Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2020 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The hydrolysis of an ester in presence of an alkali (NaOH) is known as:

• A. Esterificatoon
• B. Decarboxylation
• C. Sapondication
• D. Transesterification✓

Explanation: It is the reaction where an ester reacts with an alcohol to form a different ester and an alcohol.

Q2. Which one of the following is called "black gold"?

• A. Coal tar
• B. Petroleum✓
• C. Coal
• D. Natural gas

Explanation: It is a black, combustible rock primarily composed of carbon. It is used as a fuel source for power generation and in industrial processes.

Q3. In animal support is provided by.

• A. Cartilage
• B. Bone
• C. Muscles
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: In animals, support is provided by a combination of cartilage, bones, and muscles. Cartilage provides flexible support, bones provide rigid support, and muscles help with movement and maintaining posture. It's a team effort.

Q4. Which ot the following gland can be classified in endocrine and an esocrine gland?

• A. Thymus
• B. Pituitary
• C. Thyroid
• D. Pancreas✓

Explanation: The pancreas serves as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland. As an endocrine gland, it produces hormones like insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels. As an exocrine gland, it releases digestive enzymes into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of food.

Q5. The experimental animaI used by Pavlov for studying conditioned reflex was _

• A. Rat
• B. Dog✓
• C. Goose
• D. Chimpanzee

Explanation: Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, used dogs as experimental animals to study conditioned reflexes. He conducted experiments where he would ring a bell before feeding the dogs. Eventually, the dogs associated the sound of the bell with food and would salivate in response to the bell alone, even without the presence of food. This demonstrated the process of classical conditioning. Pavlov's work with dogs provided valuable insights into learning and behavior.

Q6. Two vectors A and B are making angle θ with each other. The scalar prosectiol of vector B on vector A is written as.

• A. Cosθ
• B. A.B/B
• C. A.B/A✓
• D. Sinθ

Explanation: When we talk about the scalar projection of vector B onto vector A, we're looking at the component of vector B that lies in the same direction as vector A. It can be calculated by taking the magnitude of vector B and multiplying it by the cosine of the angle between vectors A and B. Similarly, the scalar projection of vector A onto vector B is the component of vector A that lies in the same direction as vector B, which can be calculated by taking the magnitude of vector A and multiplying it by the cosine of the angle between vectors A and B.

Q7. A transformer steps down a given voltage Isom 220V to 55V. If current in primary coil is 4mA, then current in secondary coil will be:

• A. 16mA✓
• B. 2mA
• C. 8mA
• D. 4mA

Explanation: When a transformer steps down the voltage, it increases the current. In this case, since the voltage is stepped down from 220V to 55V, and the current in the primary coil is 4mA, the current in the secondary coil will be increased by a factor of 220/55, which is 4. Therefore, the current in the secondary coil will be 4mA * 4, which is 16mA.

Q8. Choose the word nearest in meaning to "BLEMISH":

• A. Shortcoming✓
• B. Misery
• C. Perfect
• D. Concern

Explanation: Blemish means a "shortcoming" or a "flaw."

Q9. Amongst the following, which compounds control the tooth decay:

• A. An Iodide compound
• B. A bromide compound
• C. A chloride compound
• D. A fluoride compound✓

Explanation: Fluoride is a compound that helps prevent tooth decay by strengthening tooth enamel and making it more resistant to acid attacks from bacteria. It can be found in toothpaste, mouthwash, and even in some drinking water sources. Fluoride ions replace hydroxide ions in the enamel, forming a more stable compound that is less susceptible to decay. Iodide, chloride, and bromide are not as effective in preventing tooth decay as fluoride.

Q10. How many types of "NMR" protons are there in Isopropyl chloride?

• A. 2
• B. 6✓
• C. 4
• D. 8

Explanation: In isopropyl chloride, there are 6 different types of "NMR" protons. This means that there are 6 unique environments for the protons in the molecule, leading to distinct signals in the nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectrum. Each type of proton corresponds to a specific chemical environment within the molecule.

Q11. The sporophyte in bryophyte is:

• A. Haploid
• B. Diploid✓
• C. Monoploid
• D. Both (B) & (C)

Explanation: In bryophytes, the sporophyte is diploid, which means it has two sets of chromosomes. The sporophyte stage is the part of the life cycle where the plant produces spores through meiosis. These spores develop into the haploid gametophyte stage, which then produces gametes. When fertilization occurs, the gametes combine to form a diploid zygote, which grows into the sporophyte. So, in summary, the sporophyte in bryophytes is diploid.

Q12. Placoid scales are present in:

• A. Class cyclostomata
• B. Class osteichthyes
• C. Class chondricthyes✓
• D. Ceplialochordate

Explanation: Placoid scales are a unique type of scales that are present in cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. These scales have a characteristic tooth-like structure with a hard enamel-like surface. They are embedded in the skin and provide protection and reduce drag in the water. The presence of placoid scales is one of the distinguishing features of the class Chondrichthyes, which includes sharks, rays, and skates.

Q13. Elections remained as minority carriers in the material:

• A. N-type
• B. P-type✓
• C. Conductor
• D. All of the above

Explanation: In the p-type semiconductor, where there is a deficit of electrons, holes (positively charged vacancies) are the minority carriers. These minority carriers play a crucial role in the conduction of electricity in semiconductors.

