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Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2021 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 100 MCQs from Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2021, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT KPK / ETEA past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all KPK / ETEA papers.

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Q1. Albumin is an example of:

  • A. Conjugated proteins✓
  • B. Simple proteins
  • C. Both (A) & (B)
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Albumin is an example of a conjugated protein. It is a type of protein that is combined (or conjugated) with a non-protein component called a prosthetic group. In the case of albumin, it is combined with a heme group, which gives it its characteristic red color. Conjugated proteins have specific functions and play important roles in various biological processes. It's fascinating how proteins can have different structures and functions depending on their composition.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Simple proteins are proteins that are composed solely of amino acids. They do not have any additional non-protein components, such as prosthetic groups or other molecules. Examples of simple proteins include albumins, globulins, and fibrillar proteins like collagen. These proteins have various functions in the body, such as providing structural support, transporting molecules, and facilitating chemical reactions. It's amazing how the building blocks of amino acids can come together to form such diverse and important proteins.
  • C. Incorrect option.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q2. Which one of the following has no cleavage plane?

  • A. Graphite✓
  • B. Nacl crystals
  • C. Copper crystals
  • D. Ice

Explanation: Graphite has a unique structure made up of layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal pattern. These layers are held together by weak forces called van der Waals forces. Because of these weak forces, graphite can easily slide and break apart into thin sheets. This is why it's commonly used in pencils, as the layers can easily leave marks on paper. Unlike minerals with cleavage planes, graphite doesn't have a specific direction along which it naturally splits.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Copper crystals have a face-centered cubic structure, while NaCl crystals have a cubic structure. The arrangement of atoms or ions in a crystal lattice determines its shape and properties.
  • C. Copper crystals have a face-centered cubic structure, while NaCl crystals have a cubic structure. The arrangement of atoms or ions in a crystal lattice determines its shape and properties.
  • D. Incorrect.Graphite has a unique structure made up of layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal pattern. These layers are held together by weak forces called van der Waals forces. Because of these weak forces, graphite can easily slide and break apart into thin sheets. This is why it's commonly used in pencils, as the layers can easily leave marks on paper. Unlike minerals with cleavage planes, graphite doesn't have a specific direction along which it naturally splits.

Q3. Which of the following molecules cannot form hydrogen bonding among themselves?

  • A. CH2O
  • B. CH3CHO
  • C. (CH3-CH2)3N
  • D. All of the above✓

Explanation: All of them cannot form hydrogen bonds among themselves

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. CH2O, also known as formaldehyde, cannot form hydrogen bonding among its own molecules. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) and forms a weak bond with another electronegative atom in a different molecule. In formaldehyde, the hydrogen atom is bonded to carbon, which is less electronegative than oxygen. Therefore, formaldehyde molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other.
  • B. Incorrect. CH2O, also known as formaldehyde, cannot form hydrogen bonding among its own molecules. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) and forms a weak bond with another electronegative atom in a different molecule. In formaldehyde, the hydrogen atom is bonded to carbon, which is less electronegative than oxygen. Therefore, formaldehyde molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other.
  • C. Incorrect.CH2O, also known as formaldehyde, cannot form hydrogen bonding among its own molecules. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) and forms a weak bond with another electronegative atom in a different molecule. In formaldehyde, the hydrogen atom is bonded to carbon, which is less electronegative than oxygen. Therefore, formaldehyde molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other.

Q4. Which element can form super oxides?

  • A. Cs
  • B. Rb
  • C. K
  • D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Alkali metals form oxides (O²⁻), peroxides (O₂²⁻), or superoxides (O₂⁻) depending on their size.Larger cations stabilize larger anions:Li → only forms Li₂O (oxide)Na → forms Na₂O₂ (peroxide)K, Rb, Cs → form superoxides (O₂⁻)Answer: K, Rb, and Cs can all form superoxides.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Cesium (Cs) is an element that can form superoxides. Superoxides are compounds that contain the superoxide ion (O2-), which is formed when an alkali metal, like cesium, reacts with oxygen. It's fascinating how different elements can form various compounds with unique properties.
  • B. False!Cesium (Cs) is an element that can form superoxides. Superoxides are compounds that contain the superoxide ion (O2-), which is formed when an alkali metal, like cesium, reacts with oxygen. It's fascinating how different elements can form various compounds with unique properties.
  • C. False!Cesium (Cs) is an element that can form superoxides. Superoxides are compounds that contain the superoxide ion (O2-), which is formed when an alkali metal, like cesium, reacts with oxygen. It's fascinating how different elements can form various compounds with unique properties.

Q5. The amazing example of genetic and environmental influence on animal behavior is:

  • A. Habituation
  • B. Imprinting✓
  • C. Operant learning
  • D. Insight learning

Explanation: Imprinting is a behavior in which a young animal forms an attachment to another organism or object during a critical period early in life. It demonstrates a clear interaction between genetic predispositions and environmental influences. For example, the classic example is the imprinting of ducklings on their mother shortly after hatching.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Habituation is a form of learning where an animal decreases or stops responding to a stimulus after repeated exposure to it. While habituation involves learning, it is not a clear example of genetic and environmental influences on behavior.
  • C. Operant learning, also known as instrumental conditioning, involves learning through the consequences of behavior. While both genetic and environmental factors can influence operant learning, it may not be as directly tied to genetic predispositions as imprinting.
  • D. Insight learning involves solving problems through insight or understanding, often without trial and error. While both genetic and environmental factors can influence an animal's ability to engage in insight learning, it may not be as clearly tied to both factors as imprinting.

Q6. The fertile time in the menstrual cycle is from:

  • A. 6-8 days
  • B. 9-15 days✓
  • C. 16-22 days
  • D. 22-28 days

Explanation: This is generally considered the fertile window in the menstrual cycle. Ovulation typically occurs around day 14 in a 28-day cycle, and sperm can survive in the female reproductive tract for several days. Therefore, the fertile period includes a few days before ovulation and the day of ovulation itself.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This timeframe typically falls before ovulation and is less likely to be the fertile period. It is less likely for conception to occur during this time.
  • C. This timeframe usually occurs after ovulation has already taken place. The egg has a short lifespan after ovulation, so the chances of conception are lower during this period.
  • D. This timeframe typically falls after ovulation and is less likely to be the fertile period. The egg has already been released, and the fertile window has passed.

Q7. The primitive streak first appears in which labeled stage of embryonic diagram?

  • A. A
  • B. B
  • C. C✓
  • D. D

Explanation: The primitive streak is a key structure that forms during early embryonic development and marks the beginning of gastrulation. Stage C in the diagram represents the point where the inner cell mass begins to differentiate and form the bilaminar disc, which is when the primitive streak first appears as a groove in the epiblast layer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Stage A represents the morula or early blastula stage, which is a solid or hollow ball of cells before any migration or streak formation occurs.
  • B. Stage B represents the late blastula (or early gastrula) stage.
  • D. Stage D represents a later stage of development where the germ layers are established and the neural tube is beginning to form.

Q8. A Plant with heterozygous alleles for height is:

  • A. Dihybrid
  • B. Dual hybrid
  • C. Heterotype
  • D. Hybrid✓

Explanation: A hybrid is an organism that has parents of different breeds, varieties, or species. In this context, a plant with heterozygous alleles for height is a hybrid because it has inherited different alleles for height from its two parent plants, which could be of different varieties or breeds.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Dihybrid refers to an organism that is heterozygous for two different traits governed by different genes, not necessarily related to height
  • B. There is no specific biological term "dual hybrid." It seems to be a combination of "dihybrid" and "hybrid," but it is not a recognized term in genetics.
  • C. Heterotype generally refers to a cell or organism that has different chromosome sets, such as in hybridization, but it is not commonly used to describe the genetic state of an individual plant with heterozygous alleles for height.

Q9. The life time of an electron in state is times more than an ordinary excited state.

  • A. 10^3
  • B. 10^5
  • C. 100
  • D. 10^8✓

Explanation: This option corresponds to the correct answer, indicating a much longer lifetime for an electron in a metastable state compared to an ordinary excited state.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option suggests a relatively short lifetime compared to the correct answer.
  • B. While this option suggests a longer lifetime than option A, it's still much shorter than the correct answer.
  • C. This option also suggests a shorter lifetime compared to the correct answer.

Q10. A train of length 100m is crossing 200m in length, at the speed of 20m/s. What is the time taken by the train crossing the bridge?

  • A. 10 sec
  • B. 15 sec✓
  • C. 20 sec
  • D. 25 sec

Explanation: To calculateSpeed = 20m/sTotal distance = 100m +200m =300mTime = distance/speed = 300/20 =15s

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. To calculateSpeed = 20m/sTotal distance = 100m +200m =300mTime = distance/speed = 300/20 =15s
  • C. To calculateSpeed = 20m/sTotal distance = 100m +200m =300mTime = distance/speed = 300/20 =15s
  • D. To calculateSpeed = 20m/sTotal distance = 100m +200m =300mTime = distance/speed = 300/20 =15s

Q11. Which of the following element same oxidation number in all compounds?

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Fluorine✓
  • C. chlorine
  • D. Both (A) & (C)

Explanation: Fluorine has a consistent oxidation number of -1 in all of its compounds because it is the most electronegative element and always gains one electron.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Oxygen usually has an oxidation number of -2 in most compounds but can exhibit other oxidation states, such as -1 in peroxides (e.g., H₂O₂) and +2 in compounds like OF₂, where it bonds with fluorine. Thus, it doesn’t have the same oxidation number in all compounds.
  • C. Chlorine has variable oxidation numbers, ranging from -1 (as in NaCl) to +1, +3, +5, and +7 in compounds like ClO⁻, ClO₂⁻, ClO₃⁻, and ClO₄⁻, due to its ability to form various oxoanions and different types of compounds.
  • D. Both (A) & (C) is incorrect, as both oxygen and chlorine do not maintain a consistent oxidation number across all compounds.

Q12. Coordination number of an ion in:

  • A. 4✓
  • B. 6
  • C. 8
  • D. 2

Explanation: The coordination number of an ion refers to the number of ions or atoms that surround and are bonded to the central ion in a compound. For example, if an ion has a coordination number of 4, it means that there are four other ions or atoms bonded to the central ion. The coordination number depends on the specific compound and the arrangement of ions or atoms around the central ion.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!The coordination number of an ion refers to the number of ions or atoms that surround and are bonded to the central ion in a compound. For example, if an ion has a coordination number of 4, it means that there are four other ions or atoms bonded to the central ion. The coordination number depends on the specific compound and the arrangement of ions or atoms around the central ion.
  • C. False!The coordination number of an ion refers to the number of ions or atoms that surround and are bonded to the central ion in a compound. For example, if an ion has a coordination number of 4, it means that there are four other ions or atoms bonded to the central ion. The coordination number depends on the specific compound and the arrangement of ions or atoms around the central ion.
  • D. False!The coordination number of an ion refers to the number of ions or atoms that surround and are bonded to the central ion in a compound. For example, if an ion has a coordination number of 4, it means that there are four other ions or atoms bonded to the central ion. The coordination number depends on the specific compound and the arrangement of ions or atoms around the central ion.

Q13. Chances for a son or daughter in human birth is:

  • A. 3:1 between son and daughter
  • B. 1:3 between son and daughter
  • C. 1:1 between son and daughter✓
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: The chances for having a son or daughter in human birth are often estimated to be around 50% for each gender. This means that, on average, there is an equal likelihood of having a son or a daughter. However, it's important to remember that these probabilities are statistical and can vary from individual to individual. Ultimately, the gender of a baby is determined by the combination of genetic factors from both parents.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The chances for having a son or daughter in human birth are often estimated to be around 50% for each gender. This means that, on average, there is an equal likelihood of having a son or a daughter. However, it's important to remember that these probabilities are statistical and can vary from individual to individual. Ultimately, the gender of a baby is determined by the combination of genetic factors from both parents.
  • B. The chances for having a son or daughter in human birth are often estimated to be around 50% for each gender. This means that, on average, there is an equal likelihood of having a son or a daughter. However, it's important to remember that these probabilities are statistical and can vary from individual to individual. Ultimately, the gender of a baby is determined by the combination of genetic factors from both parents.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q14. The process where DNA fragments transferred to nylon sheet on gel fo is called as:

  • A. Southern blotting✓
  • B. Northern blotting
  • C. Western blotting
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: The process where DNA fragments are transferred to a nylon sheet on a gel is called Southern blotting. It's a technique named after its inventor, Edwin Southern. Southern blotting is commonly used in molecular biology to detect specific DNA sequences. It involves separating DNA fragments on a gel, transferring them to a nylon membrane, and then using labeled probes to identify the target sequences. It's a powerful method for studying DNA and genetic information.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Northern blotting is a technique used in molecular biology to study gene expression at the RNA level. It's similar to Southern blotting (which detects DNA), but instead, it detects and analyzes RNA molecules. Northern blotting involves separating RNA molecules based on their size using gel electrophoresis, transferring them onto a membrane, and then using labeled probes to detect specific RNA sequences. This technique allows researchers to study gene expression patterns and analyze RNA transcripts. It's a powerful tool in molecular biology research.
  • C. Western blotting is a technique used in molecular biology to detect specific proteins in a sample. It involves separating proteins based on their size using gel electrophoresis, transferring them onto a membrane, and then using antibodies to detect the target protein of interest. This technique is commonly used to study protein expression, identify protein modifications, and analyze protein-protein interactions. It's a valuable tool in the field of molecular biology.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q15. Which one among the following is double ring structure?

