Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2021 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Albumin is an example of:

• A. Conjugated proteins✓
• B. Simple proteins
• C. Both (A) & (B)
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Albumin is an example of a conjugated protein. It is a type of protein that is combined (or conjugated) with a non-protein component called a prosthetic group. In the case of albumin, it is combined with a heme group, which gives it its characteristic red color. Conjugated proteins have specific functions and play important roles in various biological processes. It's fascinating how proteins can have different structures and functions depending on their composition.

Q2. Which one of the following has no cleavage plane?

• A. Graphite✓
• B. Nacl crystals
• C. Copper crystals
• D. Ice

Explanation: Graphite has a unique structure made up of layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal pattern. These layers are held together by weak forces called van der Waals forces. Because of these weak forces, graphite can easily slide and break apart into thin sheets. This is why it's commonly used in pencils, as the layers can easily leave marks on paper. Unlike minerals with cleavage planes, graphite doesn't have a specific direction along which it naturally splits.

Q3. Which of the following molecules cannot form hydrogen bonding among themselves?

• A. CH2O✓
• B. CH3CHO
• C. (CH3-CH2)3N
• D. All of the above

Explanation: CH2O, also known as formaldehyde, cannot form hydrogen bonding among its own molecules. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) and forms a weak bond with another electronegative atom in a different molecule. In formaldehyde, the hydrogen atom is bonded to carbon, which is less electronegative than oxygen. Therefore, formaldehyde molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other.

Q4. Which element can form super oxides?

• A. Cs✓
• B. Rb
• C. K
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Cesium (Cs) is an element that can form superoxides. Superoxides are compounds that contain the superoxide ion (O2-), which is formed when an alkali metal, like cesium, reacts with oxygen. It's fascinating how different elements can form various compounds with unique properties.

Q5. The amazing example of genetic and environmental influence on animal behavior is:

• A. Habituation✓
• B. Imprinting
• C. Operant learning
• D. Insight learning

Explanation: Habituation is indeed an interesting example of how both genetic and environmental factors can influence animal behavior. Habituation occurs when an animal becomes accustomed to a repeated stimulus and reduces or stops responding to it over time. This process can be influenced by both genetic factors, such as an animal's innate predisposition to habituate to certain stimuli, as well as environmental factors, like the frequency and intensity of the stimulus. It's pretty amazing how nature and nurture can shape animal behavior.

Q6. The fertile time in the menstrual cycle From:

• A. 6-8 days✓
• B. 9-15 days
• C. 16-22 days
• D. 22-28 days

Explanation: During the menstrual cycle, the fertile time usually occurs around 6-8 days after the start of the menstrual period. This is when ovulation typically takes place, and the egg is released from the ovary. Sperm can survive in the reproductive tract for a few days, so having intercourse during this fertile window increases the chances of pregnancy. It's important to note that individual menstrual cycles can vary, so tracking ovulation signs or using ovulation prediction kits can help determine the specific fertile days.

Q7. The formation of primitive streak occurs during which stage of embryogenesis:

• A. Blastula✓
• B. Gastrula
• C. Neuntla
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The formation of the primitive streak happens during the gastrulation stage of embryogenesis. This is when the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) are formed, setting the foundation for the development of different tissues and organs in the embryo. The primitive streak is like a little groove that forms on the surface of the embryo and plays a crucial role in this process.

Q8. A Plant with heterozygous alleles for height Is:

• A. Dihybrid✓
• B. Dual hybrid
• C. Heterotype
• D. Hybrid

Explanation: A plant with heterozygous alleles for height is referred to as a dihybrid. This means that the plant carries two different alleles for the height trait. It's like having a mix of genetic information for height, which can lead to interesting variations in the plant's height.

Q9. The life time of an electron in a state is _ times more than its an ordinary excited state.

• A. 103✓
• B. 105
• C. 100
• D. 103

Explanation: When an electron is in a particular state, its lifetime refers to how long it remains in that state before transitioning to another state. In this case, the lifetime of the electron in that state is 10^3 (or 1,000) times longer compared to its ordinary excited state. This means that it stays in that specific state for a much longer duration before moving on to another state. It's like the electron gets to hang out and enjoy its time in that state for a lot longer.

Q10. A train of length 100m is crossing 200m in length, at the speed of What is the time taken by the train crossing the bridge?

• A. 10 sec✓
• B. 15 sec
• C. 20 sec
• D. 25 sec

Explanation: To calculate the time taken by the train to cross the bridge, we need to consider the relative speed between the train and the bridge. Since the length of the train is 100m and the length of the bridge is 200m, the total distance to be covered is 100m (train length) + 200m (bridge length) = 300m. If the time taken is 10 seconds, we can calculate the speed of the train using the formula: Speed = Distance / Time. So, the speed of the train would be 300m / 10s = 30 m/s. Therefore, the time taken by the train to cross the bridge is 10 seconds.

Q11. Which of the following element same oxidation number in all compounds?

• A. Oxygen✓
• B. Fluorine
• C. Beryllium
• D. Both (A) & (C)

Explanation: In compounds, the oxidation number of an element refers to the charge it carries or the number of electrons it gains or loses. Oxygen usually has an oxidation number of -2 in most compounds. This means that in compounds, oxygen tends to gain two electrons to achieve a stable configuration. However, it's important to note that there are some exceptions where oxygen can have different oxidation numbers depending on the compound it is in. But generally, oxygen prefers to have an oxidation number of -2.

Q12. Coordination number of an ion in:

• A. 4✓
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 2

Explanation: The coordination number of an ion refers to the number of ions or atoms that surround and are bonded to the central ion in a compound. For example, if an ion has a coordination number of 4, it means that there are four other ions or atoms bonded to the central ion. The coordination number depends on the specific compound and the arrangement of ions or atoms around the central ion.

