found in marine environments, particularly in coastal regions or submerged wood. Sea fungi within the phylum Basidiomycota have adapted to thrive in saltwater and are capable of breaking down and decomposing marine plant material.About 444 species of marine fungi have been described, including 10 species of basidiomycetes, and 360 species of ascomycetes. The remainder of the marine fungi are chytrids and mitosporic or asexual fungi.Reference; Species of Higher Marine Fungi Archived 2013-04-22 at the Wayback Machine University of Mississippi.

Q10. Black bread mold is:

• A. Rhizopus✓
• B. Penicillium
• C. Mucor
• D. Yeast

Explanation: Black bread mold is Rhizopus.Rhizopus is a common genus of fungi that includes species responsible for causing the black bread mold. It is known for its rapid growth on bread and other food items, especially under warm and humid conditions. The black coloration of the mold is due to its spore-bearing structures, called sporangia, which release black spores as they mature. Rhizopus can spoil food and, in certain cases, may cause infections if the spores are inhaled or come into contact with open wounds.Rhizopus stolonifer is more commonly known as black bread mold. Rhizopus specifically means any rot causing fungi.

Q11. Which of the statements about paper chromatography is not correct:

• A. Paper chromatography is an example of partition chromatography.
• B. Paper chromatography is most commonly used to separate biologically active substances.
• C. Paper chromatography can also be applied for separating some inorganic ions.
• D. Paper chromatography is always used for quantitative analysis.✓

Explanation: There are limitations to paper chromatography that include;Large quantities of sample cannot be applied on paper chromatography.In quantitative analysis paper chromatography is not effective.Complex mixture cannot be separated by paper chromatography.

Q12. Choose the correct option.

• A. Samar bought an apple, an orange and an pear.
• B. Samar bought an apple a orange and a pear.
• C. Samar bought an apple, an orange and a pear.✓
• D. Samar bought a apple, an orange and a pear.

Explanation: This option is correct. It correctly uses commas to separate the items in the list ("an apple", "an orange", and "a pear"), and the articles ("an" and "a") are used correctly.

Q13. 'ACQUAINTANCE‘ means a person whom:

• A. One loves but whom one cannot marry
• B. One knows but who is not a close friend.✓
• C. One can depend on for help in hour of need.
• D. One can hire for attempting a question paper.

Explanation: An 'acquaintance' means a person whom you know, but not as closely as a friend. They are someone you have met or interacted with, but you might not have a deep or intimate relationship with them.Acquaintance is a noun that refers to a person one knows slightly, but who is not a close friend

Q14. The committee dissented from the report‘s conclusions. The underlined word means:

• A. Differed✓
• B. Joined
• C. Deliberated
• D. Agreed

Explanation: Meanings of the words with explanations:1. Differed: It means to have a disagreement or to be in contrast with something or someone else. When people differ, they have differing opinions, viewpoints, or beliefs about a particular matter.2. Joined: It means to become a member of a group or to come together with others to form a union, team, or association. It can also refer to connecting or attaching things together physically.3. Deliberated: It means to carefully think about or discuss something in a careful and thoughtful manner before making a decision. When people deliberate, they consider different aspects and options before reaching a conclusion.4. Agreed: It means to have a consensus or be in harmony with someone or something. When people agree, they are in accord or have a shared understanding on a particular matter, idea, or opinion.Dissented means disagreement or to differ in opinion. thus option A it is.

Q15. 'APPRAISE‘ means:

• A. Compliment someone publicly
• B. Describe the plot of a book
• C. Evaluate the value or quality of something✓
• D. Bargain for items in a market

Explanation: "Appraise" means to assess, evaluate, or judge the value, quality, or worth of something or someone. It involves carefully examining the object or person to determine its characteristics, strengths, weaknesses, or potential. Appraising can be done in various contexts, such as appraising the value of a property, appraising an employee's performance, or appraising the quality of a product. It often requires expert knowledge or a critical analysis to provide an informed and accurate appraisal. Appraise means to evaluate or estimate the nature, quality, ability, extent or significance. So the most appropriate option is C.

Q16. The senator is opposed _ this new legistation.

• A. At
• B. To✓
• C. Try
• D. On

Explanation: We use "to" as a preposition to indicate a destination or direction.

Q17. Add some milk and sugar _ the afternoon tea.

• A. With
• B. In
• C. On
• D. To✓

Explanation: Sure, here are sentences using each preposition:1. Use of: The use of smartphones has increased significantly in recent years.2. With: He decorated the cake with colorful icing and sprinkles.3. In: She found her keys in the drawer.4. On: Please place the book on the table.5. To: I'm looking forward to seeing you at the party.Use the preposition 'to' when indicating that there is movement from one place to another.

Q18. 'Break the ice‘ implies:

• A. Walk on ice-sheet
• B. Swallow ice-cube
• C. Chisel an ice-block
• D. To initiate conversation✓

Explanation: "Break the ice" is an idiomatic expression that means to initiate or start a conversation in a social setting with people you don't know well, usually to make them feel more comfortable and open to further communication. It helps to ease tension or awkwardness and create a friendly atmosphere.It basically means to remove the tension at a first meeting , to make a first move and initiate things.

Q19. An 'elegy‘ is a poem written:

• A. In the memory of a little child
• B. On the death of someone dear✓
• C. On the sighting of an old tutor
• D. In the love of a dear sweetheart

Explanation: An "elegy" is a poem written to express sorrow, grief, or lamentation, typically in response to the death of a loved one or to reflect on the passing of something significant. It is a form of poetry that is meant to evoke feelings of mourning and remembrance.ELEGY, poem lamenting the death of a public personage or of a friend or loved one; by extension, any reflective lyric on the broader theme of human mortality.

Q20. He was arrested and charged _ murder

• A. With✓
• B. Into
• C. Over
• D. About

Explanation: We use "with" to refer to what we use to do something, e.g, They opened the package with a knife.He was arrested and charged with murder.

Q21. _ second thought I opted for a cold drink.

• A. At
• B. By
• C. On✓
• D. For

Explanation: "On second thought" is used when changing opinion or decision.

Q22. Both DNA and RNA are synthesize by the process of:

• A. Transcription✓
• B. Replication
• C. Polymerization
• D. PCR

Explanation: The process by which DNA is copied to RNA is called transcription.

Q23. The cross between two dissimilar individuals is called:

• A. Test cross
• B. Interbreeding
• C. Epistasis
• D. Hybridization✓

Explanation: Hybridization is the process of an animal or plant breeding with an individual of another species or variety. So D is the correct option.

Q24. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is composed of:

• A. Glycolipids
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Lipoproteins
• D. Peptidoglycan✓

Explanation: Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan, also called as murein, which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by unusual peptides containing D-amino acids.

Q25. Shade loving plants are called:

• A. Halophytes
• B. Mesophytes
• C. Sciophytes✓
• D. Xerophytes

Explanation: Sciophytes are plants that grow in moderate to low intensity of light under the cover of large trees.

Q26. Any DNA molecule having foreign DNA is called:

• A. Mutant
• B. Recombinant✓
• C. Crossing over
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Recombinant DNA is the hybrid DNA made by two or more DNA molecules joined together. So B is the correct option.This technology is used to create new genetic combinations that are then inserted into a host organism, like bacteria, to produce desired traits or products, such as human insulin or genetically modified crops.

Q27. The theory of uniformitarianism was proposed by:

• A. Hutton and Lyell✓
• B. Lamarck
• C. Georges Cuvier
• D. Darwin

Explanation: James Hutton along with Charles Lyell developed the concept of uniformitarianism. He believed Earth's landscapes like mountains and oceans formed over a long period of time through gradual processes.

Q28. "Photo-phosph-rylation" is:

• A. ATP synthesis by food energy
• B. ATP synthesis by solar energy✓
• C. ATP synthesis by source of water
• D. ATP synthesis by source of NADH2

Explanation: It is the process of utilizing light energy to convert ADP to ATP.

Q29. Light absorbing pigments in photosystem I is:

• A. P 600
• B. P 680
• C. P 700✓
• D. P 760

Explanation: Photosystem I has chlorophyll a molecule which absorbs maximum light of 700 nm and is called P700, whereas reaction center of photosystem II has P680

Q30. The enlarged lining epithelium cells connected with groups of developing spermatozoa in testes is:

• A. Somatic cells
• B. Sertoli cells✓
• C. Stem cells
• D. Totipotent cells

Explanation: Sertoli cells are the epithelial supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules. They are derived from the epithelial sex cords of the developing gonads.

Q31. The hormone released by the posterior pitultary that stimulates the contraction of uterine and mammary gland muscles is called:

• A. Prolactin
• B. LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
• C. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)
• D. Oxytocin✓

Explanation: Oxytocin is the hormone released by the posterior pituitary that stimulates the contraction of uterine(during labor) and mammary gland muscles.

Q32. A study of communities in relation to environment is called:

• A. Social ecology
• B. Synecology✓
• C. Autoecology
• D. Heteroecology

Explanation: Synecology (or community ecology) refers to the study of groups of organisms in relation to their environment.

Q33. In Eukaryotes, DNA replication proceeds at the rate of:

• A. 50 base pairs per second✓
• B. 40 base pairs per second
• C. 20 base pairs per second
• D. 30 base pairs per second

Explanation: Eukaryotic DNA replication typically occurs at a rate of approximately 50 base pairs per second. This rate reflects the complex nature of eukaryotic cells, which have larger genomes and more intricate regulatory mechanisms than prokaryotic cells. The process is meticulously controlled to ensure accuracy, with proofreading and repair mechanisms in place. The other options, 40, 30, and 20 base pairs per second, underestimate the replication capability of eukaryotic cells, highlighting a lack of alignment with the generally accepted data on replication speeds in these organisms.

Q34. Fatty acids are:

• A. Unsaturated dicarboxylic acid
• B. Long chain alkanoic acid✓
• C. Aromatic carboxylic acid
• D. Aromatic dicarboxylic acid

Explanation: Alkanoic acids are alkane-derived organic compounds that contain the carboxylate (-COOH) functional group and fatty acids are carboxylic acids with long hydrocarbon chains.

Q35. Saponification of a fat:

• A. Always results in the formation of soaps.✓
• B. Results in the formation of esters.
• C. Results in the formation of waxes.
• D. Results in the formation of glycerol and soap.

Explanation: Saponification is a chemical process where fats or oils react with an alkali, such as sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or potassium hydroxide (KOH), resulting in the formation of glycerol and soap. The soap consists of the salts of fatty acids, which are the main products of interest. Option A accurately describes this outcome, while the other options incorrectly associate saponification with ester or wax formation. Option D is technically correct but doesn't highlight the primary goal of the process, which is soap production.

Q36. Carbylamine test is given by:

• A. Primary amines✓
• B. Secondary amines
• C. Tertiary amines
• D. All of these

Explanation: Only primary amines give the carbylamine test. Hoffmann's carbylamine test/ Isocyanide test:Aliphatic or aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH give foul smelling alkyl isocyanides or carbylamines. This test is not given by secondary or tertiary amines.