  • A. Cytosine
  • B. Thymine
  • C. Guanine✓
  • D. Uracil

Explanation: Cytosine, thymine, and guanine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. These bases have a single ring structure, not a double ring structure. Adenine and guanine have a double ring structure, while cytosine and thymine have a single ring structure. These bases play a crucial role in the genetic code and the formation of DNA and RNA molecules.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Cytosine, thymine, and guanine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. These bases have a single ring structure, not a double ring structure. Adenine and guanine have a double ring structure, while cytosine and thymine have a single ring structure. These bases play a crucial role in the genetic code and the formation of DNA and RNA molecules.
  • B. Cytosine, thymine, and guanine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. These bases have a single ring structure, not a double ring structure. Adenine and guanine have a double ring structure, while cytosine and thymine have a single ring structure. These bases play a crucial role in the genetic code and the formation of DNA and RNA molecules.
  • D. Incorrect option.Cytosine, thymine, and guanine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. These bases have a single ring structure, not a double ring structure. Adenine and guanine have a double ring structure, while cytosine and thymine have a single ring structure. These bases play a crucial role in the genetic code and the formation of DNA and RNA molecules.

Q16. A container containing two moles of liquid ethanol and the gas of oxygen gas was sparked together to form CO2 & HO2-Identify the limiting reagent?

  • A. Liquid ethanol✓
  • B. Oxygen gas
  • C. Both (A) and (B)
  • D. None of the stove

Explanation: So, in the reaction between liquid ethanol and oxygen gas, we need to figure out which one is the limiting reagent. The limiting reagent is the one that gets completely used up and determines the amount of product formed.To do that, we compare the number of moles of ethanol and oxygen gas. If there are not enough moles of one reactant to fully react with the other, then it is the limiting reagent.And when we compare is liquid ethanol.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. So, in the reaction between liquid ethanol and oxygen gas, we need to figure out which one is the limiting reagent. The limiting reagent is the one that gets completely used up and determines the amount of product formed.To do that, we compare the number of moles of ethanol and oxygen gas. If there are not enough moles of one reactant to fully react with the other, then it is the limiting reagent.And when we compare is liquid ethanol.
  • C. So, in the reaction between liquid ethanol and oxygen gas, we need to figure out which one is the limiting reagent. The limiting reagent is the one that gets completely used up and determines the amount of product formed.To do that, we compare the number of moles of ethanol and oxygen gas. If there are not enough moles of one reactant to fully react with the other, then it is the limiting reagent.And when we compare is liquid ethanol.
  • D. So, in the reaction between liquid ethanol and oxygen gas, we need to figure out which one is the limiting reagent. The limiting reagent is the one that gets completely used up and determines the amount of product formed.To do that, we compare the number of moles of ethanol and oxygen gas. If there are not enough moles of one reactant to fully react with the other, then it is the limiting reagent.And when we compare is liquid ethanol.

Q17. Lenz's law is based on:

  • A. Law of conservation of current
  • B. Law of conservation magnetization
  • C. Law of conservation of charges
  • D. Law of conservation of energy✓

Explanation: Lenz's Law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism. It states that when there is a change in the magnetic field through a conductor, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor, which creates a current that opposes the change in magnetic field. This law is based on the principle of conservation of energy and is used to explain phenomena such as electromagnetic induction and the behavior of electric motors and generators. It's a pretty fascinating concept.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Incorrect.Lenz's Law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism. It states that when there is a change in the magnetic field through a conductor, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor, which creates a current that opposes the change in magnetic field. This law is based on the principle of conservation of energy and is used to explain phenomena such as electromagnetic induction and the behavior of electric motors and generators. It's a pretty fascinating concept.
  • B. Incorrect option.Lenz's Law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism. It states that when there is a change in the magnetic field through a conductor, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor, which creates a current that opposes the change in magnetic field. This law is based on the principle of conservation of energy and is used to explain phenomena such as electromagnetic induction and the behavior of electric motors and generators. It's a pretty fascinating concept.
  • C. The law of conservation of charge states that the total electric charge in a closed system remains constant over time. This means that charge cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or redistributed. It's like a "charge conservation rule" that ensures the total amount of charge in a system remains unchanged. It's a fundamental principle in physics that helps explain the behavior of electric fields and the flow of electric current.

Q18. If absolute temperature of deuterium is made 16 times its normal value, then the speed of the sound waves will increase by a factor of:

  • A. 16✓
  • B. 8
  • C. Speed remains same
  • D. None is true

Explanation: If the absolute temperature of deuterium is increased by a factor of 16, the speed of sound waves in deuterium will also increase by the same factor. This is because the speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. So, if the temperature is increased by 16 times, the speed of sound waves will also increase by the square root of 16, which is 4. Therefore, the speed of sound waves will increase by a factor of 16.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!If the absolute temperature of deuterium is increased by a factor of 16, the speed of sound waves in deuterium will also increase by the same factor. This is because the speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. So, if the temperature is increased by 16 times, the speed of sound waves will also increase by the square root of 16, which is 4. Therefore, the speed of sound waves will increase by a factor of 16.
  • C. False!If the absolute temperature of deuterium is increased by a factor of 16, the speed of sound waves in deuterium will also increase by the same factor. This is because the speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. So, if the temperature is increased by 16 times, the speed of sound waves will also increase by the square root of 16, which is 4. Therefore, the speed of sound waves will increase by a factor of 16.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q19. The addition of hypo-chicrous acid to 1 butene gives:

  • A. 1-chloro 1-butanol
  • B. 2-chloro 1-butanol
  • C. Both (A) and (B)
  • D. None of the above✓

Explanation: When hypochlorous acid (HClO) reacts with 1-butene, the main product formed is 1-chloro-1-butane. In this reaction, a chlorine atom replaces a hydrogen atom in the alkene. The first option mentions 1-chloro 1-butanol, which is incorrect because it suggests the presence of a hydroxyl (–OH) group that does not form in this reaction. The second option, 2-chloro 1-butanol, is also incorrect for the same reason; it implies the formation of a different structure that does not result from the reaction. The third option, stating both A and B, is invalid since neither product is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of the above,' as the actual product is 1-chloro-1-butane, which is not provided in the options.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option incorrectly names the product. The reaction of hypochlorous acid (HClO) with 1-butene leads to the formation of 1-chloro-1-butane, not 1-chloro-1-butanol, as there is no hydroxyl group introduced in this reaction.
  • B. This option is also incorrect. The reaction does not yield 2-chloro-1-butanol since the hypochlorous acid reacts with 1-butene to produce 1-chloro-1-butane, not introducing a hydroxyl group.
  • C. This option is incorrect as both previous options (A) and (B) are not valid products of the reaction between hypochlorous acid and 1-butene.

Q20. Which one is a strong oxidizing agent?

  • A. Mn+4✓
  • B. Mn-1
  • C. Mn+6
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: So, an oxidizing agent is a substance that causes other substances to lose electrons, resulting in oxidation. Mn+4, or manganese in its +4 oxidation state, is a powerful oxidizing agent because it readily accepts electrons from other substances. It's like a "electron magnet" that attracts and takes away electrons during a chemical reaction. This process leads to the oxidation of the other substances involved.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. So, an oxidizing agent is a substance that causes other substances to lose electrons, resulting in oxidation. Mn+4, or manganese in its +4 oxidation state, is a powerful oxidizing agent because it readily accepts electrons from other substances. It's like a "electron magnet" that attracts and takes away electrons during a chemical reaction. This process leads to the oxidation of the other substances involved.
  • C. So, an oxidizing agent is a substance that causes other substances to lose electrons, resulting in oxidation. Mn+4, or manganese in its +4 oxidation state, is a powerful oxidizing agent because it readily accepts electrons from other substances. It's like a "electron magnet" that attracts and takes away electrons during a chemical reaction. This process leads to the oxidation of the other substances involved.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q21. Ethylene Glycol is oxidized into carbolic Acid by:

  • A. Per Iodic acid✓
  • B. Lad tetra acetate
  • C. Acidified KMNO4
  • D. Both (A) (B)

Explanation: When periodic acid (HIO4) reacts with ethylene glycol, it actually oxidizes ethylene glycol into a compound called glycolic acid, not carbolic acid. This reaction involves the transfer of electrons, resulting in the oxidation of ethylene glycol. So, the end product is glycolic acid.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Lad tetra acetate's full name is Lanthanum(III) Diethylenetriaminepentaacetate. It's a compound that contains the lanthanum ion (La3+) and multiple acetate groups. It can be used in various applications, including as a catalyst in chemical reactions or as a precursor for the synthesis of other lanthanide compounds. The complex structure of Lad tetra acetate allows it to exhibit unique properties and reactivity.
  • C. Actified KMnO4 is a mixture of potassium permanganate (KMnO4) and a reducing agent, such as glycerol or sugar. When mixed together, it creates a vigorous reaction, releasing heat and producing a burst of purple flames. It's often used in science demonstrations or pyrotechnics to create a visually striking effect.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q22. Which of the following hydrocarbons give acid base reaction?

  • A. Toluene✓
  • B. 2-butyne
  • C. 1-butyne
  • D. 2-butene

Explanation: EToluene, which is a hydrocarbon, does not typically undergo acid-base reactions. Hydrocarbons are generally considered to be nonpolar and do not contain any functional groups that can donate or accept protons, which are involved in acid-base reactions. However, if toluene is exposed to strong oxidizing agents or undergoes certain chemical transformations, it can be oxidized or undergo other reactions that may result in the formation of acidic or basic products. 🌟

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!Toluene, which is a hydrocarbon, does not typically undergo acid-base reactions. Hydrocarbons are generally considered to be nonpolar and do not contain any functional groups that can donate or accept protons, which are involved in acid-base reactions. However, if toluene is exposed to strong oxidizing agents or undergoes certain chemical transformations, it can be oxidized or undergo other reactions that may result in the formation of acidic or basic products.
  • C. False!Toluene, which is a hydrocarbon, does not typically undergo acid-base reactions. Hydrocarbons are generally considered to be nonpolar and do not contain any functional groups that can donate or accept protons, which are involved in acid-base reactions. However, if toluene is exposed to strong oxidizing agents or undergoes certain chemical transformations, it can be oxidized or undergo other reactions that may result in the formation of acidic or basic products.
  • D. False!Toluene, which is a hydrocarbon, does not typically undergo acid-base reactions. Hydrocarbons are generally considered to be nonpolar and do not contain any functional groups that can donate or accept protons, which are involved in acid-base reactions. However, if toluene is exposed to strong oxidizing agents or undergoes certain chemical transformations, it can be oxidized or undergo other reactions that may result in the formation of acidic or basic products.

Q23. The solid part of the milk produced by coagulation in known as curd and the liquid is known as whey, this whey is used as food source for

  • A. Bacteria:
  • B. Yeast:
  • C. Algae:
  • D. Either (A) or (B)✓

Explanation: Whey, the liquid part of milk that remains after the formation of curds during the cheese-making process, is rich in nutrients and can be used as a food source for various microorganisms, including bacteria and yeast.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Whey contains lactose, proteins, vitamins, and minerals, which can serve as a food source for certain bacteria. For example, some types of bacteria used in yogurt production thrive on lactose present in whey.
  • B. Whey can also be used as a food source for yeast. Some types of yeast, such as those used in fermentation processes to produce bread, beer, or wine, can metabolize the sugars present in whey.
  • C. While algae can grow in various nutrient-rich environments, whey is not typically used as a food source for algae.

Q24. Besides giving out secretary vesicles, Golgi bodies is also concerned with:

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Ribosomes
  • C. Lysosome✓
  • D. Plastids

Explanation: The Golgi apparatus, also known as Golgi bodies, plays a crucial role in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles. One of its significant functions includes the formation of lysosomes, which are essential for intracellular digestion. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that break down waste materials and cellular debris.In contrast, the nucleus serves as the cell's information center and does not relate to the secretory functions of the Golgi apparatus. Ribosomes, while crucial for protein synthesis, are not produced or processed by the Golgi. Plastids are involved in storage and photosynthesis in plant cells and are not associated with the secretion functions of the Golgi apparatus. Therefore, the correct answer is lysosomes, as they are directly linked to the Golgi apparatus's role in cellular organization and function.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The nucleus is the control center of the cell, housing genetic material, but it is not a function of the Golgi apparatus.
  • B. Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis and are not involved in the functions of the Golgi apparatus.
  • D. Plastids are organelles involved in photosynthesis and storage, primarily found in plant cells. They are not related to the functions of the Golgi apparatus.

