Etea Mdcat 2023 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. I like _ blue T-shirt over there better than _ red one

• A. no article, the
• B. the, the✓
• C. the, a
• D. a, the

Explanation: Option B is correct. I like the blue T-shirt over there better than the red one. We use the definite article the when we are referring to something specific that has already been mentioned or is known to both the speaker and the listener. In this case, the speaker has already mentioned the blue T-shirt over there and the red one, so we use the definite article the to refer to both of them. We would only use the indefinite article a if we were referring to a generic blue T-shirt or a generic red T-shirt. For example, we could say: I like a blue T-shirt better than a red one. This means that we don't have any specific blue T-shirt or red T-shirt in mind. We are just talking about blue T-shirts and red T-shirts in general.

Q2. All you think and hanker _ is government service. -[Choose the correct preposition]

• A. an
• B. for✓
• C. at
• D. upon

Explanation: Option B is correct.The correct preposition is for. The phrase "hanker for" means to have a strong desire for something. It is often used to describe a desire for something that is difficult or impossible to achieve. In the sentence "All you think and hanker for is government service," the speaker is saying that the person they are talking to is obsessed with the idea of working for the government. Here are some other examples of how to use the phrase "hanker for": I hanker for the days when life was simpler. The child hankered for a new toy. The traveler hankered for a taste of home. I hope this helps!

Q3. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Who isn't here yet asked Parveen.
• B. "Who isn't here yet?" asked Parveen.✓
• C. Who isnt here yet? asked Parveen.
• D. "Who isnt here yet?" asked Parveen.

Explanation: This is incorrect as there is no punctuation This is the correct answer as the punctuation and the format is correct. The basic rules for dialogue include using quotation marks around the spoken words, separating the dialogue from the rest of the text, and including the appropriate punctuation within the question marks. This is incorrect as there are no quotation marks This is incorrect as there is no apostrophe in isn’t

Q4. The director as well as the manager of the hotel _ attending the meeting.

• A. is✓
• B. are
• C. were
• D. has

Explanation: Option A is correct.The correct verb form in the sentence "The director as well as the manager of the hotel _is attending the meeting" is is. When using the phrase "as well as," the subject-verb agreement should follow the noun that comes before the phrase. In this case, the noun before "as well as" is "the director," which is singular. Therefore, the verb should also be singular, which means that the correct verb form is "is."

Q5. Read the passage and answer the question given at the end.For my 25th birthday, my uncle gave me a gift and to go skydiving at a special place near Miami. I was happy because I wanted to do something wild. On the day of my jump, I could not take breakfast because of the nerves. Before I knew the danger involved in it, I was on the plane with a parachute on my back After the fall, I could feel adrenaline running through me. Then the parachute opened, and I was floating freely. Like a bind- Those wonderful moments helped me to realize that I am the kind of person who can take risks in life. The author-learns from the experience of skydiving that:

• A. skydiving is dangerous
• B. Miami is a good place for skydiving
• C. He is capable of doing risky things in life✓
• D. Skydiving made him so nervous that he could not take breakfast in the morning

Explanation: Option C is correct.According to the passage and demand of the question, the most important realization for the author is that he has the ability to do risky things in life. The rest Options are not significant or noteworthy realizations.

Q6. The novice teacher was excited about her first teaching job.[The word closest in meaning to the underlined word is]

• A. Experienced
• B. Beginner✓
• C. Erudite
• D. Stem

Explanation: Option B is correct.The word closest in meaning to the underlined word novice is beginner. A novice is someone who is new to something, especially a skill or job. A beginner is also someone who is new to something, especially a skill or job. Experienced means having a lot of knowledge and skill from doing something for a long time. Erudite means having a lot of knowledge and learning. Stem is an acronym that stands for science, technology, engineering, and mathematics.

Q7. Choose the correct spelling:

• A. Entripreneur
• B. Enterpreneur
• C. Entrepreneur✓
• D. Entreprineur

Explanation: The correct spelling is entrepreneur. It refers to a person who sets up a business or businesses, taking on financial risks in the hope of profit.

Q8. If i were younger, I _ around the world.

• A. will travel around the world.
• B. would have travelled
• C. would travel✓
• D. travel

Explanation: Option C is correct.The correct answer is would travel. The second conditional tense is used to talk about imaginary or hypothetical situations in the present or future. It is formed using the following structure:If + past tense verb, would + infinitive verbIn the sentence "If I were younger, I _ around the world," the imaginary situation is that the speaker is younger. The speaker is saying that if they were younger, they would travel around the world. The other options are incorrect: Will travel around the world is the future tense, not the second conditional tense. Would have travelled is the third conditional tense, which is used to talk about imaginary or hypothetical situations in the past. Travel is the infinitive verb, not the past tense verb.

Q9. The flower girl sold him flowers.[The underlined word is]

• A. Direct Object
• B. Indirect Object✓
• C. Complement
• D. Predicate

Explanation: Option B is correct.The underlined word in the sentence "The flower girl sold him flowers" is an indirect object. An indirect object is the person or thing that receives the direct object of a sentence. The direct object is the person or thing that is acted upon by the verb. In this sentence, the direct object is "flowers" and the indirect object is "him". The indirect object tells us who or what the direct object is being given to. In this case, the flowers are being given to "him".

Q10. Identify the past simple tense in the following

• A. We have been reading in the classroom since morning
• B. He had broke this window.
• C. They spoke in Ilrdu to the waitress.✓
• D. She is enjoying the weather on the roof.

Explanation: Option C is correct.The past simple tense in the following sentences are: We have been reading in the classroom since morning. (present perfect tense, not past simple tense) He had broke this window. (incorrect grammar, should be "he had broken this window") They spoke in Ilrdu to the waitress. (correct) She is enjoying the weather on the roof. (present progressive tense, not past simple tense) Therefore, the only sentence with the past simple tense is: They spoke in Ilrdu to the waitress. The past simple tense is used to talk about actions that happened and finished at a specific time in the past. It is formed by adding -ed to the end of the verb, or by using an irregular verb form. In this case, the verb "to speak" has an irregular past simple form, which is "spoke".

Q11. something odd was happening all around the world.[identify the underlined clause]

• A. Subordinate clause
• B. Independent clause✓
• C. Dependent clause
• D. Relative clause

Explanation: Option B is correct.It is an independent clause because an independent clause is one that can form a complete sentence standing alone, having a subject and a predicate. Here "something odd" is the Subject, "was happening all around the world" is the predicate of the sentence, making complete sense

Q12. We met rather few people who spoke English. The sentence is]

• A. Complex✓
• B. Simple
• C. Compound
• D. Compound complex

Explanation: Option A is correct.A complex sentence is a sentence with one independent clause and at least one dependent clause. Here "we met rather few people" is the independent clause, and "who spoke English" is the dependent clause.

Q13. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation and capitalization.

• A. The automobile dealer handled three makes of cars: Toyota, Suzuki, and Honda.✓
• B. The automobile dealer handled three makes of cars, Toyotas, Suzuki, and Honda.
• C. The automobile dealer handled three makes of cars Toyota, Suzuki, and Honda.
• D. The automobile dealer handled three makes of cars, Toyota, Suzuki, and Handa.

Explanation: Option A is correct.The first part of the sentence is introducing a list of cars, hence a colon is used. The colon has a variety of uses, some of which include introducing a list, introducing an explanation, introducing a quote, and connecting two relatedsentences.Secondly, Toyota. Suzuki and Honda are famous br:inds• hence capitalized as proper nouns.

Q14. Which of the following sentences is in correct order?

• A. We up right drove to Karachi in two days
• B. We to Karachi drove in two days right up.
• C. We right drove to Karachi up in two days
• D. We drove right up to Karachi in two days✓

Explanation: Option D is the only correct sentence structure. The rest are grammatically incorrect.The first sentence, "We up right drove to Karachi in two days," is grammatically incorrect because it places the adverb "right" before the verb "drove." Adverbs should typically be placed after the verb they modify.The second sentence, "We to Karachi drove in two days right up," is awkward because it places the prepositional phrase "to Karachi" between the auxiliary verb "drove" and the main verb "up." Prepositional phrases should typically be placed at the end of a sentence.The third sentence, "We right drove to Karachi up in two days," is awkward because it places the adverb "up" after the prepositional phrase "to Karachi." Adverbs should typically be placed before prepositional phrases.The fourth sentence, "We drove right up to Karachi in two days," is the only sentence that is both grammatically correct and natural-sounding. It clearly states that the speaker and their companions drove to Karachi in two days, and that they arrived there quickly and directly

Q15. You can either come with me now nor walk home later.(The word which does not fit in the sentence correct order is)

• A. Can
• B. Either come
• C. Now
• D. Nor✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The correct pair is "either/or" and "neither/nor.".

Q16. I just don't want to get out off bed today.(Find one error in the sentence, if any]

• A. Get out
• B. Just
• C. Off✓
• D. No error

Explanation: Option C is correct.There is one error in the sentence "I just don't want to get out off bed today." The correct sentence is:I just don't want to get out of bed today.The preposition "out" should be followed by the preposition "of" when it is used to describe the movement of something from a container. In this case, the speaker is saying that they don't want to get out of their bed, which is a container. However, when the preposition "out" is used to describe the movement of something from a place, it is not followed by the preposition "of." In this case, the speaker is saying that they don't want to get out of bed today, which is a place.

Q17. Read the passage and answer the questions given at the end (Q131-132) Efforts should be made to control the use of tobacco in the campuses of educational institutions because it is gateway to drug abuse. Most of the youths usually start with soft drugs like cigarettes, chhaliya, gutka. naswar and pan, and then move to hard drugs like heroin, opium, cocaine, ke and sheesha, etc. People who start-smoking cigarettes of drink alcohol at a young age are much more likely to experiment with illegal drugs than people who do not smoke of drink. According to this paragraph

• A. Educational institutions are gateways to the control of tobacco
• B. Youths who start with soft drugs are likely to experiment with illegal drugs
• C. People who do not smoke or drink are less-likely, to experiment with illegal drugs:✓
• D. People who start smoking at a young age are less likely to experiment with illegal drugs

Explanation: Option C is correct.Option C is most appropriate according to the last line of the passage that "people who do not smoke or drink" are less likely to experiment with drugs. Option A is incorrect because the passage mentions "the use of tobacco in educational campuses are gateways to drug abuse", not educational campuses themselves. While option B is not entirely wrong, it is incorrect because according to the exact wording of the passage youths usually start with soft drugs, and then move to "hard drugs", not illegal drugs,Option D is incorrect because young smokers are "more likely" to experiment with Illegal drugs according to the passage, not less likely,

Q18. Smoking cigarettes or drinking alcohol leads to:

• A. legal drugs
• B. illegal drugs✓
• C. soft drugs
• D. The use of tobacco in educational institutions.

Explanation: Option B is correct.According to the last sentence of the passage people who smoke cigarettes drink alcohol are likely to end up using illegal drugs, not legal or soft drugs.

Q19. Which of the following statements Is not correct about alveoli:

• A. Alveoli form the gas exchange surface
• B. The wall of each alveolus is 0.1 cm thick✓
• C. Alveoli has a dense network of capillaries
• D. Collagen and elastin present in alveoli allow it to expand and recoil easily during breathing

Explanation: Option B regarding alveoli is not correct.The walls of alveoli are extremely thin, only about 0.0002 cm thick. This allows for the rapid diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the blood capillaries that surround them. while all other statements regarding alveoli are correct.1.Alveoli form the gas exchange surface Yes, the alveoli form the gas exchange surface in the lungs. The alveoli are tiny air sacs that are surrounded by blood vessels called capillaries. The walls of the alveoli and capillaries are very thin, which allows oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across them. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood because the concentration of oxygen is higher in the alveoli. Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the alveoli because the concentration of carbon dioxide is higher in the blood.2. Alveoli has a dense network of capillaries Yes, the alveoli have a dense network of capillaries. This dense network of capillaries allows for a lot of gas exchange to occur between the alveoli and the blood. There are about 300 million alveoli in the lungs and each alveolus is surrounded by about 1,000 capillaries. This means that there are about 300 billion capillaries in the lungs. The dense network of capillaries around the alveoli allows for a large amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide to be exchanged between the alveoli and the blood. This is essential for human life, as we need oxygen to survive and we need to get rid of carbon dioxide. 3.Collagen and elastin present in alveoli allow it to expand and recoil easily during breathing Yes, collagen and elastin present in alveoli allow it to expand and recoil easily during breathing. The alveoli are small, air sacs in the lungs that are responsible for gas exchange. The walls of the alveoli are made up of a thin layer of cells and collagen and elastin fibers. Collagen is a protein that provides strength and structure to the alveoli. Elastin is a protein that allows the alveoli to stretch and recoil. When you breathe in, the diaphragm contracts and the chest cavity expands. This causes the alveoli to expand and fill with air. When you breathe out, the diaphragm relaxes and the chest cavity contracts. This causes the alveoli to recoil and push air out of the lungs.

Q20. Which of the following connective tissues consist of cells known as chondrocytes?

• A. Myocardium
• B. Cartilage✓
• C. Bone
• D. Periosteum

Explanation: Option B is correctThe connective tissue that consists of cells known as chondrocytes is cartilage. Chondrocytes are the only type of cell found in cartilage. They are responsible for producing and maintaining the extracellular matrix of cartilage, which is made up of collagen, elastin, and proteoglycans. Myocardium is the muscle tissue of the heart. It contains muscle cells, also known as cardiomyocytes. Bone is a type of connective tissue that is made up of a hard, mineralized matrix. It contains osteocytes, which are bone cells that are responsible for maintaining the bone matrix. Periosteum is a tough, fibrous membrane that covers the outer surface of bones. It contains fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen and other extracellular matrix proteins.

Q21. The joint present between wrist bones is;

• A. Fibrous joint
• B. Cartilaginous joint /sliding joint✓
• C. Hinge joint
• D. Ball and socket joint

Explanation: Option B is correct.The joint present between wrist bones is a cartilaginous joint. Cartilaginous joints are slightly movable joints that are connected by cartilage. The cartilage acts as a cushion and helps to reduce friction between the bones. Cartilaginous joints are found throughout the body, including in the spine, pelvis, and ribs. They are also found in the joints between the skull bones.Fibrous joints are immovable joints that are connected by fibrous connective tissue. Fibrous joints are found in the skull and pelvis.Hinge joints are slightly movable joints that allow for movement in one plane. Hinge joints are found in the elbows, knees, and fingers.Ball and socket joints are freely movable joints that allow for movement in all planes. Ball and socket joints are found in the hips, shoulders, and head of the thighbone.