Q37. From the following, which one particle belongs to lepton group:

• A. Neutrinos✓
• B. Protons
• C. Neutrons
• D. Mesons

Explanation: Neutrinos are subatomic particles that belong to the family of elementary particles known as leptons. They are among the most abundant particles in the universe and play a crucial role in various astrophysical and particle physics phenomena.Key characteristics of neutrinos include:1. Electrically neutral: Neutrinos have no electric charge, which means they do not interact with electromagnetic forces. They are only influenced by weak nuclear forces and gravity.2. Very low mass: Neutrinos have extremely low mass compared to other elementary particles. While their exact masses are not yet precisely determined, they are much lighter than electrons and other charged particles.3. Nearly massless and relativistic: Neutrinos are known to travel very close to the speed of light, which makes them nearly massless and relativistic.4. Three types (flavors): There are three known types or flavors of neutrinos: electron neutrinos (νe), muon neutrinos (νμ), and tau neutrinos (ντ). Each type is associated with a specific charged lepton (electron, muon, and tau, respectively).5. Oscillation: Neutrinos can undergo a phenomenon called neutrino oscillation, where they can change from one flavor to another as they travel through space. This discovery proved that neutrinos have mass and provided insight into the fundamental properties of these elusive particles.Neutrinos are produced in various astrophysical processes, such as nuclear reactions in the Sun and other stars, supernovae explosions, and cosmic ray interactions. They can travel vast distances through space without much interaction with matter, making them challenging to detect.Neutrino detectors are specially designed to capture and study neutrinos. They use large volumes of materials, such as water or liquid argon, to detect the very rare interactions of neutrinos with other particles. Neutrino research provides valuable insights into the fundamental nature of matter, the early universe, and astrophysical phenomena that involve high-energy processes.Lepton is an elementary particle of half-integer spin (spin 1⁄2) that does not undergo strong interactions .There are six leptons in the present structure, the electron, muon, and tau particles and their associated neutrinos.The rest are Hadrons. Hadron is a subatomic particle of a type including the baryons and mesons, which can take part in the strong interaction.

Q38. Which of the following is an enzyme lacking disease?

• A. PKU✓
• B. Alkaptonuria
• C. Anuria
• D. Dluria

Explanation: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the correct answer as it is a genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH). This enzyme is critical for the metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine. Without this enzyme, phenylalanine accumulates and can lead to neurological damage. Alkaptonuria also involves an enzyme deficiency, but it is not the enzyme referenced in the question, and anuria and dluria are unrelated to enzyme deficiencies.

Q39. Which of the following play role in Biorhythm?

• A. MSH
• B. LH
• C. ADH
• D. Melatonin✓

Explanation: Melatonin is a hormone involved in many biological and physiological regulations in the body. It is an effective hormone for human biorhythm (circadian rhythm) as the main role of this hormone is to maintain the biological clock and to adjust the body rhythm.

Q40. Hypothalamus is a part of:

• A. Diencephalon✓
• B. Myelencephalon
• C. Telencephalon
• D. Metencephalon

Explanation: The hypothalamus is a region of the forebrain located below the thalamus, forming the basal portion of the diencephalon.

Q41. Blue green algae, besides chlorophyll also possess another pigment known as:

• A. Phycocyanin
• B. Phycoerythrin✓
• C. Phycobillirubin
• D. Phycobilliprotein

Explanation: The microbes also contain the same chlorophyll a compound used by plants. Some blue-green algae possess a different photosynthetic pigment, which is known as phycoerythrin.

Q42. Incomplete double circulation is found in:

• A. Aves
• B. Fishes
• C. Amphibians✓
• D. Mammals

Explanation: Amphibians have a three-chambered heart comprising two atria and one ventricle. Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received in the left and right atrium, respectively, gets mixed in the single ventricle, hence it is termed as incomplete double circulation.

Q43. Which of the following animal is included in protostome?

• A. Sea horse
• B. Sea mouse✓
• C. Sea cucumber
• D. Sea lion

Explanation: Annelids, Molluscs, and arthropods fall into the category of protostomes. Sea mice belong to the phylum annelida, therefore they are protostomes.Sea lions, and sea horses are chordates, whereas sea cucumbers are echinoderms.Protostomes are organisms in which blastopore develops into the mouth. These include phylums Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca.Deuterostomes are organisms in which blastopore develops into anus first and later into mouth. These include phylums Echinodermata, Hemichordate, Chordata.

Q44. How many waling legs are present in arachnids?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8✓
• D. 10

Explanation: Arachnids(spider-like) is a class of Phylum Arthropoda with 4 pairs of legs, so a total of 8 legs.

Q45. In octopus, the foot is modified into:

• A. Disc
• B. Arm
• C. Foot
• D. Siphon✓

Explanation: The muscular foot has been modified in cephalopods (Octopus) to form the tentacles and the siphon.The siphon is the tubular portion of the octopus that can draw water in and out of its body using its muscular mantle. This action allows oxygenated water to flow over its internal gills so that it can breathe.

Q46. Which of the following is included in deuterestome?

• A. Brittle star✓
• B. Scorpion
• C. Chaetopterus
• D. Unio

Explanation: Brittle Stars are Echinoderms which are marine animals having radial symmetry with five parts, often with spines. So it is a deuterostome. Deuterostomia are animals typically characterized by their anus forming before their mouth during embryonic development.

Q47. Murein cell-wall is composed of:

• A. Sugar and amino acids
• B. Calcium pectate
• C. Glycoprotein
• D. Peptidoglycan✓

Explanation: Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan, also called as murein, which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by unusual peptides containing D-amino acids.

Q48. The genome of the most animals and higher plants is:

• A. DNA✓
• B. RNA
• C. Both DNA and RNA
• D. Either DNA or RNA

Explanation: Plant genome assembly represents the complete genomic sequence of a plant species, which is assembled into chromosomes and other organelles by using DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) fragments that are obtained from different types of sequencing technology.

Q49. Which statement is wrong about the fourth state of matter known as plasma?

• A. The plasma contains an equal amount of positive and negative charges and is almost neutral as a whole.
• B. Plasma exists in the atmosphere of stars.
• C. Plasma exists in the region around the sun.
• D. There is less matter in the plasma state than in the solid, liquid, and gaseous states.✓

Explanation: Plasma is the highest energy state of matter. It consists of a collection of free-moving electrons, positive ions and neutral particles.

Q50. Deficiency of which of the following causes diuresis?

• A. LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
• B. ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone)
• C. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)
• D. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone)✓

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, decreasing the amount of urine produced. A high ADH level causes the body to produce less urine. A deficiency results in greater urine production.ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone), also known as vasopressin, is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary role is to regulate the water balance in the body by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. ADH plays a crucial role in maintaining proper hydration and preventing excessive water loss.The main functions of ADH in the kidneys are as follows:1. Water reabsorption: When the body is dehydrated or when the blood osmolarity (concentration of solutes) increases, the hypothalamus senses this change and signals the posterior pituitary to release ADH into the bloodstream. ADH then acts on the kidney's collecting ducts, making them more permeable to water. As a result, water is reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, reducing the amount of water lost in the urine.2. Concentration of urine: By increasing water reabsorption, ADH helps in concentrating urine. When the body is dehydrated, ADH levels rise, and more water is reabsorbed from the urine, leading to a reduced volume of urine with a higher concentration of waste products.3. Regulation of blood pressure: In addition to its role in water balance, ADH also has vasoconstrictive effects, meaning it can constrict blood vessels. This property helps maintain blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels and increasing vascular resistance.Imbalances in ADH levels can lead to various medical conditions. For example:1. Diabetes Insipidus: In diabetes insipidus, the body either fails to produce enough ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys do not respond appropriately to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). As a result, excessive amounts of dilute urine are produced, leading to increased thirst and frequent urination.2. Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH): In SIADH, the body releases excessive amounts of ADH, leading to water retention and a decreased concentration of sodium in the blood. This can result in hyponatremia (low blood sodium levels) and fluid overload.The regulation of ADH release is tightly controlled by the body's homeostatic mechanisms, ensuring that water balance is maintained within a narrow range. ADH is a critical hormone in the body's overall water balance and helps to ensure that the body remains properly hydrated and the blood osmolarity remains within a healthy range.

Q51. In angiosperms the megaspore develops into:

• A. Embryo-Sac✓
• B. Embryo
• C. Seed
• D. Male gametophyte

Explanation: The functional megaspore grows into an Embryo sac in angiosperms.

Q52. All of the following plants posses hermaphrodite flowers except:

• A. Lathyrus odoratus
• B. Solanum nigrum
• C. Zea mays✓
• D. Avena sativa

Explanation: Zea-Mays (corn) are a monoecious plant, a hermaphrodite, where both the male and female reproductive parts are present in the same plant.

Q53. Choose the correct relation about the percent yield. It is equal to:

• A. The ratio of actual yield to theoretical yield multiplied by 100✓
• B. The difference between theoretical yield and actual yield
• C. The ratio of theoretical yield to actual yield multiplied by 100
• D. The actual yield divided by 100

Explanation: The percent yield equation is:percent yield = actual yield / theoretical yield x 100%The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield over the theoretical yield multiplied by 100.The actual yield is the quantity of a product that is obtained from a chemical reaction. In contrast, the calculated or theoretical yield is the amount of product that could be obtained from a reaction if all of the reactant converts to product.

Q54. Accessory pigments are:

• A. Red-Yellow-Green
• B. Red-Orange-Blue
• C. Orange-Blue-Green
• D. Red-Orange-Yellow✓

Explanation: Accessory Pigments are the source of much of the RED-ORANGE-YELLOW coloration that we see in plant leaves.

Q55. Chemiosmosis occurs in the:

• A. Grana
• B. Stroma
• C. Thylakoids✓
• D. Intergrana

Explanation: In chloroplasts, chemiosmosis occurs in the thylakoids.

Q56. If two heterozygous tall plants are crossed together, the proportion of phenotypically tall plants will be:

• A. 50%
• B. 25%
• C. 75%✓
• D. 100%

Explanation: A cross between two heterozygous tall plants results in 25% homozygous tall, 50% heterozygous tall, and 25% dwarf plants. So we add 50+25 to get 75% as the proportion of phenotypically tall plants.

Q57. A spore of Fern plant develops into:

• A. Zygote
• B. Sporophyte
• C. Gametophyte✓
• D. Prothalus

Explanation: Released spores grow into a gametophyte which is a very small heart shaped structure.

Q58. The oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin in humans when the blood is 100% oxygenated is:

• A. 19.4 ml
• B. 19.6 ml
• C. 20 ml✓
• D. 21 ml

Explanation: In 100 ml of blood, there is about 15 g of hemoglobin, which can bind approximately 20.1 ml of oxygen. This value is considered the oxygen binding capacity of blood (Cb). The correct answer is 20 ml because it reflects the typical carrying capacity when hemoglobin is fully saturated with oxygen. Options 19.4 ml and 19.6 ml are slightly lower than the actual capacity, while 21 ml exceeds the normal capacity for hemoglobin in fully oxygenated blood.

Q59. Which of the following fish have 14 pairs of gill slits?