Q14. In He — Ne Iaser, the active material is:

• A. He only
• B. Ne only
• C. Both He and Ne✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In a He-Ne laser, the active material is a mixture of helium (He) and neon (Ne) gases. The helium provides the energy to excite the neon atoms, which then emit light at a specific wavelength. So, both helium and neon are involved in the laser's operation.

Q15. He said, 'I shall go as soon as it st possible." [Choose the (correct narration]

• A. He proposes that he should go as soon as it was possible
• B. He proposed that he shall go as soon as it was possible
• C. He proposed that he should go as soon as it was possible✓
• D. He proposed that he should go as soon as it is possible.

Explanation: He proposed that he should go as soon as it was possible.

Q16. Rate of chemical reaction depends upon:

• A. Number of fruitful collisions per second
• B. Number or molecules taking part In a chemical reaction
• C. Number of total collisions per second
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The rate of a chemical reaction depends on the number of molecules or collisions taking part. When there are more molecules or collisions, the chances of successful reactions increase, leading to a faster reaction rate.

Q17. The sum of all possible kinds of energies of all atoms, molecules or ions within a system is called:

• A. Test
• B. Internal energy✓
• C. Potential energy
• D. Bond energy

Explanation: Internal energy refers to the total energy of all the atoms, molecules, or ions within a system. It includes different types of energy, like kinetic energy (energy of motion) and potential energy (energy stored in bonds or positions). The internal energy of a system can change due to factors like heat transfer or work done on the system. It's an important concept in thermodynamics to understand the energy state of a system.

Q18. A chemical reaction A → B is said to be in equilibrium when:

• A. Conversion of A to B is 50% complete
• B. 50% reactant has been changed to B
• C. Rate of transformation of A to B is equal to B to A✓
• D. Complete conversion of A to B has taken place

Explanation: When a chemical reaction is in equilibrium, it means that the rate at which A transforms into B is equal to the rate at which B transforms back into A. It's like a balanced dance where the number of people moving forward and backward is the same, creating a steady state.

Q19. Cells of liver is man associated with phagocytosis are:

• A. Kupffers cells✓
• B. Hansans cells
• C. Lupffers cells
• D. Aciner cells

Explanation: The cells in the liver that are associated with phagocytosis are called Kupffer cells. They play an important role in engulfing and removing foreign particles, bacteria, and old red blood cells.

Q20. The most common form of WBCs in the body are:

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Basophils
• C. Neusrophils✓
• D. Lymphocytes

Explanation: The most common form of white blood cells (WBCs) in the body are neutrophils. They are like the superheroes of our immune system, fighting off infections and harmful bacteria.Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cells in our body. They play a crucial role in our immune system by defending against infections. They are like the frontline soldiers, always ready to attack and destroy harmful bacteria and other pathogens.

Q21. The boding point of ammonia (NH3) is maximum among the hydrides of group V elements due to:

• A. Very small size of Nitrogen
• B. Pyramidal structure of NH3
• C. Enhanced electronegative character of Nitrogen✓
• D. Enhanced electropositivity of nitrogen

Explanation: The boiling point of ammonia (NH3) is higher compared to the hydrides of other Group V elements because of its stronger intermolecular forces. These forces, called hydrogen bonding, occur between the hydrogen atom in ammonia and the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom. This extra attraction between molecules makes it harder for them to separate and increases the boiling point.

Q22. The product of pressure and volume remains constant when temperature and quantity of gas is:

• A. Kept constant✓
• B. Zero
• C. Variable
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Its is kept constant. Imagine you have a balloon filled with gas. If you keep the temperature and the amount of gas inside the balloon constant, the product of the pressure and volume of the gas will always stay the same. It's like a magical balancing act between pressure and volume.

Q23. Which one of the following has highest boiling point?

• A. Diethyl ether
• B. Benzene✓
• C. Carbon disulphide
• D. Carbon tetrachloride

Explanation: When we compare the boiling points of different substances, we look at the intermolecular forces between their molecules. In the case of carbon tetrachloride, its molecules have strong intermolecular forces, which require more energy to break and transition from a liquid to a gas state.

Q24. _ virus does not cause chronic liver disease.

• A. Hepatitis C
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Hepatitis A✓
• D. Hepatitis A and B

Explanation: some viruses, such as hepatitis B and hepatitis C, can indeed cause chronic liver disease. These viruses can infect the liver and lead to long-term inflammation and damage, which can result in conditions like chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, or even liver cancer. It's important to take precautions and seek medical advice to prevent and manage these conditions. Helatitis A doesnot cause serious problems.

Q25. This group includes sulphur bacteria which obtain energy by oxidizing H2S instead of Water.

• A. Alpha proteobacteria
• B. Beta proteobacteria
• C. Gamma protobacteria.✓
• D. Delta protobacteria

Explanation: Gamma proteobacteria is a group of bacteria that includes various species, including sulfur bacteria. Sulfur bacteria are capable of obtaining energy by oxidizing hydrogen sulfide (H2S) instead of water, which is a unique metabolic characteristic. This process is known as chemosynthesis, where sulfur bacteria use H2S as an energy source to produce organic compounds. It's fascinating how different bacteria have evolved different ways to obtain energy.

Q26. Carrageenan, a glue like substance from algae is used to produce a thickening agent in _

• A. Cometics
• B. Plastics
• C. Pudding✓
• D. Medicines

Explanation: Carrageenan is a natural ingredient derived from certain types of red seaweed. It has a unique ability to form a gel-like substance when mixed with liquids, which makes it perfect for thickening puddings. By adding carrageenan to the pudding mixture, it helps give it a smooth and creamy texture that we all love. It's a popular ingredient in many food products, including dessert items like puddings and custards.

