Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Presence of cartilaginous ring in respiratory tract act as:

• A. Support
• B. Keep passage open
• C. Prevent collapsing
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: A. Support: The rings provide structural support to the trachea and bronchi, helping to maintain their shape and prevent collapse during inhalation. B. Keep passage open: The rigidity of the cartilaginous rings helps to keep the airway passage open, allowing for the smooth passage of air into and out of the lungs. C.Prevent collapsing: As mentioned in option A, the cartilaginous rings prevent the trachea and bronchi from collapsing, especially during inhalation when negative pressure is generated. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q2. BCG vaccine is used for:

• A. Lung cancer
• B. Tuberculosis✓
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Emphysema

Explanation: Option B, "Tuberculosis," is the correct answer. The BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is primarily used for the prevention of tuberculosis.

Q3. The lateral walls of the chest cavity of man are composed of the:

• A. Ribs and trachea
• B. Intercostal muscles
• C. Ribs & intercostal muscles✓
• D. Ribs, intercostal muscles & diaphragm

Explanation: Option C, "Ribs & intercostal muscles," is the correct answer. The lateral walls of the chest cavity in humans are primarily composed of the ribs and the intercostal muscles.

Q4. Which of the following is most directly responsible for concentrating urine in the kidney:

• A. Proximal convulated tubule
• B. Glomerulus
• C. Loop of Henle✓
• D. Bowman's capsule

Explanation: Option C, the "Loop of Henle," is responsible for concentrating urine in the kidney due to its unique anatomical and functional characteristics.

Q5. Normally the process which exerts the greatest control over the water balance of an individual is:

• A. Sweating
• B. Kidney function✓
• C. Evaporation through the skin
• D. Respiratory loss

Explanation: Option b is correct. Kidneys play a central role in regulating water balance through processes like filtration, reabsorption, and excretion. They are responsible for maintaining the proper concentration of solutes in the blood and adjusting urine production based on the body's hydration status. This makes kidney function the primary regulator of water balance in most individuals.

Q6. Which of the following is the last structure that urine passes through during its excretion from body:

• A. Distal tubule
• B. Urethra✓
• C. Urinary bladder
• D. Ureter

Explanation: The urethra is the final pathway for urine to leave the body. It is a tube that connects the urinary bladder to an external opening, allowing urine to be eliminated from the body during urination. Therefore, option b, "Urethra," is the correct choice for the last structure that urine passes through during its excretion from the body.

Q7. Major inorganic component of vertebrate bone is:

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Calcium phosphate✓
• C. Potassium hydroxide
• D. Calcium chloride

Explanation: The major inorganic component of vertebrate bone is hydroxyapatite, which is a crystalline structure made primarily of calcium phosphate. This gives bones their hardness and rigidity. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q8. The bones in the long axis of the body make up the:

• A. Long bones
• B. Appendicular skeleton
• C. Trabeculae
• D. Axial Skeleton✓

Explanation: The bones in the long axis of the body, which include the skull, vertebral column, and ribcage, collectively make up the axial skeleton. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q9. Which of the following is a part of the pectoral girdle:

• A. Sternum
• B. Clavicle✓
• C. Pelvic bone
• D. Hyoid bone

Explanation: The pectoral girdle, also known as the shoulder girdle, is the set of bones that connect the upper limbs (arms) to the axial skeleton. It consists of two bones on each side: 1. Clavicle (collarbone) 2. Scapula (shoulder blade) Therefore, option b is correct.