Q22. The sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive:

• A. I-Line
• B. A-Line
• C. Z-Line✓
• D. M-Line

Explanation: Option C is correct.The sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines. A myofibril is a long, thin strand of muscle tissue that is made up of sarcomeres. Sarcomeres are the basic contractile units of muscle tissue. The Z-line is a thin, dark line that marks the boundary of a sarcomere. It is made up of a protein called α-actinin, which helps to anchor the actin filaments in place.I-band: The I-band is the light-colored band in the sarcomere. It contains only actin filaments.A-band: The A-band is the dark-colored band in the sarcomere. It contains both actin and myosin filaments. M-line: The M-line is a thin line in the center of the A-band. It is made up of a protein called myomesin, which helps to stabilize the myosin filaments.

Q23. The size of a synaptic cleft (the gap separating nerve cells) in electrical synapse is

• A. 0.2 nm✓
• B. 2 nm
• C. 20 nm
• D. 200 nm

Explanation: Option A is correct.The size of a synaptic cleft in an electrical synapse is typically 0.2nm. This is much smaller than the synaptic cleft in a chemical synapse, which is typically 20 to 40 nm wide. Electrical synapses are formed by gap junctions, which are specialized protein channels that connect the cytoplasm of two cells. Gap junctions allow ions and other small molecules to pass directly between the two cells, which allows for electrical signals to be transmitted quickly and directly. The small size of the synaptic cleft in an electrical synapse is essential for its function. It allows for ions and other small molecules to pass quickly between the two cells, which allows for electrical signals to be transmitted with minimal delay. Electrical synapses are found throughout the body, but they are especially common in the central nervous system. They play an important role in many different functions, including sensory processing, motor control, and cognitive function.

Q24. The activities like sleeping, walking and dreaming are controlled by which part of brain:

• A. Pons✓
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Olfactory bulb
• D. Hippocampus

Explanation: Option A is correct.PonsThe activities like sleeping, walking, and dreaming are controlled by the pons. The pons is a small, but important part of the brain that is located in the brainstem. It is involved in a variety of functions, including:1.Sleep-wake cycle: The pons helps to regulate the sleep-wake cycle by controlling the production of melatonin, a hormone that is involved in sleep regulation.2.Motor control: The pons helps to coordinate the movement of the eyes, face, and tongue. It also helps to control the muscles that are involved in breathing and swallowing.3.Sensory processing: The pons helps to process sensory information from the body, including information from the ears, nose, and tongue. The cerebellum, olfactory bulb, and hippocampus are three important parts of the brain with distinct functions.Cerebellum1.Motor coordination: The cerebellum helps to coordinate the movement of muscles throughout the body. This includes movements such as walking, running, and reaching for objects.2.Balance and equilibrium: The cerebellum helps to maintain balance and equilibrium. This is important for activities such as walking, running, and standing upright.3.Learning and memory: The cerebellum is also involved in learning and memory, particularly motor learning. This is the process of learning new skills and movements, such as playing a sport or learning to play a musical instrument.4.Cognitive function: The cerebellum is also thought to play a role in cognitive function, such as attention, planning, and decision-making.Olfactory bulb1.Processing of smell: The olfactory bulb is the first part of the brain to process smells. It receives signals from the olfactory receptors in the nose and sends those signals to the rest of the brain.2.Memory formation and consolidation: The olfactory bulb is also involved in memory formation and consolidation, particularly odor-related memories.3.Emotion regulation: The olfactory bulb is also thought to be involved in emotion regulation. This is because smell is closely linked to emotions, such as fear, pleasure, and disgust.Hippocampus1.Memory formation and consolidation: The hippocampus is involved in the formation and consolidation of memories. This means that it helps us to create new memories and to store those memories over time.2.Spatial navigation: The hippocampus is also involved in spatial navigation. This is the ability to orient ourselves in space and to navigate from one place to another.3.Emotion regulation: The hippocampus is also thought to play a role in emotion regulation. This is because it is involved in the processing of emotional memories.

Q25. The hormone 'calcitonin' is secreted by:

• A. Thyroid gland✓
• B. Parathyroid gland
• C. Pancreas
• D. Adrenal gland

Explanation: Option A is correct.The hormone calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. It is responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism, growth and development, and body temperature. Calcitonin is a hormone that helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood. It works by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone. This helps to prevent calcium from being released into the blood from bone. Calcitonin also helps to increase the excretion of calcium in the urine. This also helps to lower calcium levels in the blood. The other options are not involved in the secretion of calcitonin:Parathyroid gland: The parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone, which is a hormone that helps to raise calcium levels in the blood.Pancreas: The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon, which are hormones that regulate blood sugar levels.Adrenal gland: The adrenal gland produces hormones such as cortisol, adrenaline, and aldosterone, which are involved in a variety of functions, including stress response, metabolism, and blood pressure regulation.

Q26. Fallopian tube is also known as:

• A. oviduct✓
• B. Ovaries
• C. Uterus
• D. Cervix

Explanation: Option A is correct.Fallopian tube is also known as oviduct.Fallopian tubes are muscular tubes that connect the ovaries to the uterus. They transport eggs from the ovaries to the uterus, where they can be fertilized by sperm. If an egg is fertilized, it begins to travel down the fallopian tube to the uterus, where it implants and grows into a fetus. Fallopian tubes are essential for conception. If the fallopian tubes are blocked or damaged, it can make it difficult or impossible for a woman to get pregnant. Ovaries: The ovaries are two small, oval-shaped glands located on either side of the uterus. They are responsible for producing eggs (also called ova) and hormones, such as estrogen and progesterone.Uterus: The uterus is a hollow, pear-shaped organ located in the lower abdomen. It is where a fertilized egg implants and grows into a fetus. The uterus is also responsible for menstruation, which is the monthly shedding of the lining of the uterus if a fertilized egg does not implant. Cervix: The cervix is the narrow opening at the bottom of the uterus that leads to the vagina. It produces mucus, which helps to protect the uterus from infection and sperm. The cervix also dilates and opens during childbirth to allow the baby to pass through.

Q27. The syphillis is a _ disease

• A. Bacterial✓
• B. Fungal
• C. Protozoic
• D. Viral

Explanation: Option A is correct.Syphilis is a bacterial disease. It is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can also be transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy or childbirth. Bacterial diseases are caused by bacteria. Bacteria are microscopic organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including pneumonia, strep throat, and urinary tract infections.Fungal diseases are caused by fungi. Fungi are microscopic organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including athlete's foot, ringworm, and candidiasis.Protozoan diseases are caused by protozoa. Protozoa are microscopic organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including malaria, giardiasis, and toxoplasmosis.Viral diseases are caused by viruses. Viruses are microscopic organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including the common cold, influenza, and HIV/AIDS.

Q28. The most common symptom of gonorrhea in male is:

• A. skin rash on neck
• B. joint pain
• C. painful urination✓
• D. chancre

Explanation: Option C is correct.The most common symptom of gonorrhea in males is painful urination. Other symptoms of gonorrhea in males can include;White, yellow, or green discharge from the penisPainful or swollen testiclesRedness and inflammation at the opening of the penisGonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can infect the urethra, rectum, and throat. Gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious health problems, such as infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).The other options are not the most common symptoms of gonorrhea in males:Skin rash on neck: A skin rash on the neck is not a typical symptom of gonorrhea.Joint pain: Joint pain can be a symptom of gonorrhea, but it is not the most common symptom.Chancre: A chancre is a small, round ulcer that can be a sign of syphilis, another STI.

Q29. G.J Mendel chose _ as an experimental plant for his study

• A. Medicago sativa
• B. Piscum Sativum✓
• C. Delonicx regia
• D. Lens Culinaris

Explanation: Option B is coorect.G.J Mendel chose Pisum sativum, the garden pea plant, as an experimental plant for his study.Mendel chose pea plants because they have a number of characteristics that make them ideal for studying inheritance:1.They have a short life cycle, so Mendel could study multiple generations of plants in a relatively short period of time.2.They produce a large number of seeds, which gave Mendel a large sample size to work with.3.They have a variety of easily observable traits, such as seed color, flower color, and plant height.4.They are relatively easy to cross-pollinate, which allowed Mendel to control the inheritance of traits.Mendel's experiments with pea plants led to the discovery of the basic laws of inheritance, which are still taught in biology classrooms today.The other options are not plants that Mendel used in his experiments:Medicago sativa is alfalfa, a legume plant that is used as forage for livestock.Delonix regia is the flamboyant tree, a flowering tree that is native to Madagascar.Lens culinaris is the lentil, a legume plant that is grown for its edible seeds.

Q30. When round and yellow color seeded plant (RrYy) is self-crossed the number of plants with rounds and yellow color seeds obtained is _ in 32 plants:

• A. 18✓
• B. 9
• C. 3
• D. 1

Explanation: Option A is correct.When a round and yellow seeded plant (RrYy) is self-crossed, the expected ratio of offspring with round and yellow seeds is 9:3:3:1, where 9 represents round and yellow, 3 represents round and green, 3 represents wrinkled and yellow, and 1 represents wrinkled and green. Therefore, in a population of 32 plants, we expect to have 18 plants with round and yellow seeds. Here is a Punnett square showing the possible outcomes of the self-cross:|Gametes | R Y | r Y | R y | r y ||---|---|---|---|| R Y | RRYY | RrYY | RRYy | RrYy || r Y | RrYY | rrYY | RrYy | rrYy || R y | RRYy | RrYy | rrYy | rryy || r y | RrYy | rrYy | rryy | rryy |As you can see, there are 9 possible outcomes that result in round and yellow seeds. This is why we expect to have 18 plants with round and yellow seeds in a population of 32 plants.

Q31. In crossing over, the exchange of maternal and paternal chromatids occurs while homologous chromosomes are paired during:

• A. Prophase meiosis I✓
• B. Prophase meiosis II
• C. Metaphase of meiosis I
• D. Anaphase meiosis II

Explanation: Option A is correct.Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis I. This is when the homologous chromosomes are paired up and exchange genetic material. Here is a brief overview of the stages of meiosis:Prophase I: The homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through crossing over.Metaphase I: The homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.Anaphase I: The homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.Telophase I: The cell divides into two daughter cells, each containing one chromosome from each homologous pair.Prophase II: The chromosomes condense and line up in the middle of the cell.Metaphase II: The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.Anaphase II: The sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.Telophase II: The cell divides into four daughter cells, each containing one chromosome from each homologous pair.Crossing over is an important process because it allows for genetic diversity in the offspring. By exchanging genetic material, the homologous chromosomes create new combinations of alleles. This means that the offspring will have a unique genetic makeup that is different from their parents.

Q32. Drosophila Melanogaster is the scientific name of:

• A. House fly
• B. Fruit fly✓
• C. Flash fly
• D. Sand fly

Explanation: Option B is correct.Drosophila Melanogaster is the scientific name of the fruit fly. It is a small fly that is commonly found in homes and restaurants. Fruit flies are attracted to ripe fruit and decaying organic matter. The other options are not the scientific names of the fruit fly:House fly: The scientific name of the house fly is Musca domestica.Flash fly: The scientific name of the flash fly is Phoridae.Sand fly: The scientific name of the sand fly is Phlebotominae.

Q33. A condition that renders the individiual less able to form blood clot is:

• A. Alports syndrome
• B. Coffin-Lowry syndrome
• C. Hemophilia✓
• D. Thalassemia

Explanation: Option C is correct.Hemophilia is a condition that renders the individual less able to form blood clots. It is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. People with hemophilia have low levels of clotting factors, which are proteins that help the blood to clot. This can lead to excessive bleeding, even from minor injuries.Hemophilia is a serious condition, but it can be managed with treatment. There are two types of hemophilia: hemophilia A and hemophilia B. Hemophilia A is the most common type of hemophilia. It is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. Hemophilia B is less common than hemophilia A. It is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.Treatment for hemophilia typically involves replacing the missing clotting factor with infusions. This can be done as needed to stop bleeding or on a regular basis to prevent bleeding. The other options are not conditions that render the individual less able to form blood clots:Alport syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys, eyes, and ears.Coffin-Lowry syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes intellectual disability, short stature, and distinctive facial features.Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

Q34. Intra-specific struggle refers to:

• A. Competition between members of the same species✓
• B. Competition between members of the different species
• C. Environmental struggle
• D. Prey or predation

Explanation: Option A is corrrect.Intra-specific struggle refers to competition between members of the same species. This can include competition for food, water, mates, and territory. Intra-specific struggle is a very important factor in natural selection, as it helps to ensure that only the fittest individuals survive and reproduce.Intra-specific struggle can be very intense, as the individuals involved are all very similar and have the same needs. This can lead to aggression, fighting, and even death. However, intra-specific struggle can also have positive benefits, such as driving innovation and promoting cooperation. he other options are not correct:Competition between members of different species is called inter-specific struggle.Environmental struggle is the competition between organisms of a population against one another in nature to maintain themselves in a given environment to survive and reproduce.Prey or predation is the interaction between two species, where one species captures and kills the other for food.

Q35. Identify fossil bird among the following:

• A. Equus
• B. Python
• C. Archaeopteryx✓
• D. Dawn horse

Explanation: Option C is correct.The fossil bird among the following is Archaeopteryx. Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil that links dinosaurs and birds. It has features of both dinosaurs and birds, such as feathers, wings, and a beak, but it also has a long tail and teeth.The other options are not fossil birds:Equus is the genus that includes horses, donkeys, and zebras.Python is a genus of snakes.Dawn horse is an extinct species of horse that lived in the Eocene epoch.

Q36. Which of the following organelle is regarded as self-replicable organelle

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Golgi bodies
• C. Mitochondria✓
• D. Vacoule

Explanation: Option C is correct.Mitochondria are regarded as self-replicating organelles. They have their own DNA and can replicate independently of the nucleus. This means that they can divide and reproduce on their own, without the help of other organelles.Mitochondria are essential for energy production in the cell. They convert food into energy in the form of ATP, which is the cell's energy currency. Mitochondria are also involved in other cellular processes, such as cell signaling and apoptosis (programmed cell death).The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is not regarded as a self-replicating organelle because it does not have its own DNA. DNA is required for self-replication, as it contains the instructions for building new organelles. The ER is a network of membranes that is involved in the production and transport of proteins and lipids. It is made up of two types of membranes: the rough ER and the smooth ER. The rough ER is covered in ribosomes, which are the organelles that synthesize proteins. The smooth ER is involved in the production of lipids and the detoxification of drugs and toxins. Golgi bodies is also not self-replicating organelles. Golgi bodies are involved in the processing and packaging of proteins and lipids for transport to other parts of the cell. Vacuoles is not self-replicating organelles. Vacuoles are storage organelles that can contain water, salts, and other molecules.