Q27. Haemophilia affects males than females because of:

• A. X linked recessive✓
• B. X linked dominant
• C. Dominant autosomes
• D. Y linked inheritance

Explanation: Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, which means it is more commonly seen in males than females. This is because the gene responsible for haemophilia is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. If a male inherits the faulty gene on his X chromosome, he will have haemophilia because he does not have another X chromosome to compensate for the faulty gene. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, so even if one X chromosome carries the faulty gene, the other X chromosome can often compensate for it. That's why haemophilia is more prevalent in males.

Q28. All of the following are non renewable resources of energy except:

• A. Forest✓
• B. Nuclear power
• C. Oil
• D. Coal

Explanation: Non-renewable resources are natural resources that cannot be easily replenished or regenerated within a short period of time. These resources include fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas, as well as minerals like copper, gold, and uranium. Since they are finite and take millions of years to form, their availability is limited. It's important for us to use non-renewable resources wisely and explore alternative, renewable sources of energy to ensure a sustainable future.

Q29. Meristems are devoid of _ due to the absence of vascular system in them.

• A. Bacteria
• B. Algae
• C. Fungus
• D. Virus✓

Explanation: Meristems are devoid of viruses because they lack a vascular system. Since viruses require a host to replicate and spread, the absence of a vascular system in meristems prevents them from being infected by viruses. This helps keep the meristems healthy and free from viral infections.

Q30. Trophoblast cells begin to display _ selection adhesion molecules on their surface soon after the blastocyst hatching.

• A. X selection
• B. D selection
• C. L selection✓
• D. C selection

Explanation: Trophoblast cells begin to display adhesion molecules on their surface soon after the blastocyst hatching.

Q31. The inner surface of fallopian tube is lined by:

• A. ciliated epithelium✓
• B. Squamaus epithelium
• C. Columnar epithelium
• D. Cubodial epithelium

Explanation: The inner surface of the fallopian tube is lined by ciliated epithelium. The cilia on the epithelial cells help to move the egg or embryo through the fallopian tube towards the uterus. It's a remarkable adaptation that aids in the reproductive process.

Q32. The direction of the angular velocity vector is along:

• A. The tangent to the circular path
• B. The axis of rotation✓
• C. The outward radius
• D. The inward radius

Explanation: When an object rotates, it has an axis around which it spins. The direction of the angular velocity vector is parallel to this axis of rotation. It tells us the direction in which the object is rotating and how fast it's spinning. So, if you imagine a spinning top, the angular velocity vector would be along the axis that the top is spinning around.

Q33. Slope of work time graph is equal to:

• A. Displacement
• B. Power✓
• C. Acceleration
• D. Energy

Explanation: Slope of W-t graph = W/t = Power

Q34. Choose the word opposite in meaning to "BREVITY":

• A. Succinet
• B. Concise
• C. Confused
• D. Missing✓

Explanation: Antonym for brevity is missing because brevity is the attribute of being brief or fleeting. synonyms: briefness, transience. type of: duration, length. continuance in time.

Q35. Amongst the following, which one is the highest boiling point compound:

• A. Methyle chloride
• B. Methyle fluoride
• C. Methyle bromide
• D. Methyle iodide✓

Explanation: methyl iodide generally has the highest boiling point. Boiling point is a measure of how easily a compound changes from a liquid to a gas. In this case, methyl iodide has stronger intermolecular forces compared to the other compounds, which makes it more difficult for the molecules to break apart and vaporize. As a result, it tends to have a higher boiling point.

Q36. For endothermic reaction:

• A. Forward activation energy < reverse activation energy✓
• B. Forward activation energy = reverse activation energy
• C. Forward activation energy > reverse activation energy
• D. No change

Explanation: In an endothermic reaction, the forward reaction generally requires more energy than the reverse reaction. This means that more energy is needed to initiate and sustain the forward reaction compared to the reverse reaction. It's like the forward reaction absorbs heat or energy from the surroundings, making it endothermic.

Q37. COD of water is checked by:

• A. By adding bacteria to the water
• B. Adding chemical oxidizing agent
• C. Both (A) and (B)✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: To check the Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of water, you typically add bacteria and an oxidizing agent to the water sample. The bacteria help break down the organic matter in the water, while the oxidizing agent helps determine the amount of oxygen required for the oxidation process. By measuring the amount of oxygen consumed, you can determine the COD of the water sample.

Q38. London dispersion forces are psesent only in:

• A. Both polar and non - polar molecules
• B. Non - polar molecules
• C. Polar molecules
• D. Statement is wrong✓

Explanation: London dispersion forces are present in all atoms and molecules, regardless of their size or composition. They are a type of intermolecular force that occurs due to temporary fluctuations in electron density. So, you can say that London dispersion forces are present in all substances.

Q39. "Ontogeny resipitulates phylogeny" the idea was given by:

• A. Dev Vaties
• B. Van Haeckel✓
• C. Lamarck
• D. Oparin

Explanation: "Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" is a phrase associated with the field of evolutionary biology. It was proposed by Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist, who suggested that the development of an individual organism (ontogeny) reflects the evolutionary history of its species (phylogeny).

Q40. Each nasal cavity is lined with mocous membrane of:

• A. Flagellated endothelium
• B. Flagellated epithelium
• C. Ciliated epithelium✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The nasal cavity is lined with a mucous membrane that contains a specialized type of epithelium called ciliated epithelium. This epithelium has tiny hair-like structures called cilia that help move mucus and trapped particles out of the nasal cavity, keeping it clean and clear.