Q25. Enzymes have a 3D shape due to which type Of protein structure:

  • A. Primary structure
  • B. Secondary structure
  • C. Tertiary structure✓
  • D. Quaternary structure

Explanation: Enzymes have a three-dimensional shape due to their tertiary structure. This structure is formed by the folding and twisting of the polypeptide chain, which is determined by the interactions between amino acids. The specific shape of enzymes is crucial for their function, as it allows them to bind with substrates and catalyze chemical reactions. So, the tertiary structure is like the unique "lock and key" that enables enzymes to carry out their important roles in our bodies.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The primary structure of a protein refers to the specific sequence of amino acids in its polypeptide chain. It's like the "alphabet" that determines the protein's unique identity and function. Each amino acid is connected by peptide bonds, forming a linear chain. The primary structure is crucial because even small changes in the sequence can greatly affect the protein's structure and function. So, it's like the building blocks that determine the protein's characteristics.
  • B. The secondary structure refers to the local folding patterns of a protein. It's like the "twists and turns" that occur in the polypeptide chain. The two common types of secondary structure are alpha helices and beta sheets. These structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the amino acids. So, it's like the protein doing its own little dance moves within its chain.
  • D. The quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple protein subunits to form a functional complex. It's like a team of proteins working together, with each subunit contributing to the overall structure and function. This structure is important for the stability and activity of the complex. So, think of it as a protein teamwork for a common goal.

Q26. All of the following statements are true regarding hepatitis a virus except;

  • A. it is concerned with children✓
  • B. Cause chronic liver disease
  • C. Can cause prolonged illness upto 4 months
  • D. Lives in feces

Explanation: Hepatitis doesn't affect children.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. It causes liver disease.
  • C. It can be prolonged to 4 months.
  • D. it can live in feaces.

Q27. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration:

  • A. Glycolysis✓
  • B. Kreb's cycle
  • C. Synthesizes of acetyl Co-A
  • D. Electron transport chain

Explanation: Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration. It's the process where glucose is broken down into pyruvate, producing energy in the form of ATP. So, it's like the starting point for both fermentation and cellular respiration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a central part of cellular respiration. It takes place in the mitochondria and is involved in the breakdown of acetyl Co-A, derived from glucose and fatty acids, to produce energy in the form of ATP. It's like a power generator for the cell.
  • C. Acetyl Co-A is synthesized through a process called pyruvate decarboxylation. In this process, pyruvate, which is produced during glycolysis, undergoes a series of enzymatic reactions to form acetyl Co-A. This molecule is then used in various metabolic pathways, such as the Krebs cycle, to generate energy. So, it's like a key molecule that helps fuel the cell's energy production.
  • D. The electron transport chain is a process in cellular respiration where electrons from molecules like NADH and FADH2 are passed along a series of protein complexes, creating a flow of electrons. This flow helps generate ATP and ultimately combines with oxygen to form water. It's like a power station that produces energy for the cell.

Q28. The protein that form the matrix of HIV Virus

  • A. gp120
  • B. gp 11
  • C. p17✓
  • D. Both a and b

Explanation: also known as the matrix protein (MA), forms the matrix of the HIV virus, which surrounds the viral core.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Is a glycoprotein found on the surface of HIV and is involved in binding to the host cell receptor.
  • B. There is no known protein named gp 11 associated with HIV.
  • D. because gp120 and gp11 are not both involved in forming the matrix of the HIV virus; only p17 (C) is responsible for this role.

Q29. In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is minimum at:

  • A. Mean position✓
  • B. Extreme position
  • C. Midpoint of mean and extreme position
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is the force that brings an oscillating object back towards its equilibrium position. The equilibrium position is the mean position where the object is neither compressed nor stretched. At this point, the restoring force is minimum because there is no displacement from the equilibrium position. It's like the calm center of a swinging pendulum or a spring at its natural length.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is the force that brings an oscillating object back towards its equilibrium position. The equilibrium position is the mean position where the object is neither compressed nor stretched. At this point, the restoring force is minimum because there is no displacement from the equilibrium position. It's like the calm center of a swinging pendulum or a spring at its natural length.
  • C. False!In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is the force that brings an oscillating object back towards its equilibrium position. The equilibrium position is the mean position where the object is neither compressed nor stretched. At this point, the restoring force is minimum because there is no displacement from the equilibrium position. It's like the calm center of a swinging pendulum or a spring at its natural length.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q30. If force acting on a body is plotted along y s and displacement covered as result is plotted along as, then work done is given by

  • A. Each point on the curve
  • B. Slope of the curve
  • C. Area under the curve✓
  • D. None is true

Explanation: This is the correct option. The work done is equal to the area under the curve on a force-displacement graph. This is because work done is the integral of the force with respect to displacement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option is incorrect because the work done is not determined by individual points on the curve but rather by the overall relationship between force and displacement.
  • B. This option is incorrect because the slope of the curve represents the force at any given point, not the work done
  • D. D is incorrect because, as explained, option C is true – the area under the curve represents the work done

Q31. A person weighting 400N at the surface of earth at particular location. When the same object is taken to a point located at higher attitude then the weight of the same person will be:

  • A. Less than 400 N✓
  • B. Less than 500 N
  • C. Equal to 500 N
  • D. Zero

Explanation: When the same object is taken to a point located at a higher altitude, the weight of the person will be less than 400 N. This is because weight is determined by the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, and as you move away from the surface, the gravitational force decreases. So, at a higher altitude, the person would weigh less than 400 N.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When the same object is taken to a point located at a higher altitude, the weight of the person will be less than 400 N. This is because weight is determined by the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, and as you move away from the surface, the gravitational force decreases. So, at a higher altitude, the person would weigh less than 400 N.
  • C. False!When the same object is taken to a point located at a higher altitude, the weight of the person will be less than 400 N. This is because weight is determined by the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, and as you move away from the surface, the gravitational force decreases. So, at a higher altitude, the person would weigh less than 400 N.
  • D. False!When the same object is taken to a point located at a higher altitude, the weight of the person will be less than 400 N. This is because weight is determined by the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, and as you move away from the surface, the gravitational force decreases. So, at a higher altitude, the person would weigh less than 400 N.

Q32. Which of the following is strongest Lewis base?

  • A. Ethylene
  • B. Acetylene✓
  • C. Benzene
  • D. All have equal strength

Explanation: Acetylene (ethyne) has a triple bond between the carbon atoms, allowing it to donate a pair of electrons more readily compared to ethylene.Therefore, it is the strongest Lewis base among the options given.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Ethylene can act as a Lewis base by donating a pair of electrons from the double bond. However, it is not as strong a Lewis base as acetylene.
  • C. Benzene does not have readily available lone pairs of electrons to donate and is not typically considered a strong Lewis base.
  • D. Acetylene is a stronger Lewis base compared to ethylene and benzene due to the presence of the triple bond, which provides more available electrons for donation.

Q33. Which of the following is not an electrophile?

  • A. Br+
  • B. AlCl3
  • C. NH4✓
  • D. NO3+

Explanation: Ammonium ion (NH4+) is not an electrophile. It is a positively charged species, but it does not have an electron-deficient center that can accept electrons from a nucleophile.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Bromine ion (Br+) is an electrophile because it is electron-deficient and seeks electron-rich species to accept electrons from.
  • B. Aluminum chloride (AlCl3) is an example of a Lewis acid, which can act as an electrophile by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.
  • D. Nitrate ion (NO3+) is an electrophile because it has a positively charged central nitrogen atom with a formal positive charge, making it electron-deficient and capable of accepting electrons from a nucleophile.

Q34. Which of the following compounds is more Reactive?

  • A. Benzene✓
  • B. 1,3 -Dinitrobenzene
  • C. Nitrobutene
  • D. 1,3,5 trinitrobenzene

Explanation: Benzene is reactive because of its delocalized pi electron system. This system of alternating double bonds makes benzene more stable than expected based on its structure. However, it can still undergo reactions such as electrophilic aromatic substitution due to the presence of the electron-rich aromatic ring. These reactions allow benzene to participate in various chemical transformations.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!Benzene is reactive because of its delocalized pi electron system. This system of alternating double bonds makes benzene more stable than expected based on its structure. However, it can still undergo reactions such as electrophilic aromatic substitution due to the presence of the electron-rich aromatic ring. These reactions allow benzene to participate in various chemical transformations.
  • C. False!Benzene is reactive because of its delocalized pi electron system. This system of alternating double bonds makes benzene more stable than expected based on its structure. However, it can still undergo reactions such as electrophilic aromatic substitution due to the presence of the electron-rich aromatic ring. These reactions allow benzene to participate in various chemical transformations.
  • D. False!Benzene is reactive because of its delocalized pi electron system. This system of alternating double bonds makes benzene more stable than expected based on its structure. However, it can still undergo reactions such as electrophilic aromatic substitution due to the presence of the electron-rich aromatic ring. These reactions allow benzene to participate in various chemical transformations.

Q35. Which one of the following contains the most Acidic proton?

  • A. Thiol✓
  • B. Alcohol
  • C. Phenol
  • D. Ether

Explanation: Thiol (R-SH) typically contains the most acidic proton. This is because the sulfur atom in thiol is less electronegative than oxygen in alcohols, making it more willing to donate a proton. The presence of the sulfur atom also stabilizes the resulting thiolate anion through resonance, further enhancing the acidity.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Alcohol is a class of organic compounds that contain a hydroxyl (-OH) functional group attached to a carbon atom. It is commonly found in beverages like beer, wine, and spirits, but it is also widely used in industry and as a solvent. Alcohols can be classified as primary, secondary, or tertiary based on the number of carbon atoms bonded to the carbon bearing the hydroxyl group. They have various physical and chemical properties and can participate in reactions such as oxidation, dehydration, and esterification.
  • C. Phenol is an organic compound that consists of a hydroxyl (-OH) group attached to a benzene ring. It is commonly used in various industrial processes, as well as in the production of plastics, resins, and pharmaceuticals. Phenol also exhibits antiseptic properties and is sometimes used in disinfectants.
  • D. Ether is an organic compound that consists of two alkyl or aryl groups bonded to an oxygen atom. It is commonly used as a solvent and can also be used as an anesthetic. Ether has a wide range of applications in laboratories and industries.

Q36. Bond order for O2+2

  • A. Two✓
  • B. One
  • C. Zero
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: The bond order for O2+2 is two, indicating a double bond.O2+2 is a diatomic molecule with two oxygen atoms. To determine the bond order, we need to calculate the difference between the number of bonding and antibonding electrons and divide by 2.For O2+2:Number of bonding electrons = 10 (5 from each oxygen atom)Number of antibonding electrons = 6 (3 from each oxygen atom)Bond order = (Number of bonding electrons - Number of antibonding electrons) / 2= (10 - 6) / 2= 4 / 2= 2

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. The bond order is not one.
  • C. The bond order is not zero.
  • D. The bond order for O2+2 is indeed two.

Q37. The number of orientation of a sub-shell for Which n-4 and 1=3 is:

  • A. 1
  • B. 3
  • C. 5
  • D. 7✓

Explanation: For the sub-shell with n-4 and l=3, the number of orientations is 7. This is because the number of orientations is given by 2l + 1. In this case, 2(3) + 1 = 7. Each orientation represents a specific arrangement of the sub-shell's electrons.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. For the sub-shell with n-4 and l=3, the number of orientations is 7. This is because the number of orientations is given by 2l + 1. In this case, 2(3) + 1 = 7. Each orientation represents a specific arrangement of the sub-shell's electrons.
  • B. False!For the sub-shell with n-4 and l=3, the number of orientations is 7. This is because the number of orientations is given by 2l + 1. In this case, 2(3) + 1 = 7. Each orientation represents a specific arrangement of the sub-shell's electrons.
  • C. False!For the sub-shell with n-4 and l=3, the number of orientations is 7. This is because the number of orientations is given by 2l + 1. In this case, 2(3) + 1 = 7. Each orientation represents a specific arrangement of the sub-shell's electrons.

Q38. According to Raoult's law relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to:

  • A. mole fraction of the solvaent
  • B. Mole fraction of the solute✓
  • C. Moles of a solvant
  • D. Moles of the solvent

Explanation: According to Raoult's law, the relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute in the solution.Raoult's law describes the relationship between the vapor pressure of a solvent in a solution and the vapor pressure of the pure solvent. It states that the relative lowering of vapor pressure (Δp/Ppure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute (x solute ).Mathematically, it can be expressed as:Δp/ Ppure =x solute

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is not equal to the mole fraction of the solvent.
  • C. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is not directly related to the moles of the solvent.
  • D. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is not directly related to the moles of the solute.

Q39. The alveoli is lined by:

  • A. Cuboidal epithelium
  • B. Squamous epithelium✓
  • C. Columnar epithelium
  • D. Transitional epithelium

Explanation: The alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, are lined by a type of epithelium called squamous epithelium. This lining is made up of thin, flat cells that allow for easy diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of gas exchange in the lungs. This efficient exchange of gases is essential for proper breathing and oxygenation of the blood.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False! The alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, are lined by a type of epithelium called squamous epithelium. This lining is made up of thin, flat cells that allow for easy diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of gas exchange in the lungs. This efficient exchange of gases is essential for proper breathing and oxygenation of the blood.
  • C. False! The alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, are lined by a type of epithelium called squamous epithelium. This lining is made up of thin, flat cells that allow for easy diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of gas exchange in the lungs. This efficient exchange of gases is essential for proper breathing and oxygenation of the blood.
  • D. False! The alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, are lined by a type of epithelium called squamous epithelium. This lining is made up of thin, flat cells that allow for easy diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of gas exchange in the lungs. This efficient exchange of gases is essential for proper breathing and oxygenation of the blood.