Q10. Nerve fibre is different from the muscle fibre due to the presence of:

• A. Myofibrils
• B. Lines
• C. Sarcolemma
• D. Dendrites✓

Explanation: Dendrites are specialized extensions of nerve cells that receive electrical signals from other nerve cells and transmit them towards the cell body. They are a distinctive feature of nerve cells and are not present in muscle fibers. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q11. Telencephalon refers to:

• A. Brain stem
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Cortex
• D. Cerebral Hemispheres✓

Explanation: The telencephalon is the most anterior part of the brain and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as perception, learning, and memory. It includes the cerebral hemispheres, which make up the largest portion of the human brain. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q12. The number of human spinal nerves is:

• A. 60
• B. 62✓
• C. 64
• D. 66

Explanation: The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of 12 cranial nerves, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Here the number is asked so 31+31=62

Q13. Which of the following hormone is responsible for milk secretion after parturition:

• A. Insulin
• B. Prolactin✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Thyroxine

Explanation: Prolactin is the hormone responsible for milk secretion after parturition (childbirth). It is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in stimulating milk production in mammary glands. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q14. Which of the following is not a hormone of anterior pituitary:

• A. Growth hormone
• B. Follicle stimulating hormone
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Explanation: Oxytocin is not a hormone of the anterior pituitary. It is produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin plays a role in various reproductive functions, including uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q15. Oxytocin is secreted by the endocrine gland named:

• A. Pituitary gland✓
• B. Thyroid gland
• C. Parathyroid gland
• D. Adrenal gland

Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the pituitary gland. Specifically, it is produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary, which is often referred to as the neurohypophysis. The posterior pituitary stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus, including oxytocin. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q16. In a vertebrate a reflex action is induced by:

• A. Sensory nerve✓
• B. Motor nerve
• C. Autonomic response
• D. Sympathetic nerve

Explanation: A is correct because in a reflex action, a sensory nerve is responsible for detecting a stimulus (such as heat, pain, etc.) and transmitting that information to the central nervous system (spinal cord or brain). The central nervous system then processes this information and initiates an immediate response without conscious thought. This quick, automatic response is carried out by motor nerves, which transmit signals from the central nervous system to the muscles or glands involved in the reflex action. This allows for a rapid and protective response to potentially harmful stimuli.

Q17. The decrease in response to repeated or continuous stimulation is called:

• A. Instinct
• B. Maturation
• C. Habituation✓
• D. Imprinting

Explanation: Habituation refers to the decrease in response to repeated or continuous stimulation. It is a form of learning where an organism becomes less responsive to a repeated or irrelevant stimulus over time. This allows the organism to filter out unimportant or non-threatening stimuli from its environment. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q18. Trial and error learning has no role in:

• A. Operant learning
• B. Classical conditioning✓
• C. Insight
• D. Imprinting

Explanation: Trial and error learning, also known as operant conditioning, involves learning through repeated experiences and adjusting behavior based on the consequences of those actions. This type of learning is not typically associated with classical conditioning. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q19. Which one of the following causes the mammary glands to enlarge at puberty:

• A. Testosterone
• B. Progesterone
• C. Estrogen✓
• D. Thyroxin

Explanation: Estrogen is the hormone responsible for causing the mammary glands to enlarge at puberty. It promotes the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, including the growth of breast tissue. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q20. Which one of the following secretes the gonadotropic hormones:

• A. Adrenal
• B. Anterior pituitary✓
• C. Posterior pituitary
• D. Thyroid

Explanation: The anterior pituitary gland secretes the gonadotropic hormones, which include follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). These hormones play a crucial role in regulating the function of the gonads (ovaries in females and testes in males). Therefore, option b is correct.

Q21. Embryo implants in the _ of the uterus:

• A. Perimetrium
• B. Myometrium
• C. Endometrium✓
• D. Cervix

Explanation: The embryo implants in the endometrium of the uterus. The endometrium is the innermost layer of the uterine wall, and it undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle in preparation for potential embryo implantation. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q22. The most important hormone in initiating and maintaining lactation after birth is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. FSH
• C. Prolactin✓
• D. Oxytocin

Explanation: The most important hormone in initiating and maintaining lactation after birth is prolactin. Prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for stimulating milk production in mammary glands. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q23. Which of the following structures is formed from ectodermal tissue:

• A. Brain✓
• B. Muscles
• C. Skeleton
• D. Bones

Explanation: The brain is formed from ectodermal tissue. During embryonic development, the ectoderm is one of the primary germ layers that gives rise to various structures including the nervous system, skin, hair, and nails. The brain and nervous system originate from specialized ectodermal tissue. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q24. The pattern of sex determination found in drosophila is:

• A. WZ-ZZ type
• B. XY — XX✓
• C. X0 — XX
• D. Compound Sex

Explanation: In Drosophila, the sex determination is based on the presence of sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY). This type of sex determination system is known as the XY system. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q25. The female in butterflies is:

• A. XX✓
• B. XY
• C. XO
• D. X

Explanation: Option A is correct because it represents the typical chromosomal makeup of a female, where two X chromosomes (XX) are present. Option B represents the typical chromosomal makeup of a male, with one X and one Y chromosome (XY). Option C, XO, is a chromosomal abnormality where only one X chromosome is present, typically resulting in Turner syndrome. Option D, X, is not a complete chromosomal makeup and does not represent a specific gender.

Q26. A permanent change in the genetic structure of a gene is called:

• A. Translocation
• B. Linkage
• C. Mutation✓
• D. Nondisjunction

Explanation: A permanent change in the genetic structure of a gene is called a mutation. This can be caused by various factors such as environmental influences, errors in DNA replication, or external factors like radiation or chemicals. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q27. A chromosome with unequal length of its arms is:

• A. Metacentric
• B. Sub metacentric
• C. Acrocentric✓
• D. Telocentric

Explanation: An acrocentric chromosome is a chromosome in which the centromere is located very close to one end, creating a long arm (q) and a short arm (p). This leads to unequal lengths of the chromosome arms. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q28. If the codon consisted of only two nucleotides, there would be how many possible codons:

• A. 4
• B. 8
• C. 16✓
• D. 20

Explanation: If a codon consisted of only two nucleotides, there would be 4 possible combinations for each position (since there are 4 different nucleotides: A, C, G, and T). Therefore, for a two-nucleotide codon, there would be 4 x 4 = 16 possible combinations. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q29. Human appendix, coccyx and nictitating membrane of the eye are:

• A. Vestigial organs✓
• B. Homologous organs
• C. Analogous organs
• D. Embryonic organs

Explanation: Vestigial organs are structures in the body that have lost or greatly reduced their original function in the course of evolution. These organs may have had a more significant purpose in the ancestors of a species, but in the current form of the organism, they serve little or no function. The human appendix, coccyx (tailbone), and the nictitating membrane (also known as the third eyelid, found in some animals) are considered vestigial organs: - Appendix: It is a small, finger-like projection located at the beginning of the large intestine. In humans, it appears to have lost its original digestive function and currently does not play a significant role in the digestive system. - Coccyx: The coccyx is the remnant of a tail-like structure that was more prominent in some of our evolutionary ancestors. In humans, it no longer serves a functional tail-like purpose. - Nictitating Membrane: In humans, this is often referred to as the "vestigial plica semilunaris." It's a small fold of tissue in the inner corner of the eye. In some animals, like birds and reptiles, it can be drawn across the eye for protection. In humans, it has mostly lost this function. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q30. Similarity in characteristics resulting from common ancestry is known as:

• A. Analogy
• B. Homology✓
• C. Evolutionary relationship
• D. Phylogeny

Explanation: Homology refers to the similarity in characteristics or traits between different species that is due to shared ancestry. These similarities are the result of common evolutionary origins. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q31. What is the direction of energy flow in an ecosystem:

• A. Always unidirectional✓
• B. Always bidirectional
• C. In any direction
• D. Always down directional