• A. Dogfish
• B. Lamprey✓
• C. Catfish
• D. Ray fish

Explanation: Maximum number of gill slits present in cyclostomes . Cyclostomes have 6-15 pairs of gills. Lampreys are example of cyclostomes.

Q60. Liquid crystalline substances are used to locate tumors in the body because:

• A. These parts of the body are warmer than the surroundings✓
• B. These parts of the body are cooler than the surroundings
• C. These parts of the body are constantly increasing and decreasing with the temperature
• D. None of the above options are correct

Explanation: Liquid crystalline substances are used to locate the viens, arteries, infections, and tumors. The reason is that these parts of the body are warmer than the surrounding tissues.

Q61. In which of the following, does the pharynx opens directly into the intestine?

• A. Planaria✓
• B. Earthworm
• C. Cockroach
• D. Snail

Explanation: In planaria, the mouth opens into muscular tubular pharynx which leads into the intestine.

Q62. Bile is released from the gall bladder by the action of:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Cholecystokinin✓
• C. Secretin
• D. Renin

Explanation: When stimulated by the cholecystokinin (CCK), the gallbladder contracts pushing bile through the cystic duct and into the common bile duct.

Q63. To decrease the salt potential, the guard cells absorb:

• A. Sodium Ions
• B. Magnesium ions
• C. Potassium ions✓
• D. Calcium ions

Explanation: Influx of potassium ions decreases water potential in the guard cell so water enters the cell from surrounding cells. As a result salt potential decreases.

Q64. The product of light dependent reactions are:

• A. RuBP + ATP
• B. RuBP + PGAL
• C. NADPH + ATP✓
• D. PGAL + ATP

Explanation: The two products of light dependent reaction of photosystem are ATP and NADPH.The light reaction is the first stage of the photosynthesis process in which solar energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. The three products of the light reaction of photosynthesis are ATP, NADPH, and O2.

Q65. All of the following are gametophytes except:

• A. Club Mosses✓
• B. Funaria
• C. Liver-Worts
• D. Horn-Worts

Explanation: In Club mosses also called lycopsids, the gametophyte is mainly underground.

Q66. All of the following are dioecious except:

• A. Ulva
• B. Funaria✓
• C. Marchantia
• D. Polytrichum

Explanation: Funaria (cord moss) is a bryophyte. Funaria is monoecious and autoecious i.e., male and female reproductive structures develop on different branches of the same plant.

Q67. Coelentrates have hydrostatic skeletion except:

• A. Coral✓
• B. Sea anemone
• C. Hydra
• D. Jellyfish

Explanation: Corals are unique among coelenterates because they secrete a hard exoskeleton made of calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is distinct from the hydrostatic skeleton found in other coelenterates like sea anemones, hydras, and jellyfish. These other organisms use fluid pressure within their bodies to maintain shape and support movement. Thus, corals are the exception to the typical hydrostatic skeleton seen in this group.

Q68. Lungs are _ in srcin.

• A. Ectodermal
• B. Endodermal✓
• C. Mesodermal
• D. Preformed

Explanation: The correct answer is Endodermal. The endoderm, one of the three primary germ layers formed during embryonic development, is responsible for the formation of the respiratory tract lining, including the lungs. This layer also forms other vital internal organs such as the liver, pancreas, and parts of the digestive system. The ectoderm and mesoderm, while important for forming other bodily structures, do not contribute to the primary functional tissue of the lungs. 'Preformed' is unrelated to germ layer origins and lung development.

Q69. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possessed is called its:

• A. Genotype
• B. Phenotype
• C. Karyotype✓
• D. Genome

Explanation: The correct answer is Karyotype. A karyotype is a visual profile of an individual's chromosomes, showing the number and appearance of chromosomes, including their size, shape, and any abnormalities. It is often used in genetic testing to identify chromosomal disorders.The term Genotype refers to the specific set of genes an organism carries, which influences its traits but doesn't specifically denote the chromosomal structure.Phenotype describes the observable characteristics or traits of an organism, which are influenced by both its genotype and environmental factors.Genome refers to the entire set of genetic material in an organism but doesn't focus on the physical arrangement or appearance of chromosomes as a karyotype does.

Q70. An Ascus develops:

• A. 2-Ascospores
• B. 4-Ascospores
• C. 6-Ascospores
• D. 8-Ascospores✓

Explanation: Typically, a single ascus will contain eight ascospores which are produced by meiosis followed by a mitotic division.

Q71. The cell wall of fungus like protista is composed of:

• A. Chitin✓
• B. Cellulose
• C. Murein
• D. Lignin

Explanation: The cell wall of fungus like protista is composed of chitin.

Q72. If the coding sequence on the DNA is AATIGCT, the sequence in the mRNA will be:

• A. AAUOCGT
• B. UUAACGA✓
• C. TTAACGA
• D. UUTTCGT

Explanation: RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to make a new, complementary RNA molecule. The base sequence complementary to AATTGCT is UUAACGA as Adenine in DNA pairs with Uracil in mRNA , Thymine in DNA pairs with Adenine in mRNA, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine.

Q73. Gene and chromosomes show parallel behavior except:

• A. Number✓
• B. Inheritance
• C. Heredity
• D. Composition

Explanation: Genes are specific sequences of nucleotides within DNA that reside on chromosomes. A chromosome is a larger structure that contains many genes. Therefore, while they both play roles in inheritance, heredity, and share similar composition, they do not match in number. Humans typically have 23 pairs of chromosomes, each containing multiple genes. Thus, the number is the key aspect where they do not exhibit parallel behavior. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe areas where genes and chromosomes show parallel behavior.

Q74. 'Mortal stay‘ implies:

• A. Life that a man will have after death
• B. Life spent in the company of friend
• C. Life passed in hostel without studying
• D. Life in this world which is short-lived✓

Explanation: Mortal sta refers to the temporar life spent before one's death, so option D seems to be the accurate.

Q75. Chlorophyll is protected from intense light by:

• A. Phytochrome
• B. Phytokinin
• C. Phytocyanin
• D. Carotenoids✓

Explanation: Some carotenoids protect chlorophyll from intense light by absorbing and dissipating excessive light energy, rather than transferring energy to chlorophyll.

Q76. Replication of DNA occurs during:

• A. Interphase✓
• B. Prophase
• C. Metaphase
• D. Anaphase

Explanation: DNA replication occurs during S-stage of interphase.

Q77. Human arm is homologous with:

• A. Seal's flipper
• B. Octopus tentacle
• C. Bird's wing
• D. Both Seal's flipper and Bird's wing✓

Explanation: Anatomically, the human arm, the flippers of seals, and the wings of the birds are the forelimbs containing similar bones. These forelimbs have a common origin and similar anatomical features but have been modified to perform different functions. Flippers allow the seal to swim, birds fly using their wings and humans perform a variety of functions using the arms. Such structures are homologous to each other.

Q78. A specific nudeotide sequence on DNA molecule to which RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription of mRNA from a gene is called:

• A. Poly genes
• B. Genome
• C. Promoter✓
• D. Pleiotropy

Explanation: The first step in transcription is initiation, when the RNA pol binds to the DNA upstream (5′) of the gene at a specialized sequence called a promoter.

Q79. All of the following belong to phylum Protista except:

• A. Protomycota
• B. Gymnomycota
• C. Oomycota
• D. Deuteromycota✓

Explanation: Phylum Deuteromycota is a polyphyletic group of asexually-reproducing fungi that do not display a sexual phase; they are known as imperfect.

Q80. A special protein carrier in plasma membrane is:

• A. Catalase
• B. Lipase
• C. Permease✓
• D. Arginase

Explanation: The correct answer is Permease, which is a protein carrier in the plasma membrane. Permease functions by specifically binding to molecules on one side of the membrane and facilitating their movement across the membrane through a conformational change. This is essential for processes like nutrient uptake and waste removal.Other options like Catalase, Lipase, and Arginase are enzymes with roles unrelated to membrane transport. Catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide, Lipase digests lipids, and Arginase participates in the urea cycle, making them incorrect choices for this question.

Q81. The theory of new creation was composed by:

• A. George Cuvier
• B. James Hustion
• C. Louis Agassiz✓
• D. Alfred Russel Wallace

Explanation: Louis Agassiz was known for opposing Darwin's theory of evolution and believed that new species were created through divine intervention, a viewpoint that is consistent with the theory of new creation. George Cuvier, while a pioneering paleontologist, focused on catastrophism rather than new creation. James Hustion does not have a notable connection to this theory, and Alfred Russel Wallace was a co-developer of the theory of natural selection, making him an unlikely proponent of new creation.

Q82. The bone dissolving cells are called:

• A. Osteoclast✓
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Osteocytes
• D. Fibroblast

Explanation: Osteoclasts are the bone-dissolving cells responsible for bone resorption. Derived from monocytes, they are large, multinucleated cells that break down bone tissue by secreting enzymes and acids, creating resorption pits. This process is vital for bone remodeling and calcium release into the bloodstream. Osteoblasts then fill these pits with new bone tissue, maintaining bone health.The other cell types serve different functions: Osteoblasts create new bone tissue, osteocytes maintain the bone matrix, and fibroblasts are involved in the production of connective tissue, not bone resorption.

Q83. The response of a plant related to the length of the day and night is called:

• A. Photo-receptor
• B. Photo-taxis
• C. Photo-tropism
• D. Photo-Periodism✓

Explanation: Photoperiodism is the ability of plants and animals to measure environmental day length (photoperiod), typically by monitoring night length. This process underlies a biological calendar. Photoperiod is inversely correlated to the nightly duration of melatonin secretion in animals.

Q84. Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?

• A. PVC
• B. Terylene
• C. Nylon✓
• D. Teflon

Explanation: Nylon is a synthetic polymer that contains nitrogen in its chemical structure.

Q85. Providing heat to the following reaction causes it to shift to the rightCo2(2) + 2H2O(g) → CH4(g) + 2O2(g)The reaction can therefore be described as:

• A. Spontaneous
• B. Adiabatic
• C. Endothermic✓
• D. Exothermic

Explanation: Endothermic reactions consume heat for it to proceed towards the right.

Q86. The major sources responsible for the presence of NO, N2O, NO2 in the atmosphere is / are:

• A. Fertilizers
• B. Biological decay of organic matter
• C. Fossil fuel combustion✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Fossil fuel combustion is the major source of NO, NO2, and N2O in the atmosphere. This process occurs in vehicles, industrial facilities, and power plants, where high temperatures lead to the formation of nitrogen oxides. Fertilizers and biological decay are lesser sources and primarily contribute to other types of nitrogen emissions, such as ammonia and organic nitrogen compounds, rather than directly to nitrogen oxides.

Q87. Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones are known as:

• A. Carbohydrates✓
• B. Proteins
• C. Lipids
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. They are commonly referred to as sugars or saccharides. Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones are a specific type of carbohydrate. Examples include glucose, fructose, and sucrose.

Q88. Sucrose is considered as:

• A. Monosaccharides
• B. Disaccharides✓
• C. Polysaccharides
• D. None of these

Explanation: Sucrose is a disaccharide that is formed when two monosaccharide sugars are joined by glycosidic linkage.