Q13. Chances for a son or daughter in human birth is:

• A. 3:1 between son and daughter✓
• B. 1:3 between son and daughter
• C. 1:1 between son and daughter
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The chances for having a son or daughter in human birth are often estimated to be around 50% for each gender. This means that, on average, there is an equal likelihood of having a son or a daughter. However, it's important to remember that these probabilities are statistical and can vary from individual to individual. Ultimately, the gender of a baby is determined by the combination of genetic factors from both parents.

Q14. The process where DNA fragments transferred to nylon sheet on gel fo is called as:

• A. Southern blotting✓
• B. Northern blotting
• C. Western blotting
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The process where DNA fragments are transferred to a nylon sheet on a gel is called Southern blotting. It's a technique named after its inventor, Edwin Southern. Southern blotting is commonly used in molecular biology to detect specific DNA sequences. It involves separating DNA fragments on a gel, transferring them to a nylon membrane, and then using labeled probes to identify the target sequences. It's a powerful method for studying DNA and genetic information.

Q15. Which one among the following is double ring structure?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Thymine
• C. Guanine✓
• D. Uracil

Explanation: Cytosine, thymine, and guanine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. These bases have a single ring structure, not a double ring structure. Adenine and guanine have a double ring structure, while cytosine and thymine have a single ring structure. These bases play a crucial role in the genetic code and the formation of DNA and RNA molecules.

Q16. A container containing two moles of liquid ethanol and the gas of oxygen gas was sparked together to form CO2 & HO2-Identify the limiting reagent?

• A. Liquid ethanol✓
• B. Oxygen gas
• C. Both (A) and (B)
• D. None of the stove

Explanation: So, in the reaction between liquid ethanol and oxygen gas, we need to figure out which one is the limiting reagent. The limiting reagent is the one that gets completely used up and determines the amount of product formed.To do that, we compare the number of moles of ethanol and oxygen gas. If there are not enough moles of one reactant to fully react with the other, then it is the limiting reagent.And when we compare is liquid ethanol.

Q17. Lenz's law is based on:

• A. Law of conservation of current
• B. Law of conservation magnetization
• C. Law of conservation of charges
• D. Law of conservation of energy✓

Explanation: Lenz's Law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism. It states that when there is a change in the magnetic field through a conductor, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor, which creates a current that opposes the change in magnetic field. This law is based on the principle of conservation of energy and is used to explain phenomena such as electromagnetic induction and the behavior of electric motors and generators. It's a pretty fascinating concept.

Q18. If absolute temperature of deuterium is made 16 times its normal value, then the speed of the sound waves will increase by a factor of:

• A. 16✓
• B. 8
• C. Speed remains same
• D. None is true

Explanation: If the absolute temperature of deuterium is increased by a factor of 16, the speed of sound waves in deuterium will also increase by the same factor. This is because the speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. So, if the temperature is increased by 16 times, the speed of sound waves will also increase by the square root of 16, which is 4. Therefore, the speed of sound waves will increase by a factor of 16.

Q19. The addition of hypo-chicrous acid to 1 butene gives:

• A. 1-chloro 1-butano✓
• B. 2- chloro 1-butanol
• C. Both (A) (B)
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When hypochlorous acid (HClO) reacts with 1-butene, it results in the formation of 1-chloro-1-butane. This reaction involves the substitution of a chlorine atom for a hydrogen atom in the 1-butene molecule. It's an interesting chemical transformation.

Q20. Which one is a strong oxidizing agent?

• A. Mn+4✓
• B. Mn-1
• C. Mn+6
• D. All of the above

Explanation: So, an oxidizing agent is a substance that causes other substances to lose electrons, resulting in oxidation. Mn+4, or manganese in its +4 oxidation state, is a powerful oxidizing agent because it readily accepts electrons from other substances. It's like a "electron magnet" that attracts and takes away electrons during a chemical reaction. This process leads to the oxidation of the other substances involved.

Q21. Ethylene Glycol is oxidized into carbolic Acid by:

• A. Per Iodic acid✓
• B. Lad tetra acetate
• C. Acidified KMNO4
• D. Both (A) (B)

Explanation: When periodic acid (HIO4) reacts with ethylene glycol, it actually oxidizes ethylene glycol into a compound called glycolic acid, not carbolic acid. This reaction involves the transfer of electrons, resulting in the oxidation of ethylene glycol. So, the end product is glycolic acid.

Q22. Which of the following hydrocarbons give acid base reaction?

• A. Toluene✓
• B. 2-butyne
• C. 1-butyne
• D. 2-butene

Explanation: EToluene, which is a hydrocarbon, does not typically undergo acid-base reactions. Hydrocarbons are generally considered to be nonpolar and do not contain any functional groups that can donate or accept protons, which are involved in acid-base reactions. However, if toluene is exposed to strong oxidizing agents or undergoes certain chemical transformations, it can be oxidized or undergo other reactions that may result in the formation of acidic or basic products. 🌟

Q23. The solid part of the milk produced by Coagulation in known as curd and the liquid is known as whey, this whey is used as food Source for:

• A. Bacteria✓
• B. Yeast
• C. Algae
• D. Either A or B

Explanation: The solid part of milk formed by coagulation is called curd, and the liquid part is called whey. Interestingly, bacteria can also utilize whey as a food source. Certain types of bacteria, such as Lactobacillus and Streptococcus, can ferment the lactose in whey and convert it into lactic acid, which gives yogurt its tangy flavor. So, whey can serve as a nourishing food source for bacteria during fermentation processes. It's fascinating how different organisms can interact with food in their own unique ways.