Q40. Hag fish belongs To:

  • A. Cartilaginous fishes
  • B. Bony fishes
  • C. Cyclostomes✓
  • D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: Hagfish, also known as cyclostomes, are a type of jawless fish. They have a unique anatomy and behavior compared to cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. Hagfish are known for their slimy secretion and their ability to produce copious amounts of mucus as a defense mechanism. They play an important role in marine ecosystems.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!Hagfish, also known as cyclostomes, are a type of jawless fish. They have a unique anatomy and behavior compared to cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. Hagfish are known for their slimy secretion and their ability to produce copious amounts of mucus as a defense mechanism. They play an important role in marine ecosystems.
  • B. False!Hagfish, also known as cyclostomes, are a type of jawless fish. They have a unique anatomy and behavior compared to cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. Hagfish are known for their slimy secretion and their ability to produce copious amounts of mucus as a defense mechanism. They play an important role in marine ecosystems.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q41. All of the following characteristics applies to cartilage except

  • A. No blood circulation
  • B. mostly contain type li collagen
  • C. They can be shaped
  • D. No inorganic salts✓

Explanation: Cartilage does contain inorganic salts, particularly calcium salts, which contribute to its hardness and rigidity. Therefore, the statement that cartilage has no inorganic salts is incorrect.Cartilage is a connective tissue with certain unique characteristics.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Cartilage has limited blood circulation, which affects its ability to repair and heal compared to tissues with a good blood supply.
  • B. Cartilage primarily contains Type II collagen, which provides structural support and flexibility to the tissue.
  • C. Cartilage is capable of being reshaped to some extent, especially during growth and development, although it is not as readily reshaped as more pliable tissues like muscles or skin.

Q42. The gland that serve as both exocrine and Endocrine is/are:

  • A. Pancreas✓
  • B. Gonads
  • C. Adrenal gland
  • D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: The gland that serves as both an exocrine and endocrine gland is the pancreas. It produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to aid in digestion (exocrine function), and it also produces hormones such as insulin and glucagon that regulate blood sugar levels (endocrine function). The pancreas plays a crucial role in both digestion and maintaining proper blood sugar balance.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Gonads are reproductive organs that play a crucial role in the production of gametes (eggs or sperm) and the secretion of sex hormones. In males, the gonads are the testes, which produce sperm and testosterone. In females, the gonads are the ovaries, which produce eggs and hormones such as estrogen and progesterone. The gonads are essential for sexual development and reproduction.
  • C. The adrenal glands are small, triangular-shaped glands located on top of the kidneys. They are part of the endocrine system and have two main parts: the adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex produces hormones such as cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones, while the adrenal medulla produces adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are involved in the body's response to stress. The adrenal glands play important roles in regulating metabolism, blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and the body's response to stress.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q43. Kirchofrs current law (KM.) Is based upon law Of conservation of:

  • A. Mass
  • B. Energy
  • C. Momentum
  • D. Charge✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of charge. According to KCL, the total current entering a junction in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In other words, charge is conserved at a junction point in a circuit.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Incorrect.Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of charge. According to KCL, the total current entering a junction in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In other words, charge is conserved at a junction point in a circuit.
  • B. Incorrect.Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of charge. According to KCL, the total current entering a junction in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In other words, charge is conserved at a junction point in a circuit.
  • C. Incorrect.Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of charge. According to KCL, the total current entering a junction in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In other words, charge is conserved at a junction point in a circuit.

Q44. If frequency of incident radiation in photoelectric effect is increased beyond threshold frequency, it will effect:

  • A. Stopping potential✓
  • B. Maximum kinetic energy of Photoelectron
  • C. Photoelectric current
  • D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: If the frequency of the incident radiation in the photoelectric effect is increased beyond the threshold frequency, it will affect the stopping potential. The stopping potential refers to the minimum potential difference required to stop the flow of photoelectrons in a photoelectric experiment. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased beyond the threshold frequency, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons increases. As a result, a higher stopping potential is needed to counteract this increased kinetic energy and stop the photoelectrons.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!If the frequency of the incident radiation in the photoelectric effect is increased beyond the threshold frequency, it will affect the stopping potential. The stopping potential refers to the minimum potential difference required to stop the flow of photoelectrons in a photoelectric experiment. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased beyond the threshold frequency, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons increases. As a result, a higher stopping potential is needed to counteract this increased kinetic energy and stop the photoelectrons.
  • C. False!If the frequency of the incident radiation in the photoelectric effect is increased beyond the threshold frequency, it will affect the stopping potential. The stopping potential refers to the minimum potential difference required to stop the flow of photoelectrons in a photoelectric experiment. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased beyond the threshold frequency, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons increases. As a result, a higher stopping potential is needed to counteract this increased kinetic energy and stop the photoelectrons.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q45. Alternating Voltage and alternating have phase difference of 90u with each other in a circuit called:

  • A. Pure capacitive circuit✓
  • B. Pure inductive circuit
  • C. RLC series AC circuit at resonance
  • D. Both (A) & (8) are true

Explanation: In a pure capacitive circuit, the alternating voltage and current have a phase difference of 90 degrees with each other. This means that the voltage and current waveforms reach their maximum and zero points at different times. In a capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. This phase difference occurs because the capacitor in the circuit stores and releases charge, causing the current to flow ahead of the voltage. This behavior is unique to capacitors in AC circuits.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. In a pure inductive circuit, the main component is an inductor. Inductors store energy in the form of a magnetic field. When an alternating current (AC) is applied to a pure inductive circuit, the inductor resists changes in the current by inducing a voltage that opposes the change. This causes the current to lag behind the voltage waveform by 90 degrees. Pure inductive circuits are commonly used in applications such as motors and transformers.
  • C. In an RLC series AC circuit at resonance, the inductive reactance (XL) and capacitive reactance (XC) cancel each other out, resulting in a purely resistive circuit. This means that the impedance of the circuit is at its minimum value, allowing maximum current to flow through the circuit. At resonance, the circuit behaves like a simple resistor.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q46. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor in the presence of insulator having dielectric constant E is C if the dielectric is removed from plates, then new capacitance will be:

  • A. C - E
  • B. E.C
  • C. C + E
  • D. C/E✓

Explanation: The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric is given by the formula C = E * (ε₀ * A / d), where E is the dielectric constant, ε₀ is the permittivity of free space, A is the area of the plates, and d is the distance between them. When the dielectric is removed, the new capacitance reduces to C/E, as the dielectric constant no longer contributes to increasing the capacitance. Thus, removing the dielectric reduces the capacitance by a factor of the dielectric constant. The other options are incorrect because they either incorrectly suggest an increase or do not accurately reflect the relationship between capacitance and the dielectric constant.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option suggests that the new capacitance will be the original capacitance minus the dielectric constant, which is incorrect because removing the dielectric does not decrease capacitance in this manner.
  • B. This option incorrectly implies that capacitance increases by a factor of the dielectric constant when it is removed. In reality, removing the dielectric will lead to a decrease in capacitance.
  • C. This option suggests that capacitance will increase by the value of the dielectric constant. However, removing the dielectric actually reduces the capacitance, making this option incorrect.

Q47. The heavily doped region of a transistor is called:

  • A. Emitter✓
  • B. Base
  • C. Collector
  • D. Anyone can be heavily doped

Explanation: The heavily doped region is called the emitter. It plays a crucial role in the operation of the transistor by emitting majority charge carriers, either electrons or holes, into the base region. This emission helps control the flow of current through the transistor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!The heavily doped region is called the emitter. It plays a crucial role in the operation of the transistor by emitting majority charge carriers, either electrons or holes, into the base region. This emission helps control the flow of current through the transistor.
  • C. False!The heavily doped region is called the emitter. It plays a crucial role in the operation of the transistor by emitting majority charge carriers, either electrons or holes, into the base region. This emission helps control the flow of current through the transistor.
  • D. False!The heavily doped region is called the emitter. It plays a crucial role in the operation of the transistor by emitting majority charge carriers, either electrons or holes, into the base region. This emission helps control the flow of current through the transistor.

Q48. When ethanol Is taken in excess and temperature is kept 1.40C. On dehydration with conc MO, it gives a molecule of:

  • A. Ethene✓
  • B. Ether
  • C. Ethyl hydrogen sulphat
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: When ethanol is dehydrated with concentrated sulfuric acid (conc MO) at a temperature of 140°C, it undergoes a chemical reaction called dehydration. In this reaction, ethanol loses a molecule of water (H2O) to form ethene (C2H4). Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon commonly known as ethylene. It is used in various industrial processes, including the production of plastics and as a ripening agent for fruits.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When ethanol is dehydrated with concentrated sulfuric acid (conc MO) at a temperature of 140°C, it undergoes a chemical reaction called dehydration. In this reaction, ethanol loses a molecule of water (H2O) to form ethene (C2H4). Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon commonly known as ethylene. It is used in various industrial processes, including the production of plastics and as a ripening agent for fruits.
  • C. False!When ethanol is dehydrated with concentrated sulfuric acid (conc MO) at a temperature of 140°C, it undergoes a chemical reaction called dehydration. In this reaction, ethanol loses a molecule of water (H2O) to form ethene (C2H4). Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon commonly known as ethylene. It is used in various industrial processes, including the production of plastics and as a ripening agent for fruits.
  • D. Incorrect option .

Q49. Which sub shell in the fourth transition series is in the process of completion?

  • A. 3d✓
  • B. 4d
  • C. 5d
  • D. 6d

Explanation: In the fourth transition series, the subshell that is in the process of completion is the 3d subshell. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of 10 electrons. As electrons fill up the energy levels, they occupy the lower energy levels first before moving to higher energy levels. So, as the 3d subshell fills up, the transition series is progressing towards completion.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!In the fourth transition series, the subshell that is in the process of completion is the 3d subshell. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of 10 electrons. As electrons fill up the energy levels, they occupy the lower energy levels first before moving to higher energy levels. So, as the 3d subshell fills up, the transition series is progressing towards completion.
  • C. False!In the fourth transition series, the subshell that is in the process of completion is the 3d subshell. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of 10 electrons. As electrons fill up the energy levels, they occupy the lower energy levels first before moving to higher energy levels. So, as the 3d subshell fills up, the transition series is progressing towards completion.
  • D. False!In the fourth transition series, the subshell that is in the process of completion is the 3d subshell. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of 10 electrons. As electrons fill up the energy levels, they occupy the lower energy levels first before moving to higher energy levels. So, as the 3d subshell fills up, the transition series is progressing towards completion.

Q50. The relative atomic mass of neutron is:

  • A. 1.00073
  • B. 1.00087
  • C. 1.0073✓
  • D. 1.0087

Explanation: The relative atomic mass of a neutron is approximately 1.0073 atomic mass units (amu). This value takes into account the mass of the neutron, which is slightly greater than 1 amu due to the presence of other subatomic particles within it. This value is used in calculations involving atomic masses and isotopes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The relative atomic mass of a neutron is approximately 1.0073 atomic mass units (amu). This value takes into account the mass of the neutron, which is slightly greater than 1 amu due to the presence of other subatomic particles within it. This value is used in calculations involving atomic masses and isotopes.
  • B. False!The relative atomic mass of a neutron is approximately 1.0073 atomic mass units (amu). This value takes into account the mass of the neutron, which is slightly greater than 1 amu due to the presence of other subatomic particles within it. This value is used in calculations involving atomic masses and isotopes.
  • D. False!The relative atomic mass of a neutron is approximately 1.0073 atomic mass units (amu). This value takes into account the mass of the neutron, which is slightly greater than 1 amu due to the presence of other subatomic particles within it. This value is used in calculations involving atomic masses and isotopes.

Q51. Which of the following does not show anisotropy?

  • A. Diamond
  • B. Graphite
  • C. Glass✓
  • D. Rock salt

Explanation: Glass is an isotropic material, meaning its properties are the same in all directions. It lacks the ordered crystalline structure that leads to anisotropy in materials like diamond and graphite.Anisotropy refers to the property of a material exhibiting different physical properties along different axes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Diamond exhibits anisotropy due to its crystal structure, which results in variations in hardness and thermal conductivity along different crystallographic directions.
  • B. Graphite is an anisotropic material because its layered structure results in different physical properties along the basal plane and perpendicular to it.
  • D. Rock salt (sodium chloride) is a crystalline material with a cubic crystal structure. It exhibits anisotropy due to differences in physical properties along different crystallographic directions.