Q89. High molecular mass compound was hydrolyzed the product was analyzed and found to be amino acid. The compound is:

• A. Protein✓
• B. Carbohydrate
• C. Lipid
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Proteins are large biomolecules composed of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. When a high molecular mass compound is hydrolyzed and the product is found to be an amino acid, it indicates that the compound was a protein. Proteins are essential for various biological processes and play a crucial role in the structure and function of cells and tissues.

Q90. The enzymes functions are optimum at:

• A. Specific Temperature
• B. Specific pH
• C. Specific Co-enzyme
• D. All the above✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'All the above' because enzymes require specific conditions to function at their best. Each enzyme has an optimum temperature and pH that maximizes its activity. Additionally, certain enzymes depend on co-enzymes to facilitate their biochemical reactions. The other options, while individually important, do not capture the full range of factors that contribute to optimal enzyme function.

Q91. Which of the following is a lewis acid?

• A. CH3OH
• B. AlCl3✓
• C. NH3
• D. CH3OCH3

Explanation: The correct answer is AlCl3, which is a Lewis acid because it can accept an electron pair. The aluminum atom in AlCl3 has an empty p-orbital, making it capable of accepting electron pairs from Lewis bases, such as when it reacts with chloride ions (Cl-) to form [AlCl4]-. This behavior is a defining characteristic of Lewis acids, which are electron pair acceptors.On the other hand, CH3OH (methanol) is not a Lewis acid because it cannot accept electron pairs; instead, it can donate a proton, acting as a Brønsted-Lowry acid. NH3 (ammonia) is a Lewis base because it can donate its lone pair of electrons, and CH3OCH3 (dimethyl ether) is also a Lewis base due to the lone pairs on the oxygen atom available for donation.

Q92. Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) and dimethyl ether (CH3OCH3) are the best considered as:

• A. Functional isomers✓
• B. Stereoisomers
• C. Enantiomers
• D. Diastereomers

Explanation: Ethanol and dimethyl ether are functional isomers because they share the same molecular formula, C2H6O, but differ in their functional groups: ethanol is an alcohol, and dimethyl ether is an ether. This distinguishes them as functional isomers, a type of structural isomerism where compounds differ in the type of functional group present.Options B, C, and D are incorrect because stereoisomers, enantiomers, and diastereomers all involve the same connectivity of atoms but differ in spatial arrangement, which is not the case here, as ethanol and dimethyl ether differ in their connectivity and functional groups.

Q93. A tertiary carbon is bonded directly to:

• A. 2 Hydrogens
• B. 2 Carbons
• C. 3 Carbons✓
• D. 4 Carbons

Explanation: A tertiary carbon is a carbon atom bonded directly to three other carbon atoms. This classification helps in understanding the structure and reactivity of hydrocarbons. The correct option is Option C: 3 Carbons. Other options are incorrect as they either involve fewer carbon atoms or incorrectly include hydrogen atoms, which do not change the classification of the carbon atom in this context. Option D is incorrect as it describes a quaternary carbon, which is bonded to four carbon atoms.

Q94. When acetylene is passed through hot iron tube at 400 oC, it gives:

• A. Benzene✓
• B. Toluene
• C. O-Xylene
• D. Metaxylene

Explanation: Acetylene on passing through a red hot iron tube undergoes cyclic polymerization. Three of the acetylene molecules polymerise to form benzene.

Q95. Which of the following compounds will react with methyl magnesium Iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to give ethyl alcohol?

• A. Ethylene
• B. Acetone
• C. Acetaldehyde
• D. Formaldehyde✓

Explanation: When formaldehyde (CH2O) reacts with methyl magnesium iodide (CH3MgI), followed by acid hydrolysis, it gives ethyl alcohol (ethanol). The Grignard reagent reacts with the formaldehyde carbonyl group, forming a compound that can be hydrolyzed to yield ethyl alcohol.The reaction can be represented as follows:CH2O + CH3MgI → CH3CH2OH

Q96. Diethyl ether and Methyl propyl ether are:

• A. Conformational isomers
• B. Metamers✓
• C. Geometrical isomers
• D. Enantiomers

Explanation: Metamers are the compounds having the same molecular formula but different position of atoms or groups on the either side of bridging functional groups.

Q97. Acetic acid reacts with methyl alcohol in the presence of acid catalyst to give:

• A. Ethyl formate
• B. Ethyl acetate
• C. Methyl formate
• D. Methyl acetate✓

Explanation: This is the correct product formed by the reaction between acetic acid and methyl alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst. The reaction is an esterification reaction, where the -OH group of acetic acid reacts with the -OH group of methyl alcohol to form water and methyl acetate.

Q98. The characteristic reaction of carboxylic acid is:

• A. Electrophilic substitution
• B. Nucleophilic substitution✓
• C. Electrophilic addition
• D. Nucleophilic addition

Explanation: The carboxyl (COOH) group is named after the carbonyl group (C=O) and a hydroxyl group. In general, carboxylic acids undergo a nucleophilic substitution reaction where the nucleophile (-OH) is substituted by another nucleophile (Nu).

Q99. Which of the following compounds does not give iodoform test on reaction with I2 and NaOH?

• A. Propanone
• B. Ethanol
• C. Butanone
• D. Methanol✓

Explanation: It does not have methyl group attached to alpha carbon so it will not give idoform test

Q100. Which of the following substitutents is an Ortho and Para director and ring deactivating?

• A. –OH
• B. –NH2
• C. –Cl✓
• D. –OCH3

Explanation: In electrophilic aromatic substitution, the nature of the substituent on the benzene ring plays a crucial role in determining the position of new substituents and the reactivity of the ring. Ortho-para directors are groups that direct incoming electrophiles to the 2, 4 (ortho, para) positions. While most ortho-para directors are activating, -Cl is an exception as it directs due to resonance but deactivates due to a strong inductive effect. This means it reduces the overall reactivity of the benzene ring but still allows for substitution at ortho and para positions.In contrast, –OH and –NH2 groups are strong activators, and –OCH3 is moderately activating; all increase the reactivity of the benzene ring and direct electrophiles to ortho and para positions without deactivating the ring.

Q101. Which of the following compounds undergo nitration most readily?

• A. Benzene
• B. Toluene✓
• C. Benzoic acid
• D. Nitrobenzene

Explanation: The correct answer is Toluene. Toluene undergoes nitration much faster than benzene due to the presence of a methyl group. This group donates electron density to the ring, particularly enhancing the reactivity at the ortho and para positions, making the electrophilic aromatic substitution process more favorable.Why the other options are incorrect:Benzene: While benzene can undergo nitration, it lacks activating groups, making it less reactive compared to toluene.Benzoic Acid: The carboxyl group is a deactivating group, reducing electron density in the ring and hindering electrophilic attack.Nitrobenzene: The nitro group is a strong deactivator, making further nitration extremely difficult due to the electron-deficient ring.

Q102. Which of the following is not a ferromagnetic material?

• A. Iron
• B. Nickel
• C. Cobalt
• D. Barium✓

Explanation: Barium is not a ferromagnetic material. Ferromagnetic materials have a strong magnetic response to an external magnetic field, and they can retain their magnetization even after the external field is removed. Iron, Nickel, and Cobalt are examples of ferromagnetic materials. Barium is a diamagnetic material, which means it is weakly repelled by both poles of a magnet. It does not exhibit the strong magnetic properties characteristic of ferromagnetic materials. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q103. Milk sugar is pasteurized by heating for 15 seconds at the temperature of:

• A. 60 oC
• B. 71 oC✓
• C. 50 oC
• D. 80 oC

Explanation: Pasteurization of milk, requires temperatures of about 63 °C (145 °F) maintained for 30 minutes or, alternatively, heating to a higher temperature, 72 °C (162 °F), and holding for 15 seconds.

Q104. Which one of the following is most ionic?

• A. NaCl
• B. MgCl2
• C. KCl✓
• D. AlCl3

Explanation: The correct answer is KCl because it forms the most ionic bond among the options provided. Potassium (K) is larger and has a lower charge density than sodium (Na), making it easier to lose its valence electron and form a K+ cation. According to Fajan's rules, larger cations with a lower charge density form more ionic bonds, which is why KCl is more ionic than NaCl. NaCl is ionic, but sodium's smaller size compared to potassium leads to a slightly higher charge density, resulting in less ionic character compared to KCl.MgCl2 has a +2 charge on magnesium, which increases the covalent character of the bond due to polarization effects.AlCl3 is more covalent due to aluminum's +3 charge, which causes significant polarization of the chloride ions. The ability of AlCl3 to form a dimer also supports its covalent nature.

Q105. The compound used in borax bead test for the detection of basic redicals to form colored bead is:

• A. H2BO2
• B. (C2H5)3BO3
• C. Ca2B6O115H2O
• D. Na2B4O710H2O✓

Explanation: Per one molecule of borax, there are 10 molecules of water of crystallization. Hence, metaborate is formed in the borax bead test.

Q106. Milk of magnesia is used for treatment of acidity in stomach, its formula is:

• A. Mg(OH)2✓
• B. MgSO4
• C. Ca(OH)2
• D. CaSO4

Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide, with the chemical formula Mg(OH)2. It is an effective antacid that neutralizes stomach acid, providing relief from heartburn and indigestion. The reaction with stomach acid produces magnesium chloride and water, which reduces acidity. The other options, MgSO4, Ca(OH)2, and CaSO4, either have different uses or are not suitable for treating stomach acidity.

Q107. Select the true statement about the amorphous solids:

• A. Amorphous substances have a sharp melting point
• B. Amorphous substances do not have a fixed melting point✓
• C. Amorphous substances have proper geometrical shapes
• D. The particles in amorphous substances are arranged in an orderly manner

Explanation: Amorphous solids, unlike crystalline solids, do not have a fixed melting point. This is because they lack the ordered structure that characterizes crystalline materials. Instead, they soften gradually over a range of temperatures. For example, glass softens before melting completely. Amorphous solids have a disordered atomic or molecular structure, which results in their unique properties such as isotropic behavior and lack of sharp melting points. Option B correctly identifies this characteristic, whereas the other options incorrectly attribute properties of crystalline solids to amorphous ones.

Q108. Both NaNO3 an CaCO3 crystallize in Rhombohedral forms therefore they are:

• A. Allotropes
• B. Polymorphous
• C. Isomorphous✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Two or more substances having the same crystal structure called isomorphous.

Q109. Pure water freezes at 0 oC and boils at 100 oC at standard conditions. Calcium chloride was added to pure water. What do you expect about its freezing point and boiling point?

• A. No change in its freezing point and boiling point
• B. Freezing point increases and boiling point decreases.
• C. Freezing point increases and boiling point increases
• D. Freezing point decreases and boiling point increases✓

Explanation: The presence of impurities in a substance lowers the melting point but increases the boiling point of the substance.

Q110. Which of the following ions play important role in the transportation of carbon dioxide?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Bicarbonate✓
• D. Chloride

Explanation: The majority of carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions. This is because erythrocytes have a high activity of carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme that catalyzes the reaction between carbon dioxide and water.