Q24. Besides giving out secretary vesicles, Golgi bodies is also concerned with:

• A. Nucleus✓
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Lysosome
• D. Plastids

Explanation: In addition to their role in producing secretary vesicles, Golgi bodies are also involved in the processing and modification of proteins and lipids that are destined for the nucleus. They help ensure that these molecules are properly transported and organized within the cell. The Golgi bodies are like the cell's "quality control center," making sure everything is in order before it reaches the nucleus.

Q25. Enzymes have a 3D shape due to which type Of protein structure:

• A. Primary structure
• B. Secondary structure
• C. Tertiary structure✓
• D. Quaternary structure

Explanation: Enzymes have a three-dimensional shape due to their tertiary structure. This structure is formed by the folding and twisting of the polypeptide chain, which is determined by the interactions between amino acids. The specific shape of enzymes is crucial for their function, as it allows them to bind with substrates and catalyze chemical reactions. So, the tertiary structure is like the unique "lock and key" that enables enzymes to carry out their important roles in our bodies.

Q26. All of the following statements are true regarding hepatitis a virus except;

• A. it is concerned with children✓
• B. Cause chronic liver disease
• C. Can cause prolonged illness upto 4 months
• D. Lives in feces

Explanation: Hepatitis doesn't affect children.

Q27. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration:

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Kreb's cycle
• C. Synthesizes of acetyl Co-A
• D. Electron transport chain

Explanation: Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration. It's the process where glucose is broken down into pyruvate, producing energy in the form of ATP. So, it's like the starting point for both fermentation and cellular respiration.

Q28. The protein that form the matrix of HIV virus is:

• A. gp120✓
• B. gp41
• C. p17
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: The protein that forms the outer envelope of the HIV virus is called gp120. It plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to attach to and enter human immune cells. Gp120 interacts with CD4 receptors on the surface of immune cells, allowing the virus to gain entry and initiate infection. It's like a key that unlocks the door for the virus to enter the host cell.

Q29. In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is minimum at:

• A. Mean position✓
• B. Extreme position
• C. Midpoint of mean and extreme position
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is the force that brings an oscillating object back towards its equilibrium position. The equilibrium position is the mean position where the object is neither compressed nor stretched. At this point, the restoring force is minimum because there is no displacement from the equilibrium position. It's like the calm center of a swinging pendulum or a spring at its natural length.

Q30. If the force on body is plotted along y axis and displacement covered along x axis, then work done is given by:

• A. Each point on curve✓
• B. Slope of the curve
• C. Area under the curve
• D. None is true

Explanation: When we plot the force on a body along the y-axis and the displacement covered along the x-axis, the work done is determined by calculating the area under the curve for each point on the curve. This means that the work done is equal to the sum of all the small areas under the curve. It's like adding up all the little rectangles or triangles formed by the curve to find the total work done.

Q31. A person weighting 400N at the surface of earth at particular location. When the same object is taken to a point located at higher attitude then the weight of the same person will be:

• A. Less than 400 N✓
• B. Less than 500 N
• C. Equal to 500 N
• D. Zero

Explanation: When the same object is taken to a point located at a higher altitude, the weight of the person will be less than 400 N. This is because weight is determined by the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, and as you move away from the surface, the gravitational force decreases. So, at a higher altitude, the person would weigh less than 400 N.

Q32. Which of the following is strongest Lewis base?

• A. Ethylene
• B. Acetylene
• C. Benzene
• D. All have equal strength✓

Explanation: In terms of basicity, ethylene (C2H4) is not considered a base because it lacks a lone pair of electrons to donate. Acetylene (C2H2) is also not a strong base. However, benzene (C6H6) is not a base at all. It is a nonpolar molecule and does not have basic properties. It's important to note that these compounds are primarily known for their chemical properties and reactivity rather than their basicity.

Q33. Which of the following is not an electrophile?

• A. Br+✓
• B. AlCl3
• C. NH4
• D. NO3+

Explanation: Br* is not an electrophile because it is not positively charged. Electrophiles are electron-deficient species that are attracted to electron-rich areas. A positive charge or a partially positive charge is typically required for a molecule to be an electrophile.

Q34. Which of the following compounds is more Reactive?

• A. Benzene✓
• B. 1,3 -Dinitrobenzene
• C. Nitrobutene
• D. 1,3,5 trinitrobenzene

Explanation: Benzene is reactive because of its delocalized pi electron system. This system of alternating double bonds makes benzene more stable than expected based on its structure. However, it can still undergo reactions such as electrophilic aromatic substitution due to the presence of the electron-rich aromatic ring. These reactions allow benzene to participate in various chemical transformations.

Q35. Which one of the following contains the most Acidic proton?

• A. Thiol✓
• B. Alcohol
• C. Phenol
• D. Ether

Explanation: Thiol (R-SH) typically contains the most acidic proton. This is because the sulfur atom in thiol is less electronegative than oxygen in alcohols, making it more willing to donate a proton. The presence of the sulfur atom also stabilizes the resulting thiolate anion through resonance, further enhancing the acidity.

Q36. Bond order for O2+2 is

• A. Two✓
• B. One
• C. Zero
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In the case of O2+2, the bond order is 2. This means that there is a double bond between the two oxygen atoms. The bond order is a measure of the number of chemical bonds between two atoms in a molecule. A bond order of 2 indicates a stronger and shorter bond compared to a single bond.