Q37. The prokaryotic cell wall composed of:

• A. cellulose
• B. chitin
• C. murein✓
• D. Pectin

Explanation: Option C is correct.The prokaryotic cell wall is composed of murein, also known as peptidoglycan. Murein is a polymer made up of two sugar molecules and a short peptide chain. It is a very strong and rigid material that helps to protect the cell from osmotic lysis and other environmental stresses.Cellulose is a polymer of glucose molecules that is found in the cell walls of plants. Chitin is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine molecules that is found in the exoskeletons of insects and other invertebrates. Pectin is a polymer of galacturonic acid molecules that is found in the cell walls of plants.

Q38. _ is found in the exoskeleton of crabs

• A. cellulose
• B. chitin✓
• C. murein
• D. hemi-cellulose

Explanation: Option B is correct.Chitin is found in the exoskeleton of crabs. Chitin is a tough, fibrous material that is made up of long chains of sugar molecules. It is the main component of the exoskeletons of insects, spiders, crabs, and other invertebrates. Chitin is also found in the cell walls of fungi and some algae. The other options are not found in the exoskeleton of crabs: Cellulose is a tough, fibrous material that is made up of long chains of sugar molecules. It is the main component of the cell walls of plants. Murein is a polymer made up of two sugar molecules and a short peptide chain. It is the main component of the cell walls of bacteria. Hemi-cellulose is a polymer of sugar molecules that is found in the cell walls of plants.

Q39. Choose the unsaturated fatty acid among the following:

• A. Palmitic acid
• B. Archachidic acid
• C. stearic acid
• D. oleic acid✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Oleic acid is the unsaturated fatty acid. Fatty acids are classified into saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. Saturated fatty acids do not have any double bonds between the carbon atoms in their chain, while unsaturated fatty acids have at least one double bond. Unsaturated fatty acids are considered to be healthier than saturated fatty acids because they can help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid, which means that it has one double bond in its chain. It is the most common monounsaturated fatty acid in the human diet and is found in many plant-based oils, such as olive oil and avocado oil. The other options are saturated fatty acids:Palmitic acid is a long-chain saturated fatty acid that is found in many animal products, such as meat, butter, and cheese. Arachidic acid is a long-chain saturated fatty acid that is found in peanuts, peanut oil, and chocolate. Stearic acid is a long-chain saturated fatty acid that is found in beef, lamb, and cocoa butt

Q40. The conjugated molecule that is primarily present in egg albumin is

• A. Lipoprotein
• B. Nucleoprotein
• C. Glycolipid
• D. Glycoprotein✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The conjugated molecule that is primarily present in egg albumin is glycoprotein. Egg albumin is a water-soluble protein that is found in the white of eggs. It is a major source of protein in the human diet and is also used in a variety of food products, such as mayonnaise, pasta, and baked goods. Egg albumin is a glycoprotein, which means that it is conjugated to carbohydrates. The carbohydrates are attached to the protein through glycosidic bonds. Glycosylation is a process that is important for the folding, stability, and function of many proteins. The other options are not conjugated molecules that are primarily present in egg albumin: Lipoproteins are conjugated molecules that are composed of proteins and lipids. They are found in the blood and transport lipids throughout the body.Nucleoproteins are conjugated molecules that are composed of proteins and nucleic acids. They are found in the nucleus of cells and play a role in gene expression. Glycolipids are conjugated molecules that are composed of carbohydrates and lipids. They are found in the cell membrane and play a role in cell communication and adhesion.

Q41. FSH (Follicle stimulating hormones) stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating _ cells to complete the development of sperms

• A. Leydig
• B. Inhibin
• C. Sertoli✓
• D. TSH

Explanation: Option C is correct.FSH (Follicle stimulating hormones) stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating Sertoli cells to complete the development of sperms. Sertoli cells are supporting cells that are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. They play a vital role in spermatogenesis, the process by which sperm cells are produced. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to produce a number of factors that are essential for spermatogenesis, including: Androgen binding protein (ABP), which binds to testosterone and makes it available to developing sperm cells Growth factors, which promote the growth and development of sperm cells Inhibitin, which inhibits the production of FSH.Leydig cells are another type of cell that is found in the testes. They are responsible for producing testosterone, the male sex hormone. Testosterone is also essential for spermatogenesis, but it is produced in response to LH (luteinizing hormone), not FSH.Inhibin is a hormone that is produced by Sertoli cells. It inhibits the production of FSH and LH. This helps to ensure that the production of sperm cells is regulated.TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is a hormone that is produced by the pituitary gland. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones are not involved in spermatogenesis.

Q42. The process of photophosphorylation takes place in

• A. Nucelolus
• B. Chloroplast✓
• C. Nucleus
• D. Golgi bodies

Explanation: Option B is correct.The process of photophosphorylation takes place in the chloroplast. Photophosphorylation is the process by which light energy is used to produce ATP, the energy currency of the cell. It is the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis. Photophosphorylation takes place in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast. The thylakoid membranes are stacked sacs that contain chlorophyll, the light-absorbing pigment. When sunlight hits the chlorophyll, it excites the electrons in the chlorophyll molecules. These excited electrons are then passed through a series of electron carriers, which eventually leads to the production of ATP. The ATP that is produced by photophosphorylation is used to drive the Calvin cycle, the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis. The Calvin cycle uses ATP to convert carbon dioxide into sugar. The other options are not organelles where photophosphorylation takes place: The nucleolus is a small structure within the nucleus that is involved in the production of ribosomes. The nucleus is the control center of the cell and contains the cell's DNA. The Golgi apparatus is involved in the packaging and processing of proteins and lipid

Q43. Which of the following hormones is released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

• A. Antidiuretic hormones✓
• B. Growth hormone
• C. estrogen
• D. prolactin

Explanation: Option A is correct.The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH is also known as vasopressin. It is a hormone that helps the body to retain water. ADH is released when the body's fluid levels are low. It acts on the kidneys to cause them to reabsorb more water from the urine. This helps to increase the body's fluid levels and prevent dehydration. The other options are not hormones that are released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland: Growth hormone is released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Estrogen is a female sex hormone that is produced by the ovaries and other tissues in the body. Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It stimulates milk production in women.

Q44. Which of the following agents can easily pass through filter paper?

• A. bacteria
• B. fungi
• C. yeast
• D. virus✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Viruses can easily pass through filter paper. Viruses are the smallest type of biological agent, with most being smaller than 0.1 micrometers in diameter. Filter paper typically has pores that are several micrometers in diameter, so viruses are small enough to pass through the pores. Viruses can easily pass through filter paper, while bacteria, fungi, and yeast cannot.Bacteria are single-celled organisms that are typically 0.5 to 5 micrometers in size. They are too large to pass through the pores of filter paper, which are typically 0.2 to 0.45 micrometers in diameter.Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular. They typically range in size from a few micrometers to several meters. Fungi are too large to pass through the pores of filter paper.Yeast is a type of fungus that is unicellular and typically 5 to 10 micrometers in size. Yeast is too large to pass through the pores of filter paper.

Q45. HIV belongs to a special class of virus known as:

• A. Retrovirus✓
• B. Flavivirus
• C. Novavirus
• D. Tetavirus

Explanation: Option A is correct.HIV belongs to a special class of virus known as retrovirus. Retroviruses are a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. They are also unique in that they use an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA genome into DNA. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, where it can be transcribed and translated into viral proteins. Retroviruses are responsible for a number of diseases in humans and animals, including HIV/AIDS, leukemia, and lymphoma. HIV is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system, making it difficult for the body to fight off infection. The other options are not classes of virus that HIV belongs to: Flaviviruses are a type of virus that is transmitted by mosquitoes and ticks. They are responsible for a number of diseases, including yellow fever, dengue fever, and Zika virus. Noroviruses are a type of virus that is highly contagious and causes gastroenteritis. Tetanus is caused by a bacterium called Clostridium tetani. It is a serious disease that can cause muscle spasms and death.

Q46. The capsule of a bacterial cell is a sticky gelatinous structure made up of protein and:

• A. Lipids
• B. Carbohydrates✓
• C. Nucleotide
• D. Alcohol

Explanation: Option B is correct.The capsule of a bacterial cell is a sticky gelatinous structure made up of carbohydrates. The capsule is a layer of polysaccharide material that surrounds the cell wall of some bacteria. It is composed of repeating units of sugar molecules. The capsule is a dynamic structure that can be produced or shed by the bacteria in response to environmental conditions. The capsule has a number of functions, including: Protecting the bacteria from dehydration Helping the bacteria to adhere to surfaces Evasion of the host immune system Some bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, have a thick capsule that is essential for their virulence. The capsule protects the bacteria from phagocytosis, a process by which white blood cells engulf and destroy bacteria. The other options are not components of the bacterial capsule: Lipids are a type of organic molecule that is made up of fatty acids and glycerol. They are found in the cell membrane and other cellular structures. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA. Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester bonds to form DNA and RNA molecules. The order of the nucleotides in DNA and RNA determines the genetic code. Alcohols are a type of organic molecule that contains a hydroxyl group (OH). They are found in a variety of foods and beverages.

Q47. The transgenic plants such as golden rice are produced primarily with the help of:

• A. Escherichia coli
• B. Proteus mirabilis
• C. Agrobacterium tumerfaciens✓
• D. Ralstonia solanacearum

Explanation: Option C is correct.Transgenic plants such as golden rice are produced primarily with the help of Agrobacterium tumefaciens. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a bacterium that causes crown gall disease in plants. It is also a natural genetic engineer, as it can transfer its own DNA into plant cells. This ability has been exploited to create transgenic plants, which are plants that have had their DNA modified to include genes from other organisms.To create a transgenic plant using Agrobacterium tumefaciens, the bacterium is first transformed with a plasmid that contains the desired gene. The plasmid is then transferred to the plant cell by Agrobacterium. Once inside the plant cell, the plasmid integrates into the plant's genome. This allows the desired gene to be expressed in the plant cell, and the plant will produce the desired protein.Golden rice is a transgenic rice plant that has been engineered to produce beta-carotene, a precursor to vitamin A. Golden rice was created using Agrobacterium tumefaciens to transfer genes from daffodils and bacteria into rice plants. Escherichia coli is a bacterium that is commonly used in molecular biology research. It is not a natural genetic engineer and cannot transfer its DNA into plant cells. Proteus mirabilis is a bacterium that causes urinary tract infections. It is not a natural genetic engineer and cannot transfer its DNA into plant cells. Ralstonia solanacearum is a bacterium that causes bacterial wilt in plants. It is not a natural genetic engineer and cannot transfer its DNA into plant cells.

Q48. Which of the following chemicals is used to preserve biological specimen

• A. Formalin✓
• B. Glutaraldehyde
• C. Ethylene Oxide
• D. Iodine

Explanation: All options are correct.All of the chemicals you listed are used to preserve biological specimens.Formalin is a solution of formaldehyde in water. It is the most common preservative used for biological specimens, as it is effective and inexpensive. Formalin preserves specimens by cross-linking proteins, which prevents them from decaying. Glutaraldehyde is another aldehyde that is used to preserve biological specimens. It is more expensive than formalin, but it is also more effective at preserving fine details. Glutaraldehyde is often used to preserve specimens for electron microscopy. Ethylene oxide is a gas that is used to sterilize and preserve biological specimens. It is effective at killing all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Ethylene oxide is often used to preserve specimens for museums and other collections. Iodine is a halogen that is used to preserve biological specimens. It is not as effective as the other chemicals on your list, but it is less toxic and can be used to preserve specimens that are intended for human consumption. Iodine is often used to preserve seafood and other foods.

Q49. Choral reef are the characteristic feature of phylum:

• A. Porifera
• B. Coelenterata/Cnidaria✓
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Option B is correct.Coral reefs are the characteristic feature of the phylum Cnidaria. Cnidaria is a phylum of aquatic invertebrates that includes corals, sea anemones, jellyfish, and hydras. Cnidarians are characterized by their radial symmetry, the presence of nematocysts (stinging cells), and a gastrovascular cavity (a single opening that serves as both a mouth and an anus). Coral reefs are built by colonial cnidarians called scleractinian corals. Scleractinian corals secrete a hard calcium carbonate skeleton that supports the reef structure. Coral reefs are found in warm, shallow waters around the world and are home to a wide variety of marine life. The other options are not phyla that are characterized by coral reefs:Porifera is the phylum of sponges. Sponges are filter feeders that live in marine and freshwater habitats. Arthropoda is the phylum of insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other invertebrates. Arthropods are characterized by their segmented bodies and jointed appendages. Platyhelminthes is the phylum of flatworms. Flatworms are parasitic or free-living invertebrates that have a flattened body plan.

Q50. According to the sliding filament hypothesis, the release of_ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes the reorientation of certain components, in thin filament, permitting them to bind with extension from the thick myosin filaments:

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium✓
• C. Magnesium
• D. Potassium

Explanation: Option B is correct.According to the sliding filament hypothesis, the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes the reorientation of certain components, in thin filament, permitting them to bind with extension from the thick myosin filaments. Calcium ions play a crucial role in muscle contraction by binding to the protein troponin on the thin filament. This binding causes tropomyosin to move out of the way, exposing myosin binding sites on the actin filament. Myosin heads can then bind to these sites and cross-bridges can be formed. The cross-bridges then power the sliding of the thin filaments past the thick filaments, which results in muscle contraction. The other options are not involved in muscle contraction:Sodium ions are involved in nerve conduction and muscle action potentials. Magnesium ions are cofactors for many enzymes, including those involved in muscle metabolism. Potassium ions are involved in maintaining the resting membrane potential of muscle cells.