Q52. Myxospores are the spores produced by:

  • A. Fungi
  • B. Bacteria✓
  • C. Algae
  • D. Plants

Explanation: Myxospores are actually not spores produced by fungi, but rather by certain groups of bacteria called Myxobacteria. These bacteria are known for their unique life cycle, which involves the formation of myxospores under certain conditions. These myxospores are specialized structures that allow the bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions and then germinate when conditions become more favorable. So, in short, myxospores are produced by Myxobacteria, not fungi.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Myxospores are actually not spores produced by fungi, but rather by certain groups of bacteria called Myxobacteria. These bacteria are known for their unique life cycle, which involves the formation of myxospores under certain conditions. These myxospores are specialized structures that allow the bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions and then germinate when conditions become more favorable. So, in short, myxospores are produced by Myxobacteria, not fungi.
  • C. Myxospores are actually not spores produced by fungi, but rather by certain groups of bacteria called Myxobacteria. These bacteria are known for their unique life cycle, which involves the formation of myxospores under certain conditions. These myxospores are specialized structures that allow the bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions and then germinate when conditions become more favorable. So, in short, myxospores are produced by Myxobacteria, not fungi.
  • D. Myxospores are actually not spores produced by fungi, but rather by certain groups of bacteria called Myxobacteria. These bacteria are known for their unique life cycle, which involves the formation of myxospores under certain conditions. These myxospores are specialized structures that allow the bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions and then germinate when conditions become more favorable. So, in short, myxospores are produced by Myxobacteria, not fungi.

Q53. The rare site of infection in urinary tract is:

  • A. Ureter✓
  • B. Urethra
  • C. Urinary bladde
  • D. Pelvis

Explanation: The rare site of infection in the urinary tract is the ureter. The ureter is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Infections in the ureter are less common compared to other parts of the urinary tract, such as the bladder or urethra.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!The rare site of infection in the urinary tract is the ureter. The ureter is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Infections in the ureter are less common compared to other parts of the urinary tract, such as the bladder or urethra.
  • C. False!The rare site of infection in the urinary tract is the ureter. The ureter is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Infections in the ureter are less common compared to other parts of the urinary tract, such as the bladder or urethra.
  • D. False!The rare site of infection in the urinary tract is the ureter. The ureter is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Infections in the ureter are less common compared to other parts of the urinary tract, such as the bladder or urethra.

Q54. Tactition receptors are abundant in human:

  • A. Sole✓
  • B. Lips
  • C. Back of the hand
  • D. Palm

Explanation: Tactition receptors are abundant in the human sole, which is the bottom part of the foot. These receptors are responsible for detecting and relaying information about touch and pressure sensations. They help us perceive textures, balance, and navigate our surroundings. So, the sole of the foot is an important area for tactile sensitivity.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Tactition receptors are abundant in the human sole, which is the bottom part of the foot. These receptors are responsible for detecting and relaying information about touch and pressure sensations. They help us perceive textures, balance, and navigate our surroundings. So, the sole of the foot is an important area for tactile sensitivity.
  • C. Tactition receptors are abundant in the human sole, which is the bottom part of the foot. These receptors are responsible for detecting and relaying information about touch and pressure sensations. They help us perceive textures, balance, and navigate our surroundings. So, the sole of the foot is an important area for tactile sensitivity.
  • D. Tactition receptors are abundant in the human sole, which is the bottom part of the foot. These receptors are responsible for detecting and relaying information about touch and pressure sensations. They help us perceive textures, balance, and navigate our surroundings. So, the sole of the foot is an important area for tactile sensitivity.

Q55. Which one among the following is an unpaired facial bones?

  • A. Maxilla
  • B. Lacrimal
  • C. Mandible✓
  • D. Palatine

Explanation: The mandible is the correct answer. It is the only unpaired facial bone and forms the lower jaw

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The maxilla is not an unpaired facial bone; it is paired, forming the upper jaw.
  • B. The lacrimal bone is not an unpaired facial bone; it is paired and contributes to the eye socket (orbit).
  • D. The palatine bone is not an unpaired facial bone; it is paired and contributes to the hard palate and the floor of the nasal cavity.

Q56. A step down transformer:

  • A. Increases the output current
  • B. Increases the output power
  • C. Increases the output voltage✓
  • D. Decreases the output power

Explanation: Actually, a step-down transformer decreases the output current while increasing the output voltage. It works by having more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil, which results in a higher voltage and lower current in the secondary coil.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Actually, a step-down transformer decreases the output current while increasing the output voltage. It works by having more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil, which results in a higher voltage and lower current in the secondary coil.
  • B. Actually, a step-down transformer decreases the output current while increasing the output voltage. It works by having more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil, which results in a higher voltage and lower current in the secondary coil.
  • D. Actually, a step-down transformer decreases the output current while increasing the output voltage. It works by having more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil, which results in a higher voltage and lower current in the secondary coil.

Q57. The example of atrichious bacteria is:

  • A. Bacill✓
  • B. Spirilla
  • C. Vibrio
  • D. Cocci

Explanation: Bacillus is an example of bacteria that can be atrichous, meaning they do not have flagella or hair-like structures for movement. These bacteria are typically rod-shaped and can be found in various environments.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!Bacillus is an example of bacteria that can be atrichous, meaning they do not have flagella or hair-like structures for movement. These bacteria are typically rod-shaped and can be found in various environments.
  • C. False!Bacillus is an example of bacteria that can be atrichous, meaning they do not have flagella or hair-like structures for movement. These bacteria are typically rod-shaped and can be found in various environments.
  • D. False!Bacillus is an example of bacteria that can be atrichous, meaning they do not have flagella or hair-like structures for movement. These bacteria are typically rod-shaped and can be found in various environments.

Q58. The female reproductive cells in bryophytes Is called:

  • A. Archegonium✓
  • B. Egg
  • C. Oosphere
  • D. Both (B) & (C)

Explanation: In bryophytes, the archegonium is the structure that contains the egg cell. It is a flask-shaped structure with a long neck and a swollen base. The neck of the archegonium allows the entry of sperm, which fertilizes the egg. After fertilization, the archegonium protects and nourishes the developing embryo. It's a fascinating part of the reproductive process in bryophytes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!In bryophytes, the archegonium is the structure that contains the egg cell. It is a flask-shaped structure with a long neck and a swollen base. The neck of the archegonium allows the entry of sperm, which fertilizes the egg. After fertilization, the archegonium protects and nourishes the developing embryo. It's a fascinating part of the reproductive process in bryophytes.
  • C. False!In bryophytes, the archegonium is the structure that contains the egg cell. It is a flask-shaped structure with a long neck and a swollen base. The neck of the archegonium allows the entry of sperm, which fertilizes the egg. After fertilization, the archegonium protects and nourishes the developing embryo. It's a fascinating part of the reproductive process in bryophytes.
  • D. In bryophytes, the archegonium is the structure that contains the egg cell. It is a flask-shaped structure with a long neck and a swollen base. The neck of the archegonium allows the entry of sperm, which fertilizes the egg. After fertilization, the archegonium protects and nourishes the developing embryo. It's a fascinating part of the reproductive process in bryophytes.

Q59. The characteristics displayed by protozoa are most closely similar to the characteristics of:

  • A. Plants
  • B. Bacteria
  • C. Animal✓
  • D. Viruses

Explanation: Protozoa actually have characteristics that are more closely similar to animals rather than plants. While plants are multicellular, have cell walls, and undergo photosynthesis, protozoa are single-celled organisms that lack cell walls and obtain their energy by consuming other organisms. They exhibit animal-like behaviors such as locomotion and feeding.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Protozoa actually have characteristics that are more closely similar to animals rather than plants. While plants are multicellular, have cell walls, and undergo photosynthesis, protozoa are single-celled organisms that lack cell walls and obtain their energy by consuming other organisms. They exhibit animal-like behaviors such as locomotion and feeding.
  • B. False!Protozoa actually have characteristics that are more closely similar to animals rather than plants and bacteria. While plants are multicellular, have cell walls, and undergo photosynthesis, protozoa are single-celled organisms that lack cell walls and obtain their energy by consuming other organisms. They exhibit animal-like behaviors such as locomotion and feeding.
  • D. False!Protozoa actually have characteristics that are more closely similar to animals rather than plants bacteria and virus..While plants are multicellular, have cell walls, and undergo photosynthesis, protozoa are single-celled organisms that lack cell walls and obtain their energy by consuming other organisms. They exhibit animal-like behaviors such as locomotion and feeding.

Q60. The largest phylum of animals is:

  • A. Annelida
  • B. Arthropoda✓
  • C. Chordata
  • D. Coelenterata

Explanation: The largest phylum of animals is the phylum Arthropoda. It includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other joint-legged organisms. Arthropods are incredibly diverse and can be found in various habitats around the world.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The largest phylum of animals is the phylum Arthropoda. It includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other joint-legged organisms. Arthropods are incredibly diverse and can be found in various habitats around the world.
  • C. The largest phylum of animals is the phylum Arthropoda. It includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other joint-legged organisms. Arthropods are incredibly diverse and can be found in various habitats around the world.
  • D. The largest phylum of animals is the phylum Arthropoda. It includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other joint-legged organisms. Arthropods are incredibly diverse and can be found in various habitats around the world.

Q61. When electromagnetic radiation falls on a surface, then the angle between reflected light and refracted light is 90 deg at an angle, called:

  • A. Critical angle
  • B. At any angle, both rays are perpendicular
  • C. Brewster's angle✓
  • D. Inclination angle

Explanation: Brewster's angle is the angle of incidence at which the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. This angle occurs when light is incident on a surface at a specific angle such that the reflected light becomes completely polarized and the refracted light is purely transmitted.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The critical angle is the angle of incidence at which the angle of refraction is 90 degrees, causing the refracted ray to travel along the surface of the medium. This phenomenon occurs when light is traveling from a denser medium to a less dense m
  • B. This statement is incorrect. At Brewster's angle, the angle between the reflected and refracted rays is 90 degrees, but at other angles of incidence, this relationship does not hold true.
  • D. This term is not commonly used in the context of optics. The correct term for the angle described in the question is Brewster's angle.

Q62. One up quark and 2 down quarks. when Combine, make a:

  • A. Neutron✓
  • B. Proton
  • C. Electron
  • D. Positron

Explanation: When one up quark and two down quarks combine, they form a neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of atoms. They have no electric charge and are slightly heavier than protons. Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When one up quark and two down quarks combine, they form a neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of atoms. They have no electric charge and are slightly heavier than protons. Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.
  • C. False!When one up quark and two down quarks combine, they form a neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of atoms. They have no electric charge and are slightly heavier than protons. Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.
  • D. False!When one up quark and two down quarks combine, they form a neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of atoms. They have no electric charge and are slightly heavier than protons. Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.

Q63. Reluctance of a ferromagnetic material is for a conductor to the:

  • A. Resistance✓
  • B. Conductance
  • C. Inductance
  • D. Capacitance

Explanation: The reluctance of a ferromagnetic material is similar to the resistance of a conductor. Just as resistance opposes the flow of electric current in a conductor, reluctance opposes the flow of magnetic flux in a ferromagnetic material. It's like a resistance to the magnetic field.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Conductance is the measure of how easily electric current can flow through a material. It is the reciprocal of resistance and is measured in siemens (S). High conductance means low resistance to the flow of current, while low conductance means high resistance. Conductance is an important concept in understanding the behavior of electrical circuits and is used in various applications, such as in designing efficient conductors and optimizing power transmission.
  • C. Inductance is another important property in the field of electronics. It is a measure of how an electrical conductor, typically a coil of wire, opposes changes in the current flowing through it. When the current through an inductor changes, it induces a voltage that opposes that change. This property is used in various applications, such as inductors in electronic circuits, transformers, and motors. Inductance is measured in henries (H).
  • D. Capacitance is a property of a capacitor, which is a device used to store electrical energy. It represents the ability of a capacitor to store charge when a voltage is applied across its terminals. The capacitance is measured in farads (F) and is determined by the physical characteristics of the capacitor, such as its size, shape, and the type of dielectric material used. Capacitors are commonly used in electronic circuits for various purposes, such as energy storage, filtering, and timing.

Q64. The volume occupied by 1.6 g of O2 at S.T.P is:

  • A. 2.24dm3✓
  • B. 1.12dm3
  • C. 22.4dm3
  • D. 24dm3

Explanation: To find the volume of 1.6 g of O2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT. At STP, the pressure is 1 atm and the temperature is 273 K. Given that the molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles of O2 using the mass provided. By rearranging the equation, we can then solve for the volume.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False! To find the volume of 1.6 g of O2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT. At STP, the pressure is 1 atm and the temperature is 273 K. Given that the molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles of O2 using the mass provided. By rearranging the equation, we can then solve for the volume.
  • C. False! To find the volume of 1.6 g of O2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT. At STP, the pressure is 1 atm and the temperature is 273 K. Given that the molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles of O2 using the mass provided. By rearranging the equation, we can then solve for the volume.
  • D. False! To find the volume of 1.6 g of O2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT. At STP, the pressure is 1 atm and the temperature is 273 K. Given that the molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles of O2 using the mass provided. By rearranging the equation, we can then solve for the volume.

Q65. The bond order of H2+ is.