Q37. The number of orientation of a sub-shell for Which n-4 and 1=3 is:

• A. 1✓
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 7

Explanation: For the sub-shell with n-4 and l=3, the number of orientations is 7. This is because the number of orientations is given by 2l + 1. In this case, 2(3) + 1 = 7. Each orientation represents a specific arrangement of the sub-shell's electrons.

Q38. According to Raoules law relative lowering of Vapour pressure for a solution is equal:

• A. Mole fraction of the solvent✓
• B. Mole fraction of the solute
• C. Moles of a solvent
• D. Males of the solute

Explanation: According to Raoult's law, the relative lowering of vapor pressure for a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent. This means that the decrease in vapor pressure of a solution compared to the pure solvent is directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent in the solution. The more solvent molecules present, the greater the relative lowering of vapor pressure.

Q39. The alveoli is lined by:

• A. Cuboidal epithelium✓
• B. Squamous epithelium
• C. Columnar epithelium
• D. Transitional epithelium

Explanation: The alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, are lined by a type of epithelium called squamous epithelium. This lining is made up of thin, flat cells that allow for easy diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of gas exchange in the lungs. This efficient exchange of gases is essential for proper breathing and oxygenation of the blood.

Q40. Hag fish belongs To:

• A. Cartilaginous fishes
• B. Bony fishes
• C. Cyclostomes✓
• D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: Hagfish, also known as cyclostomes, are a type of jawless fish. They have a unique anatomy and behavior compared to cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. Hagfish are known for their slimy secretion and their ability to produce copious amounts of mucus as a defense mechanism. They play an important role in marine ecosystems.

Q41. All of the following characteristics applies to Cartilage except:

• A. No blood circulation✓
• B. Mostly contain Type II collagen
• C. They can be reshaped
• D. No inorganic salts

Explanation: Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that has a unique characteristic - it has a limited blood supply. This means that cartilage doesn't have as many blood vessels running through it compared to other tissues in the body. Because of this, cartilage has a slower healing and regenerative process compared to tissues with a rich blood supply.

Q42. The gland that serve as both exocrine and Endocrine is/are:

• A. Pancreas✓
• B. Gonads
• C. Adrenal gland
• D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: The gland that serves as both an exocrine and endocrine gland is the pancreas. It produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to aid in digestion (exocrine function), and it also produces hormones such as insulin and glucagon that regulate blood sugar levels (endocrine function). The pancreas plays a crucial role in both digestion and maintaining proper blood sugar balance.

Q43. Kirchofrs current law (KM.) Is based upon law Of conservation of:

• A. Mass
• B. Energy
• C. Momentum
• D. Charge✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is based upon the law of conservation of charge. According to KCL, the total current entering a junction in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In other words, charge is conserved at a junction point in a circuit.

Q44. If frequency of incident radiation in photoelectric effect is increased beyond threshold frequency, it will effect:

• A. Stopping potential✓
• B. Maximum kinetic energy of Photoelectron
• C. Photoelectric current
• D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: If the frequency of the incident radiation in the photoelectric effect is increased beyond the threshold frequency, it will affect the stopping potential. The stopping potential refers to the minimum potential difference required to stop the flow of photoelectrons in a photoelectric experiment. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased beyond the threshold frequency, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons increases. As a result, a higher stopping potential is needed to counteract this increased kinetic energy and stop the photoelectrons.

Q45. Alternating Voltage and alternating have phase difference of 90u with each other in a circuit called:

• A. Pure capacitive circuit✓
• B. Pure inductive circuit
• C. RLC series AC circuit at resonance
• D. Both (A) & (8) are true

Explanation: In a pure capacitive circuit, the alternating voltage and current have a phase difference of 90 degrees with each other. This means that the voltage and current waveforms reach their maximum and zero points at different times. In a capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. This phase difference occurs because the capacitor in the circuit stores and releases charge, causing the current to flow ahead of the voltage. This behavior is unique to capacitors in AC circuits.

Q46. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor in the presence of insulator having dielectric constant E is C if the dielectric is removed from plates, then new capacitance will be:

• A. C-E✓
• B. E.C
• C. C+E
• D. C/E

Explanation: If the dielectric material with a dielectric constant E is removed from the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the new capacitance will be C-E. The presence of the dielectric material increases the capacitance of the capacitor by a factor of E. When the dielectric is removed, the capacitance returns to its original value of C. The dielectric constant affects the ability of the material to store electric charge between the plates.

Q47. The heavily doped region of a transistor is called:

• A. Emitter✓
• B. Base
• C. Collector
• D. Anyone can be heavily doped

Explanation: The heavily doped region is called the emitter. It plays a crucial role in the operation of the transistor by emitting majority charge carriers, either electrons or holes, into the base region. This emission helps control the flow of current through the transistor.

Q48. When ethanol Is taken in excess and temperature is kept 1.40C. On dehydration with conc MO, it gives a molecule of:

• A. Ethene✓
• B. Ether
• C. Ethyl hydrogen sulphat
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When ethanol is dehydrated with concentrated sulfuric acid (conc MO) at a temperature of 140°C, it undergoes a chemical reaction called dehydration. In this reaction, ethanol loses a molecule of water (H2O) to form ethene (C2H4). Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon commonly known as ethylene. It is used in various industrial processes, including the production of plastics and as a ripening agent for fruits.

Q49. Which sub shell in the fourth transition series is in the process of completion?

• A. 3d✓
• B. 4d
• C. 5d
• D. 6d

Explanation: In the fourth transition series, the subshell that is in the process of completion is the 3d subshell. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of 10 electrons. As electrons fill up the energy levels, they occupy the lower energy levels first before moving to higher energy levels. So, as the 3d subshell fills up, the transition series is progressing towards completion.