Q51. The green glands found in arthropods are concerned with:

• A. Excretion✓
• B. Respiration
• C. Digestion
• D. Circulation

Explanation: Option A is correct.The green glands found in arthropods are concerned with excretion. Green glands are paired excretory organs that are found in the head of crustaceans. They are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and excreting them from the body. Green glands are also thought to play a role in osmoregulation, the process of maintaining a balance of water and salts in the body. The other options are not functions of the green glands:Respiration is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment. Arthropods respire through a variety of structures, including gills, tracheae, and book lungs. Digestion is the process of breaking down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. Arthropods digest food in a variety of ways, including through their mouths, stomachs, and intestines.Circulation is the movement of blood throughout the body. Arthropods have an open circulatory system, in which the blood does not flow in closed vessels.

Q52. The Purkinje fibers are the specialized fibers found in:

• A. Human heart✓
• B. Human lungs
• C. Human stomach
• D. Human brain

Explanation: Option A is correct.The Purkinje fibers are the specialized fibers found in the human heart. Purkinje fibers are a network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers that conduct electrical impulses from the atrioventricular node (AV node) to the ventricles of the heart. They are responsible for coordinating the contraction of the ventricles, which allows them to pump blood efficiently. The Purkinje fibers are located in the subendocardial layer of the heart, which is the layer of muscle tissue that is closest to the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart. They are large, pale fibers that are easily distinguished from the surrounding cardiac muscle cells. The other options are not organs where Purkinje fibers are found: Lungs are the organs of respiration. They are responsible for exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment. The stomach is a digestive organ that is responsible for breaking down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. The brain is the central nervous system organ that is responsible for controlling all of the body's functions.

Q53. The largest body of lymphoid tissue in the human body is:

• A. Tonsils
• B. Pancreas
• C. Spleen✓
• D. Thymus

Explanation: Option C is correct.The largest body of lymphoid tissue in the human body is the spleen. The spleen is a soft, purplish organ located in the upper left abdomen, beneath the diaphragm and posterior to the stomach. It is about 5 inches long and 2 inches wide. The spleen is a major part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for fighting infection and disease. The spleen contains two types of tissue: white pulp and red pulp. The white pulp contains lymphocytes, which are white blood cells that play a key role in the immune system. The red pulp contains macrophages, which are scavenger cells that engulf and destroy bacteria and other foreign invaders. The spleen has a number of important functions, including: Filtering blood to remove bacteria, dead cells, and other debris Producing and storing lymphocytes Regulating the production of red blood cells Helping to fight infection and diseaseThe other options are not the largest body of lymphoid tissue in the human body: Tonsils are small, round masses of lymphoid tissue located at the back of the throat. They help to protect the body from infection by trapping bacteria and viruses.The pancreas is a digestive organ that produces enzymes that help to break down food. It also produces hormones, such as insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels. The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the chest, behind the breastbone. It is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the cell-mediated immune response.

Q54. The immune cells that clean up pus as a part of the healing process is:

• A. Natural killer cell
• B. Macrophages
• C. Antibodies
• D. Neutrophils✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Neutrophils are the immune cells that clean up pus as a part of the healing process. When an infection occurs, neutrophils are recruited to the site of infection. They release a variety of enzymes and chemicals that help to kill bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils also engulf and destroy dead cells and debris. Once the infection is cleared, the neutrophils die and are replaced by macrophages. Macrophages continue to clean up the area and promote tissue repair. Macrophages are particularly important in the healing of wounds and infections. When an infection occurs, macrophages are among the first immune cells to arrive at the site. They engulf and destroy the invading bacteria and other pathogens. They also release inflammatory cytokines, which attract other immune cells to the site of infection, such as neutrophils and lymphocytes. Once the infection has been cleared, macrophages help to repair the damaged tissues. They do this by releasing growth factors and other signaling molecules that stimulate the growth of new cells and blood vessels. Natural killer cells are a type of white blood cell that is involved in the innate immune response. They are able to kill infected cells and tumor cells without the need for prior sensitization.Antibodies are proteins that are produced by B lymphocytes in response to infection. They bind to specific antigens on the surface of pathogens, which helps to neutralize them and mark them for destruction by other immune cells.

Q55. Lipid synthesis occurs in which one of the following organelle of the cell?

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Golgi bodies
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Lipid synthesis occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of the cell. The ER is a network of interconnected tubules and sacs that is found in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells. It is involved in a variety of cellular functions, including protein synthesis, lipid synthesis, and detoxification. Lipid synthesis occurs on the smooth ER, which is a type of ER that does not have ribosomes. The smooth ER contains a number of enzymes that are involved in the synthesis of different types of lipids, including triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol. Once lipids have been synthesized in the ER, they are transported to other parts of the cell, such as the Golgi apparatus and the plasma membrane. Lipids are also used to build cell membranes and other cellular organelles. The other options are not organelles where lipid synthesis occurs: Ribosomes are organelles that are responsible for protein synthesis. Golgi bodies are organelles that are involved in the processing and packaging of proteins. Mitochondria are organelles that are responsible for energy production.

Q56. The testes are male gonads which are situated outside the abdomen within a skin pouch called

• A. Vas deferens
• B. Epididymis
• C. Scrotum✓
• D. Vasa efferentia

Explanation: Option C is correct.The testes are male gonads which are situated outside the abdomen within a skin pouch called scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin that hangs below the penis. It contains the testes, epididymis, and part of the vas deferens.The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that lies along the back of each testis. It stores and matures sperm.The vas deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.The vasa efferentia are a series of thin tubes that carry sperm from the testes to the epididymis.

Q57. The term polydipsia refers to:

• A. A condition in which abnormally large volume of urine is produced
• B. A condition of exessive thirst✓
• C. a condition of excessive hunger
• D. A condition in which the concentration of blood decreases in the body

Explanation: Option B is correct.The term polydipsia refers to a condition of excessive thirst. It is a symptom of many medical conditions, including diabetes, diabetes insipidus, psychogenic polydipsia, and certain medications. Polydipsia can also be caused by dehydration, hot weather, and strenuous exercise. When a person has polydipsia, they may drink more than three liters of fluids per day. This can lead to frequent urination, which can be disruptive to daily life. If you are experiencing polydipsia, it is important to see a doctor to determine the underlying cause and get the appropriate treatment.The other options are not the definition of polydipsia: Polyuria is a condition in which a person produces abnormally large amounts of urine. Polyphagia is a condition of excessive hunger. Hypovolemia is a condition in which the concentration of blood decreases in the body.

Q58. Lactose is composed of:

• A. Glucose + Fructose
• B. Glucose + Galactose✓
• C. Glucose + Glucose
• D. Fructose + Galactose

Explanation: Option B is correct.Lactose is composed of glucose + galactose. Lactose is a disaccharide, which means that it is made up of two monosaccharides (simple sugars). The two monosaccharides that make up lactose are glucose and galactose. Lactose is found in milk and other dairy products. It is also used in a variety of food products, such as bread, candy, and ice cream. Lactose is broken down into glucose and galactose in the small intestine by the enzyme lactase. Glucose and galactose are then absorbed into the bloodstream and used by the body for energy. People who are lactose intolerant are unable to digest lactose properly. This is because they lack the enzyme lactase.

Q59. Saprophytic bacteria are:

• A. Autotrophs
• B. Decomposers✓
• C. Parasites
• D. Photosynthetic

Explanation: Option B is correct.Saprophytic bacteria are decomposers. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organic matter. Saprophytic bacteria play an important role in the environment by breaking down dead plants and animals, which releases nutrients back into the soil and air. Examples of saprophytic bacteria include: Bacillus subtilis, Clostridium tetani ,Escherichia coliAutotrophs are organisms that can make their own food from sunlight and carbon dioxide. Decomposers are not autotrophs because they cannot make their own food. Parasites are organisms that live on or inside another organism and get their nutrients from that organism. Saprophytic bacteria are not parasites because they do not live on or inside another organism. Photosynthetic organisms are organisms that use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide into oxygen and carbohydrates. Saprophytic bacteria are not photosynthetic because they do not use sunlight to make their own food.

Q60. In human heart right atrium communicates with right ventricle through:

• A. Inter-auricular septum
• B. Ventricular septum
• C. Tricuspid valve✓
• D. Bicuspid valve

Explanation: Option C is correct.In the human heart, the right atrium communicates with the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve. The tricuspid valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back from the right ventricle to the right atrium. It is made up of three thin cusps (flaps) that are attached to chordae tendineae (tendinous cords). The chordae tendineae are attached to the papillary muscles, which are small muscles located on the inner walls of the right ventricle. When the right atrium contracts, it forces blood through the open tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. When the right ventricle contracts, it closes the tricuspid valve to prevent blood from flowing back into the right atrium. The other options are not structures that connect the right atrium to the right ventricle: The interatrial septum is a wall that separates the right atrium from the left atrium. The ventricular septum is a wall that separates the right ventricle from the left ventricle. The bicuspid valve, also known as the mitral valve, is a valve that connects the left atrium to the left ventricle.

Q61. The first segment of the small intestine is:

• A. Duodenum✓
• B. Jejunum
• C. Ileum
• D. colon

Explanation: OPtion A is correct.The first segment of the small intestine is the duodenum. The small intestine is a long, coiled tube that is divided into three parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. The duodenum is the shortest and widest part of the small intestine. It is about 10 inches long and curves around the head of the pancreas. The duodenum is responsible for the initial digestion of food. It receives food from the stomach and mixes it with digestive juices from the pancreas and liver. The digestive juices in the duodenum break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream. The other options are not the first segment of the small intestine: The jejunum is the second segment of the small intestine. It is about 16 feet long and is located between the duodenum and the ileum. The jejunum is responsible for the absorption of most of the nutrients from food. The ileum is the third and longest segment of the small intestine. It is about 20 feet long and is located between the jejunum and the colon. The ileum is responsible for the absorption of the remaining nutrients from food, as well as the absorption of bile salts and water. The colon is the large intestine. It is about 5 feet long and is located between the ileum and the rectum. The colon is responsible for the absorption of water and the storage of waste products.

Q62. Which one of the following factors does not affect the rate of enzyme action?

• A. Temperature
• B. Substrate concentration
• C. Enzyme concentration
• D. Water concentration✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Water concentrationEnzymes need water to work. Water helps to dissolve the substrate and the products of the reaction. It also helps to maintain the shape of the enzyme. However, the concentration of water in a cell is usually constant. Therefore, water concentration does not affect the rate of enzyme action. TemperatureEnzymes are proteins, and like all proteins, they are sensitive to temperature. If the temperature is too high, the enzyme will denature, which means that it will lose its shape and no longer be able to function. If the temperature is too low, the enzyme will slow down or even stop working. Each enzyme has an optimum temperature at which it works best. The optimum temperature for most enzymes is around 37 degrees Celsius, which is the body temperature of humans and other mammals.Substrate concentrationThe substrate is the molecule that the enzyme acts on. The more substrate there is, the faster the enzyme will work. This is because there will be more collisions between the enzyme and the substrate. The relationship between substrate concentration and enzyme activity is described by the Michaelis-Menten equation. This equation shows that the rate of enzyme activity increases as the substrate concentration increases, but there is a limit to how much the rate can increase.Enzyme concentrationThe more enzyme there is, the faster the enzyme will work. This is because there will be more enzymes available to bind to the substrate. The relationship between enzyme concentration and enzyme activity is linear. This means that the rate of enzyme activity increases in direct proportion to the enzyme concentration.

Q63. Light reaction occurs in the _ of chloroplast:

• A. Outer membrane
• B. Inner membrane
• C. Granum✓
• D. Stroma

Explanation: Option C is correct.The light reaction occurs in the grana of the chloroplast. The chloroplast is a specialized organelle in plant cells that is responsible for photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to produce oxygen and sugar. The chloroplast is divided into two parts: the stroma and the thylakoids. The stroma is a gel-like fluid that contains the enzymes needed for the Calvin cycle, the second stage of photosynthesis. The thylakoids are a series of flattened sacs that are stacked together to form grana. The light reaction occurs in the thylakoids of the chloroplast. The thylakoids contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that absorbs sunlight. The sunlight energy is used to split water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. The hydrogen atoms are used to produce NADPH, a molecule that stores energy. The oxygen atoms are released into the atmosphere. The products of the light reaction, NADPH and ATP, are used in the Calvin cycle to produce sugar. The other options are not parts of the chloroplast where the light reaction occurs: The outer membrane is a thin membrane that surrounds the chloroplast. It protects the chloroplast from the outside environment. The inner membrane is a thicker membrane that surrounds the stroma. It controls the movement of molecules into and out of the chloroplast. The stroma is the gel-like fluid that contains the enzymes needed for the Calvin cycle.

Q64. How many pieces of ribonucleic acid (RNA) make up the genome of influenza virus?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8✓
• D. 10

Explanation: Option C is correct.The influenza virus genome is made up of eight pieces of ribonucleic acid (RNA). The influenza virus is a segmented RNA virus, which means that its genome is made up of multiple pieces of RNA. The eight segments of the influenza virus genome are numbered in order of decreasing length. Each segment of the influenza virus genome encodes one or more proteins. The proteins encoded by the influenza virus genome are essential for the virus to replicate and cause infection. The influenza virus genome is constantly mutating, which allows the virus to evade the immune system and cause new pandemics and epidemics.

Q65. In Mendelian cross for the heterozygous flower, what is the probability that the dominant allele will be in sperm and the recessive in the egg:

• A. 0.05
• B. 0.5✓
• C. 0.25
• D. 0.7

Explanation: Option B is correct.Yes, the probability that the dominant allele will be in the sperm and the recessive allele will be in the egg in a Mendelian cross for a heterozygous flower is 0.5. This is because each parent has a 50% chance of passing on either the dominant or recessive allele to their offspring. Since the flower is heterozygous, it has one dominant allele and one recessive allele. Therefore, there is a 50% chance that the dominant allele will be in the sperm and a 50% chance that the recessive allele will be in the egg. This can be illustrated with a simple Punnett square: | | D | d | |-------|-------|-------| | D | DD | Dd | | d | dD | dd | As you can see, there is an equal chance of getting any of the four genotypes: DD, Dd, dD, or dd. This means that there is a 50% chance that the dominant allele will be in the sperm and the recessive allele will be in the egg.