  • A. 1/2✓
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 1.5

Explanation: The bond order of H2+ is 1/2. This means that the molecule has a half-filled bonding orbital. The bond order is calculated by taking the difference between the number of bonding electrons and the number of anti-bonding electrons and dividing it by 2. In the case of H2+, there is only one bonding electron and no anti-bonding electrons, resulting in a bond order of 1/2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!The bond order of H2+ is 1/2. This means that the molecule has a half-filled bonding orbital. The bond order is calculated by taking the difference between the number of bonding electrons and the number of anti-bonding electrons and dividing it by 2. In the case of H2+, there is only one bonding electron and no anti-bonding electrons, resulting in a bond order of 1/2.
  • C. False!The bond order of H2+ is 1/2. This means that the molecule has a half-filled bonding orbital. The bond order is calculated by taking the difference between the number of bonding electrons and the number of anti-bonding electrons and dividing it by 2. In the case of H2+, there is only one bonding electron and no anti-bonding electrons, resulting in a bond order of 1/2.
  • D. False!The bond order of H2+ is 1/2. This means that the molecule has a half-filled bonding orbital. The bond order is calculated by taking the difference between the number of bonding electrons and the number of anti-bonding electrons and dividing it by 2. In the case of H2+, there is only one bonding electron and no anti-bonding electrons, resulting in a bond order of 1/2.

Q66. For endothermic reaction:

  • A. Forward activation energy < reverse activation energy
  • B. Forward activation energy = reverse activation energy
  • C. Forward activation energy > reverse activation energy✓
  • D. No change

Explanation: In an endothermic reaction, the forward reaction generally requires more energy than the reverse reaction. This means that more energy is needed to initiate and sustain the forward reaction compared to the reverse reaction. It's like the forward reaction absorbs heat or energy from the surroundings, making it endothermic.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. In an endothermic reaction, the forward reaction generally requires more energy than the reverse reaction. This means that more energy is needed to initiate and sustain the forward reaction compared to the reverse reaction. It's like the forward reaction absorbs heat or energy from the surroundings, making it endothermic.
  • B. In an endothermic reaction, the forward reaction generally requires more energy than the reverse reaction. This means that more energy is needed to initiate and sustain the forward reaction compared to the reverse reaction. It's like the forward reaction absorbs heat or energy from the surroundings, making it endothermic.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q67. Three capacitors each of capacitance 2uF are connected in parallel to a 12V battery. Their Equivalent capacitance is:

  • A. 6✓
  • B. 9
  • C. 12
  • D. 18

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance is the sum of their individual capacitances. In this case, since you have three capacitors, each with a capacitance of 2uF, the equivalent capacitance would be 6uF.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When capacitors are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance is the sum of their individual capacitances. In this case, since you have three capacitors, each with a capacitance of 2uF, the equivalent capacitance would be 6uF.
  • C. False!When capacitors are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance is the sum of their individual capacitances. In this case, since you have three capacitors, each with a capacitance of 2uF, the equivalent capacitance would be 6uF.
  • D. False!When capacitors are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance is the sum of their individual capacitances. In this case, since you have three capacitors, each with a capacitance of 2uF, the equivalent capacitance would be 6uF.

Q68. 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene on ozonolysts gives:

  • A. 2-Pentanone✓
  • B. pentanol
  • C. 3-Pentanone and Ethanal
  • D. 7-Heptanone

Explanation: When 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene undergoes ozonolysis, it reacts with ozone (O3) to form two pentanone molecules. This reaction involves the breaking of the carbon-carbon double bond in 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene and the addition of oxygen atoms from ozone to the resulting carbons. This leads to the formation of two pentanone molecules, which are ketones with five carbon atoms.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene undergoes ozonolysis, it reacts with ozone (O3) to form two pentanone molecules. This reaction involves the breaking of the carbon-carbon double bond in 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene and the addition of oxygen atoms from ozone to the resulting carbons. This leads to the formation of two pentanone molecules, which are ketones with five carbon atoms.
  • C. False!When 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene undergoes ozonolysis, it reacts with ozone (O3) to form two pentanone molecules. This reaction involves the breaking of the carbon-carbon double bond in 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene and the addition of oxygen atoms from ozone to the resulting carbons. This leads to the formation of two pentanone molecules, which are ketones with five carbon atoms.
  • D. False!When 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene undergoes ozonolysis, it reacts with ozone (O3) to form two pentanone molecules. This reaction involves the breaking of the carbon-carbon double bond in 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene and the addition of oxygen atoms from ozone to the resulting carbons. This leads to the formation of two pentanone molecules, which are ketones with five carbon atoms.

Q69. CH3MgBr reacts with CH2O to give:

  • A. 10 Alcohol✓
  • B. 20 Alcohol
  • C. 30 Alcohol
  • D. Carboxylic acid

Explanation: When CH3MgBr, which is methylmagnesium bromide, reacts with CH2O, which is formaldehyde, it undergoes a nucleophilic addition reaction. In this reaction, the methyl group from CH3MgBr adds to the carbon atom of the carbonyl group in CH2O, resulting in the formation of a primary alcohol. The primary alcohol has the hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to only one other carbon atom.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. A secondary alcohol is a type of alcohol where the carbon atom attached to the hydroxyl group (-OH) is bonded to two other carbon atoms. It has one hydrogen atom attached to the carbon atom. Secondary alcohols have the general formula R2CHOH, where R represents any alkyl or aryl group. They are moderately reactive and can undergo oxidation reactions to form ketones.
  • C. A tertiary alcohol is a type of alcohol where the carbon atom attached to the hydroxyl group (-OH) is bonded to three other carbon atoms. It does not have any hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon atom. Tertiary alcohols have the general formula R3COH, where R represents any alkyl or aryl group. They are typically more stable and less reactive compared to primary and secondary alcohols.
  • D. False! When CH3MgBr, which is methylmagnesium bromide, reacts with CH2O, which is formaldehyde, it undergoes a nucleophilic addition reaction. In this reaction, the methyl group from CH3MgBr adds to the carbon atom of the carbonyl group in CH2O, resulting in the formation of a primary alcohol. The primary alcohol has the hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to only one other carbon atom.

Q70. Which oxidizing agent is used in oxidation of Aldehydes into carboxylic acids?

  • A. Acidified KMnO4
  • B. Acidified K2Cr2O7
  • C. Ag2O
  • D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Both A and B because both acidified KMnO4 and acidified K2Cr2O7 are strong oxidizing agents capable of oxidizing aldehydes to carboxylic acids. Acidified KMnO4 is commonly used in organic synthesis due to its effectiveness and availability. Acidified K2Cr2O7, another strong oxidizing agent, is also effective in achieving this transformation. On the other hand, Ag2O is not suitable for this particular oxidation reaction, which is why it is incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Acidified KMnO4 is a strong oxidizing agent that can effectively oxidize aldehydes to carboxylic acids.
  • B. Acidified K2Cr2O7 is also a strong oxidizing agent that can convert aldehydes into carboxylic acids.
  • C. Silver oxide (Ag2O) is not typically used for the oxidation of aldehydes to carboxylic acids and is less effective compared to the options above.

Q71. Which is the most stable hydrocartion?

  • A. cis-2-butene
  • B. Isobutylene
  • C. trans-2-butene✓
  • D. 1-butene

Explanation: trans-2-butene is the most stable option among the given choices because it has a straight-chain configuration with no steric hindrance.The stability of hydrocarbons is influenced by factors such as the degree of substitution and the presence of geometric isomers.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. is less stable than trans-2-butene due to steric hindrance caused by the cis configuration.
  • B. Isobutylene or 2-methylpropene, has branching, making it less stable than trans-2-butene due to increased steric hindrance
  • D. 1-butene is less stable than trans-2-butene due to the absence of substitution on the carbon atoms, resulting in less electron delocalization and stability.

Q72. In mitochondrial DNA the codon AGG codes For:

  • A. Arginine✓
  • B. Tryptophan
  • C. Methionine Stop Codon
  • D. 1-butene.

Explanation: In mitochondrial DNA, the codon AGG indeed codes for the amino acid arginine. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis. AGG is one of the codons that specifically codes for arginine. Mitochondrial DNA plays a crucial role in the production of proteins essential for mitochondrial function.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!In mitochondrial DNA, the codon AGG indeed codes for the amino acid arginine. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis. AGG is one of the codons that specifically codes for arginine. Mitochondrial DNA plays a crucial role in the production of proteins essential for mitochondrial function.
  • C. False!In mitochondrial DNA, the codon AGG indeed codes for the amino acid arginine. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis. AGG is one of the codons that specifically codes for arginine. Mitochondrial DNA plays a crucial role in the production of proteins essential for mitochondrial function.
  • D. False!In mitochondrial DNA, the codon AGG indeed codes for the amino acid arginine. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis. AGG is one of the codons that specifically codes for arginine. Mitochondrial DNA plays a crucial role in the production of proteins essential for mitochondrial function.

Q73. The term survival of fittest was used By:

  • A. Lamarck
  • B. Charles Darwin
  • C. Herbert spencer✓
  • D. Aristotle

Explanation: The term "survival of the fittest" was used by Herbert Spencer, an English philosopher and scientist. It is closely related to Charles Darwin's theory of natural selection. The phrase suggests that individuals who are best suited to their environment and possess advantageous traits have a greater likelihood of survival and passing on those traits to their offspring. It's all about the idea that the most adaptable and well-suited organisms are more likely to thrive in their surroundings.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Lamarck! Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French biologist who proposed an early theory of evolution before Charles Darwin. Lamarck suggested that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime could be passed down to future generations. While his ideas were influential at the time, they have been largely discredited in modern biology. Darwin's theory of natural selection, which emphasizes the role of inherited traits and variation, has become the prevailing explanation for the diversity of life.
  • B. Charles Darwin was an English naturalist who is best known for his theory of evolution through natural selection. He proposed that species evolve over time through a process of gradual changes in response to their environment. Darwin's work, particularly his book "On the Origin of Species," revolutionized our understanding of the diversity of life on Earth. His theory had a profound impact on the fields of biology, paleontology, and genetics. Darwin's ideas continue to be widely accepted and studied, shaping our understanding of the natural world.
  • D. Aristotle was an ancient Greek philosopher who made significant contributions to various fields, including philosophy, science, and logic. He was a student of Plato and a teacher of Alexander the Great. Aristotle's works covered a wide range of topics, including ethics, politics, metaphysics, biology, and physics. He emphasized the importance of observation and empirical evidence in understanding the natural world. Aristotle's ideas and teachings have had a profound influence on Western philosophy and continue to be studied and debated to this day.

Q74. The nitrogen gas can be fixed spontaneously By:

  • A. Industrial fixation✓
  • B. Biological fixation
  • C. Atmospheric fixation
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: In industrial fixation, nitrogen gas (N2) is converted into a usable form, such as ammonia (NH3), through a process called the Haber-Bosch process. This process involves combining nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas under high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst. The resulting ammonia can then be used as a fertilizer or in the production of various chemical compounds. Industrial fixation plays a crucial role in providing the nitrogen needed for agriculture and other industries.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!In industrial fixation, nitrogen gas (N2) is converted into a usable form, such as ammonia (NH3), through a process called the Haber-Bosch process. This process involves combining nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas under high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst. The resulting ammonia can then be used as a fertilizer or in the production of various chemical compounds. Industrial fixation plays a crucial role in providing the nitrogen needed for agriculture and other industries.
  • C. False!In industrial fixation, nitrogen gas (N2) is converted into a usable form, such as ammonia (NH3), through a process called the Haber-Bosch process. This process involves combining nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas under high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst. The resulting ammonia can then be used as a fertilizer or in the production of various chemical compounds. Industrial fixation plays a crucial role in providing the nitrogen needed for agriculture and other industries.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q75. The source of restriction enzyme Sam 1 is:

  • A. Streptomyces achrmpogene
  • B. Serratia marcescens✓
  • C. Streptococcus pyogens
  • D. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: So, the restriction enzyme SmaI, which stands for Serratia marcescens enzyme, is derived from the bacterium Serratia marcescens. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology research to cut DNA at specific recognition sites. It recognizes the sequence 5'-CCCGGG-3' and cuts between the second and third C residues. This process is important for DNA manipulation and analysis in various experiments.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!So, the restriction enzyme SmaI, which stands for Serratia marcescens enzyme, is derived from the bacterium Serratia marcescens. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology research to cut DNA at specific recognition sites. It recognizes the sequence 5'-CCCGGG-3' and cuts between the second and third C residues. This process is important for DNA manipulation and analysis in various experiments.
  • C. False!So, the restriction enzyme SmaI, which stands for Serratia marcescens enzyme, is derived from the bacterium Serratia marcescens. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology research to cut DNA at specific recognition sites. It recognizes the sequence 5'-CCCGGG-3' and cuts between the second and third C residues. This process is important for DNA manipulation and analysis in various experiments.
  • D. False!So, the restriction enzyme SmaI, which stands for Serratia marcescens enzyme, is derived from the bacterium Serratia marcescens. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology research to cut DNA at specific recognition sites. It recognizes the sequence 5'-CCCGGG-3' and cuts between the second and third C residues. This process is important for DNA manipulation and analysis in various experiments.