Q50. The relative atomic mass of neutron is:

• A. 1.00073✓
• B. 1.00087
• C. 1.0073
• D. 1.0087

Explanation: The relative atomic mass of a neutron is approximately 1.0073 atomic mass units (amu). This value takes into account the mass of the neutron, which is slightly greater than 1 amu due to the presence of other subatomic particles within it. This value is used in calculations involving atomic masses and isotopes.

Q51. Which of the following does not show anisotropy?

• A. Diamond✓
• B. Graphite
• C. Glass
• D. Rock salt

Explanation: When we say that a material shows anisotropy, it means that its properties vary depending on the direction in which you measure them. However, diamond is an exception to this. It has a unique crystal structure that gives it isotropic properties, meaning that its physical properties, such as hardness and refractive index, are the same in all directions. This is why diamond is known for its exceptional hardness and brilliance.

Q52. Myxospores are the spores produced by:

• A. Fungi
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Algae
• D. Plants

Explanation: Myxospores are actually not spores produced by fungi, but rather by certain groups of bacteria called Myxobacteria. These bacteria are known for their unique life cycle, which involves the formation of myxospores under certain conditions. These myxospores are specialized structures that allow the bacteria to survive unfavorable conditions and then germinate when conditions become more favorable. So, in short, myxospores are produced by Myxobacteria, not fungi.

Q53. The rare site of infection in urinary tract is:

• A. Ureter✓
• B. Urethra
• C. Urinary bladde
• D. Pelvis

Explanation: The rare site of infection in the urinary tract is the ureter. The ureter is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Infections in the ureter are less common compared to other parts of the urinary tract, such as the bladder or urethra.

Q54. Tactition receptors are abundant in human:

• A. Sole✓
• B. Lips
• C. Back of the hand
• D. Palm

Explanation: Tactition receptors are abundant in the human sole, which is the bottom part of the foot. These receptors are responsible for detecting and relaying information about touch and pressure sensations. They help us perceive textures, balance, and navigate our surroundings. So, the sole of the foot is an important area for tactile sensitivity.

Q55. Which one among the following is an unpaired facial bones?

• A. Maxilla✓
• B. Lacrimal
• C. Mandible
• D. Palatine

Explanation: Among the facial bones, the maxilla is not an unpaired bone. The maxilla is actually a paired bone that forms the upper jaw and contributes to the structure of the face. The unpaired facial bone is the mandible, which is the lower jawbone.

Q56. A step down transformer:

• A. Increases the output current
• B. Increases the output power
• C. Increases the output voltage✓
• D. Decreases the output power

Explanation: Actually, a step-down transformer decreases the output current while increasing the output voltage. It works by having more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil, which results in a higher voltage and lower current in the secondary coil.

Q57. The example of atrichious bacteria is:

• A. Bacill✓
• B. Spirilla
• C. Vibrio
• D. Cocci

Explanation: Bacillus is an example of bacteria that can be atrichous, meaning they do not have flagella or hair-like structures for movement. These bacteria are typically rod-shaped and can be found in various environments.

Q58. The female reproductive cells in bryophytes Is called:

• A. Archegonium✓
• B. Egg
• C. Oosphere
• D. Both (B) & (C)

Explanation: In bryophytes, the archegonium is the structure that contains the egg cell. It is a flask-shaped structure with a long neck and a swollen base. The neck of the archegonium allows the entry of sperm, which fertilizes the egg. After fertilization, the archegonium protects and nourishes the developing embryo. It's a fascinating part of the reproductive process in bryophytes.

Q59. The characteristics displayed by protozoa are most closely similar to the characteristics of:

• A. Plants
• B. Bacteria
• C. Animal✓
• D. Viruses

Explanation: Protozoa actually have characteristics that are more closely similar to animals rather than plants. While plants are multicellular, have cell walls, and undergo photosynthesis, protozoa are single-celled organisms that lack cell walls and obtain their energy by consuming other organisms. They exhibit animal-like behaviors such as locomotion and feeding.

Q60. The largest phylum of animals is:

• A. Annelida
• B. Arthropoda✓
• C. Chordata
• D. Coelenterata

Explanation: The largest phylum of animals is the phylum Arthropoda. It includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other joint-legged organisms. Arthropods are incredibly diverse and can be found in various habitats around the world.

Q61. When electromagnetic radiation falls on a surface, then the angle between reflected light and refracted light is 90' at an angle,Called:

• A. A Critical angle✓
• B. At any angle, both rays are Perpendicular
• C. Brewstees angle
• D. Inclination angle

Explanation: The angle you're referring to is called the critical angle. When electromagnetic radiation, such as light, hits the boundary between two different mediums, like air and water, at a certain angle called the critical angle, the refracted light ray will be at a 90-degree angle to the surface. This angle is important in phenomena like total internal reflection, where light is completely reflected back into the medium it originated from.

Q62. One up quark and 2 down quarks. when Combine, make a:

• A. Neutron✓
• B. Proton
• C. Electron
• D. Positron

Explanation: When one up quark and two down quarks combine, they form a neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of atoms. They have no electric charge and are slightly heavier than protons. Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.

Q63. Reluctance of a ferromagnetic material is for a conductor to the:

• A. Resistance✓
• B. Conductance
• C. Inductance
• D. Capacitance

Explanation: The reluctance of a ferromagnetic material is similar to the resistance of a conductor. Just as resistance opposes the flow of electric current in a conductor, reluctance opposes the flow of magnetic flux in a ferromagnetic material. It's like a resistance to the magnetic field.