Q66. Mastication causes exocrine glands under the tongue and in the back of mouth to secrete a watery liquid called:

• A. Bolus
• B. Bile
• C. Pancreatic juice
• D. Saliva✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Mastication causes exocrine glands under the tongue and in the back of mouth to secrete a watery liquid called saliva. Saliva is a complex fluid that contains water, enzymes, and other molecules. It plays a number of important roles in digestion.Saliva is secreted by three pairs of major salivary glands: the parotid glands, the submandibular glands, and the sublingual glands. These glands are located in the head and neck, and they release saliva into the mouth through ducts. When you chew food, the salivary glands are stimulated to produce more saliva. This helps to moisten the food and break it down into smaller pieces. The saliva also contains enzymes that start to break down carbohydrates, such as starch, into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. Saliva is an essential part of digestion, and it helps to keep the mouth healthy. Without saliva, it would be difficult to swallow food, and digestion would be less efficient. The other options are not liquids secreted by exocrine glands in the mouth:Bolus is a mixture of chewed food and saliva that is formed in the mouth. Bile is a digestive fluid that is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. It is released into the small intestine to help digest fats. Pancreatic juice is a digestive fluid that is produced by the pancreas. It is released into the small intestine to help digest carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

Q67. In phylum Aschelminths (Nematoda) nervous system consists of a nerve ring which encircles the _ and sends its branches in different parts of the body

• A. Lips
• B. Teeth
• C. Stomach
• D. Pharynx✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.In phylum Aschelminths (Nematoda), the nervous system consists of a nerve ring which encircles the pharynx. The pharynx is a muscular tube that is located at the anterior (front) end of the nematode body. It is responsible for sucking in food and moving it to the digestive system. The nerve ring is a cluster of ganglia (nerve cell bodies) that encircles the pharynx. The nerve ring serves as a central nervous system for the nematode, and it sends nerve branches to all parts of the body. The other options are not parts of the nematode body that are encircled by the nerve ring: Lips are not present in nematodes.Teeth are not present in nematodes.The stomach is located in the posterior (back) end of the nematode body.

Q68. Salmonella typhi causing typhoid and Clostridium tetani causing tetanus are which type of bacteria?

• A. Bacilli✓
• B. Spirilla
• C. Cocci
• D. Comma

Explanation: Option A is correct.Salmonella typhi and Clostridium tetani are both bacilli. Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria. They are one of the three main shapes of bacteria, along with cocci (spherical bacteria) and spirilla (spiral bacteria). Bacilli are found in a wide variety of environments, including soil, water, and the human body. Some bacilli are beneficial, such as those that produce lactic acid in yogurt and cheese. Other bacilli are pathogens, which means that they can cause disease. Salmonella typhi and Clostridium tetani are both examples of pathogenic bacilli. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid, a serious disease that can be fatal if it is not treated. Typhoid is transmitted through contaminated food and water. It causes fever, headache, and diarrhea. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, a disease that affects the nervous system. Tetanus is caused by a toxin that is produced by the bacteria. The toxin causes muscle spasms, which can be severe and life-threatening. Tetanus is transmitted through contact with contaminated soil or other objects. Both Salmonella typhi and Clostridium tetani can be prevented by vaccination. The typhoid vaccine is recommended for people who are traveling to areas where typhoid is common. The tetanus vaccine is recommended for everyone as part of the routine childhood immunization schedule.Spirilla:Spiral bacteria.Example; Campylobacter (food poisoning), Leptospira (leptospirosis), Treponema pallidum (syphilis) Cocci: Spherical bacteria.Examples; Streptococcus (strep throat), Staphylococcus (staph infection), Neisseria (meningitis, gonorrhea) Comma-shaped bacteria are a type of spirilla. Comma-shaped bacteria include: Vibrio cholerae (cholera), Vibrio parahaemolyticus (food poisoning), and Helicobacter pylori (stomach ulcers).

Q69. Who formulated the principle that 'ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.

• A. Von bear
• B. Hackel✓
• C. Herbert Spencer
• D. Darwin

Explanation: Option B is correct.The principle that "ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" was formulated by Ernst Hackel. Hackel was a German biologist who lived from 1834 to 1919. He was a major proponent of Darwin's theory of evolution, and he made a number of important contributions to the field of biology. The principle of ontogeny recapitulating phylogeny states that the development of an individual organism (ontogeny) mirrors the evolutionary history of its species (phylogeny). In other words, as an embryo develops, it goes through stages that resemble the adult forms of its evolutionary ancestors. Hackel based his theory on observations of the development of various animals, including humans. He noted that at certain stages of development, human embryos have features that are similar to those of fish, reptiles, and other animals. The other options are not scientists who formulated the principle of ontogeny recapitulating phylogeny: Karl Ernst von Baer was a German biologist who lived from 1792 to 1876. He is known for his work on the development of embryos. Herbert Spencer was an English philosopher and sociologist who lived from 1820 to 1903. He is known for his work on social Darwinism. Charles Darwin was an English naturalist who lived from 1809 to 1882. He is known for his theory of evolution by natural selection.

Q70. Aquatic mammals belong to the order _

• A. Cetacea✓
• B. Pholidote
• C. Chiroptera
• D. Proboscidea

Explanation: Option A is correct.Aquatic mammals belong to the order Cetacea. Cetaceans are a group of marine mammals that includes whales, dolphins, and porpoises. They are characterized by their streamlined bodies, flippers, and lack of hind limbs. Cetaceans are also known for their intelligence and complex social behavior. The other options are orders of mammals that are not aquatic: Pholidota is the order of mammals that includes pangolins. Pangolins are scaly mammals that are found in Africa and Asia. Chiroptera is the order of mammals that includes bats. Bats are the only mammals that can fly. Proboscidea is the order of mammals that includes elephants. Elephants are the largest land mammals on Earth.

Q71. All of the following paired organs/structures have homology except:

• A. Human hand:Bat's wing
• B. Bat's wing: Wings of butterfly✓
• C. Horse front leg: Front flappers of Whale
• D. Wings of bird: Wings of flying lizards

Explanation: Option B is correct.All of the following paired organs/structures have homology except: Bat's wing: Wings of butterfly The wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly are analogous structures, but not homologous. Analogous structures are structures that have similar functions but different evolutionary origins. Homologous structures are structures that have similar evolutionary origins but may have different functions. The wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly are both used for flight, but they have evolved independently from each other. The wings of a bat are modified forelimbs, while the wings of a butterfly are modified outgrowths of the thorax. The other options are all examples of homologous structures: Human hand: Bat's wing Horse front leg: Front flappers of Whale Wings of bird: Wings of flying lizards These structures all have similar evolutionary origins, even though they may have different functions. For example, the human hand, the bat's wing, and the horse's front leg are all modified forelimbs. The wings of a bird and the wings of a flying lizard are both modified forelimbs or hindlimbs.

Q72. The head of some phages are icosahedral, which means that the head possesses:

• A. 6 Sides
• B. 10 sides
• C. 15 sides
• D. 20 Sides✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The head of some phages are icosahedral, which means that the head possesses 20 sides. An icosahedron is a polyhedron with 20 equilateral triangular faces. It is one of the five Platonic solids, and it is the one with the most faces. The icosahedral shape of the phage head is thought to be very efficient for packing viral proteins and DNA. It is also very strong, which helps to protect the virus from damage. Examples of phages with icosahedral heads include: T4 phage ,T7 phage ,Lambda phage ,MS2 phage.

Q73. In sickle cell, haemoglobin molecule, glutamic acid, is replaced by:

• A. Proline
• B. Glutamine
• C. Valine✓
• D. Glycine

Explanation: Option C is corrrect.In sickle cell anemia, glutamic acid in the hemoglobin molecule is replaced by valine. This replacement of amino acid causes the hemoglobin molecules to become sticky and clump together when the oxygen levels drop. This can lead to the formation of sickle-shaped red blood cells, which can block blood vessels and cause pain, stroke, and other complications. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. It is most common in people of African descent, but it can also occur in people of other ethnicitie

Q74. Where do phospholipids arrange themselves in a cell?

• A. Inside the nucleus
• B. Inside the cytoplasm
• C. Inside the plasma membrane✓
• D. inside the mitochondrial matrix

Explanation: Option C is correct.Phospholipids arrange themselves in a bilayer in the plasma membrane of a cell. The plasma membrane is a thin, flexible barrier that surrounds the cell and protects it from the external environment. It also controls the movement of molecules into and out of the cell. Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules, meaning that they have a hydrophilic (water-loving) head and a hydrophobic (water-hating) tail. In a bilayer, the hydrophilic heads face the outside and the inside of the cell, while the hydrophobic tails face each other. This arrangement creates a barrier that prevents water and other polar molecules from passing through the plasma membrane. The plasma membrane is a dynamic structure, meaning that it is constantly changing and moving. This is important for a number of cellular processes, such as cell signaling and cell division. The other options are not places where phospholipids arrange themselves in a cell: The nucleus is the central organelle of the cell and contains the cell's DNA. The cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance that fills the cell outside of the nucleus. The mitochondrial matrix is the fluid inside of mitochondria, which are organelles that produce energy for the cell.

Q75. Which type of nerve impulse occurs in non-myelinated neuron fibres?

• A. Saltatory impulse
• B. Continuous impulse✓
• C. Rapid impulse
• D. Jumping impulse

Explanation: Option B is correct.The type of nerve impulse that occurs in non-myelinated neuron fibers is a continuous impulse. A continuous impulse is a type of nerve impulse that travels down the axon of a neuron without jumping. This is in contrast to a saltatory impulse, which is a type of nerve impulse that jumps from node to node along the axon of a myelinated neuron. Myelinated neurons are neurons that have a myelin sheath, which is a fatty substance that insulates the axon. The myelin sheath helps to speed up the transmission of nerve impulses by allowing them to jump from node to node. Non-myelinated neurons do not have a myelin sheath, so nerve impulses travel down the axon continuously. This means that nerve impulses travel more slowly in non-myelinated neurons than in myelinated neurons.Saltatory impulse: A type of nerve impulse that jumps from node to node along the axon of a myelinated neuron. Rapid impulse: A type of nerve impulse that travels quickly. Jumping impulse: A type of nerve impulse that jumps from node to node along the axon of a myelinated neuron.

Q76. In alcoholic fermentation _ ATP Molecules are produced from one glucose molecule:

• A. 2✓
• B. 18
• C. 32
• D. 36

Explanation: Option A is correct.In alcoholic fermentation, two ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule. Alcoholic fermentation is a type of fermentation that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is used by yeast and other microorganisms to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide from glucose. The steps of alcoholic fermentation are as follows: Glycolysis: Glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate with the production of two ATP molecules and two NADH molecules. Pyruvate decarboxylation: Pyruvate is converted into acetaldehyde with the production of one carbon dioxide molecule. Alcohol dehydrogenase: Acetaldehyde is converted into ethanol with the production of one NADH molecule. Overall, alcoholic fermentation produces two ATP molecules and two NADH molecules from one glucose molecule.

Q77. Amino acids mainly differ from each other by the difference in their:

• A. R-group✓
• B. Amino group
• C. Carboxyl group
• D. Hydrogen of alpha carbon

Explanation: Option A is correct.Amino acids mainly differ from each other by the difference in their R-group. The R-group is a side chain that is attached to the alpha carbon of an amino acid. The R-group can be any of 20 different functional groups, which is what gives different amino acids their unique properties. The other options are all common to all amino acids:All amino acids have an amino group (-NH2) attached to their alpha carbon. All amino acids have a carboxyl group (-COOH) attached to their alpha carbon. All amino acids have a hydrogen atom attached to their alpha carbon.

Q78. All of the following are related to enzymes except:

• A. Speed up reaction
• B. Remain unchanged after reaction
• C. Increase the activation energy✓
• D. Possess the active site

Explanation: Option C is correct.Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy of the reaction. The activation energy is the amount of energy that must be added to the reactants in order to start the reaction. Enzymes do this by binding to the reactants and forming an enzyme-substrate complex. The enzyme-substrate complex lowers the activation energy of the reaction by stabilizing the transition state not increase activation energy , which is a high-energy intermediate state of the reaction. The other options are all related to enzymes: Speed up reaction: Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy of the reaction. Remain unchanged after reaction: Enzymes are catalysts, which means that they remain unchanged after the reaction is complete. Possess the active site: Enzymes have an active site, which is a region of the enzyme that binds to the reactants and catalyzes the reaction.

Q79. The cytoplasm contain(s):

• A. Cell organelle only
• B. Insoluble waste only
• C. Storage products only
• D. Cell organelle, insoluble waste and storage products✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The cytoplasm contains cell organelles, insoluble waste, and storage products. The cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance that fills the cell outside of the nucleus. It is made up of water, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and other molecules. The cytoplasm also contains a variety of cell organelles, which are specialized structures that carry out different functions within the cell. Some examples of cell organelles that are found in the cytoplasm include:Mitochondria: Produce energy for the cell Endoplasmic reticulum: Synthesizes and transports proteins and lipids Golgi apparatus: Modifies and packages proteins and lipids for secretion Ribosomes: Synthesize proteinsCytoskeleton: Provides support and structure to the cell The cytoplasm also contains insoluble waste products, such as dead organelles and pigments. These waste products are usually stored in vacuoles, which are fluid-filled sacs. Storage products, such as glycogen and starch, are also found in the cytoplasm. These storage products are used by the cell for energy or to build new molecules.

Q80. Tay-Sach's disease particularly results from the malfunctioning of:

• A. Cell membrane
• B. Nucleus
• C. Lysosomes✓
• D. Vacuole

Explanation: Option C is correct.Tay-Sach's disease particularly results from the malfunctioning of lysosomes. Lysosomes are cellular organelles that contain enzymes that break down complex molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. In Tay-Sach's disease, there is a deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A, which is essential for the breakdown of a fatty substance called GM2 ganglioside. As a result, GM2 ganglioside accumulates in lysosomes, causing damage to nerve cells and other tissues. Tay-Sach's disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited from both parents. It is a rare disease, but it is more common in people of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. There is no cure for Tay-Sach's disease, but there are treatments that can help to manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for people with the disease. The other options are not directly involved in the malfunctioning that causes Tay-Sach's disease: The cell membrane is a barrier that surrounds the cell and protects it from the external environment. The nucleus is the central organelle of the cell and contains the cell's DNA. Vacuoles are fluid-filled sacs that store water, nutrients, and waste products.

Q81. Enzymes present in mammals work best at about:

• A. 20°C
• B. 30°C
• C. 40°C✓
• D. 50°C

Explanation: Option C is correct.The statement that enzymes present in mammals work best at about 40°C is true. The optimal temperature for most enzymes in mammals is around 37°C, which is the body temperature of mammals. At this temperature, enzymes are able to function most efficiently and catalyze reactions at the fastest rates. However, it is important to note that enzymes can still function at temperatures other than their optimal temperature. For example, some enzymes can function at temperatures as low as 0°C, while others can function at temperatures as high as 100°C. However, the rate of the reaction catalyzed by an enzyme will be slower at temperatures away from its optimal temperature. There are a number of factors that can affect the temperature at which an enzyme works best. These factors include the pH of the solution, the concentration of the enzyme and the substrate, and the presence of inhibitors or activators.