Q76. Consider a projectile thrown initially at a. speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 760 from horizontal: When it reaches the highest point of its trajectory, angle between its velocity and acceleration is;

  • A. 0o
  • B. 45o
  • C. 90o✓
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: When the projectile reaches the highest point of its trajectory, the angle between its velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. This is because at the highest point, the velocity is purely horizontal and the acceleration due to gravity acts vertically downward. The two vectors are perpendicular to each other, resulting in a 90-degree angle.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. When the projectile reaches the highest point of its trajectory, the angle between its velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. This is because at the highest point, the velocity is purely horizontal and the acceleration due to gravity acts vertically downward. The two vectors are perpendicular to each other, resulting in a 90-degree angle.
  • B. False!When the projectile reaches the highest point of its trajectory, the angle between its velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. This is because at the highest point, the velocity is purely horizontal and the acceleration due to gravity acts vertically downward. The two vectors are perpendicular to each other, resulting in a 90-degree angle.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q77. Assembly of two subunit 40S and 60S of the Ribosomes is:

  • A. 70S unit
  • B. 80S unit✓
  • C. 90S unit
  • D. 100S unit

Explanation: The correct answer is the 80S unit, which is formed by the assembly of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits in eukaryotic cells. Each subunit has a specific role in protein synthesis: the 40S subunit is responsible for decoding the mRNA, while the 60S subunit facilitates peptide bond formation. Together, they create a functional ribosome essential for translating genetic information into proteins.Option A (70S unit) refers to the ribosomal structure found in prokaryotic organisms, which is not relevant to the question about eukaryotic ribosomes. Option C (90S unit) and Option D (100S unit) are incorrect as these measurements do not correspond to any known ribosomal structures. Therefore, the assembly of the 40S and 60S subunits specifically leads to the formation of the 80S ribosome, which is vital for cellular function in eukaryotes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option is incorrect. The 70S unit is typically associated with prokaryotic ribosomes, which consist of a 50S and a 30S subunit, not the assembly of 40S and 60S subunits.
  • C. This option is incorrect. The 90S unit is not a standard measurement for ribosomal subunits. Ribosomes are typically categorized with 70S and 80S units.
  • D. This option is incorrect. The assembly of 40S and 60S subunits does not yield a 100S unit. This option misrepresents the actual sizes of ribosomal units.

Q78. The Peptidoglycan layer is found in the cell Of:

  • A. Bacteria✓
  • B. Algae
  • C. Fungi
  • D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: The peptidoglycan layer is found in the cell wall of bacteria. It is a unique structural component that provides strength and rigidity to the bacterial cell. This layer is composed of a mesh-like network of sugar chains cross-linked by short peptide chains. The peptidoglycan layer helps protect the bacterial cell from external stresses and maintains its shape.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Algae, on the other hand, are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms that can be found in various habitats, including freshwater, marine environments, and even on land. They can range from single-celled organisms to multicellular forms like seaweeds. Algae play a crucial role in oxygen production and are an important part of aquatic food chains.
  • C. Fungi are a group of eukaryotic organisms that include mushrooms, yeasts, and molds. They obtain nutrients by decomposing organic matter or by forming mutualistic relationships with other organisms.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q79. The Following graph shows the effect of altering a factor on the rate of an enzyme Controlled reaction What is shown on x axis:

  • A. Substrate concentration✓
  • B. pH
  • C. Enzyme concentration
  • D. Temperaturep

Explanation: Substrate concentration refers to the amount of substrate present in a chemical reaction. In simple terms, it's the concentration of the reactant that is being transformed into a product. The substrate concentration can affect the rate of a reaction. Generally, as the substrate concentration increases, the rate of the reaction also increases, up to a certain point. After reaching this point, called the saturation point, increasing the substrate concentration further does not have a significant effect on the reaction rate. This is because all the enzyme active sites are already occupied, and the reaction is occurring at its maximum rate.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. pH stands for "potential of hydrogen." It is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. A pH value less than 7 indicates acidity, while a pH value greater than 7 indicates alkalinity. The lower the pH value, the more acidic the solution, and the higher the pH value, the more alkaline it is. pH is an important factor in various chemical and biological processes.
  • C. Enzyme concentrations refer to the amount of enzymes present in a reaction. The concentration of enzymes can affect the rate of a reaction. Generally, as the enzyme concentration increases, the reaction rate also increases, up to a certain point. After reaching this point, called the saturation point, increasing the enzyme concentration further does not have a significant effect on the reaction rate. This is because all the substrate molecules are already being converted into products as quickly as possible.
  • D. Temperature is a measure of how hot or cold something is. It represents the average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance. When the temperature increases, the particles move faster, and when it decreases, they move slower. Temperature affects various processes, such as chemical reactions, physical changes, and biological functions. It plays a crucial role in determining the behavior of substances and their interactions.

Q80. in fructose the functional group ketone is present on carbon Number:

  • A. 1
  • B. 2✓
  • C. 5
  • D. 6

Explanation: The ketone functional group in fructose is located on carbon number 2.In fructose, a monosaccharide, the functional group ketone (specifically, a ketone group) is present on carbon number 2.Carbon number 1 in fructose is typically part of the terminal carbon skeleton and does not contain a ketone functional group.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Carbon number 1 in fructose is typically part of the terminal carbon skeleton and does not contain a ketone functional group.
  • C. Carbon number 5 in Penrose is typically part of the terminal carbon skeleton and does not contain a ketone functional group.
  • D. Carbon number 6 in fructose is typically part of the terminal carbon skeleton and does not contain a ketone functional group.

Q81. If an object is revolving in circular path of Radius 2m and during its motion, it traverses An arc of length 4m then the angle (in radians) Made at the center of the circle by this arc is:

  • A. 2 rad✓
  • B. 1 rad
  • C. 2π rad
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: When an object is revolving in a circular path with a radius of 2m and it travels along an arc of length 4m, we can calculate the angle made at the center of the circle. In this case, the angle is 2 radians. This means that if you were to draw lines from the center of the circle to the two ends of the arc, the angle between those lines would be 2 radians.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!When an object is revolving in a circular path with a radius of 2m and it travels along an arc of length 4m, we can calculate the angle made at the center of the circle. In this case, the angle is 2 radians. This means that if you were to draw lines from the center of the circle to the two ends of the arc, the angle between those lines would be 2 radians.
  • C. False!When an object is revolving in a circular path with a radius of 2m and it travels along an arc of length 4m, we can calculate the angle made at the center of the circle. In this case, the angle is 2 radians. This means that if you were to draw lines from the center of the circle to the two ends of the arc, the angle between those lines would be 2 radians.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q82. In humans, the largest body organ is:

  • A. Liver
  • B. Skin✓
  • C. Brain
  • D. Lungs

Explanation: The largest organ in the human body is the skin. It covers and protects our entire body, acting as a barrier against external elements. The skin has several important functions, including regulating body temperature, sensing touch, protecting against harmful UV radiation, and preventing the loss of water from the body. It's like a protective shield that keeps our body safe and maintains its overall health.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!The largest organ in the human body is the skin. It covers and protects our entire body, acting as a barrier against external elements. The skin has several important functions, including regulating body temperature, sensing touch, protecting against harmful UV radiation, and preventing the loss of water from the body. It's like a protective shield that keeps our body safe and maintains its overall health.
  • C. False!The largest organ in the human body is the skin. It covers and protects our entire body, acting as a barrier against external elements. The skin has several important functions, including regulating body temperature, sensing touch, protecting against harmful UV radiation, and preventing the loss of water from the body. It's like a protective shield that keeps our body safe and maintains its overall health.
  • D. False!The largest organ in the human body is the skin. It covers and protects our entire body, acting as a barrier against external elements. The skin has several important functions, including regulating body temperature, sensing touch, protecting against harmful UV radiation, and preventing the loss of water from the body. It's like a protective shield that keeps our body safe and maintains its overall health.

Q83. The dichotomous or Y shaped branching is seen in sub phylum:

  • A. Lycopsida
  • B. Sphenopsida
  • C. Psilopsida✓
  • D. Pteropsida

Explanation: The dichotomous or Y-shaped branching is actually seen in the subphylum Psilopsida. It refers to the pattern of branching in the vascular system of certain plants belonging to this subphylum. This type of branching occurs when the main stem divides into two equal branches, resembling the shape of the letter "Y". It's a unique characteristic of Psilopsida plants.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!The dichotomous or Y-shaped branching is actually seen in the subphylum Psilopsida. It refers to the pattern of branching in the vascular system of certain plants belonging to this subphylum. This type of branching occurs when the main stem divides into two equal branches, resembling the shape of the letter "Y". It's a unique characteristic of Psilopsida plants.
  • B. False!The dichotomous or Y-shaped branching is actually seen in the subphylum Psilopsida. It refers to the pattern of branching in the vascular system of certain plants belonging to this subphylum. This type of branching occurs when the main stem divides into two equal branches, resembling the shape of the letter "Y". It's a unique characteristic of Psilopsida plants.
  • D. False!The dichotomous or Y-shaped branching is actually seen in the subphylum Psilopsida. It refers to the pattern of branching in the vascular system of certain plants belonging to this subphylum. This type of branching occurs when the main stem divides into two equal branches, resembling the shape of the letter "Y". It's a unique characteristic of Psilopsida plants.

Q84. The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe:

  • A. Buds
  • B. Seeds
  • C. Root and underground stem
  • D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe various plant parts like seeds, buds, and underground stems. These plant parts act as storage sites for the sugars and nutrients produced during photosynthesis. They "sink" or receive and store the assimilates, which are the products of photosynthesis. This stored energy can be used later for growth, development, or reproduction. It's like a storage bank for the plant.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe various plant parts like seeds, buds, and underground stems. These plant parts act as storage sites for the sugars and nutrients produced during photosynthesis. They "sink" or receive and store the assimilates, which are the products of photosynthesis. This stored energy can be used later for growth, development, or reproduction. It's like a storage bank for the plant.
  • B. The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe various plant parts like seeds, buds, and underground stems. These plant parts act as storage sites for the sugars and nutrients produced during photosynthesis. They "sink" or receive and store the assimilates, which are the products of photosynthesis. This stored energy can be used later for growth, development, or reproduction. It's like a storage bank for the plant.
  • C. The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe various plant parts like seeds, buds, and underground stems. These plant parts act as storage sites for the sugars and nutrients produced during photosynthesis. They "sink" or receive and store the assimilates, which are the products of photosynthesis. This stored energy can be used later for growth, development, or reproduction. It's like a storage bank for the plant.

Q85. The swallowing procedure is regulated by nerves in:

  • A. Hypothalamus
  • B. Medulla oblongata
  • C. Cerebellum
  • D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: The swallowing procedure is actually regulated by nerves in both the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata. The cerebellum helps coordinate the precise movements of the muscles involved in swallowing, while the medulla oblongata controls the involuntary actions of swallowing, such as the coordination of the muscles and the regulation of the swallowing reflex. These two parts of the brain work together to ensure that the process of swallowing happens smoothly and efficiently.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!The swallowing procedure is actually regulated by nerves in both the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata. The cerebellum helps coordinate the precise movements of the muscles involved in swallowing, while the medulla oblongata controls the involuntary actions of swallowing, such as the coordination of the muscles and the regulation of the swallowing reflex. These two parts of the brain work together to ensure that the process of swallowing happens smoothly and efficiently.
  • B. The swallowing procedure is actually regulated by nerves in both the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata. The cerebellum helps coordinate the precise movements of the muscles involved in swallowing, while the medulla oblongata controls the involuntary actions of swallowing, such as the coordination of the muscles and the regulation of the swallowing reflex. These two parts of the brain work together to ensure that the process of swallowing happens smoothly and efficiently.
  • C. The swallowing procedure is actually regulated by nerves in both the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata. The cerebellum helps coordinate the precise movements of the muscles involved in swallowing, while the medulla oblongata controls the involuntary actions of swallowing, such as the coordination of the muscles and the regulation of the swallowing reflex. These two parts of the brain work together to ensure that the process of swallowing happens smoothly and efficiently.

Q86. C55H70MgN4O6 is the molecular formula of :

  • A. Chlorophyll A
  • B. Chlorophyll B✓
  • C. Chlorophyll C
  • D. Chlorophyll D

Explanation: The above formula represents the structure of chlorophyll b. Chlorophyll b is a pigment found in plants and algae that plays a key role in photosynthesis. It absorbs light energy and transfers it to chlorophyll a, which is the primary pigment involved in capturing sunlight for photosynthesis. The molecular formula provides information about the number and types of atoms present in the chlorophyll b molecule.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The above formula represents the structure of chlorophyll b. Chlorophyll b is a pigment found in plants and algae that plays a key role in photosynthesis. It absorbs light energy and transfers it to chlorophyll a, which is the primary pigment involved in capturing sunlight for photosynthesis. The molecular formula provides information about the number and types of atoms present in the chlorophyll b molecule.
  • C. False!The above formula represents the structure of chlorophyll b. Chlorophyll b is a pigment found in plants and algae that plays a key role in photosynthesis. It absorbs light energy and transfers it to chlorophyll a, which is the primary pigment involved in capturing sunlight for photosynthesis. The molecular formula provides information about the number and types of atoms present in the chlorophyll b molecule.
  • D. False!The above formula represents the structure of chlorophyll b. Chlorophyll b is a pigment found in plants and algae that plays a key role in photosynthesis. It absorbs light energy and transfers it to chlorophyll a, which is the primary pigment involved in capturing sunlight for photosynthesis. The molecular formula provides information about the number and types of atoms present in the chlorophyll b molecule.