Q64. The volume occupied by 1.6 g of O2 at S.T.P is:

• A. 2.24dm3✓
• B. 1.12dm3
• C. 22.4dm3
• D. 24dm3

Explanation: To find the volume of 1.6 g of O2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT. At STP, the pressure is 1 atm and the temperature is 273 K. Given that the molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles of O2 using the mass provided. By rearranging the equation, we can then solve for the volume.

Q65. The bond order of H2+ is.

• A. 1/2✓
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 1.5

Explanation: The bond order of H2+ is 1/2. This means that the molecule has a half-filled bonding orbital. The bond order is calculated by taking the difference between the number of bonding electrons and the number of anti-bonding electrons and dividing it by 2. In the case of H2+, there is only one bonding electron and no anti-bonding electrons, resulting in a bond order of 1/2.

Q66. For endothermic reaction:

• A. Forward activation energy >reverse activation energy✓
• B. Forward activation energy = reverse activation energy
• C. Forward activation energy < reverse activation energy
• D. No change

Explanation: In an endothermic reaction, the forward reaction is smaller than the reverse reaction. This is because an endothermic reaction absorbs heat from its surroundings, causing the products to have more energy than the reactants. As a result, the reverse reaction is favored as it releases heat, helping to restore the system to its original state.

Q67. Three capacitors each of capacitance 2uF are connected in parallel to a 12V battery. Their Equivalent capacitance is:

• A. 6✓
• B. 9
• C. 12
• D. 18

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance is the sum of their individual capacitances. In this case, since you have three capacitors, each with a capacitance of 2uF, the equivalent capacitance would be 6uF.

Q68. 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene on ozonolysts gives:

• A. 2-Pentanone✓
• B. pentanol
• C. 3-Pentanone and Ethanal
• D. 7-Heptanone

Explanation: When 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene undergoes ozonolysis, it reacts with ozone (O3) to form two pentanone molecules. This reaction involves the breaking of the carbon-carbon double bond in 3-Ethyl-2-Pentene and the addition of oxygen atoms from ozone to the resulting carbons. This leads to the formation of two pentanone molecules, which are ketones with five carbon atoms.

Q69. CH3MgBr reacts with CH2O to give:

• A. 10 Alcohol✓
• B. 20 Alcohol
• C. 30 Alcohol
• D. Carboxylic acid

Explanation: When CH3MgBr, which is methylmagnesium bromide, reacts with CH2O, which is formaldehyde, it undergoes a nucleophilic addition reaction. In this reaction, the methyl group from CH3MgBr adds to the carbon atom of the carbonyl group in CH2O, resulting in the formation of a primary alcohol. The primary alcohol has the hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to only one other carbon atom.

Q70. Which oxidizing agent is used in oxidation of Aldehydes into carboxylic acids?

• A. Acidified KMnO4✓
• B. Acidified K2Cr2O7
• C. Ag2O
• D. All of the above

Explanation: In the oxidation of aldehydes into carboxylic acids, one common oxidizing agent used is acidified KMnO4. Acidified KMnO4 refers to potassium permanganate (KMnO4) that is dissolved in an acidic solution, typically sulfuric acid (H2SO4). The acidic environment helps to facilitate the oxidation reaction. When an aldehyde is treated with acidified KMnO4, it undergoes oxidation and is converted into a carboxylic acid. This reaction is often used in organic chemistry to convert aldehydes into carboxylic acids.

Q71. Which is the most stable hydrocarbon:

• A. Cis-2-butene✓
• B. Isobutylene
• C. Trans-2-butene
• D. 1-butene.

Explanation: Among the isomers of butene, cis-2-butene is considered the most stable hydrocarbon. This is because the cis configuration allows for a more favorable interaction between the carbon-carbon double bond and the surrounding atoms. The cis-2-butene molecule has the two methyl groups on the same side of the double bond, resulting in a more compact and stable arrangement. This stability is due to the reduced steric hindrance and enhanced pi-bonding interactions.

Q72. In mitochondrial DNA the codon AGG codes For:

• A. Arginine✓
• B. Tryptophan
• C. Methionine Stop Codon
• D. 1-butene.

Explanation: In mitochondrial DNA, the codon AGG indeed codes for the amino acid arginine. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis. AGG is one of the codons that specifically codes for arginine. Mitochondrial DNA plays a crucial role in the production of proteins essential for mitochondrial function.

Q73. The term survival of fittest was used By:

• A. Lamarck
• B. Charles Darwin
• C. Herbert spencer✓
• D. Aristotle

Explanation: The term "survival of the fittest" was used by Herbert Spencer, an English philosopher and scientist. It is closely related to Charles Darwin's theory of natural selection. The phrase suggests that individuals who are best suited to their environment and possess advantageous traits have a greater likelihood of survival and passing on those traits to their offspring. It's all about the idea that the most adaptable and well-suited organisms are more likely to thrive in their surroundings.

Q74. The nitrogen gas can be fixed spontaneously By:

• A. Industrial fixation✓
• B. Biological fixation
• C. Atmospheric fixation
• D. All of the above

Explanation: In industrial fixation, nitrogen gas (N2) is converted into a usable form, such as ammonia (NH3), through a process called the Haber-Bosch process. This process involves combining nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas under high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst. The resulting ammonia can then be used as a fertilizer or in the production of various chemical compounds. Industrial fixation plays a crucial role in providing the nitrogen needed for agriculture and other industries.

Q75. The source of restriction enzyme Sam 1 is:

• A. Streptomyces achrmpogene✓
• B. Serratia marcescens
• C. Streptococcus pyogens
• D. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: So, the restriction enzyme SmaI, which stands for Serratia marcescens enzyme, is derived from the bacterium Serratia marcescens. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology research to cut DNA at specific recognition sites. It recognizes the sequence 5'-CCCGGG-3' and cuts between the second and third C residues. This process is important for DNA manipulation and analysis in various experiments.