Q82. An example of competitive inhibitor molecule is:

• A. Insecticides
• B. Sulphonamide✓
• C. Cyanide
• D. Metal ions

Explanation: Option B is correct.An example of a competitive inhibitor molecule is sulfonamide. Sulfonamides are a class of antibiotics that work by inhibiting the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase. Dihydropteroate synthase is an enzyme that is essential for the synthesis of folic acid, which is a vitamin that is necessary for bacterial growth. Sulfonamides are competitive inhibitors of dihydropteroate synthase because they bind to the active site of the enzyme and prevent the substrate, para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA), from binding. This prevents the synthesis of folic acid and kills the bacteria. The other options are not examples of competitive inhibitors: Insecticides are chemicals that are used to kill insects. They work by a variety of mechanisms, but they do not typically inhibit enzymes. Cyanide is a toxic gas that kills cells by inhibiting the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase. However, it is not a competitive inhibitor because it does not bind to the active site of the enzyme. Metal ions are often used as cofactors for enzymes, but they can also be inhibitors. However, they do not typically act as competitive inhibitors.

Q83. The ATP formed in the preparatory phase of glycolysis is (are):

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 0✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Zero ATP is formed in the preparatory phase of glycolysis. The preparatory phase of glycolysis is an energy-consuming process that uses two ATP molecules to convert glucose into fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. This process is necessary to prepare the glucose molecule for the next phase of glycolysis, which is the energy-producing phase. The energy-producing phase of glycolysis produces four ATP molecules, for a net gain of two ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

Q84. Mitochondria is usually absent in:

• A. Muscle cells
• B. Cardiac cells
• C. Mature RBC's✓
• D. WBC's

Explanation: Option C is correct.Mitochondria are usually absent in mature RBC's. Mature RBC's, or erythrocytes, are the most abundant type of blood cell. They are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues of the body. Mature RBC's are also responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the tissues and transporting it back to the lungs. Mature RBC's do not have mitochondria because they do not need to produce their own energy. They obtain the energy they need from the glucose that is present in the blood. The other options all have mitochondria: Muscle cells: Mitochondria are essential for muscle cells because they provide the energy needed for muscle contraction. Cardiac cells: Cardiac cells, or heart muscle cells, also have mitochondria because they need a lot of energy to pump blood throughout the body. WBC's: WBC's, or white blood cells, have mitochondria because they need energy to fight infection and protect the body from disease

Q85. _ consists of units called dictyosomes

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Glyoxisomes
• D. Golgi complex✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.he Golgi complex consists of units called dictyosomes. A dictyosome is a stack of flattened sacs called cisternae. The Golgi complex is responsible for processing, modifying, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or transport to other parts of the cell. The other options are all cell organelles, but they are not made up of dictyosomes: Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. Lysosomes are organelles that contain enzymes that break down complex molecules. Glyoxisomes are organelles that are found in plant cells and are involved in the metabolism of fatty acids.

Q86. The optimal pH of lipase (pancreas) is:

• A. 4.0-5.0
• B. 1.5-1.6
• C. 8.0✓
• D. 6.1-6.8

Explanation: Option C is correct.Yes, the optimal pH of lipase (pancreas) is 8.0. This is the pH at which the enzyme is most active and can most efficiently catalyze the breakdown of triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol. The pancreas secretes lipase into the small intestine, where it helps to digest fats. Lipase is most active in the slightly alkaline environment of the small intestine, which has a pH of around 7.5-8.0. Factors such as the pH of the environment, the temperature, and the presence of bile salts can all affect the activity of lipase. For example, bile salts help to emulsify fats, which makes them more accessible to lipase. If the pH of the environment is too low or too high, the activity of lipase will be reduced. This can lead to problems with fat digestion, which can result in symptoms such as diarrhea and steatorrhea (fatty stools).

Q87. Consider the reaction below, if 5 moles each of hydrogen and oxygen are reacted to form water, the reaction reveals:2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O

• A. H2 is excess agent
• B. O2 is limiting agent
• C. H2 limiting reagent✓
• D. Reaction has no limiting reagent

Explanation: Option C is correct.H2 is the limiting reagent in the reaction 2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O with 5 moles each of hydrogen and oxygen. To determine the limiting reagent, we first need to calculate the moles of water that can be formed from each reactant.Moles of water from hydrogen: 5 moles H2 * (2 moles H2O / 2 moles H2) = 5 moles H2OMoles of water from oxygen: 5 moles O2 * (2 moles H2O / 1 mole O2) = 10 moles H2O Since there are more moles of water that can be formed from oxygen than from hydrogen, oxygen is the excess reagent and hydrogen is the limiting reagent. In other words, all of the hydrogen will be consumed in the reaction before all of the oxygen is consumed. This means that some of the oxygen will be left over after the reaction is complete. The limiting reagent is important because it determines the amount of product that can be formed from a reaction. In this case, the limiting reagent is hydrogen, so the maximum amount of water that can be formed is 5 moles

Q88. Oxygen can be prepared by the decomposition of potassium chlorate (KClO3). How many moles of oxygen (O2(g)) can be formed by taking 12 moles of potassium chlorate (KClO3) according to the following equation? 2KClO3(l) + heat --> 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)

• A. 12 moles of oxygen
• B. 15 moles of oxygen
• C. 18 moles of oxygen✓
• D. 21 moles of oxygen

Explanation: Option C is correct.According to the balanced chemical equation, 2 moles of KClO3 produce 3 moles of O2. Therefore, 12 moles of KClO3 will produce 18 moles of O2. 2 KClO3(l) + heat → 2 KCl(s) + 3 O2(g) Moles of oxygen produced: 12 moles KClO3 * (3 moles O2 / 2 moles KClO3) = 18 moles O2 Therefore, the answer to your question is 18.

Q89. 117.0g of NaCl have

• A. 12.04 x 1023 Formula unit of NaCl✓
• B. 12.04 x 1022 Formula unit of NaCl
• C. 12.04 x 1023 Molecules of NaCl
• D. 6.023 x 1023 Molecules of NaCl

Explanation: Option A is correct.To calculate the number of formula units of NaCl in 117.0g of NaCl, we can use the following steps: Calculate the number of moles of NaCl in 117.0g of NaCl. Multiply the number of moles of NaCl by Avogadro's number (6.022 x 10^23 atoms/mol) to get the number of formula units of NaCl. Step 1: Calculate the number of moles of NaCl in 117.0g of NaCl. The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5g/mol. This means that 1 mole of NaCl weighs 58.5g. Number of moles of NaCl = mass of NaCl / molar mass of NaCl Number of moles of NaCl = 117.0g / 58.5g/mol Number of moles of NaCl = 2.0 moles Step 2: Multiply the number of moles of NaCl by Avogadro's number to get the number of formula units of NaCl. Number of formula units of NaCl = number of moles of NaCl * Avogadro's number Number of formula units of NaCl = 2.0 moles * 6.022 x 10^23 atoms/mol Number of formula units of NaCl = 1204 x 10^23 formula units Therefore, 117.0g of NaCl have 12.04 x 10^23 formula units of NaCl.

Q90. The number of orientations of a sub – shell for which n= 4 and l= 3 will be:

• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 7✓
• D. 1

Explanation: Option C is correct.he number of orientations of a sub-shell for which n=4 and l= 3 is 7. This can be calculated using the following formula: Number of orientations = 2l + 1 Where l is the azimuthal quantum number. In this case, l=3, so the number of orientations is: Number of orientations = 2(3) + 1 = 7 Therefore, the answer to your question is 7.

Q91. Photon of the lowest wavelength is related to:

• A. Balmer series✓
• B. Pfund series
• C. Bracket series
• D. Paschen series

Explanation: Option A is correct.The photon of the lowest wavelength is related to the Balmer series. The Balmer series is a spectral series in which photons are emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom transitions from an energy level with a principal quantum number greater than 2 to the energy level with a principal quantum number of 2. The wavelength of the emitted photon is inversely proportional to the difference in energy between the two energy levels. The lowest wavelength in the Balmer series is known as the Balmer alpha line, which has a wavelength of 656.3 nm. This is the wavelength of the photon that is emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom transitions from the third energy level to the second energy level. The Paschen series corresponds to transitions between the third energy level (n = 3) and higher energy levels (n ≥ 4).The Brackett series corresponds to transitions between the fourth energy level (n = 4) and higher energy levels (n ≥ 5). The Pfund series corresponds to transitions between the fifth energy level (n = 5) and higher energy levels (n ≥ 6).

Q92. The maximum e/m ratio for positive praise is obtained when they discharge tube contains:

• A. He
• B. N2
• C. Ne
• D. H2✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The maximum e/m ratio for positive rays is obtained when the discharge tube contains H2. This is because the hydrogen atom is the lightest atom, and therefore has the highest e/m ratio. The other options are all heavier than hydrogen, and therefore have lower e/m ratios. The e/m ratio of a particle is defined as its charge divided by its mass. It is a measure of how much a particle is deflected by an electric field. The e/m ratio of positive rays is important because it can be used to identify the elements in a sample of gas. To determine the e/m ratio of a particle, a physicist will pass a beam of the particle through an electric field and a magnetic field. The electric field will deflect the particle, and the magnetic field will bend the path of the deflected particle. The e/m ratio of the particle can be calculated by measuring the amount of deflection and bending. The e/m ratio of positive rays is also important for understanding the structure of the atom. In the early 1900s, J.J. Thomson used the e/m ratio of positive rays to measure the mass of the electron. This was one of the key pieces of evidence that led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

Q93. 1 atm of pressure is equal to all of the following except:

• A. 76 cm Hg
• B. 769 mm Hg✓
• C. 760 torr
• D. 101325 Pa

Explanation: Option B is correct.The answer is 769 mm Hg. 1 atm is equal to 760 mm Hg, so 769 mm Hg is slightly greater than 1 atm. All of the other options are equal to 1 atm.

Q94. Volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at certain pressure is x at constant temperature. What will be its volume when the pressure is reduced to half:

• A. 1/2
• B. 2x✓
• C. 4x
• D. 1/4

Explanation: Option B is correct.When the pressure of an ideal gas is reduced to half at a constant temperature, the volume of the gas will double. This is because the ideal gas law states that PV = nRT, where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of gas, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the temperature. If the pressure is reduced to half and the temperature is kept constant, then the number of moles of gas and the ideal gas constant also remain constant. This means that the product of PV must also remain constant. Since P is reduced to half, V must double in order for the product PV to remain constant. Therefore, the volume of the ideal gas when the pressure is reduced to half will be 2x.

Q95. The volume occupied by 3.2 g of oxygen gas at S.T.P is:

• A. 1.12 dm3
• B. 2.24 dm2✓
• C. 22.4 dm3
• D. 24 dm3

Explanation: Option B is correct.The volume occupied by 3.2 g of oxygen gas at STP is 2.24 dm3. STP stands for standard temperature and pressure, which is defined as a temperature of 0 °C (273.15 K) and a pressure of 1 atm (101325 Pa). To calculate the volume of a gas at STP, we can use the ideal gas law: PV = nRT where: P is the pressure in atm V is the volume in L n is the number of moles of gas R is the ideal gas constant (0.08206 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹) T is the temperature in K We know that the mass of the oxygen gas is 3.2 g, and the molar mass of oxygen is 32 g mol⁻¹. Therefore, the number of moles of oxygen gas is: n = m / M = 3.2 g / 32 g mol⁻¹ = 0.1 mol We also know that the temperature is STP, which is 0 °C (273.15 K). The pressure is also STP, which is 1 atm. Therefore, we can plug all of these values into the ideal gas law to calculate the volume of the oxygen gas: V = nRT / P = (0.1 mol)(0.08206 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)(273.15 K) / (1 atm) = 2.24 L Therefore, the volume occupied by 3.2 g of oxygen gas at STP is 2.24 L or 2.24dm3.

Q96. All of the following crystal systems have β=γ=90° except:

• A. Cubic
• B. Orthrombic
• C. Tetragonal
• D. Rhombohedral✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The crystal system that does not have β=γ=90° is rhombohedral. The other three crystal systems, cubic, orthorhombic, and tetragonal, all have the following properties: Cubic: a=b=c, α=β=γ=90° Orthorhombic: a≠b≠c, α=β=γ=90° Tetragonal: a=b≠c, α=β=γ=90° The rhombohedral crystal system, on the other hand, has the following properties: a=b=c, α=β=γ≠90° The angle α=β=γ in the rhombohedral crystal system is typically between 60° and 120°, but it can be outside of this range.

Q97. Compund having lowest boiling point is:

• A. Carbon tetrachloride✓
• B. Ethyl alcohol
• C. Benzene
• D. Acetic acid

Explanation: Option A is correct.Carbon tetrachloride has the lowest boiling point because it has the weakest intermolecular forces. Intermolecular forces are the forces that hold molecules together in a liquid or solid state. Carbon tetrachloride is a nonpolar molecule, which means that it has no partial charges. This means that the intermolecular forces between carbon tetrachloride molecules are very weak. Ethyl alcohol, benzene, and acetic acid are all polar molecules, which means that they have partial charges. This results in stronger intermolecular forces between the molecules of these compounds. As a result, ethyl alcohol, benzene, and acetic acid all have higher boiling points than carbon tetrachloride.

Q98. Which of the following can form Hydrogen bonding with each other?

• A. Methanal and Ethanol
• B. Propane and ethyl methyl ketone
• C. Amine and H2O✓
• D. Acetone and Acetaldhyde

Explanation: Option C is correct.Amines and water can form hydrogen bonds with each other. Amines are nitrogen compounds with at least one hydrogen atom attached to the nitrogen atom. Water is a hydrogen-oxygen compound with a hydrogen atom bonded to each oxygen atom. Hydrogen bonding is a type of intermolecular force that occurs between a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as oxygen or nitrogen) and another electronegative atom. In the case of amines and water, the hydrogen atom bonded to the nitrogen atom in the amine can form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom in the water molecule. This is because the oxygen atom in the water molecule is highly electronegative and attracts the hydrogen atom in the amine molecule.Methanal (HCHO) and ethanol (CH3CH2OH) can both form hydrogen bonds with other molecules, but they cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other. This is because the hydrogen atom in methanal is bonded to a carbon atom, which is not electronegative enough to attract the hydrogen atom in ethanol. Propane (CH3CH2CH3) and ethyl methyl ketone (C2H5COCH3) are both nonpolar molecules, which means that they cannot form hydrogen bonds with other molecules. Acetone (CH3COCH3) and acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) are both polar molecules, but they cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other because neither molecule has a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electronegative atom.