Q111. Equal volume of different gases under same condition of temperature and pressure contain the same number of particles. The above statement is of:

• A. Avogadro's Law✓
• B. Graham's Law
• C. Dalton's Law
• D. Hund's Rule

Explanation: The correct answer is Avogadro's Law. This fundamental principle states that equal volumes of gases, at the same temperature and pressure, will contain an equal number of molecules. This is pivotal for understanding gas behavior in chemistry and physics.Graham's Law is concerned with the diffusion and effusion rates of gases, which depend on molecular weight, not volume and particle number.Dalton's Law explains the pressure contributions of individual gases in a mixture, but does not relate to volume and molecule count.Hund's Rule pertains to electron occupation in atomic orbitals, which is irrelevant to gas laws and molecular volume relationships.

Q112. Which is the correct statement?

• A. The average kinetic energy of the molecules depends on the volume in which the gas is enclosed.
• B. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the gaseous state is proportional to the pressure.
• C. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the gaseous state is proportional to the temperature.✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Kinetic energy is the energy a substance has because of its molecules being in motion, as a substance absorbs heat its molecules move faster, thereby increasing the substance's kinetic energy.

Q113. Hydrogen bonding do not exist in the molecule of:

• A. Hydrogen gas (H2)✓
• B. Proteins
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Ammonia (NH3)

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is an intermolecular force that occurs when a hydrogen atom is covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom, such as nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine. This interaction is absent in hydrogen gas (H2) because it consists of two hydrogen atoms bonded together, without the presence of any electronegative atoms. In contrast, proteins, carbohydrates, and ammonia all have structures that allow for hydrogen bonding due to the presence of nitrogen, oxygen, or hydroxyl groups.

Q114. Which statement is incorrect about ionization energy?

• A. Ionization energy depends upon the magnitude of nuclear charge
• B. Ionization energy depends upon the atomic radius
• C. Ionization energy depends upon the shielding effect
• D. Ionization energy does not depend upon the penetration effect of the inner orbital✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer because it incorrectly states that ionization energy does not depend on the penetration effect. In reality, the penetration effect allows inner orbital electrons to be closer to the nucleus, increasing the effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer electrons, and thus increasing ionization energy.Options A, B, and C correctly state the factors affecting ionization energy: nuclear charge, atomic radius, and shielding effect, respectively. Increased nuclear charge strengthens the attraction between electrons and the nucleus, raising ionization energy. A larger atomic radius weakens this attraction, lowering ionization energy. The shielding effect decreases the effective nuclear charge felt by outer electrons, also reducing ionization energy.

Q115. Select the incorrect Statement:

• A. Molecule may gain an electron to form a molecular anion.
• B. Molecule may lose an electron to form a molecular cation.
• C. Molecular cations are less abundant than molecular anions.✓
• D. These molecular ions can be formed by passing a high-energy electron beam through a gas.

Explanation: Abundance of cationic molecular ions is due to the ability to stabilize unpaired electrons which makes the formation of cationic molecular ions energetically less demanding. That's why cationic molecular ions are more abundant than anionic ones.

Q116. Choose the correct Statement:

• A. The most direct and accurate method for determining atomic masses uses mass spectrometry.
• B. An indirect but precise method for determining molecular masses is through mass spectrometry.
• C. Collision between electrons and atoms produces negative ions by the absorption of electrons by atoms or molecules.✓
• D. The first significant application of mass spectrometry was demonstrating the detection of isotopes of Argon.

Explanation: Electron Collision. Often, electron collisions with gas molecules result in electron attachment to the molecule, which forms a negative ion.

Q117. The partition coefficients of Iodine distribution between two immiscible liquids, water and carbon (tetrachloride) is given below:Choose the correct statement about the system:

• A. Iodine is extracted from CCl4 layer by water
• B. Iodine is extracted from aqueous layer by CCl4✓
• C. Iodine is more soluble in water than CCl4
• D. The value of K depends on the amount of Iodine added

Explanation: Iodine vastly prefers to dissolve in CCl4 , thus it migrates from the aqueous (H2O) phase into the non-aqueous (CCl4) phase , thus we say that CCl4 extracts the iodine from the aqueous phase.

Q118. During a experiment, one measured the mass of a mosquito and found it to be 1.20 × 10–5 Kg. The numbers of significant figures in this case are:

• A. Five
• B. One
• C. Two
• D. Three✓

Explanation: All non zero digits are significant figures and in this case there are 3 significant or non zero digits hence option D is the right choice.

Q119. The vectors A and B are such that |A + B| = |A – B|, then the angle between the two vectors is:

• A. 0o
• B. 90o✓
• C. 60o
• D. 180o

Explanation: Solution is as follows :-

Q120. Which statement correctly describes a nucleon?

• A. Any atomic nucleus
• B. A radioactive atomic nucleus
• C. A neutron or a proton✓
• D. A neutron proton or an electron

Explanation: A nucleon is either a proton or a neutron, which are the subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They are held together by the strong nuclear force, which overcomes the repulsive forces between the positively charged protons. This binding is crucial for the stability and mass of the atom. The other options are incorrect: 'Any atomic nucleus' describes a region, not the specific particles; 'A radioactive atomic nucleus' refers to the behavior of the nucleus, not the definition of nucleons; and 'A neutron proton or an electron' includes an electron, which is not part of the nucleus.

Q121. The van der waals equation of state for no-ideal gases differs from the ideal gas law in that it accounts for:I) The mass of each molecule of the gas.II) The volume of each molecule of the gas.III) The attractive forces between molecules of the gas

• A. I, II, and III
• B. I and II only
• C. I and III only
• D. II and III only✓

Explanation: More significantly, the Van der Waals equation takes into consideration the molecular size and molecular interaction forces (attractive and repulsive forces). Sometimes, it is also referred as the Van der Waals equation of state.

Q122. The statement that heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder to a hotter body is a result of:

• A. Henry's law
• B. The first law of thermodynamics
• C. The second law of thermodynamics✓
• D. The third law of thermodynamics

Explanation: 2nd law of thermodynamics expresses a fundamental and simple truth about the universe, it states that heat cannot flow from colder body to hotter body.

Q123. Ruther ford‘s scattering experiment demonstrates:

• A. The existence of X-rays
• B. The existence of negative particles
• C. The mass to charge ratio of the electron
• D. The nuclear model of the atom✓

Explanation: Rutherford's gold foil experiment was a pivotal moment in atomic physics. It demonstrated that the atom consists of a tiny, dense nucleus containing most of its mass, which caused the deflection of some alpha particles. This experiment refuted the plum pudding model and led to the nuclear model of the atom, where electrons orbit a central nucleus. The other options are incorrect because they relate to different discoveries: X-rays were discovered by Roentgen, J.J. Thomson demonstrated the existence of electrons, and he also found the mass to charge ratio of the electron.

Q124. Which is an incorrect statement?

• A. The ionic bonds are non-directional in character
• B. The crystals of covalent compounds are made up of molecules
• C. The covalent bonds are rigid and non-directional✓
• D. Ionic compounds have high melting points and boiling points

Explanation: Covalent bonds are directional because they involve specific orientations of shared electron pairs, leading to definite molecular shapes. This makes Option C, which claims covalent bonds are non-directional, incorrect. Option A is correct since ionic bonds are non-directional due to uniform electrostatic forces. Option B is correct as covalent compounds are indeed made of molecules. Option D is correct because ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points due to strong ionic attractions.

Q125. In which compound the bond angle is maximum?

• A. Methane
• B. Beryllium chloride✓
• C. Ammonia
• D. Boron trifluoride

Explanation: BeCl2 has bond angle of 180 °

Q126. Which is not used in calculating the lattice energy of crystalline solids?

• A. Haber process✓
• B. Born Haber cycle
• C. Hess‘s law
• D. Enthalpy changes

Explanation: The answer is Haber process because it is the process of formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen under high pressure.

Q127. The first artificial radioactive substance was made by bombarding aluminum 15Al27, with fix-particle. This produced an unstable isotope of phosphorus, 15P30, What was the byproduct of this reaction?

• A. An α-particle
• B. A β-particle
• C. A γ-ray
• D. A neutron✓

Explanation: It is not 27Al15, it is 27Al13Thus the answer is a neutron.

Q128. Which species has no net charge?

• A. An α-particle
• B. An electron
• C. A proton
• D. A neutrino✓

Explanation: The correct answer is a neutrino. Neutrinos are neutral particles, meaning they have no electric charge. They are part of the lepton family in the Standard Model of particle physics and interact only via the weak nuclear force and gravity. This lack of charge allows them to pass through matter nearly undetected, as they do not interact with electromagnetic forces.In contrast, an α-particle, electron, and proton all have net charges. An α-particle has a charge of +2, an electron has a charge of -1, and a proton has a charge of +1. Thus, none of these particles are neutral.

Q129. Which of the following compound is assigned the octane number of 100?

• A. n-heptane
• B. n-octane
• C. 2,3,3-trimethylpentane
• D. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, also known as isooctane. It is assigned an octane number of 100 because it has excellent knock resistance in engines. This compound serves as a standard reference point in the octane rating scale, indicating that it can withstand high compression without detonating prematurely. In contrast, n-heptane, with an octane number of 0, has very poor resistance to knocking. n-Octane has an even lower resistance, indicated by its negative octane number. 2,3,3-Trimethylpentane, while having a high knock resistance, does not serve as the standard reference and has a different octane rating.

Q130. The major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 3- pentanol is:

• A. 1-Pentene
• B. 3-Pentene✓
• C. 2-Methylbutane
• D. 3-Methylbutane

Explanation: The major product is 2-pentene because it is the most stable alkene formed after carbocation rearrangement and follows Zaitsev's rule. The reaction proceeds through an E1 mechanism involving a carbocation intermediate and rearrangement.

Q131. Which of the following compound will react most readily with bromine in CCl4?

• A. 1-pentene
• B. 2-pentene
• C. 2-Methyl-1-butene
• D. 3-Methyl-1-butene✓

Explanation: The reaction of alkenes with bromine proceeds through the formation of a carbocation intermediate. The stability of these carbocations is determined by the number of alkyl substituents; more substituents lead to greater stability. Among the given options, 3-methyl-1-butene forms the most stable carbocation due to its tertiary structure, resulting in the fastest reaction with bromine in CCl4. In contrast, 1-pentene forms the least stable primary carbocation, leading to the slowest reaction, while both 2-pentene and 2-methyl-1-butene form secondary carbocations that are more stable than that of 1-pentene but less stable than that of 3-methyl-1-butene, making them less reactive than the correct answer.

Q132. The half life of 22Na is 2.6 years. If X grams of this sodium isotope are initially present, how much is left after 13 years.

• A. X/32✓
• B. X/13
• C. X/8
• D. X/5

Explanation: Half life is 2.6 yearsInitially x grams of sodium isotope were present After 13 years which is 13/2.6 = 5 years Let the amount of sodium left is y gramPutting formulaN=N°(½)n Here y = x(½)5 y = x/32

Q133. Monochromatic light passes through two parallel slits in a secreen and falls on a place of film. The patteren produced is an example of:

• A. Refraction and diffraction
• B. Interference and reflection
• C. Interference and diffraction✓
• D. Diffraction and polarization

Explanation: When monochromatic light passing through two parallel slit and falls on a screen, the pattern produced is due to interference and diffraction.