Explanation: In an ecosystem, energy flows in a unidirectional manner, primarily from producers (such as plants) to consumers (such as herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores). This flow occurs through feeding interactions in a food chain or food web.Producers capture energy from sunlight through photosynthesis and convert it into chemical energy. This energy is then passed on to consumers as they eat the producers. Energy is gradually lost as heat at each trophic level, making it a one-way flow. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q32. The rate at which the new individuals are added to a population in a unit time is:

• A. Density
• B. Natality✓
• C. Mortality
• D. Dispersion

Explanation: Natality refers to the rate at which new individuals are added to a population in a unit of time. It is also known as birth rate. Natality is an important factor in determining population growth. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q33. In succession lithoseres takes place on:

• A. Sand
• B. Water
• C. Forest floor
• D. Bare rocks✓

Explanation: Lithosere is a specific type of ecological succession that occurs on bare rocks. It involves the colonization of plant species on a substrate of rock or stone. Over time, through the action of pioneer species and their interactions with the environment, soil gradually forms, allowing for more complex plant communities to establish. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q34. The DNA fragments have sticky ends due to:

• A. Endonuclease✓
• B. Unpaired bases
• C. Calcium ions
• D. Free methylation

Explanation: DNA fragments have sticky ends due to endonucleases. Endonucleases are enzymes that cleave the phosphodiester bonds within a DNA strand, creating double-stranded breaks. Depending on the specific endonuclease used, the resulting ends can have single-stranded overhangs, which are referred to as "sticky ends." These overhangs can then anneal (bind) to complementary sequences on other DNA fragments. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q35. The first scientifically approved vaccine was:

• A. Oral Polio vaccine
• B. Small Pox Vaccine✓
• C. MMR Vaccine
• D. Tetanus Vaccine

Explanation: The first scientifically approved vaccine was the smallpox vaccine. It was developed by Edward Jenner in the late 18th century. Jenner observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox, a less severe disease, seemed to be protected from smallpox. He tested his hypothesis by taking material from a cowpox sore and inoculating a young boy with it. The boy subsequently showed immunity to smallpox. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q36. There are _ views on the issue of giving bonus to the employees.

• A. Independent
• B. Divergent✓
• C. Modest
• D. Adverse

Explanation: Divergent views mean that there are differing opinions or perspectives on a particular issue. When it comes to giving bonuses to employees, different people may have varying viewpoints based on factors like company policies, performance assessments, financial considerations, and individual beliefs about employee rewards and incentives. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q37. Add some milk and sugar _ your tea:

• A. To
• B. In✓
• C. On
• D. Into

Explanation: Option b is correct because when you add milk and sugar to tea, you are mixing them within the liquid, not placing them on top or into a specific location.

Q38. Pakistan has to fight _ to win the test series from India:

• A. Dagger and Sword
• B. Lame and Lime
• C. Tooth and Nail✓
• D. Sweat and Water

Explanation: The correct phrase to use in this context is "tooth and nail." It means to fight with great determination and effort, using all available resources and methods. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q39. The number of friends and family members at the party _ amazing.

• A. Was✓
• B. Were
• C. Had
• D. Have had

Explanation: The correct verb to use in this context is "was" because the subject, "number," is singular. In this sentence, "number" is the subject, and it is treated as a singular noun, even though it refers to multiple friends and family members. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q40. When she was in the university, she _ wake up early in the morning:

• A. Should
• B. Would✓
• C. Will
• D. Would have

Explanation: In this context, "would" is used to indicate a habitual action or behavior in the past. It suggests that during her time at the university, it was her regular practice to wake up early. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q41. Urdu was declared national language of Pakistan in:

• A. April 1950
• B. April 1955✓
• C. April 1954
• D. April 1952

Explanation: Urdu was declared the national language of Pakistan in April 1955. This decision was made through the passing of the "Urdu Resolution" during the first Constituent Assembly of Pakistan in Dhaka. The resolution stated that Urdu would be the national language of Pakistan, while Bengali was recognized as a provincial language. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q42. First Indo Pakistan war was fought in:

• A. 1958
• B. 1965
• C. 1947✓
• D. 1951

Explanation: The first Indo-Pakistan war, also known as the First Kashmir War, was fought in 1947. This conflict arose soon after the partition of British India in August 1947, when the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir became a disputed territory between India and Pakistan. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q43. Allama Muhammad lqbal died on:

• A. 6th November, 1937
• B. 21st April, 1938✓
• C. 6th November, 1938
• D. 11st September, 1937

Explanation: Allama Muhammad Iqbal, a renowned philosopher, poet, and politician, passed away on 21st April, 1938. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q44. When was the first constitution of Pakistan approved:

• A. 29th February, 1956✓
• B. 29th February, 1957
• C. 29th February, 1958
• D. 29th February, 1955

Explanation: The first constitution of Pakistan was approved on 29th February, 1956. This constitution established Pakistan as a republic and declared it an Islamic state. It provided for a federal system of government with a President as the head of state. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q45. Who wrote the national anthem:

• A. Chaudry Muhammad Ali
• B. Muhammad Ali Johar
• C. Hafeez Jalandhri✓
• D. Shaukat Badayuni

Explanation: The national anthem of Pakistan, "Qaumī Tarānah," was written by Hafeez Jullundhri. The music for the anthem was composed by Ahmed Ghulamali Chagla. The anthem was officially adopted as the national anthem of Pakistan in 1954. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q46. For how many years, Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) lived in Madinah:

• A. 5
• B. 10✓
• C. 15
• D. 20

Explanation: Prophet Muhammad (Peace Be Upon Him) lived in Madinah for approximately 10 years. He migrated from Mecca to Madinah in 622 CE, which is known as the Hijra. This event marks the beginning of the Islamic calendar. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) spent the remaining years of his life in Madinah, where he continued his mission of spreading Islam, established a community, and played a central role in various aspects of governance. He passed away in Madinah in 632 CE. B. 10Prophet Muhammad (Peace Be Upon Him) lived in Madinah for approximately 10 years. He migrated from Mecca to Madinah in 622 CE, which is known as the Hijra. This event marks the beginning of the Islamic calendar. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) spent the remaining years of his life in Madinah, where he continued his mission of spreading Islam, established a community, and played a central role in various aspects of governance. He passed away in Madinah in 632 CE. Prophet Muhammad (Peace Be Upon Him) lived in Madinah for approximately 10 years. He migrated from Mecca to Madinah in 622 CE, which is known as the Hijra. This event marks the beginning of the Islamic calendar. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) spent the remaining years of his life in Madinah, where he continued his mission of spreading Islam, established a community, and played a central role in various aspects of governance. He passed away in Madinah in 632 CE.Prophet Muhammad (Peace Be Upon Him) lived in Madinah for approximately 10 years. He migrated from Mecca to Madinah in 622 CE, which is known as the Hijra. This event marks the beginning of the Islamic calendar. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) spent the remaining years of his life in Madinah, where he continued his mission of spreading Islam, established a community, and played a central role in various aspects of governance. He passed away in Madinah in 632 CE.

Q47. Which Prophet was able to talk with animals and jinn:

• A. Prophet Adam (A.S)
• B. Prophet lbraheem (A.S)
• C. Prophet Sulaiman (A.S)✓
• D. Prophet Daniyal (A.S)

Explanation: Prophet Sulaiman, peace be upon him, is known in Islamic tradition for having the ability to communicate with animals and jinn. This special gift was one of the many miracles attributed to him. According to Islamic teachings, Allah granted Prophet Sulaiman the ability to understand the languages and communicate with various creatures, including birds, ants, and even jinn. So, option c is correct.