Q99. Identify the molecular formula of Furan:

• A. C4H4O✓
• B. C5H3O
• C. C4H5O
• D. C4H3O

Explanation: Option A is correct.The molecular formula of furan is C4H4O. Furan is a heterocyclic aromatic compound that consists of a five-membered ring with four carbon atoms and one oxygen atom. The oxygen atom is part of the ring, and the four carbon atoms are all bonded to each other and to the oxygen atom. The IUPAC name for furan is oxole. It is a colorless liquid with a characteristic odor. Furan is used in the manufacture of plastics, pharmaceuticals, and other chemicals. The other molecular formulas that you listed are not valid molecular formulas for furan. C5H3O is the molecular formula for furfural, which is a derivative of furan.C4H5O is the molecular formula for cyclobutanol, which is a saturated cyclic alcohol. C4H3O is not a valid molecular formula because it would require a carbon atom to have only three valence electrons.

Q100. Haber's process is used for the synthesis of ammonia. The optimum temperature for the Haber process is:

• A. 35-50°C
• B. 130-150°C
• C. 400-450°C✓
• D. 500-600°C

Explanation: Option C is correct.Yes, the optimum temperature for the Haber process is 400-450°C. The Haber process is a chemical process that is used to synthesize ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen. It is one of the most important industrial processes in the world, as ammonia is a key component of many fertilizers and other chemicals. The Haber process is a reversible reaction, which means that ammonia can decompose back into nitrogen and hydrogen. The yield of ammonia is favored at lower temperatures, but the reaction rate is also slower at lower temperatures. At higher temperatures, the reaction rate is faster, but the yield of ammonia is lower. The optimum temperature for the Haber process is 400-450°C because it provides a good balance between reaction rate and yield. At this temperature, the reaction rate is fast enough to produce a significant amount of ammonia, and the yield of ammonia is high enough to make the process commercially viable. The Haber process is typically carried out at high pressures (200-400 atm) in the presence of a metal catalyst (such as iron). The high pressure helps to shift the equilibrium towards the formation of ammonia. The Haber process is a very important process for the world, as it allows us to produce ammonia on a large scale. Ammonia is a key component of many fertilizers, and it is also used in the production of other chemicals, such as plastics and explosives.

Q101. If ionic product is less than Ksp then:

• A. Solution will be saturated
• B. Precipitation will occur
• C. Solution will be super saturated
• D. No precipitation will occur✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. The ionic product is less than the solubility product, meaning the solution contains fewer ions than it could have at equilibrium. There is room for more ions and the saturation point is not reached. As saturation is not attained, therefore, precipitation does not occur. There are insufficient ions to exceed Ksp and form a solid precipitate. ==> Precipitation only occurs when the ionic product exceeds Ksp.

Q102. For 𝚫n=0

• A. Kp=Kn✓
• B. Kp ≠ Kn
• C. Kp>Kn
• D. Kp<Kn

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q103. Reaction that follows third order kinetics is:

• A. Decomposition of nitrogen dioxide
• B. Decomposition of hydrogen iodide
• C. Gas phase oxidation of nitric oxide✓
• D. Formation of hydrogen iodide

Explanation: Option C is correct as gas phase oxidation of nitric oxide is a third order reaction. The reaction is as follows: 2NO(g) + O2(g) --> 2NO2(g) This reaction is second order with respect to NO and first order with respect to O2, making the overall order to be 3. Option A and D are second order reaction and option B is a zero order reeaction.

Q104. As compared to exothermic-reaction, formation of activated complex in endothermic reaction requires:

• A. Greater Ea✓
• B. Smaller Ea
• C. Equal Ea
• D. No Ea

Explanation: The correct option is A as the endothermic reactions have a greater activation energy because the products of this reaction have more energy than the reactants. On the otherhand products in exothermic reaction have lesser energy than the reactants, therefore, the activation energy is lesser. The graph is shown below

Q105. SI Unit of specific heat capacity is:

• A. Jg-1K-1✓
• B. JK-1
• C. JmolK-1
• D. KJ/mol

Explanation: Specific heat capacity(c) = Heat energy / (mass) x (change in temperature) units: heat energy = J mass = g change in temperature = K c = J / (g) x (K) c = Jg-1K-1

Q106. Processes involving solid and liquid have their:

• A. 𝚫H=𝚫E +P𝚫V
• B. 𝚫H=P𝚫V
• C. 𝚫H=𝚫E✓
• D. 𝚫H=0

Explanation: Option C is correct as ΔH=ΔE+PΔV and for a process involving solids and/or liqiuds, ΔV≅0. Therefore, 𝚫H=𝚫E. There is a change in the internal energy of the process with the environment.

Q107. In the redox reaction of SO2 with KMnO4 for an acidic medium:

• A. SO2 oxidizes KMnO4
• B. SO2 reduces KMnO4✓
• C. KMnO4 is inert in acidic medium
• D. SO2 can't undergo redox reaction

Explanation: Option B is correct as SO2 is a strong reducing agent and KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent. SO2 reduces Mn7+ in KMnO4 to Mn2+ and gets oxidised itself from S4+ to S6+.

Q108. Zinc displaces copper from its solution because:

• A. Atomic number of zinc is higher than that of copper
• B. Zinc has higher reduction potential than copper
• C. Zinc is more soluble
• D. Zinc has smaller reduction potential than copper✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as Zinc has a smaller reduction potential(-0.76V) than copper(+0.34V), thus making it more reactive than copper. Therefore, it can easily displace copper form its compound in a solution

Q109. The molecular shape of a molecule with three bonded atoms and one lone pair electron on the central atom will be:

• A. Trigonal planar
• B. Tetrahedral
• C. Trigonal Pyramidal✓
• D. Linear

Explanation: Option C is correct. If there are three bond pairs and one lone pair of electrons then the molecular shape of that molecule is trigonal pyramidal. An example of such a molecule is NH3. Its geometrical structure is given below. Trigonal planar = 3 bond pairs. Tetrahedral = 4 bond pairs. linear = 2 bond pairs.

Q110. Molecule are having the highest bond energy (experimentally) is:

• A. HCl
• B. HF✓
• C. HBr
• D. HI

Explanation: The correct option is B as the decreasing order of bond dissociation energy is HF > HCl > HBr > HI. There is a large difference between electronegativity of H and F, so the bond is stronger. As we go down the group, the difference between electronegativity decreases and therefore, bond dissociation energy also decreases.

Q111. The bond length between double-bonded carbon atom is:

• A. 1.34A°✓
• B. 1.10A°
• C. 1.54A°
• D. 1.82A°

Explanation: Fact: Bond length between double bonded carbon is 1.34A°.

Q112. Who is the element that forms normal oxide only

• A. Li✓
• B. Na
• C. K
• D. Rb

Explanation: When Lithium is heated in air it only forms Li2O which is a normal oxide as it contains an O2- ion. On the other hand sodium, potassium and rubidium do not readily form normal oxides when heated in air. They tend to form per and superoxides with charges -1 and -1/2 on oxygen respectively.

Q113. Element who's souls do not impart colour to flame test is

• A. Be✓
• B. Cs
• C. Ca
• D. K

Explanation: Option A is correct as Beryllium is one of the 2 alkaline earth metals that does not impart colour to flame test. Cs gives violet flame, Ca gives brick red flame and K gives lilac flames to flame test.

Q114. Indicate superoxide in the following

• A. CaO
• B. BaO2
• C. Na2O2
• D. RbO2✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. In superoxides oxygen has a charge of -1/2 which is the case in option D. All the rest of the options are normal(-2) or per(-1) oxides.

Q115. Which one of the following is covalent in nature?

• A. Mg3N2
• B. Be3N2✓
• C. Ca3N2
• D. Ba3N2

Explanation: Be3N2 is a covalent compound as Be and N have a small difference in electronegativity atoms and are more likely to share electrons rather then transferring them from one to another. All other compounds have a greater difference in electronegativity between the atoms making them polar and ionic.

Q116. Which one has one unpaired electron in the valance shell?

• A. ZN+2
• B. Cu+
• C. Ti+3✓
• D. Fe+3

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q117. The oxidation number of cobalt in the given coordination complex is: [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2(SO4)3

• A. III✓
• B. II
• C. IV
• D. VI

Explanation: In the given complex, [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2(SO4)3 Cobalt is bonded with three molecules of ethylenediamine which is a bidendate ligand having neutral charge. Moreover the coordination sphere is bonded with three molecules of sulphate ions each having -2 charge. Using formula: Charge of Metal + Charge on Ligand + Charge on coordination sphere 2(x + 3(0) ) = 3(-2) 2x = -6 x = -3

Q118. Pyrole Bleongs to which class of compounds

• A. Hydrocarbons
• B. Homocyclic
• C. Alicyclic
• D. Heterocyclic✓

Explanation: Pyrole is a heterocyclic compound. Heterocyclic compounds are organic compounds with a ring structure that contains in the cycle at least one carbon atom and at least one other element, such as N, O, or S.

Q119. Ethyl alcohol in the presence of H2SO4 at 170°C produces

• A. Ether
• B. Ethene✓
• C. Ester
• D. Ethane

Explanation: When ethyl alcohol reacts with H2SO4 at high temperature, beta elimination takes place resulting in formation of ethene.

Q120. Lindlar's catalyst is used in hydrogenation of alkyne:

• A. To increase activation energy
• B. To enhance hydrogenation of alkene
• C. To prevent hydrogenation of alkene✓
• D. To start polymerisation reaction

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q121. Which one of the following is not meta directing group?

• A. -COR
• B. -NO2
• C. -CHO
• D. -NR2✓

Explanation: Examples of meta– directors include nitriles, carbonyl compounds (such as aldehydes, ketones, and esters), sulfones, electron-deficient alkyl groups, nitro groups, and alkylammoniums. While examples of ortho-, para– directors are hydroxyl groups, ethers, amines, alkyl groups, thiols, and halogens.

Q122. Benzene-1,3-diol is also known as:

• A. Catechol
• B. Resorcinol✓
• C. Hydroquinone
• D. O-cersol

Explanation: Resorcinol is a 1,3-isomer (or meta-isomer) of benzenediol with the formula C6H4(OH)2.

Q123. Identify the electrophile as acylium ion:

• A. RNa+
• B. RCO+✓
• C. RCOO+
• D. RNO+

Explanation: Acylium ions are cations of the formula RCO +. The carbon–oxygen bond length in these cations is near 1.1 Å (110-112 pm), which is shorter than the 112.8 pm of carbon monoxide and indicates triple-bond character.

Q124. Among the following hydrocarbons which one has acidic hydrogen?

• A. C2H6
• B. C2H4
• C. C2H2✓
• D. C3H6

Explanation: In alkynes,terminal alkyne has acidic hydrogen due to the high level of s character in the sp hybrid orbital, which bonds with the s orbital of the hydrogen atom to form a single covalent bond.

Q125. Greater number of Alkyl groups on substrate favours:

• A. Substrate reaction
• B. Elimination reaction✓
• C. Oxidation reaction
• D. Free radical reaction

Explanation: A greater number of alkyl groups on a substrate favors elimination reactions because it leads to the formation of more stable and substituted double bonds, reduces steric hindrance, enhances hyperconjugation, and stabilizes the transition state of the elimination reaction.

Q126. SN1 reactions mostly result in partial racemization, in partial racemization there is:

• A. Inversion only
• B. Retention only
• C. Equal inversion and retention✓
• D. More inversion and retention

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q127. Which of the following involves the same steps?

• A. E1 and E2
• B. E1 and SN1✓
• C. SN1 and SN2
• D. EZ and SN1

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q128. The correct sequence of electronic configuration is:

• A. 4p 5s 4d 5p 6s 4f 5d✓
• B. 4p 4s 4d 5p 5s 5f 6d
• C. 4p 4s 4d 5p 5s 4f 5d
• D. 4p 3s 4d 5p 6s 4f 5d

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q129. When phenol reacts with excess of bromine in aqueous solution it results in the formation of:

• A. Ortho/para bromophenol
• B. Meta bromophenol
• C. 2,4,6-Tribromophenol✓
• D. 3,5-Dibromophenol

Explanation: An aqueous solution of phenol reacts with bromine water to give white ppt. of 2,4,6- tribromophenol.

Q130. Propylene glycol and trimethylene glycol are:

• A. Functional group isomers
• B. Metamers
• C. Position isomers✓
• D. Tautomers

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q131. The reduction of aldehyde and ketone is to alkanes in the presence of Zinc amalgam and HCl is called

• A. Clemmenson reduction✓
• B. Williamson's synthesis
• C. Wolf-Kishner reduction
• D. Dow process

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q132. Aldehyde and ketone on reaction with hydroxylamine form:

• A. Hydrazine
• B. Hydrazone
• C. Oxime✓
• D. Imine

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q133. Fehling's solution works on the principle of redox reaction which results in:

• A. reduction of aldehydes
• B. Oxidation of Copper(II)
• C. Oxidation of aldehyde✓
• D. Oxidation of Ketone

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q134. In conversion of acid halides to Ester, pyridine is used to:

• A. Stabilise acid halides
• B. Consume HCl formed in the reaction✓
• C. Dehydrate alcohol
• D. Dehydrogenate acid halides

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q135. Number of carbon atoms in valeric acid is:

• A. 4
• B. 5✓
• C. 6
• D. 7

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q136. The IUPAC name of formyl chloride is:

• A. Chloro methanoic acid
• B. Chloro methane
• C. Methanoyl chloride✓
• D. Chloro methanoate

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q137. The inhibition, in which the inhibitor does not combine directly with the enzyme but binds to the enzyme-substrate complex is called:

• A. Reversible inhibition
• B. Competitive inhibition
• C. Non-Competitive inhibition
• D. Uncompetitive inhibition✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q138. Trypsinogen can be activated by the action of:

• A. Amylase
• B. HCl
• C. Glucokinase
• D. Entrokinase✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q139. Crystal having orthorhombic crystal system is:

• A. PbCrO4
• B. BaSO4✓
• C. 2nO
• D. K2Cr2O7

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q140. Alkoxy carbonyl functional group is present in:

• A. Ether
• B. Aldehyde
• C. Carboxylic acid
• D. Ester✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q141. Equal forces F act on isolated bodies A and B. The mass of B is 1/5 times that of A. The magnitude of the acceleration of A is:

• A. 1/5 times that of B✓
• B. 1/3 times that of B
• C. The same as B
• D. nine times that of B

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q142. A body is moved through a displacement of 15m towards the North, the total displacement will be zero when the body covered the same displacement towards:

• A. North
• B. South✓
• C. West
• D. East

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q143. When the range of a projectile is equal to one fourth of the height then which one is true:

• A. Tanθ=10
• B. Tanθ=12
• C. Tanθ=16✓
• D. Tanθ=1

Explanation: Since Rtan θ = 4H 1/4 H tan θ = 4H tan θ = 16

Q144. The body is moving with with momentum of 100 kg m/s. What is the magnitude of force required to stop this body in 25 seconds?