Q87. When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products the reaction will be:

  • A. Endothermic
  • B. Exothermic✓
  • C. Spontaneous
  • D. Non spontaneous

Explanation: When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products, it means that the reaction releases more energy than it absorbs. This type of reaction is called exothermic. In an exothermic reaction, heat energy is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products, it means that the reaction releases more energy than it absorbs. This type of reaction is called exothermic. In an exothermic reaction, heat energy is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature.
  • C. False!When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products, it means that the reaction releases more energy than it absorbs. This type of reaction is called exothermic. In an exothermic reaction, heat energy is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature.
  • D. False!When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products, it means that the reaction releases more energy than it absorbs. This type of reaction is called exothermic. In an exothermic reaction, heat energy is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature.

Q88. Which one is the strongest conjugate base:

  • A. Sulphate ion
  • B. Hydroxyl ion✓
  • C. Per chlorate ion
  • D. Iodide ion

Explanation: The hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a strong conjugate base. It readily accepts a proton (H+) to form water (H2O). Its strong basicity is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which can easily accept a proton. So, when it comes to conjugate bases, the hydroxyl ion is a strong one.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!The hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a strong conjugate base. It readily accepts a proton (H+) to form water (H2O). Its strong basicity is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which can easily accept a proton. So, when it comes to conjugate bases, the hydroxyl ion is a strong one.
  • C. False!The hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a strong conjugate base. It readily accepts a proton (H+) to form water (H2O). Its strong basicity is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which can easily accept a proton. So, when it comes to conjugate bases, the hydroxyl ion is a strong one.
  • D. False!The hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a strong conjugate base. It readily accepts a proton (H+) to form water (H2O). Its strong basicity is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which can easily accept a proton. So, when it comes to conjugate bases, the hydroxyl ion is a strong one.

Q89. Which of the following have reducing effect:

  • A. Cathode rays✓
  • B. X rays
  • C. Anode rays
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: cathode rays are not directly related to reducing effects. Cathode rays are streams of electrons that are emitted from the cathode (negative electrode) in a vacuum tube. They were discovered by J.J. Thomson in the late 19th century. Cathode rays have properties like charge, mass, and the ability to be deflected by electric and magnetic fields.When it comes to reducing effects, we typically refer to substances that have the ability to donate electrons or reduce other substances by accepting electrons. Cathode rays themselves do not have a direct reducing effect. However, electrons, which are the main component of cathode rays, can participate in reduction reactions by donating electrons to other species.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False! cathode rays are not directly related to reducing effects. Cathode rays are streams of electrons that are emitted from the cathode (negative electrode) in a vacuum tube. They were discovered by J.J. Thomson in the late 19th century. Cathode rays have properties like charge, mass, and the ability to be deflected by electric and magnetic fields.When it comes to reducing effects, we typically refer to substances that have the ability to donate electrons or reduce other substances by accepting electrons. Cathode rays themselves do not have a direct reducing effect. However, electrons, which are the main component of cathode rays, can participate in reduction reactions by donating electrons to other species.
  • C. False! cathode rays are not directly related to reducing effects. Cathode rays are streams of electrons that are emitted from the cathode (negative electrode) in a vacuum tube. They were discovered by J.J. Thomson in the late 19th century. Cathode rays have properties like charge, mass, and the ability to be deflected by electric and magnetic fields.When it comes to reducing effects, we typically refer to substances that have the ability to donate electrons or reduce other substances by accepting electrons. Cathode rays themselves do not have a direct reducing effect. However, electrons, which are the main component of cathode rays, can participate in reduction reactions by donating electrons to other species.
  • D. Incorrect option.

Q90. The bond angle is H2S is less than H2O due to:

  • A. Small size of oxygen atom
  • B. Greater electronegativity of oxygen atom
  • C. Oxygen contains 2 lone pair of electrons
  • D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The bond angle in H2S is less than in H2O due to the smaller size of oxygen and the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom. The smaller size of oxygen allows for closer electron-electron repulsion, resulting in a larger bond angle in H2O. Additionally, the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom in H2O further increases the electron-electron repulsion, pushing the hydrogen atoms closer together and resulting in a smaller bond angle in H2S.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The bond angle in H2S is less than in H2O due to the smaller size of oxygen and the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom. The smaller size of oxygen allows for closer electron-electron repulsion, resulting in a larger bond angle in H2O. Additionally, the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom in H2O further increases the electron-electron repulsion, pushing the hydrogen atoms closer together and resulting in a smaller bond angle in H2S.
  • B. The bond angle in H2S is less than in H2O due to the smaller size of oxygen and the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom. The smaller size of oxygen allows for closer electron-electron repulsion, resulting in a larger bond angle in H2O. Additionally, the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom in H2O further increases the electron-electron repulsion, pushing the hydrogen atoms closer together and resulting in a smaller bond angle in H2S.
  • C. The bond angle in H2S is less than in H2O due to the smaller size of oxygen and the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom. The smaller size of oxygen allows for closer electron-electron repulsion, resulting in a larger bond angle in H2O. Additionally, the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom in H2O further increases the electron-electron repulsion, pushing the hydrogen atoms closer together and resulting in a smaller bond angle in H2S.

Q91. Aslam likes to stay _ home and watch tv shows.

  • A. In
  • B. On
  • C. At✓
  • D. Within

Explanation: In this context, "at" is used to indicate the location where Aslam prefers to stay, which is "home." It is common to use "at" when referring to a specific location, like one's residence or home. Therefore, "at" is the appropriate choice in this sentence.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • B. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • D. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.

Q92. He walked _ the street.

  • A. To
  • B. Of
  • C. Down✓
  • D. On

Explanation: In this context, "down" is used to describe the direction of the walk, indicating that the person walked in a downward or descending manner along the street. "Down" is commonly used to describe movement in a descending or lowering direction.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • B. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • D. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.

Q93. He was driving a car when the accident occurred.

  • A. A car driven by him when the accident occur.
  • B. A car was driven by him when the accident occur.
  • C. A car was been driven by him when the accident occurred.
  • D. A car was being driven by him when the incident occurred.✓

Explanation: "A car was being driven by him when the incident occurred" is correct because it uses the passive voice to emphasize the action of the car being driven without specifying the person doing the driving. Passive voice can be useful when the focus is on the action itself rather than the doer of the action. In this case, it correctly conveys that the car was in motion when the incident happened without placing strong emphasis on the driver's identity.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • B. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • C. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.

Q94. Which of the following is a subordinating conjunction?

  • A. And
  • B. But
  • C. Because✓
  • D. Or

Explanation: "because" is a subordinating conjunction that helps to connect two clauses in a sentence. It introduces a subordinate clause that explains the reason or cause for the main clause. For example, in the sentence "I stayed home because I was feeling sick," "because" introduces the reason for staying home. It shows the cause-and-effect relationship between the two clauses.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is not a subordinating conjuction.subordinating conjunction that helps to connect two clauses in a sentence.
  • B. This is not a subordinating conjuction.subordinating conjunction that helps to connect two clauses in a sentence.
  • D. This is not a subordinating conjuction.subordinating conjunction that helps to connect two clauses in a sentence.

Q95. Identify the indirect form of the sentence: "She said, 'I love chocolate.' "

  • A. She says she loves chocolate.
  • B. She said that she loves chocolate.
  • C. She said that she loved chocolate.✓
  • D. She says, "I love chocolate."

Explanation: The sentence "She said that she loved chocolate" is correct in terms of identity and form. It is a reported speech construction, where the speaker is reporting someone else's statement. The past tense "loved" correctly reflects the shift from the original speaker's "love" to the reporting speaker's statement. The identity of the sentence remains accurate as it conveys the reported statement accurately.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.
  • B. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.
  • D. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.

Q96. Change the sentence into indirect speech: "He said, 'I will be there on time.' "

  • A. He said that he will be there on time.
  • B. He says he will be there on time.
  • C. He said that he would be there on time.✓
  • D. He says, "I will be there on time."

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.
  • B. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.
  • D. This is not a indirect form.In the indirect form, we report what someone else said without using their exact words. It allows us to convey the meaning or message of the original statement. For example, instead of saying "She said, 'I love chocolate,'" we can use the indirect form and say "She said that she loved chocolate." It's a way of paraphrasing and reporting someone's words indirectly.

Q97. Fill in the blank with the appropriate conjunction: "He was tired _ hungry."

  • A. Or
  • B. Nor
  • C. And✓
  • D. But

Explanation: This indicates that the person is both tiredand hungry, expressing two separate conditions.Using "but" in this context wouldmply a contrast, as in "He was tired but not hungry" which suggests that he was tired buthe wasn't hungry. The word "and" in thiscontext shows that both condition （tiredness and hunger） apply simultaneously.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • B. This phrase also doesn't provide a clear explanation and is likely a typographical error or an incomplete phrase.
  • D. This indicates that the person is both tiredand hungry, expressing two separate conditions.Using "but" in this context wouldmply a contrast, as in "He was tired but not hungry" which suggests that he was tired buthe wasn't hungry. The word "and" in thiscontext shows that both condition （tiredness and hunger） apply simultaneously.

Q98. Which sentence is in the passive voice?

  • A. The cat chased the mouse.
  • B. The mouse was chased by the cat.✓
  • C. She will write a novel.
  • D. They have finished the work.

Explanation: In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action instead of performing it. It emphasizes the action rather than the doer. For example, in the active voice, we would say "I wrote the letter," but in the passive voice, it would be "The letter was written by me." The focus shifts from the doer (subject) to the action (verb). Passive voice is commonly used when the doer is unknown, unimportant, or when we want to emphasize the action rather than the doer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. False!In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action instead of performing it. It emphasizes the action rather than the doer. For example, in the active voice, we would say "I wrote the letter," but in the passive voice, it would be "The letter was written by me." The focus shifts from the doer (subject) to the action (verb). Passive voice is commonly used when the doer is unknown, unimportant, or when we want to emphasize the action rather than the doer.
  • C. False!In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action instead of performing it. It emphasizes the action rather than the doer. For example, in the active voice, we would say "I wrote the letter," but in the passive voice, it would be "The letter was written by me." The focus shifts from the doer (subject) to the action (verb). Passive voice is commonly used when the doer is unknown, unimportant, or when we want to emphasize the action rather than the doer.
  • D. False!In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action instead of performing it. It emphasizes the action rather than the doer. For example, in the active voice, we would say "I wrote the letter," but in the passive voice, it would be "The letter was written by me." The focus shifts from the doer (subject) to the action (verb). Passive voice is commonly used when the doer is unknown, unimportant, or when we want to emphasize the action rather than the doer.

Q99. Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:

  • A. The team plays well together.✓
  • B. The team play well together.
  • C. The team playing well together.
  • D. The team is play well together.

Explanation: Subject-verb agreement refers to the correct matching of the subject and verb in a sentence. It means that a singular subject should be paired with a singular verb, and a plural subject should be paired with a plural verb. For example, "She sings" (singular subject, singular verb) and "They sing" (plural subject, plural verb) demonstrate subject-verb agreement. It helps to maintain clarity and grammatical correctness in sentences.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. False!Subject-verb agreement refers to the correct matching of the subject and verb in a sentence. It means that a singular subject should be paired with a singular verb, and a plural subject should be paired with a plural verb. For example, "She sings" (singular subject, singular verb) and "They sing" (plural subject, plural verb) demonstrate subject-verb agreement. It helps to maintain clarity and grammatical correctness in sentences.
  • C. False!Subject-verb agreement refers to the correct matching of the subject and verb in a sentence. It means that a singular subject should be paired with a singular verb, and a plural subject should be paired with a plural verb. For example, "She sings" (singular subject, singular verb) and "They sing" (plural subject, plural verb) demonstrate subject-verb agreement. It helps to maintain clarity and grammatical correctness in sentences.
  • D. False!Subject-verb agreement refers to the correct matching of the subject and verb in a sentence. It means that a singular subject should be paired with a singular verb, and a plural subject should be paired with a plural verb. For example, "She sings" (singular subject, singular verb) and "They sing" (plural subject, plural verb) demonstrate subject-verb agreement. It helps to maintain clarity and grammatical correctness in sentences.

Q100. Identify the correct article to complete the sentence:I saw _ shooting star last night.

  • A. A✓
  • B. An
  • C. The
  • D. No article needed

Explanation: In this context, "a" is used because you're referring to a non-specific shooting star.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. An" is not used because "shooting star" doesn't begin with a vowel sound.
  • C. "the" would imply a specific shooting star that the speaker and the listener may not have discussed previously.
  • D. Incorrect option.

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