Q41. Raleigh Jean predicted behavior of black body radiations, this predictions came to conclusion that:

• A. Explained with quantum theory
• B. Explained well by mathematical treatment
• C. Failed to explain ultraviolet region✓
• D. Used Einstein's theory of relativity

Explanation: Raleigh-Jean did make predictions about black body radiation, but those predictions couldn't explain the behavior in the ultraviolet (UV) region. It was Max Planck who later developed a new theory, known as quantum theory, which successfully explained the UV behavior.

Q42. A person stops his friend on a bicycle by pulling him opposite to bicycle's motion, the work done by him is:

• A. Negative✓
• B. Positive
• C. Zero
• D. All of the above

Explanation: When a person pulls their friend in the opposite direction of the bicycle's motion, the work done by them is negative. This is because the force they exert is opposite to the displacement of the friend, resulting in negative work.

Q43. Freezing point of a solution as compared to the solvent is:

• A. Lower✓
• B. Variable
• C. Higher
• D. Remain the same

Explanation: The freezing point of a solution is generally lower compared to the freezing point of the pure solvent. This happens because when a solute is added to a solvent, it disrupts the arrangement of the solvent particles, making it harder for them to form a solid structure. As a result, the solution needs to be cooled to a lower temperature in order to freeze.

Q44. The locomotary movement of free swimming organisms or their organs in response to one sided illumination:

• A. Chlamydemonas✓
• B. Mimesa pudica
• C. Oxalis
• D. Crocus

Explanation: The locomotary movement of free swimming organisms or their organs in response to one-sided illumination is called phototaxis. Organisms like Chlamydomonas can exhibit positive or negative phototaxis, moving towards or away from the light source.

Q45. The normal systolic B P of aorta is _

• A. 60 mm Hg
• B. 120 mm Hg✓
• C. 80 mm Hg
• D. 102 mm Hg

Explanation: So, when we talk about the normal systolic blood pressure of the aorta, we're referring to the pressure in the main artery of the body when the heart contracts. A normal reading for this is around 120 mmHg, which stands for millimeters of mercury. This measurement helps us understand the force exerted on the artery walls during each heartbeat.

Q46. The foertal sex becomes apparant during the:

• A. First trimester
• B. Second trimester✓
• C. Third trimester
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: During pregnancy, the fetal sex becomes apparent during the second trimester, which is around the 13th to 16th week of pregnancy. This is when ultrasound scans can often reveal whether the baby is a boy or a girl.

Q47. The dominance of relations of 4 Ooclock plan can he described in terms of:

• A. Complete dominance
• B. Over dominance
• C. Co-dominance
• D. Incomplete dominance✓

Explanation: When we talk about the dominance of relations in the 4 o'clock plant, it can be described in terms of incomplete dominance. This means that neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a blending of traits. It's like a mix of both alleles showing up in the plant's characteristics.

Q48. The concept of entropy was introduced into the study of thermodynamics by:

• A. Clausius✓
• B. Carrot
• C. Pascal
• D. Kelvin

Explanation: Rudolf Clausius, a German physicist, introduced the concept of entropy in the study of thermodynamics. Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system. It helps us understand how energy is distributed and how systems tend to move towards a state of equilibrium. Clausius' work laid the foundation for our understanding of thermodynamic processes and their relationship to entropy.

Q49. One radian is equal to:

• A. 67.3°
• B. 57.3°✓
• C. 87.3°
• D. 60°

Explanation: One radian is equal to approximately 57.2958 degrees. In terms of degrees, a full circle is 360 degrees, and therefore, 2π radians (the circumference of the circle) is equal to 360 degrees. So, 1 radian is approximately equal to (360 degrees / 2π), which is about 57.2958 degrees.

Q50. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Does your tram leaw before eight o'clock?
• B. Does your train leave before eight clock?
• C. Does your train leave before eight o'clock?✓
• D. Do your train leave before eight o'clock?

Explanation: In this corrected sentence: "Does" is the correct auxiliary verb used with a singular subject to form a question in the present tense. "your" is the possessive pronoun, indicating that the train belongs to the person being addressed. "train" is the noun representing the mode of transportation. "leave" is the main verb, representing the action of the train departing or starting its journey. "before eight o'clock" is a prepositional phrase indicating the time when the action (leaving) is happening. With the "Does" correction, the sentence now asks whether the person's train departs or starts its journey before 8 o'clock. It is grammatically correct and properly formed.

Q51. Which one of the following has no sharp melting point?

• A. Gemstone
• B. Calcium oxide
• C. Graphite✓
• D. Diamond

Explanation: When we talk about melting points, we're referring to the temperature at which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid. Most substances have a specific temperature at which this transition occurs, but graphite is a bit different. Instead of melting into a liquid, graphite undergoes sublimation. This means that it goes directly from a solid to a gas when heated, without passing through a liquid phase. So, graphite doesn't have a sharp melting point like other substances. It gradually turns into a gas as it is heated.

Q52. Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization energy?

• A. Cs
• B. Li
• C. He✓
• D. I

Explanation: Helium (He) has the highest first ionization energy. This means that it requires the most energy to remove an electron from a helium atom compared to the other elements listed. The reason for this is that helium has a full valence shell with two electrons, which makes it highly stable. As a result, it takes a significant amount of energy to overcome the strong attraction between the nucleus and the electrons in helium.