Q134. Sodium chloride crystal structure is:

• A. Hexagonal
• B. Body centered cubic
• C. Face centered cubic✓
• D. Tetragonal

Explanation: Explanation diagram is given below.

Q135. An acid is a substance which accepts:

• A. An electron pair✓
• B. A proton
• C. An electron
• D. Pair of protons

Explanation: The correct answer is that an acid is a substance which accepts an electron pair, according to the Lewis concept. This concept broadens the traditional definition of acids beyond the Bronsted-Lowry theory, which focuses on proton donation. Thus, Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect as it describes the action of acids in the Bronsted-Lowry concept, which involves donating, not accepting, a proton. Option C is incorrect because it misinterprets the Lewis concept, emphasizing that acids accept electron pairs instead of single electrons. Option D is incorrect as no accepted theory or concept describes acids as accepting pairs of protons; the focus remains on single proton donation in the Bronsted-Lowry framework.

Q136. Carbon-14 is used in carbon dating. Which of the following species has both same number of neutrons and same number of electrons as in atom of c-14?

• A. 14N
• B. 14N+✓
• C. 12C
• D. 13C

Explanation: Carbon-14 has 6 protons, 6 electrons and 8 neutrons. Nitrogen-14 has 7 protons, 7 electrons, and 7 neutrons. The mass number of 14, is the total of neutrons and protons, in a nucleus.

Q137. Reduction of acetaldehyde with H2/Ni gives:

• A. Ethanol✓
• B. Ethanoic acid
• C. Ethane
• D. Ethylene

Explanation: H2/Ni are strong reducing agents which reduces aldehydes to primary alcohols and ketones to secondary alcohols.

Q138. Which of the following compounds will give a positive test with Fehling‘s solution?

• A. Acetone
• B. Ethyl acetate
• C. Formaldehyde✓
• D. Acetic acid

Explanation: Although both aldehydes and ketones contain the carbonyl functional group (-C=O), only aldehydes give a positive test (formation of an orange to brick-red precipitate of copper(I) oxide) with Fehling's solution.

Q139. Choose the compound in which hydrogen bonding is not possible:

• A. H2O
• B. HCl
• C. CH3COOH
• D. CH3OCH3✓

Explanation: Due to the presence of methyl groups that bounds to oxygen there is less tendency of hydrogen bonding in ethers.Also, it does not have hydrogen attached to oxygen, so it cannot form hydrogen bonds with itself.The carboxylic acid, alcohol and water being polar show H-bonding. Option A is correct.

Q140. The temperature required for vernalization is approximately:

• A. 2˚C
• B. 3˚C
• C. 4˚C✓
• D. 10˚C

Explanation: Vernalization requires an exposure to temperatures between 0–6 °C for several months.

Q141. Which one of the following does not exist?

• A. HBO2
• B. HFO2✓
• C. H3PO3
• D. HBrO2

Explanation: HBrO2(aq) is bromous acid and HIO2(aq) is iodous acid. Like many of the oxyacids, the molecules of HBrO2 (hydrogen bromite) and HIO2 (hydrogen iodide) are unlikely to exist in nature as they would likely decompose into oxides and water vapour when trying to isolate them from their respective acid solutions.

Q142. Select the strongest acidThe pKa values are given:

• A. HI, pKa=-10✓
• B. HCN, pKa=9.4
• C. H2SO4, pKa = 1.8
• D. HNO3, pKa = 3.0

Explanation: The strength of an acid is determined by its ability to donate protons, which is quantified by its pKa value. A lower pKa signifies a stronger acid. Hydroiodic acid (HI) with a pKa around -10 is extremely strong, far exceeding the strength of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) with a pKa of 1.8. Hydrocyanic acid (HCN) has a high pKa of 9.4, indicating it is a weak acid. Nitric acid (HNO3) has a pKa of 3.0, making it stronger than HCN but weaker than both H2SO4 and HI. Therefore, considering the correct pKa values, HI is the strongest acid.

Q143. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an energy level with energy E1, to one with energy E2 and simultaneously emits a photon. The wavelength of the emitted photon is:

• A. hc/(E1 – E2)✓
• B. h/(E1 – E2)
• C. h/c(E1 – E2)
• D. (E1 – E2)/hc

Explanation: But as per ptb, the energy change is given by ∆E=E2-E1∆E=hv∆E=hc/λ E2- E1=hc/λ λ =hc/E2- E1 Ans

Q144. The electric field between the plates of an isolated air-spaced parallel- plate capacitor is E. What is the field between the plates after immersing the capacitor in a liquid of relative permitivity 10?

• A. E√10
• B. E/√10
• C. 10E
• D. E/10✓

Explanation: The relationship between the electric field in the absence of the dielectric (E0) and the electric field with the dielectric (E) is given by:E = E0 / εrwhere εr is the relative permittivity of the medium.In this case, the relative permittivity of the liquid is given as 10. Therefore, the fiel used between the plates after immersing the capacitor in the liquid is:E' = E / εr = E / 10So, the correct answer is option 4E / 10SO, ELECTRIC FIELD WILL DECREASE BY A FACTOR 10.

Q145. A current of 20.0A flows through a battery with an e.m.f of 6.20 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.01, what is the terminal voltage?

• A. 6.40V
• B. 31.0V
• C. 1.24V
• D. 6.00V✓

Explanation: V = e.m.f - (I * Rinternal)where:V is the terminal voltage,e.m.f is the electromotive force (voltage) of the battery,I is the current flowing through the battery, andR_internal is the internal resistance of the battery.In this case, the e.m.f is given as 6.20 V, the current is 20.0 A, and the internal resistance is 0.01 Ω. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:V = 6.20 V - (20.0 A * 0.01 Ω)V = 6.20 V - 0.20 VV = 6.00 V

Q146. Which derived unit below is equivalent to the SI unit for magnetic field strength, the tesla, T?

• A. N m / A
• B. N A / m
• C. N / A m✓
• D. A m / N

Explanation: Force(F) = B(magnetic field strength) x I (current) x L (length / distance)hence , the SI units for each of the above mentioned properties areNewton (N) = B x ampere (A) x Meter (M)Rearrange to make B the subject and get its SI unit.

Q147. A wire of resistance 3.0 Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of the new wire will be:

• A. 1.5 Ω
• B. 3.0 Ω
• C. 6.0 Ω
• D. 12.0 Ω✓

Explanation: R = PL/A where p is density, L is length and A is area.Resistance R = ρℓ / Aℓ’ = 2 ℓ ⇒ A’ = A / 2R’ = ρ [2 ℓ / (A / 2)] = 3R = 3 × 4Ω = 12Ω

Q148. A wire of resistance 4 is bent into a circle. The resistance between the ends of a diameter of the circle is:

• A. 4Ω
• B. 1 Ω✓
• C. 1/4 Ω
• D. 1/16 Ω

Explanation: When a wire of resistance 4R is bent in the form of circle, then the resistance of each segment across the diameter becomes 2R.Equivalent resistance between A and B: +1/Rb (in parallel combination)∴ 1/RAB = 1/(2R) +1/(2R) 1/RAB = 2/(2R) ⟹ RAB=RHere is the link from where you understand this MCQ:

Q149. The state of thermal equllibrium between two systems is determined by equality of:

• A. Pressure
• B. Volume
• C. Temperature✓
• D. Mass

Explanation: Thermal equilibrium between two systems is determined by the equality of temperature, as stated by the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics. This law implies that if no heat flows between the two systems, they are at the same temperature. Pressure and volume relate to mechanical and volumetric properties, respectively, but do not define thermal equilibrium. Mass influences heat capacity but is not a determining factor for thermal equilibrium.

Q150. In the direction indicated by an electric field line:

• A. The electric field strength must increase
• B. The electric field strength must decrease
• C. The potential must decrease✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is that the potential must decrease (Option C). Electric field lines are oriented from higher to lower electric potential, indicating that potential decreases along the direction of the field. Options A and B are incorrect because electric field lines do not provide information about the magnitude of the electric field; thus, strength may vary in any direction. Option D is incorrect because Option C accurately describes the relationship between electric field lines and potential.

Q151. Which of the following physical phenomena connot be described only by the wave theory of the electromagnetic radiation?

• A. Diffraction
• B. Interference
• C. Photoelectric Effect✓
• D. Polarization

Explanation: The correct answer is the Photoelectric Effect. This phenomenon cannot be adequately described by the wave theory of light alone because it demonstrates that light can behave as a stream of particles (photons), with each photon having a discrete energy that can be transferred to electrons. This is in contrast to wave-based phenomena like diffraction, interference, and polarization, which can be fully explained by the wave theory of electromagnetic radiation.

Q152. Which of the following is the same unit as the farad?

• A. Ωs
• B. Ωs–1
• C. Ω–1s✓
• D. Ω–1 s–1

Explanation: Farad is defined as charges held per unit of volt across the capacitor. Charges are current x time. So farad is the current x time over volt, or time over ohm.

Q153. The gravitational field strength on the surface of the Earth is g. The gravitational field strength on the surface of a planet of twice the radius and the same density is:

• A. 4g
• B. 2g✓
• C. g
• D. g/4

Explanation: The unit "per ohm second" (Ω⁻¹s) is indeed equivalent to the unit "farad" (F), which is the SI unit of capacitance. Both units represent different aspects of electrical properties. In the context of capacitance, the farad (F) measures the ability of a capacitor to store an electric charge for a given voltage. It's defined as one coulomb of charge per volt of potential difference.On the other hand, "per ohm second" (Ω⁻¹s) represents the unit of electrical conductance multiplied by time. Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance (measured in ohms), and when multiplied by time (seconds), it becomes equivalent to capacitance (farads).In mathematical terms:1 F = 1 Ω⁻¹sThis relationship highlights the interconnectedness of various electrical properties and units.Now, the gravitational field strength (g') on the surface of the new planet will be determined by the following equation: g' = G * (M' / R'²) where: G is the gravitational constant (a universal constant, approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N(m/kg)²), M' is the mass of the planet (which is 8 times the mass of the Earth), R' is the radius of the planet (twice the radius of the Earth). Since the mass and radius are both larger by a factor of 8 and 2, respectively, the gravitational field strength on the surface of the new planet (g') will be: g' = 8g/4 = 2g Therefore, the gravitational field strength on the surface of a planet with twice the radius and the same density as the Earth will be two times the gravitational field strength on the surface of the Earth (2g).Refer to this video for better understanding:

Q154. Which experimental teachnique reduces the systematic error of the quantity being investigated?

• A. Adjusting an ammeter to remove its zero error before measuring a current✓
• B. Measuring several internodal distances on a standing wave to find the mean internodal distance
• C. Measuring the diameter of a wire repeatedly and calculating the average
• D. Timing a large number of oscillations to find a period

Explanation: Systematic error means that measurements of the same thing will vary in predictable ways. Systematic errors in experimental observations usually come from the instruments which are used in measuring. So, zero error is recognized as the systematic error. Thus adjusting an instrument to remove its zero error before measuring something is the best experimental technique to reduce the systematic error of the quantity being investigated.