Q76. Consider a projectile thrown initially at a. speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 760 from horizontal: When it reaches the highest point of its trajectory, angle between its velocity and acceleration is;

• A. 0o
• B. 45o
• C. 90o✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When the projectile reaches the highest point of its trajectory, the angle between its velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. This is because at the highest point, the velocity is purely horizontal and the acceleration due to gravity acts vertically downward. The two vectors are perpendicular to each other, resulting in a 90-degree angle.

Q77. Assembly of two subunit 40S and 60S of the Ribosomes is:

• A. 70S unit✓
• B. 80S unit
• C. 90S unit
• D. 100S unit

Explanation: The assembly of the 40S and 60S subunits of ribosomes forms the 70S unit. This 70S unit is found in prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, and is responsible for protein synthesis. Each subunit plays a specific role in the process, with the 40S subunit involved in decoding the mRNA sequence and the 60S subunit involved in peptide bond formation. Together, they work harmoniously to create proteins in the cell.

Q78. The Peptidoglycan layer is found in the cell Of:

• A. Bacteria✓
• B. Algae
• C. Fungi
• D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: The peptidoglycan layer is found in the cell wall of bacteria. It is a unique structural component that provides strength and rigidity to the bacterial cell. This layer is composed of a mesh-like network of sugar chains cross-linked by short peptide chains. The peptidoglycan layer helps protect the bacterial cell from external stresses and maintains its shape.

Q79. The Following graph shows the effect of altering a factor on the rate of an enzyme Controlled reaction What is shown on x axis:

• A. Substrate concentration✓
• B. pH
• C. Enzyme concentration
• D. Temperaturep

Explanation: Substrate concentration refers to the amount of substrate present in a chemical reaction. In simple terms, it's the concentration of the reactant that is being transformed into a product. The substrate concentration can affect the rate of a reaction. Generally, as the substrate concentration increases, the rate of the reaction also increases, up to a certain point. After reaching this point, called the saturation point, increasing the substrate concentration further does not have a significant effect on the reaction rate. This is because all the enzyme active sites are already occupied, and the reaction is occurring at its maximum rate.

Q80. In fructose the functional group ketone present on carbon Number:

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: In fructose, the functional group ketone is attached to the second carbon atom. This means that the ketone group is located on the second carbon in the fructose molecule.

Q81. If an object is revolving in circular path of Radius 2m and during its motion, it traverses An arc of length 4m then the angle (in radians) Made at the center of the circle by this arc is:

• A. 2 rad✓
• B. 1 rad
• C. 2π rad
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When an object is revolving in a circular path with a radius of 2m and it travels along an arc of length 4m, we can calculate the angle made at the center of the circle. In this case, the angle is 2 radians. This means that if you were to draw lines from the center of the circle to the two ends of the arc, the angle between those lines would be 2 radians.

Q82. In humans, the largest body organ is:

• A. Liver
• B. Skin✓
• C. Brain
• D. Lungs

Explanation: The largest organ in the human body is the skin. It covers and protects our entire body, acting as a barrier against external elements. The skin has several important functions, including regulating body temperature, sensing touch, protecting against harmful UV radiation, and preventing the loss of water from the body. It's like a protective shield that keeps our body safe and maintains its overall health.

Q83. The dichotomous or Y shaped branching is seen in sub phylum:

• A. Lycopsida
• B. Sphenopsida
• C. Psilopsida✓
• D. Pteropsida

Explanation: The dichotomous or Y-shaped branching is actually seen in the subphylum Psilopsida. It refers to the pattern of branching in the vascular system of certain plants belonging to this subphylum. This type of branching occurs when the main stem divides into two equal branches, resembling the shape of the letter "Y". It's a unique characteristic of Psilopsida plants.

Q84. The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe:

• A. Buds
• B. Seeds
• C. Root and underground stem
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The term "Sink of assimilate" is used to describe various plant parts like seeds, buds, and underground stems. These plant parts act as storage sites for the sugars and nutrients produced during photosynthesis. They "sink" or receive and store the assimilates, which are the products of photosynthesis. This stored energy can be used later for growth, development, or reproduction. It's like a storage bank for the plant.

Q85. The swallowing procedure is regulated by nerves in:

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Medulla oblongata
• C. Cerebellum
• D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: The swallowing procedure is actually regulated by nerves in both the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata. The cerebellum helps coordinate the precise movements of the muscles involved in swallowing, while the medulla oblongata controls the involuntary actions of swallowing, such as the coordination of the muscles and the regulation of the swallowing reflex. These two parts of the brain work together to ensure that the process of swallowing happens smoothly and efficiently.

Q86. C55H70MgN4O6 is the molecular formula of :

• A. Chlorophyll A
• B. Chlorophyll B✓
• C. Chlorophyll C
• D. Chlorophyll D

Explanation: The above formula represents the structure of chlorophyll b. Chlorophyll b is a pigment found in plants and algae that plays a key role in photosynthesis. It absorbs light energy and transfers it to chlorophyll a, which is the primary pigment involved in capturing sunlight for photosynthesis. The molecular formula provides information about the number and types of atoms present in the chlorophyll b molecule.

Q87. When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products the reaction will be:

• A. Endothermic
• B. Exothermic✓
• C. Spontaneous
• D. Non spontaneous

Explanation: When the enthalpy of the reactants is greater than the enthalpy of the products, it means that the reaction releases more energy than it absorbs. This type of reaction is called exothermic. In an exothermic reaction, heat energy is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature.