Q53. Which of the following is a non typical transition element?

• A. Cr
• B. Mn
• C. Zn✓
• D. Fe

Explanation: Zinc (Zn) is considered a non-typical transition element because it does not exhibit typical transition metal properties like variable oxidation states or the formation of colored compounds. It has a full d subshell in its electron configuration, which sets it apart from other transition elements.

Q54. Neo Darwinism which emphasizes the role of _ in explaining how evolution work.

• A. Paleontology
• B. Genetics✓
• C. Biochemistry
• D. Physiology

Explanation: Neo-Darwinism, also known as the modern synthesis, emphasizes the role of genetics in explaining how evolution works. It combines the principles of Darwinian natural selection with the understanding of genetics, showing how genetic variations and mutations can lead to changes in populations over time. By studying the genetic makeup of organisms, scientists can gain insights into how traits are inherited and how they contribute to the process of evolution.

Q55. Very small value of K indicates:

• A. High yield
• B. No yield
• C. Moderate yield
• D. Low yield✓

Explanation: When the value of K, which represents the equilibrium constant, is very small, it indicates that the reaction has a low yield. This means that only a small amount of the reactants is converted into products at equilibrium.

Q56. Change in heat at constant volume is the measure of:

• A. internal energy✓
• B. Work
• C. Enthalpy
• D. All of the above

Explanation: When we talk about the change in heat at constant volume, we are actually measuring the internal energy of the system. Heat is a form of energy, and when it is added or removed from a system without any change in volume, it directly affects the internal energy of the system. So, the change in heat at constant volume is a measure of the internal energy.

Q57. Ovalates are abundantly present in _

• A. Onion
• B. Potatoes
• C. Guava
• D. Tomatoes✓

Explanation: Ovalates are abundantly present in tomatoes. They are a type of organic acid found in various fruits and vegetables, including tomatoes. Ovalates contribute to the tart taste of tomatoes and can also have health benefits.

Q58. In bone the mature cells are _

• A. Osteoblasts
• B. Osteocytes✓
• C. Osteoclast
• D. Chondocytes

Explanation: In bones, there are different types of cells involved in bone formation and maintenance. Osteocytes are the mature cells that are found within the bone tissue. They play a crucial role in maintaining the health and structure of bones. Osteoblasts, on the other hand, are responsible for bone formation. They are involved in the production of new bone tissue. Both osteocytes and osteoblasts are important for the overall health and function of bones.

Q59. Baroreceptors are found in _

• A. Walls of blood vessels✓
• B. Tongue
• C. Skin
• D. Ear

Explanation: Baroreceptors are primarily found in the walls of blood vessels. They are specialized sensory receptors that detect changes in blood pressure. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors send signals to the brain to initiate mechanisms that help regulate and maintain blood pressure within a normal range.

Q60. 1nm x 1km =

• A. 1um✓
• B. 1mm
• C. 1pm
• D. 1fm

Explanation: When you multiply 1 nanometer (nm) by 1 kilometer (km), you're essentially converting the units. Since there are 1 billion picometers in a meter, and 1,000 meters in a kilometer, you end up with 1 picometer (pm). So, 1 nanometer multiplied by 1 kilometer gives you 1 picometer.

Q61. If the speed of sound and wind are 345 m/s and 30 m/s respectively and is in opposite direction what sound speed is received by the listener:

• A. 332 m/s
• B. 315 m/s✓
• C. 340 m/s
• D. 300 m/s

Explanation: When the wind is blowing in the opposite direction to the sound, it can affect the speed at which the sound waves reach the listener. In this case, if the speed of sound is 345 m/s and the wind is blowing at 30 m/s, the effective speed of sound received by the listener would be 315 m/s. The wind acts as a factor that alters the perceived speed of the sound.

Q62. Which compound show the highest boiling point?

• A. (CH4 - CH2)3 N
• B. C2H3OH
• C. C2H3 - O - C2H3
• D. CH3COOH✓

Explanation: Acetic acid (CH3COOH) has the highest boiling point among the compounds you mentioned. This is because acetic acid can form strong hydrogen bonds between its molecules. These hydrogen bonds require more energy to break, which leads to a higher boiling point compared to the other compounds. Essentially, the stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling point.

Q63. The order of decreasing reactivities of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes is:

• A. Alkanes > Alkenes > Alkynes
• B. Alkynes > Alkenes > Alkanes
• C. Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes✓
• D. Alkenes = Alkynes > Alkanes

Explanation: The order of decreasing reactivities for alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes is as follows: alkynes > alkenes > alkanes. This means that alkynes are the most reactive, followed by alkenes, and then alkanes. Alkynes have a triple bond, which makes them more prone to undergo chemical reactions compared to alkenes (double bond) and alkanes (single bond).

Q64. The oxidation state of Cl in NCLO3 is:

• A. +1
• B. +5✓
• C. -1
• D. +3

Explanation: In the compound NCLO3, the oxidation state of Cl (chlorine) is indeed +5. This means that chlorine has lost 5 electrons and has a positive charge of +5. The oxidation state of an element indicates the number of electrons it has gained or lost in a compound. In this case, chlorine has lost 5 electrons to achieve a more stable state.

Q65. A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA are known as:

• A. Phagosome
• B. Perosome
• C. Polysome✓
• D. Punosome

Explanation: When multiple ribosomes are attached to a single mRNA molecule, it forms a structure called a polysome. This allows for simultaneous translation of the mRNA into multiple protein molecules. It's like a team of ribosomes working together to efficiently produce proteins.