• A. 4 N✓
• B. 25 N
• C. 100 N
• D. 2500 N

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q145. Doubling the initial velocity of a projectile while keeping all other parameters the same, the height reached by the projectile increases by:

• A. two times
• B. three times
• C. four times✓
• D. remains the same

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q146. The effect of air resistance, how long a stone takes to drop off a 125m high building, landing on the ground, take g=10m/s2:

• A. 3 sec
• B. 4 sec
• C. 18 sec
• D. 5 sec✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q147. The weight of a body is 120N and it is lifted to a height of 10m, work done on the body is:

• A. 120 J
• B. 100 J
• C. 1000 J
• D. 1200 J✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q148. A 200N force acts on 8 kg crate that starts from rest. At the instant the object has gone 2m, the rate at which the force is doing work is:

• A. 2.5 W
• B. 25 W
• C. 75 W
• D. 2000 W✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q149. Which of the following bodies has the largest kinetic energy?

• A. Mass 3M and speed v
• B. Mass 2M and speed 3v✓
• C. Mass 3M and speed 2v
• D. Mass M and speed 4V

Explanation: K.E = 1/2Mv2 The K.E will be maximum when the product of "M" and "v2" is maximum. In (B) the product has maximum value i.e. 9Mv².

Q150. A 2kg object is released from rest 8m above the surface of the Earth, During the fall work done against air resistance is 60J. Just before it hits the surface its speed is: (Hint-take g=10 m/sec2)

• A. 10 m/sec✓
• B. 36 m/sec
• C. 40 m/sec
• D. 45 m/sec

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q151. The speedometer of a car shows 36 km/hr. The angular speed of the wheels having 0.5m radius is:

• A. 5 rad/sec
• B. 10 rad/sec
• C. 15 rad/sec
• D. 20 rad/sec✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q152. The angular speed in radian/hour for the daily rotation of our earth is?

• A. ∏/12✓
• B. 12∏
• C. 24∏
• D. ∏/24

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q153. A fly wheel rotates at constant speed of 600rpm. The angle described by the shaft in radians in one second is:

• A. 100∏
• B. 20∏✓
• C. 0
• D. 20

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q154. The angular speed of the second hand of a watch is:

• A. (∏/1800) rad/sec
• B. (∏/60) rad/sec
• C. (∏/30) rad/sec✓
• D. (2n) rad/sec

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q155. A stretched string vibrates with frequency f, when tension in the string is T, for what value of tension, the frequency of the same string is doubled?

• A. 2T
• B. 4T✓
• C. 8T
• D. 16T

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q156. The longitudinal waves travel more slowly in_ than in _

• A. solids, gas
• B. solids, liquids
• C. gases, solids✓
• D. liquid, gases

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q157. Sinusoidal water waves are generated in a large ripple tank. The waves travel at 25 cm/s and their adjacent crests are 5.0cm apart. The time required for each new whole cycle to be generated is;

• A. 100 sec
• B. 4.0 sec
• C. 2.0 sec
• D. 0.2 sec✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q158. The distance between adjacent node and anti-node is equal to:

• A. 𝛌
• B. 𝛌/2
• C. 2𝛌
• D. 𝛌/4✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q159. A string damped at its both ends, vibrates in four segments (loops). The length of string is 150cm. The wavelength of the wave is:

• A. 33.3 cm
• B. 66.7 cm
• C. 150 cm
• D. 70 cm✓

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q160. The square root of the ratio of elasticity to mass density is equal to:

• A. Force
• B. Product of frequency and wavelength✓
• C. Co-efficient of viscosity
• D. Refractive index

Explanation: The explanation to this question will be uploaded soon

Q161. If the pressure of air enclosed in a long tube is increased 10 times, then the speed of sound will:

• A. Increase
• B. Decrease
• C. Remain constant✓
• D. Becomes zero

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q162. The expression, Cp - R is equal to:

• A. Cv✓
• B. R
• C. Cp - Cv
• D. R + Cv

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q163. In a certain process, 200J of heat energy is supplied to a system and at the same time 50J of work is done by the system. The increase in the internal energy of the system is:

• A. 25 J
• B. 100 J
• C. 150 J✓
• D. 250 J

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q164. Two charges of magnitude q1= 1𝜇C and q2 = 5𝜇C, are separated at a distance r = 1x10-3m apart, the ratio of the magnitude of the forces acting on them will be:

• A. 1:5
• B. 1:25
• C. 1:3
• D. 1:1✓

Explanation: The magnitude of force on both charges is same. Hence the ratio will be 1:1.

Q165. For 0.5 Siemens of conductance, resistance will be:

• A. 1 Ω
• B. 2 Ω✓
• C. 20 Ω
• D. 10 Ω

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q166. 1 volt x 1 ampere is equal to:

• A. 1 coulomb
• B. 1 newton
• C. 1 watt✓
• D. 1 hp

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q167. A wire of length l has resistivity 𝛒. If the wire Is divided in two halves, then resistivity of each halve is:

• A. 𝛒/2
• B. 𝛒✓
• C. 2𝛒
• D. 𝛒/3

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q168. In how many hours a 1000 watt AC will consume one unit of electricity?

• A. 0.5 hr
• B. 1 hr✓
• C. 1.5 hr
• D. 2 hr

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q169. Of the following, the copper conductor that has the least resistance must be:

• A. Thick, short and cool✓
• B. Thin, long and hot
• C. Thick, long and hot
• D. thin, short and cool

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q170. A certain X-ray tube requires a current of 5mA at a voltage of 60kv. The rate of energy dissipation (in watts) is:

• A. 560
• B. 300✓
• C. 200
• D. 800

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q171. Ampere.second is the unit of:

• A. Power
• B. Charge✓
• C. Potential Difference
• D. Current

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q172. The magnitude of the magnetic flux through area A has exactly the same value at angles:

• A. 0° and 180°✓
• B. 90° and 180°
• C. 180° and 270°
• D. 270° and 360°

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q173. A hydrogen atom that has lost its electron is moving east in a region where the magnetic field is directed From south to north. It will be deflected:

• A. Up✓
• B. Down
• C. North
• D. South

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q174. When the magnetic force acts on a charged particle, change occurs in:

• A. Magnitude of velocity only
• B. Magnitude and direction of velocity
• C. Only the direction of velocity✓
• D. Neither direction nor magnitude of velocity

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q175. A constant magnetic field of 5T is passing through a static conducting loop of area 0.8m2, the induced emf is

• A. 4 V
• B. 10 V
• C. Zero✓
• D. 32V

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q176. Magnetic flux linked with the conducting loop "A" is increased at the rate of 15 weber/second per and another conducting loop "B" is decreased at the rate of 15 weber/second, the ,magnitude of induced emf of:

• A. Loop A will be equal to loop B✓
• B. Loop A is smaller than loop B
• C. Loop B is smaller than loop A
• D. Both will be zero

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q177. For induced emf to be produced in a coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil must:

• A. Only decrease
• B. Only increase
• C. Be constant
• D. Be Changed✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q178. For half with rectification, the number of diode needed in a circuit is:

• A. 1✓
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q179. The frequency of a light beam "A" is half of that of light beam "B". The ratio EA/Ea of photons energies is:(hint: where EA & Es are the respective energies of light Beam "A" & "B")

• A. 1/2✓
• B. 1/4
• C. 1
• D. 2

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q180. The wavelength of photon "A" is half the wavelength of photon "B". The energy of a photon "A" is:

• A. Half the energy of Photon B
• B. One-fourth of energy of Photon B
• C. equal to the energy of Photon B
• D. Twice the energy of Photon B✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q181. If frequency of light is greater than threshold frequency, then in photoelectric effect the number of electrons increases with an increase in _ of light :

• A. Frequency
• B. Kinetic energy
• C. Intensity✓
• D. Momentum

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q182. Shortest wavelength associated to Paschen series is:

• A. 𝜆=8/RH
• B. 𝜆=9/RH✓
• C. 𝜆=19/RH
• D. 𝜆=4/RH

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q183. The ratio of longest wavelength to shortest of Lyman series is:

• A. R
• B. 4/3✓
• C. 3/4
• D. 4

Explanation: The explanation of this question is given below;Maximum wavelength/Minimum wavelength = 121.6 nm/91.2 nm = 1.333... So the ratio of the maximum wavelength to the minimum wavelength in the Lyman series is approximately 1.33 = 4/3

Q184. The half-life of a radioactive element is 100 days. How much quantity of the 88 g of such element will remain after 3 half-lives:

• A. 8g
• B. 10g
• C. 11g✓
• D. 44g

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q185. Radioactive kcSr has a half-life of 30 years. What percent of a sample of kcSr will remain after 90 years?

• A. 0%
• B. 12.5%✓
• C. 50%
• D. 75%

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q186. At the end of 15 min, 1/32 of a sample of radioactive polonium remains. The corresponding half-life is:

• A. 0.469 min
• B. 32 min
• C. 15 min
• D. 3 min✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q187. Two equal and opposite charges of 10 C are separated at a distance of 10 cm, the electric potential at mid-point between the charges is:

• A. 20 V
• B. 10 V
• C. 5 V
• D. 0 V✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q188. The force of repulsion between two alike charges is 10 N in vacuum. When a material of Ep= 2 is placed between them. New force will be:

• A. 20 N
• B. 15 N
• C. 10 N
• D. 5 N✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q189. The slope-of the charge-time graph for a charging capacitor gives:

• A. Current✓
• B. Voltage
• C. Force
• D. Energy

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q190. Two small charged objects attract each other with a force F when separated by a distance d. If the charge on each object is reduced to one-fourth of its original value and the distance between them is reduced to d/2 the force becomes:

• A. F/16
• B. F/8
• C. F/4✓
• D. F/2

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q191. If both the plate area and the plate separation of a parallel-plate capacitor doubled, the capacitance is

• A. Doubled
• B. Halved
• C. Unchanged✓
• D. Triple

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q192. A 20𝜇F capacitor is charged 200 V. Its stored energy is:

• A. 4000 J
• B. 4J
• C. 0.4 J✓
• D. 2000 J

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q193. The primary winding of a transformer has a 120 V AC supply. What is the value of secondary voltage if the turn ratio is 20.(Hints: turn ratio =N1/N0)

• A. 2400V✓
• B. 1200V
• C. 24000V
• D. 200 V

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q194. Statements:Some teachers are students.All students are girls.No student is a boy. Condusions:I. Some teachers are boys.II. Same girls are teachers.IlI. Some girls are students.

• A. Only I followers
• B. Only I, II and III followers
• C. Only II follows
• D. Only II and III follows✓

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be uploaded soon

Q195. Complete the following series: KCD, LEF, MGH,_ OKL.

• A. NQM
• B. PJI
• C. NIJ✓
• D. NJI

Explanation: Multiple Seriessolve the 2nd (middle one) and 3rd one 2nd= C->E->G->I-> K3rd = D-> F-> H->J->L

Q196. Read the following statements and decide about the arguments. Statement: Does Pakistan need so many plans for development? Arguments:_ I. Yes. Nothing can be achieved without proper planning. II. No. Too much time, money and energy is wasted on planning.

• A. Only I true✓
• B. Only II true
• C. Either I or II is true
• D. Neither I or II is true

Explanation: For indulging in new development program it is much necessary to plan the exact target, policies and their implementation and the allocation of funds which shows the right direction to work. So argument one holds strong. Also, planning ensures full utilisation of available resources and funds and a step-by-step approach towards the target. So spending a part of the money on it is not a wastage. Thus, argument II is not valid.

Q197. Methyl tetrachloride (MTC) is a chemical found in some pesticides, glues, and sealants. Exposure to MTC can cause people to develop asthma. In order to halve the nation's asthma rate, the government plans to ban all products containing MTC. The government's plan to halve the nation's asthma rate relies on which of the following assumptions?

• A. Exposure to MTC is responsible for no less than half of the nation's asthma cases.✓
• B. Products containing MTC are not necessary to the prosperity of the country's economy
• C. Asthma has reached epidemic proportions
• D. MTC products I helpful for asthma

Explanation: The explanation for this question will be uploaded soon

Q198. Statements:I. The Importance of yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the societyII. There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages group of people.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement Il is its effect.
• B. Statement ll is the cause and statement I Is its effect✓
• C. Both the statements I and ll are independent causes.
• D. Both the statements I and ll are effects of independent causes.

Explanation: As the awareness about health in the society is increasing particularly among middle-aged group of people, the importance of yoga and exercise is being realised by all sections of the society

Q199. The rates of interest on Post office recurring deposit accounts have been increased with effect from 1st March. This has been done to attract more deposits.Course of ActionI. Efforts should also be made to make the public aware about this increase in the rate of Interest. II. If the deposits don't increase in next six months, the rate of interest should be further Increased.

• A. Only conclusion I follows
• B. Only conclusion II follows
• C. Neither I nor II follows
• D. Both conclusions I and II follows✓

Explanation: It is given in the statement that the rate of interest has been increased to attract more deposits. Hence, public should be made aware of such increases so that both parties should be benefited. If the response for the deposit is lukewarm, the rate of interest should be further increased. Hence, both the actions are the right course of action.

Q200. The flower girl sold him flowers.[The underlined word is]

• A. Direct object
• B. Indirect object✓
• C. Complement
• D. Predicate

Explanation: A direct object is the object in which the verb Is acting one.