Q155. A basketball is thrown upward along a parabollic path. What is the ball‘s acceleration at its highest point?

• A. 0
• B. 1/2g, horizontally
• C. g, upward
• D. g, downward✓

Explanation: At the highest point of travel, the vertical velocity is zero but since the force of gravity still is acting on it, the acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity. Its value is 9.8 m/s2 at locations near the equator.

Q156. Conversion of alternating current to direct current is called:

• A. Amplification
• B. Rectification✓
• C. Modulation
• D. Both B & C

Explanation: A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC), which periodically reverses direction, to direct current (DC). Option B is correct as Rectification is the process of converting alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). This is typically done using a device called a rectifier, which allows current to flow in only one direction.

Q157. Operational amplifiers can amplify:

• A. AC only
• B. DC only
• C. Both AC and DC✓
• D. None of them

Explanation: An operational amplifier is a very high gain voltage amplifier. It is used to amplify the signals by increasing its magnitude and can amplify both DC and AC signals.

Q158. A medical lab has a 16g of sample of radioactive isotopes. After 6 hours it was found that 12g of a sample have decayed. The half life of the isotope is:

• A. 12 hours
• B. 6 hours
• C. 2 hours
• D. 3 hours✓

Explanation: Original amount = 16gDecayed amount = 12gradioactive isotope left after 6 hours is, 16 g - 12 g = 4 gUse N = No/2nWhere N = 4g , No = 16gWithin 6 hours, the original amount of 16g was first halved to 8g and then it was halved to 4g16g ---3 hrs---- 8g ----3 hrs--- 4gThus the half-life of the sample is 3 hrs.

Q159. The sound waves and light waves cannot be both:

• A. Polarized✓
• B. Refracted
• C. Reflected
• D. Diffracted

Explanation: Light waves can be polarised but sound waves cannot.

Q160. Diffraction is the name given to the:

• A. Addition of two coherent waves to produce a stationary wave pattern.
• B. Bending and spreading of waves around an obstacle or through an opening.✓
• C. Change of direction when waves cross the boundary between one medium and another.
• D. Splitting of white light into its constituent colors.

Explanation: Diffraction is the spreading of waves around obstacles.

Q161. Two forces having magnitudes 3.5N and 5.5N are acting on a body. Which one of the following cannot be the resultant of their possible sum?

• A. 1.5 N✓
• B. 2.5 N
• C. 4.5 N
• D. 6.5 N

Explanation: 1.5 N cannot be the resultant of their possible sum because neither the subtraction, nor the addition of both values gives 1.5. The value of resultant can only be subtracted value or additional value which will either be 5.5-3.5= 2 whereas additional value = 5.5+3.5 = 9 so the resultant can range from 2 till 9.

Q162. A battery is marked 9.0V. What does this mean?

• A. Each coulomb of charge from the battery supplies 9.0J of electrical energy to the whole circuit✓
• B. The battery supplies 9.0J to an external circuit for each coulomb of charge
• C. The potential difference across any component connected to the battery will be 9.0V
• D. There will always be 9.0V across the battery terminals

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A. A battery marked as 9.0V means it provides 9.0 joules of energy per coulomb of charge. This is the definition of voltage: the amount of energy per unit charge. Option B is misleading since the voltage applies to the entire circuit, not just the external parts. Option C is incorrect because the potential difference across components depends on circuit configuration. Option D is incorrect since the voltage across the terminals can vary due to factors like internal resistance and the load connected to the battery.

Q163. Using monochromatic light, interference fringes are produced on a screen placed a distance D from a pair of slits of separation a. The separation of the fringes is x. Both a and D are now doubled. What is the new fringe separation?

• A. 2x
• B. x✓
• C. 3x
• D. 4x

Explanation: For double slits: Wavelength λ = xa / Dwhere x: separation of fringes,a: slit separation / distance between slits,D = distance from slits to screen.So, separation of fringes, x = λD / aWhen both a and D are doubled, the fringe separation x = λD / aThe separation between the fringes denoted by x is directly proportional to distance between the slits and screen and inversely proportional to separation between the two slits. Thus doubling the two quantities would ultimately result in cancellation of each other.

Q164. The internal energy of a fixed case of an ideal gas depends on:

• A. Pressure, but not volume or temperature
• B. Temperature, but not pressure or volume✓
• C. Volume, but not pressure or temperature
• D. Pressure and temperature, but not volume

Explanation: In an ideal gas the inter-molecular collisions are assumed to be absent and the collisions are perfectly elastic, thus, the gas only possesses kinetic energy and hence the internal energy of the ideal gas only depends on temperature,hence the answer will be B.

Q165. A spring obeying Hook‘s law has an unstretched length of 50mm and a spring constant of 400 Nm –1. What is the tension in the spring when its overall length is 70mm?

• A. 8.0N✓
• B. 28N
• C. 160N
• D. 400N

Explanation: In order to find the displacement x we subtract the untstrected length from the overall length. The stretched length is equal to displacement x.70-50=20F = kxF = 20*10-3*400F = 8 N

Q166. Which thermodynamic temperature is equivalent to 501.85 oC?

• A. 775.00 K✓
• B. 774.85 K
• C. 228.85 K
• D. 228.70 K

Explanation: Thermodynamic temperature, by contrast, is an absolute measure of the average total internal energy of an object or objects—namely its kinetic energy (energy of motion) plus contributions from other factors.From the following formula C=K-273.15 or K=C+273.15 we know that Celsius can be converted to kelvin scale to indicate thermodynamic temperature. 501.85 + 273.15 = 775 K

Q167. If a hole is bored through the center of the earth and a pebble is dropped in it, then it will:

• A. Stop at the center of the earth
• B. Drop to the other side
• C. Execute SHM✓
• D. None of the above.

Explanation: The pebble would fall down to the other side and in a ideal situation would oscillate between the two ends in simple harmonic motion. Therefore the answer would be C.

Q168. In a vibrating cord the point where the particles are stationary is called:

• A. Crest
• B. Anti-node
• C. Node✓
• D. Trough

Explanation: A node is a point along a standing wave where the wave has minimum amplitude. All the particles of the string execute SHM except nodes.

Q169. The minimum frequency of incident light required to emit photoelectrons from the metal surface is called:

• A. Critical frequency
• B. Threshold frequency✓
• C. Work function
• D. None of the above

Explanation: This minimum frequency is also called the threshold frequency, and the value of ν0​\nu, start subscript, 0, end subscript depends on the metal. For frequencies greater than ν0​\nu, start subscript, 0, end subscript, electrons would be ejected from the metal.

Q170. A racing car accelerates uniformly through three gear changes with the following average speeds:20ms–1 for 2.0s, 40ms –1 for 2.0s, and 60ms –1 for 6.0s.What is the overall average speed of the car?

• A. 12 ms–1
• B. 13.3 ms–1
• C. 48 ms–1✓
• D. 40 ms–1

Explanation: V - overall average speedS - a total distancet - a total timeV = S/tS = V1*t1 + V2*t2 + V3*t3V1, V2, V3 - average speeds for each gear changest = t1 + t2 + t3t1, t2, t3 - times for each gear changesFinally:V = (V1*t1 + V2*t2 + V3*t3)/( t1 + t2 + t3) = (20*2+40*2+60*6)/(2+2+6)=48 m/sAnswer: the overall average speed equals 48 m/s.

Q171. Vapour pressure of a liquid can be measured by the Barometric method and Manometric:

• A. Barometric method is more accurate than Manometric method.
• B. Manometric method is more accurate than Barometric method.✓
• C. Both are equally accurate and applicable.
• D. Both methods are in use but are not reliable.

Explanation: Barometers are more limited in design and function than manometers, hence, manometers can calculate other pressures along with atmospheric pressure. On the other hand, barometers can calculate only atmospheric pressure. Manometric method are more accurate than barometric method because manometers are more accurate and therefore do not require definite level. The U-shaped manometers are more accurate because the level of high pressure gas on both sides helps in measuring the pressure of the liquid.

Q172. Several resistors are connected in parallel the resistance of their equivalent resistor will:

• A. Increase
• B. Decrease✓
• C. Not change
• D. None of these

Explanation: In a parallel circuit, the net resistance decreases as more components are added, because there are more paths for the current to pass through.

Q173. Which of the following series lie in the visible region?

• A. Lyman
• B. Paschen
• C. Balmer✓
• D. Pfund

Explanation: Four of the Balmer lines are in the technically visible part of the spectrum, with wavelengths between 400nm−700nm.The Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, and Pfund series are terms used to describe different series of spectral lines in the emission spectrum of hydrogen and other elements. These series correspond to transitions of electrons between different energy levels within the atom.1. **Lyman Series:** The Lyman series is a series of spectral lines in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum. It corresponds to transitions of electrons from higher energy levels to the n = 1 energy level (ground state) of the hydrogen atom. The lines in this series are named after the scientist Theodore Lyman who studied them.2. **Balmer Series:** The Balmer series is a series of spectral lines in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum. It corresponds to transitions of electrons from higher energy levels to the n = 2 energy level of the hydrogen atom. The lines in this series were discovered by Johann Balmer.3. **Paschen Series:** The Paschen series is a series of spectral lines in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. It corresponds to transitions of electrons from higher energy levels to the n = 3 energy level of the hydrogen atom. The lines in this series were studied by Friedrich Paschen.4. **Pfund Series:** The Pfund series is a series of spectral lines in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. It corresponds to transitions of electrons from higher energy levels to the n = 4 energy level of the hydrogen atom. The lines in this series were observed by August Herman Pfund.These series of spectral lines occur because of the quantized nature of energy levels in atoms. When electrons transition from higher energy levels to lower energy levels, they emit photons of specific energies, which correspond to specific wavelengths or frequencies of light. Each series corresponds to transitions ending at a specific lower energy level, and the lines within each series represent different possible paths for electrons to take while transitioning to that level.These spectral series provided crucial insights into the quantization of energy in atoms and played a significant role in the development of quantum mechanics.

Q174. Kirchoff‘s fist law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of:

• A. Charge✓
• B. Energy
• C. Mass
• D. Momentum

Explanation: Kirchhoff’s first law is a manifestation of law of conservation of charge, if there is no sink or source of charge at a point, the total total charge flowing towards the point must be equal to the total charge flowing away from it.

Q175. Select the correct relation between wave and particle nature of radiation?

• A. Wave-particle duality✓
• B. Only wave nature
• C. Only particle nature
• D. Neither wave nor particle nature

Explanation: According to debroglie , all mater particles in motion have dual nature and thus he derived an equation which is E=hc/λ

Q176. Change in concentration of a reactant is plotted against time and the slope dx/dt determined. The values of dx/dt are plotted against (a-x)2 and a straight line is obtained. It may be concluded that the reaction is:

• A. First order
• B. Second order✓
• C. Third order
• D. Zero order

Explanation: For a second-order reaction, dx/dt=k(a−x)2Plotting dx/dt vs (a−x)2 gives a straight line, exactly as described.