Q66. An ATP molecule is hydrolized into ADP and P and almost _ energy is produced.

• A. 6 kcal
• B. 9 kcal
• C. 8 kcal
• D. 7 kcal✓

Explanation: When an ATP molecule is hydrolyzed into ADP and P, it undergoes a chemical reaction that releases about 7 kilocalories (kcal) of energy. This energy is then available for various cellular processes. It's like unlocking a burst of energy from the ATP molecule.

Q67. The example of Globular potein is:

• A. Hairs
• B. Haemoglobin✓
• C. Muscle cells
• D. Nails

Explanation: Hemoglobin is indeed an example of a globular protein. It's a protein found in red blood cells that helps transport oxygen throughout the body.

Q68. Arctic snow flea work at:

• A. -9oC
• B. 10oC
• C. -10oC✓
• D. 8.0oC

Explanation: Arctic snow fleas are tiny organisms that have adapted to survive in freezing temperatures as low as -10°C. They have special adaptations that allow them to function in such cold conditions. It's pretty impressive how nature has equipped them to thrive in extreme environments.

Q69. Which of tne followingl is electron carrier?

• A. Plastocyonin
• B. Cytochromes
• C. Plastoquinones
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Plastoquinones are molecules that serve as electron carriers in the process of photosynthesis. They help transport electrons during the light-dependent reactions in plants. On the other hand, cytochromes are proteins that also act as electron carriers, specifically in cellular respiration. They play a role in transferring electrons within the electron transport chain to produce ATP. Both are essential for energy production in different biological processes.

Q70. The bacteriophage contains an enzyme called _ which digest the cell wall of bacterium.

• A. Lysozyme✓
• B. Hemagglutinin
• C. Neuraminidae
• D. Integrase

Explanation: The bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria. It uses an enzyme called lysozyme to break down the cell wall of the bacterium it targets. This allows the bacteriophage to enter the bacterial cell and take over its machinery to replicate itself. Lysozyme is like a key that helps the bacteriophage unlock and invade the bacterium. It's a fascinating example of how viruses have evolved to exploit their host's defenses.

Q71. When dielectric is removed from plates of a charged capacitor then electric field between plates:

• A. Remains unchanged
• B. Decreases
• C. Increases✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: When the dielectric is removed from the plates of a charged capacitor, the electric field between the plates generally increases. This is because the dielectric material helps reduce the electric field strength by polarizing and storing charge. Without the dielectric, the electric field becomes stronger. It's like taking away a cushion that was reducing the force between the plates.

Q72. The principle of thin film is based on:

• A. Reflection of light
• B. Division of wavelenght✓
• C. Refraction of light
• D. Division of amplitude

Explanation: The principle of thin film interference is based on the division of wavelengths of light. When light passes through a thin film, such as a soap bubble or an oil slick, it gets reflected and refracted. This causes constructive and destructive interference, resulting in different colors observed. The thickness of the film determines which wavelengths of light interfere constructively or destructively, leading to the colorful patterns we see. It's a beautiful phenomenon.

Q73. _ to get you some water?

• A. Shall you like
• B. Should you like
• C. Would you like✓
• D. Will you like

Explanation: Would like deals with situations that are more purely hypothetical.

Q74. Which one of the following is a gaseous plant homone?

• A. Auxins
• B. Gibberellins
• C. Cytokinis
• D. Ethylene✓

Explanation: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that helps regulate various processes in plants. It's involved in fruit ripening, leaf senescence, and even the response to stress. When plants produce ethylene, it can affect nearby plants, causing them to undergo similar changes. It's like a chemical signal that plants use to communicate with each other.

Q75. An outer flexible covering of cilicates is:

• A. Pelicle✓
• B. Cell wall
• C. Sheath
• D. Cuticle

Explanation: The pellicle is the outer flexible covering found in ciliates, which are a type of microorganism. It acts as a protective layer and helps maintain the shape of the organism.

Q76. _ is a protein found in milk.

• A. Renin
• B. Insulin
• C. Caesin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Casein is a type of protein that is naturally present in milk. It makes up about 80% of the total protein content in cow's milk. Casein has a unique structure that allows it to form clusters called micelles, which give milk its white color and contribute to its nutritional properties. These micelles also help with the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the body. Additionally, casein is often used in the production of various dairy products like cheese and yogurt. It's pretty cool how milk contains different components like casein that serve important roles.

Q77. Chromosomes were first observed in the dividing cell of :

• A. Tadpole Larvae
• B. Frog
• C. Trochophere larvae
• D. Salamander larvae✓

Explanation: When scientists first observed chromosomes in the dividing cells of salamander larvae, they noticed these thread-like structures that contained genetic material. These chromosomes play a crucial role in carrying and passing on genetic information from one generation to the next. They contain DNA, which carries the instructions for building and functioning of living organisms. By studying chromosomes, scientists have been able to gain valuable insights into genetics and how traits are inherited. It's pretty incredible how these tiny structures hold the blueprint of life.

Q78. The substrate for lipase is:

• A. Protien
• B. Urea
• C. Lipid✓
• D. ATP

Explanation: Lipase is an enzyme that helps break down lipids, which are fats and oils. In the absence of lipase, there are other substances that can assist in lipid digestion. For example, bile salts produced by the liver help emulsify fats, making them easier for enzymes to break down. Additionally, pancreatic lipase is another enzyme that plays a crucial role in lipid digestion. So, while lipase is important, there are other substances and enzymes involved in the digestion of lipids.