Q88. Which one is the strongest conjugate base:

• A. Sulphate ion
• B. Hydroxyl ion✓
• C. Per chlorate ion
• D. Iodide ion

Explanation: The hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a strong conjugate base. It readily accepts a proton (H+) to form water (H2O). Its strong basicity is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which can easily accept a proton. So, when it comes to conjugate bases, the hydroxyl ion is a strong one.

Q89. Which of the following have reducing effect:

• A. Cathode rays✓
• B. X rays
• C. Anode rays
• D. All of the above

Explanation: cathode rays are not directly related to reducing effects. Cathode rays are streams of electrons that are emitted from the cathode (negative electrode) in a vacuum tube. They were discovered by J.J. Thomson in the late 19th century. Cathode rays have properties like charge, mass, and the ability to be deflected by electric and magnetic fields.When it comes to reducing effects, we typically refer to substances that have the ability to donate electrons or reduce other substances by accepting electrons. Cathode rays themselves do not have a direct reducing effect. However, electrons, which are the main component of cathode rays, can participate in reduction reactions by donating electrons to other species.

Q90. The bond angle is H2S is less than H2O due to:

• A. Small size of oxygen atom
• B. Greater electronegativity of oxygen atom
• C. Oxygen contains 2 lone pair of electrons
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The bond angle in H2S is less than in H2O due to the smaller size of oxygen and the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom. The smaller size of oxygen allows for closer electron-electron repulsion, resulting in a larger bond angle in H2O. Additionally, the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom in H2O further increases the electron-electron repulsion, pushing the hydrogen atoms closer together and resulting in a smaller bond angle in H2S.

Q91. Aslam likes to stay _ home and watch tv shows.

• A. In
• B. On
• C. At✓
• D. Within

Explanation: In this context, "at" is used to indicate the location where Aslam prefers to stay, which is "home." It is common to use "at" when referring to a specific location, like one's residence or home. Therefore, "at" is the appropriate choice in this sentence.

Q92. He walked _ the street.

• A. To
• B. Of
• C. Down✓
• D. On

Explanation: In this context, "down" is used to describe the direction of the walk, indicating that the person walked in a downward or descending manner along the street. "Down" is commonly used to describe movement in a descending or lowering direction.

Q93. He was driving a car when the accident occurred.

• A. A car driven by him when the accident occur.
• B. A car was driven by him when the accident occur.
• C. A car was been driven by him when the accident occurred.
• D. A car was being driven by him when the incident occurred.✓

Explanation: "A car was being driven by him when the incident occurred" is correct because it uses the passive voice to emphasize the action of the car being driven without specifying the person doing the driving. Passive voice can be useful when the focus is on the action itself rather than the doer of the action. In this case, it correctly conveys that the car was in motion when the incident happened without placing strong emphasis on the driver's identity.

Q94. Which of the following is a subordinating conjunction?

• A. And
• B. But
• C. Because✓
• D. Or

Explanation: "because" is a subordinating conjunction that helps to connect two clauses in a sentence. It introduces a subordinate clause that explains the reason or cause for the main clause. For example, in the sentence "I stayed home because I was feeling sick," "because" introduces the reason for staying home. It shows the cause-and-effect relationship between the two clauses.

Q95. Identify the indirect form of the sentence: "She said, 'I love chocolate.' "

• A. She says she loves chocolate.
• B. She said that she loves chocolate.
• C. She said that she loved chocolate.✓
• D. She says, "I love chocolate."

Explanation: The sentence "She said that she loved chocolate" is correct in terms of identity and form. It is a reported speech construction, where the speaker is reporting someone else's statement. The past tense "loved" correctly reflects the shift from the original speaker's "love" to the reporting speaker's statement. The identity of the sentence remains accurate as it conveys the reported statement accurately.

Q96. Change the sentence into indirect speech: "He said, 'I will be there on time.' "

• A. He said that he will be there on time.
• B. He says he will be there on time.
• C. He said that he would be there on time.✓
• D. He says, "I will be there on time."

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q97. Fill in the blank with the appropriate conjunction: "He was tired _ hungry."

• A. Or
• B. Nor
• C. And✓
• D. But

Explanation: This indicates that the person is both tiredand hungry, expressing two separate conditions.Using "but" in this context wouldmply a contrast, as in "He was tired but not hungry" which suggests that he was tired buthe wasn't hungry. The word "and" in thiscontext shows that both condition （tiredness and hunger） apply simultaneously.

Q98. Which sentence is in the passive voice?

• A. The cat chased the mouse.
• B. The mouse was chased by the cat.✓
• C. She will write a novel.
• D. They have finished the work.

Explanation: In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action instead of performing it. It emphasizes the action rather than the doer. For example, in the active voice, we would say "I wrote the letter," but in the passive voice, it would be "The letter was written by me." The focus shifts from the doer (subject) to the action (verb). Passive voice is commonly used when the doer is unknown, unimportant, or when we want to emphasize the action rather than the doer.

Q99. Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:

• A. The team plays well together.✓
• B. The team play well together.
• C. The team playing well together.
• D. The team is play well together.

Explanation: Subject-verb agreement refers to the correct matching of the subject and verb in a sentence. It means that a singular subject should be paired with a singular verb, and a plural subject should be paired with a plural verb. For example, "She sings" (singular subject, singular verb) and "They sing" (plural subject, plural verb) demonstrate subject-verb agreement. It helps to maintain clarity and grammatical correctness in sentences.

Q100. Identify the correct article to complete the sentence:I saw _ shooting star last night.

• A. A✓
• B. An
• C. The
• D. No article needed

Explanation: In this context, "a" is used because you're referring to a non-specific shooting star.