Q177. An object travels at constant speed arround a circle of radius 1.0m in 1.0s. What is the magnitude of its acceleration?

• A. Zero
• B. 1.0 ms–2
• C. 2π2 ms–2
• D. 4π2 ms–2✓

Explanation: In this problem, the object is moving in a circular path with a constant speed. While the speed remains constant, the direction of the object's velocity is continuously changing, which results in centripetal acceleration. The formula for centripetal acceleration, a = v2/r, is essential here. The speed of the object can be calculated as the distance traveled in one revolution (which is 2π meters) divided by the time taken (1 second), giving a speed of 2π m/s. Plugging this value into the formula gives:a = (2π)2/1 = 4π2 ms–2. Thus, Option D is the correct answer. Options A and B are incorrect as they overlook the acceleration due to the change in direction in circular motion, while Option C miscalculates the centripetal acceleration based on the given parameters.

Q178. An alternating current '1/A‘ varies with time 't/s‘ according to the equation I = 5sin(100πt). What is the mean power developed by the current in a resistive load of resistance 10?

• A. 125W✓
• B. 160W
• C. 250W
• D. 500W

Explanation: To find the mean power developed by the current in the resistive load, we first calculate the peak value of the current, which is 3.53. With a resistance of 10Ω, the power is determined using P = I²R = (3.53)²(10) = 125 W. The correct answer is 125W. The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the power calculated based on the values provided in the question.

Q179. The potential difference between a pair of similar and parallel conducting plates is known. What additional information is needed in order to find the electric field strength between the plates?

• A. Separation of the plates✓
• B. Separation and area of the plates
• C. Permittivity of the medium; separation of the plates
• D. Permittivity of the medium; separation and area of the plates

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: Separation of the plates. The electric field strength between parallel conducting plates can be calculated using the formula E = V/d, where V is the potential difference and d is the distance between the plates. Therefore, knowing the separation of the plates is the additional information needed to determine the electric field strength in this scenario.Options B, C, and D include unnecessary information such as the area of the plates and permittivity of the medium, which are not directly required to find the electric field strength between the plates.

Q180. In an AC capacitive circuit current and voltage phase relation is:

• A. In-phase
• B. Current leads voltage by 90o✓
• C. Voltage leads current by 90o
• D. Current leads voltage by 180o

Explanation: It can be seen that the phase at O is zero and the phase at the upper maximum is π/2. thus the current is leading the applied voltage by 90° or π/2.

Q181. A capacitor which has a capacitance of 1 farad (F) will:

• A. Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 Ampere
• B. Store 1 coulomb of charge at potential difference of 1 volt✓
• C. Gain 1 joule of energy when 1 coulomb of charge is stored on it
• D. Discharge in 1 second when connected across a resistor of resistance 3 ohms

Explanation: A capacitance of 1F produces 1V of potential difference for an electric charge of one coulomb (1C). This statement also fully agrees with the formula C=Q/V.

Q182. What is the relationship between the intensity 'I‘ and the amplitude 'a‘ of a wave?

• A. I a = constant
• B. I/a2 = constant✓
• C. I a2 = constant
• D. I/a = constant

Explanation: The correct relationship between the intensity 'I' and the amplitude 'a' of a wave is option D: l/a2 = constant.

Q183. Which is a statement of the principle of conservation of momentum?

• A. A force is equal to the rate of change of momentum of the body upon which it acts.
• B. In a perfectly elastic collision, the total momentum and kinetic energy are conserved before and after the collision.
• C. The momentum of a body is the product of its mass and velocity.
• D. The total momentum of a system of interacting bodies remains constant, provided no external forces act on the system.✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: The total momentum of a system of interacting bodies remains constant, provided no external forces act on the system. This statement accurately captures the principle of conservation of momentum, which asserts that in the absence of external forces, the total momentum of a closed system does not change.Option A describes Newton's second law, linking force and momentum change, but not conservation. Option B deals with elastic collisions specifically, where both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved, yet it doesn't express the general principle. Option C provides the formula for momentum but does not discuss conservation in a system.

Q184. A projectile is launched at 45° to the horizontal with a force of initial kinetic energy "E". Assuming air resistance to be negligible, what will be the kinetic energy of the project when it reaches its highest point?

• A. 0.50 E✓
• B. 0.71 E
• C. 0.70 E
• D. E

Explanation: The following is the solution: When a projectile is launched at an angle of 45 degrees to the horizontal, its horizontal and vertical components of velocity are equal. So, the horizontal velocity (Vx) of the projectile at the highest point is the same as the initial velocity (Vi) multiplied by the cosine of the launch angle: Vx = Vi cos(45 degrees) Since we are considering only the horizontal component of velocity at the highest point, the kinetic energy (K.E-highest) at the highest point can be calculated as follows: K.E-highest = (1/2) x m x Vx2 Substituting the expression for Vx: K.E-highest = (1/2) x m x (Vi cos(45degrees))2 Now, cos(45 degrees) is equal to √2/2: K.E-highest = (1/2) x m x (Vi √2 /2)2 = (1/2) x m x (Vi2 (2 /4)) = (1/2) x m x (Vi2 / 2) Finally, since the initial kinetic energy (Ki) is given as "i," we can write the equation as: K.E-highest = Ki / 2 Therefore, the kinetic energy of the projectile at its highest point will be half of its initial kinetic energy, i.e., K.E-highest = Ki / 2 which can also be written as 0.5 Ki or as the question asked in terms of E, it will become 0.5 E, hence option A is correct.

Q185. A mass accelerates uniformily when the resultant force acting on it:

• A. Is zero
• B. Is constant but not zero✓
• C. Increases uniformly with respect to time
• D. Is proportional to the displacement of the mass from a fixed point

Explanation: A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is constant but not zero.

Q186. The prefix 'pico‘ stands for:

• A. 106
• B. 10
• C. 10–12✓
• D. 1012

Explanation: Pico = 10-12.

Q187. A student connects a 6 volt battery and a 12 volt battery in series and then connects this combination across a 10 Ω resistor. What is the current is the resistor?

• A. 0.8 A
• B. 1.8 A✓
• C. 0.9 A
• D. 2.6 A

Explanation: I = V/RI = 18/10I = 1.8 A

Q188. A step-up transformer is one that:

• A. Increase the power
• B. Increase the voltage✓
• C. Increase the energy

Explanation: A step-up transformer is a transformer that increases the voltage from the primary coil to the secondary coil.

Q189. The waves which do not require any medium for their propagation are called:

• A. Mechanical waves
• B. Sound waves
• C. Tidal waves
• D. Electromagnetic waves✓

Explanation: Waves that do not require any medium for their propagation are called electromagnetic waves.

Q190. In vacuum all electromagnetic waves have the same:

• A. Speed✓
• B. Energy
• C. Frequency
• D. Wavelength

Explanation: All electromagnetic radiations such as microwave, gamma rays or radio waves travel with a speed of light in a vacuum which is equal to 3.0 x 108 meters per second. This is because all massless particles travel with the speed of light. Since light is massless, therefore all particles travel with speed of light. So, the correct answer is option A.

Q191. A ball is dropped from the roof of a very tall building.What is its velocity after falling for 5.0s?

• A. 1.96 m/s
• B. 9.80 m/s
• C. 49.0 m/s✓
• D. 98.0 m/s

Explanation: List the known and unknown values.u = initial velocity = 0 m/sv = final velocity = ?m/sa = g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²t = time interval = 5 ss = displacement = ? mCalculate the displacement using the following kinematic equation.s = ut + ½at²Since u = 0, the equation can be rewritten as:s = ½at²s = 0.5 × 9.8 m/s² × (5 s)² = 122.5 mCalculate the final velocity using the following kinematic equation.v = u + atv = 0 + (9.8 m/s² × 5 s) =49 m /s

Q192. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor the moderator used is:

• A. Graphite
• B. Heavy water
• C. Boron rods
• D. Not required✓

Explanation: No moderator is used in the breeder reactor since fast neutrons are more efficient in transmuting U-238 to Pu-239.

Q193. The de-Broglie wavelength of a rifle bullet of mass 0.02kg which is moving at a speed of 300ms–1 is (where h = 6.63×10 –34 Js)

• A. 7.3 × 10 –34 m
• B. 1.1 × 10 –34 m✓
• C. 1.8 × 10 –35 m
• D. 9.9 × 10 –34 m

Explanation: λ= h/mv = 6.626 x 10-34 / 0.02 x 300 = 1.1 × 10 -34 m

Q194. A shot is fired at an angle of 60o to the horizontal with kinetic energy E. If air resistance is ignored, the kinetic energy at the top of the trajectory is:

• A. Zero
• B. E/8
• C. E/4✓
• D. E/2

Explanation: K.E=E=1/2mv2K.E=1/2mvx2 (horizontal velocity)K.E= 1/2m x (vcos 60)2K.E=1/2mv2 (0.5)2K.E=1/2mv2 (o.25)K.E=1/2mv2 (¼)K.E= ¼ ( ½ mv2)K.E = ¼ (E)K.E= E/4 ans

Q195. The displacement 'x‘ of a particle at time 't‘ is given by x = 10 sin 4t. the particle oscillates with period.

• A. π/10s
• B. π/5s
• C. π/4s
• D. π/2s✓

Explanation: x=10sin4t , period T=?We know that x=x°sinθ x= x°sin wtx=x° sin2πftComparing10sin4t= x° sin2πft4=2πf4=2π/TT=2π/4T=π/2 sec ans

Q196. By how many times does doubling the diameter of a wire and making it 10 times longer increase its resistance?

• A. 2.5 times✓
• B. 5 times
• C. 10 times
• D. 30 times

Explanation: The Resistance of a wire is calculated asR = P L/Awhere R = resitance of the wireL = Length of the wireA is the area of the wire = (pi d2)/4P = resistivity of the materialR1 = 4 P L /(pi d2)R2 = 4 P 10L /(pi (2 d)2)R2/R1 = 10/4 = 2.5 ANS

Q197. A complex form of learning that requires the manipulation of mental concepts to arrive at adaptive behavior is:

• A. Imprinting
• B. Insight learning✓
• C. Latent learning
• D. Trial & error learning

Explanation: The complex form of learning that requires the manipulation of mental concepts for developing an adaptive behaviour is called insight learning.

Q198. Choose the correct option. I always liked to lean _ the side of mercy

• A. Over
• B. On✓
• C. Towards
• D. About

Explanation: "Lean on" implies relying or depending on something, which fits the context of favoring or supporting the side of mercy.

Q199. I was born in Peshawar but I _ most of my childhood in the Mardan

• A. Spends
• B. Spent✓
• C. Was spending
• D. Is spending

Explanation: The sentence talks about a completed period in the past (childhood) with relevance to the present, which is best expressed using the present perfect tense "have spent."The present perfect is often used for an action that started at some time in the past and is still continuing now. So the correct option will be B.

Q200. Select the most suitable synonym for the given word:ALAS

• A. Oh
• B. Hi
• C. Bravo
• D. Regrettably✓

Explanation: Alas is a term used to express grief, pity or concern thus, regrettably.