Q79. In an iron cored coil the core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance of the coil will:

• A. Increase
• B. Initially increase than decrease
• C. Remain the same
• D. Decrease✓

Explanation: When the iron core is removed from a coil, transforming it into an air-cored coil, the inductance of the coil will decrease. The iron core enhances the magnetic field and increases the inductance by providing a path for the magnetic flux. Without the core, the magnetic field is less concentrated, resulting in a lower inductance. It's fascinating how the presence or absence of the core can have such an impact on the coil's inductance!

Q80. Stokes law hold for bodies of:

• A. Spherical shape✓
• B. Oblong shape
• C. Rectangular shape
• D. Curve shape

Explanation: Stokes' Law holds true for bodies that have a spherical shape. It describes the motion of a small spherical particle through a viscous fluid. According to Stokes' Law, the drag force experienced by the particle is directly proportional to its velocity and the viscosity of the fluid, and inversely proportional to the radius of the particle. This law is particularly useful in understanding the behavior of particles in fluids, such as in sedimentation or the motion of droplets. It's fascinating how the shape of an object can influence its interaction with a fluid.

Q81. An electron is projected with a uniform velocity "v" along the axis of a current carrying solenoid, then the electron will:

• A. Be accelerated along the axis
• B. Continue to move with velocity "v" along the axis✓
• C. Move along helical path
• D. Be circular about the axis

Explanation: If an electron is projected with a uniform velocity "v" along the axis of a current-carrying solenoid, it will continue to move in the same direction along the x-axis. The presence of the current in the solenoid creates a magnetic field, and the moving electron experiences a force due to this magnetic field. However, the force acting on the electron is perpendicular to its velocity, so it does not change the direction of motion. As a result, the electron will keep moving along the x-axis with the same velocity. It's interesting how the magnetic field affects the motion of charged particles.

Q82. I saw him opening the door.Choose the correct voice.

• A. He was seen opening the door.✓
• B. He has been opening the door.
• C. He was seen opened the door.
• D. He is seen opening the door.

Explanation: Was seen said as an expression of approval or agreement, or when seeking confirmation of an utterance.

Q83. Amongst the following isomeric alcohols, which one has the highest boiling point.

• A. 2 - Butanol
• B. 1 - Butanol✓
• C. 2 - Methyle → 2 - Proponal
• D. All of these have the same boiling point

Explanation: Among the isomeric alcohols you mentioned, 1-butanol has the highest boiling point because it has a longer carbon chain, which allows for stronger intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding. These stronger forces require more energy to break, resulting in a higher boiling point. On the other hand, 2-butanol and 2-methylpropane have shorter carbon chains and do not exhibit hydrogen bonding to the same extent, leading to lower boiling points. So, it's the carbon chain length and the presence of hydrogen bonding that determine the boiling points of these alcohols.

Q84. Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of:

• A. Primary alcohol
• B. Secondary alcohol✓
• C. Tertiary alcohol
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of secondary alcohols. When a secondary alcohol is oxidized, it loses hydrogen atoms and forms a ketone. Primary alcohols, on the other hand, are oxidized to form aldehydes, while tertiary alcohols cannot be oxidized to form ketones or aldehydes. So, it's the secondary alcohols that are used to prepare ketones.

Q85. In which of the following disaccharides both the basic structural units are the same?

• A. Lactose
• B. Maltose✓
• C. Sucrose
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Maltose is composed of two glucose molecules bonded together. In contrast, lactose consists of one glucose molecule and one galactose molecule, while sucrose is made up of one glucose molecule and one fructose molecule. So, maltose is the disaccharide where both structural units are the same.

Q86. A container containing two moles of liquid ethanol and four moles of oxygen gas were sparked together to form CO2 & H2O. Identify the heating reagent?

• A. Oxygen gas✓
• B. Liquid ethanol
• C. Both A and B
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The heating reagent in this reaction is oxygen gas. When ethanol and oxygen gas are sparked together, they undergo a combustion reaction, resulting in the formation of carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). So, oxygen gas is the heating reagent that reacts with ethanol to produce the desired products.

Q87. Which pigment is universally present in all green plants?

• A. Chlorophyll a✓
• B. Chlorophyll r
• C. Chlorophyll b
• D. Chlorophyll d

Explanation: Chlorophyll a is a pigment found in the chloroplasts of plant cells. It absorbs light energy from the sun, particularly in the blue and red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, and reflects green light, which is why plants appear green to our eyes. This pigment is essential for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into oxygen and glucose. So, chlorophyll a is vital for plants to produce their own food and maintain their green color.

Q88. The giezard is used for crushing food in:

• A. Crocodile
• B. Frog
• C. Tiger
• D. Pigeon✓

Explanation: In the case of a pigeon, the gizzard is the part of their digestive system that helps with crushing and grinding food. Pigeons don't have teeth, so the gizzard, which is a muscular organ, contracts and uses small stones or grit to break down the food they eat. This process helps them extract as many nutrients as possible from their food. So, the gizzard in a pigeon is like a natural food processor.

Q89. Particular amino acid and tRNA molecule binds together by the action of an enzyme named;

• A. RNA Polymerase
• B. tRNA synthetase✓
• C. Aminocyle-tRNA synthetase
• D. tRNA ligase

Explanation: So, when it comes to linking a specific amino acid with its corresponding tRNA molecule during protein synthesis, there's a special enzyme called aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that does the job. It acts like a matchmaker, making sure that the right amino acid is paired with the right tRNA molecule. This process is crucial for building proteins correctly.

Q90. Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the shpere. The net charge on the sphere is then.

• A. Negative and uniform over the surface of the sphere
• B. Zero✓
• C. Negative and at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
• D. Negative and distributed non-uniformly over the enitre surface of the sphere

Explanation: If a positive point charge is placed outside a neutral conducting sphere, the net charge on the sphere will still be neutral. The positive charge outside the sphere does not directly affect the charge distribution on the sphere. The charges inside the conductor redistribute themselves in such a way that the electric field inside the conductor is zero, resulting in no net charge on the sphere. So, the sphere remains neutral.

Q91. The sun is the example where fusion takes place via:

• A. Proton - proton cycle
• B. Carbon- carbon cycle
• C. Co-co cycle
• D. Only A & B✓

Explanation: So, in the core of the Sun, there are high temperatures and pressures that allow for nuclear fusion to occur. The proton-proton cycle is the most dominant fusion process in the Sun, where hydrogen nuclei (protons) combine to form helium nuclei. On the other hand, the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen (CNO) cycle is a secondary fusion process that involves carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen isotopes. Both processes release a tremendous amount of energy, powering the Sun and providing us with warmth and light. It's like the Sun's own stellar power plant.

Q92. In reverse biased diode when huge current starts to flow is called:

• A. Avatanche effect✓
• B. Break down of a diode
• C. Rectification
• D. Negative curent

Explanation: When a large current starts to flow in a reverse biased diode, it is known as the "avatanche effect." This happens when the reverse voltage applied to the diode exceeds a certain threshold, causing a rapid increase in current due to the generation and multiplication of charge carriers within the diode. It's like a cascade or an avalanche of charge carriers.

Q93. I _ an interview becasue I had worked there before.

• A. Didn't had
• B. Needn't have had
• C. Didn't have to have✓
• D. Needn't

Explanation: If we say that somebody didn't have to or didn't need to do something, we mean that the action was not necessary and the person did not do it.If we say that somebody didn't have to or didn't need to do something, we mean that the action was not necessary and the person did not do it.

Q94. Aldehydes undergo:

• A. Electrophilic addition reaction
• B. Substitution reaction
• C. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: So, when aldehydes undergo nucleophilic addition reactions, it means that a nucleophile (a species with a lone pair of electrons) attacks the carbonyl carbon of the aldehyde. This results in the formation of a new bond between the nucleophile and the carbon, while the oxygen atom of the carbonyl group gets a new bond with a hydrogen atom.

Q95. Trichonympha lies in the digestive tract of _ which produces an enzyme that helps in the digestion of wood:

• A. Cattle
• B. Tumefaciens
• C. Human
• D. Termite✓

Explanation: Trichonympha is a tiny organism that lives inside the digestive tract of termites. It's like a little helper for termites because it produces special enzymes called cellulases. These enzymes are super important because they help termites break down and digest wood, which is their main source of food.

Q96. Nitrobenzene reacts with chlorine in the presence of AlCl3, the product obtained is:

• A. m-chloro nitrobenzene✓
• B. o-chloro nitrobenzene
• C. p-chloro nitrobenzene
• D. All of above

Explanation: When nitrobenzene and chlorine come together in the presence of AlCl3, they undergo a chemical reaction. This reaction leads to the formation of chloronitrobenzene as the product. It's like a transformation where a chlorine atom replaces one of the nitro groups on the benzene ring, resulting in a new compound with different properties.

Q97. Thiophene is an example of:

• A. Homocyclic compounds
• B. Heterocyclic compounds✓
• C. Alicyclic compound
• D. Aromatic homocyclic compounds

Explanation: Thiophene is indeed a heterocyclic compound. It consists of a ring structure made up of four carbon atoms and one sulfur atom. This combination of different elements in the ring gives thiophene its unique properties and makes it a part of the heterocyclic family.

Q98. Nowadays, it _ cost a fortune to own a powerful computer.

• A. Hasn't to
• B. Doesn't have to✓
• C. Need
• D. Mustn't

Explanation: Doesn't have" is the contraction of "does not have" and is used with a third-person singular subject (he, she, it) in a sentence.Doesn't have" is the contraction of "does not have" and is used with a third-person singular subject (he, she, it) in a sentence.

Q99. The function of the contractile vacuole in protozoa is:

• A. Osmoregulation✓
• B. Reproduction
• C. Locomotion
• D. Digestion of food

Explanation: The function of contractile vacuole is osmoregulatory. Water in freshwater protozoa enters the organism by endosmosis and during feeding. If the organism does not possess a mechanism to get rid of this excess water, it will swell to the point of rupture and dissolution. The mechanism which is assumed to affect water regulation is the contractile vacuole. The vacuole periodically increases in volume (diastole) to get filled with water and contracts (systole) to discharge its water content to the surrounding environment.

Q100. The organisms attached to the substratum generally possess:

• A. One single opening to the digestive canal
• B. Cilia on the surface to create water current
• C. Radial symmetry✓
• D. Asymmetrical body

Explanation: The organisms attached to the substratum possess radial symmetry in all vertical planes. All the animals belonging to cnidaria (e.g. jellyfish) and echinodermata (e.g. starfish) are radially symmetrical and typically sessile in their adult form. In radial symmetry, the parts in an organ or organism, when cut through the centre in any direction, produce two halves that are mirror images of each other.