Q48. Which was the 1st Ghazwa of Islam:

• A. Abwa✓
• B. Badar
• C. Khandaq
• D. Mota

Explanation: The first Ghazwa (battle) of Islam was the Battle of Abwa. It took place in 624 CE. The battle occurred between the Muslims, led by Prophet Muhammad (Peace Be Upon Him), and the Quraysh tribe of Mecca. This conflict resulted from a series of skirmishes between the two parties. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q49. Which surah is called mother of Quran:

• A. Surah Baqrah✓
• B. Surah Maryam
• C. Surah Nisa
• D. Surah Fatiha

Explanation: Surah Al-Baqarah (The Cow) is referred to as the "Mother of the Quran." This designation is due to its comprehensive nature, as it covers a wide range of topics including legal, moral, and spiritual guidance for Muslims. It is the longest chapter in the Quran and contains 286 verses. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q50. Hazrat Musa (A.S) is called _.

• A. Man of Allah
• B. Caliph of Allah
• C. Sword of Allah
• D. Speaker of Allah✓

Explanation: Hazrat Musa (Moses), peace be upon him, is known as the "Speaker of Allah" (Kaleemullah) in Islam. This title was given to him because, according to the Quran and Hadiths (sayings and actions of the Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him), Allah communicated directly with Prophet Musa. He received guidance and commandments from Allah, including the revelation of the Tawrat (Torah). Therefore, option d is correct.

Q51. Which of the following is the correct way of writing units:

• A. 71 Newton
• B. 12mu s
• C. 8 Kg
• D. 43 kg m-3✓

Explanation: Option d is correct because it follows the standard convention for writing units in the International System of Units (SI).

Q52. If the dot product of two nonzero vectors A and B is zero then the magnitude of their cross product is _.

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. AB✓
• D. -AB

Explanation: If the dot product of two nonzero vectors (A) and (B) is zero, it means that they are orthogonal (perpendicular) to each other. In this case, the magnitude of their cross product is equal to the product of their magnitudes multiplied by the sine of the angle between them. Since the sine of 90 degrees is 1, when (A) and (B) are orthogonal, the magnitude of their cross product simplifies to AB. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q53. SI unit of impulse is:

• A. kg ms-2
• B. Ns✓
• C. N s-1
• D. Nm

Explanation: The following is the solution: J=change in momentum J=mv2-mv1 J=kg x ms-1 F=ma N=kg x ms-2 J=Ns Option B is correct because the SI unit of impulse is the Newton-second (Ns).

Q54. When the speed of your car is doubled, by what factor does its kinetic energy increase:

• A. √2
• B. 2
• C. 4✓
• D. 8

Explanation: K.E ∝ v2 When the speed is doubled, the kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q55. A body moving in a circular path with constant speed has:

• A. Constant acceleration
• B. Variable acceleration✓
• C. Constant retardation
• D. Variable speed and constant velocity

Explanation: In uniform circular motion, the acceleration is variable. The centripetal acceleration remains constant in magnitude but changes direction continuously, always pointing towards the center of the circular path.

Q56. The heating and cooking of food evenly by microwave oven is an example of:

• A. S.H.M
• B. Resonance✓
• C. Damped Oscillation
• D. Free Oscillation

Explanation: Microwave ovens use electromagnetic waves to generate heat within the food. The waves cause water molecules in the food to vibrate, generating heat through a process called dielectric heating.This process does not involve simple harmonic motion (S.H.M), resonance, or free oscillation.Therefore, option c is correct.

Q57. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is f. if both the ends are opened then its fundamental frequency will be:

• A. f
• B. 0.5 f
• C. 2f✓
• D. 4f

Explanation: There is a formula that relates the fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe to its length. The formula is: f = v / (2L) Where: - f is the fundamental frequency - v is the speed of sound in the medium (air, in this case) - L is the length of the pipe In the case of a closed organ pipe, when both ends are opened, the effective length of the pipe becomes twice the original length. So, if the original fundamental frequency is f, when both ends are opened, the new fundamental frequency will be 2f.

Q58. Signal from a remote control to the device operated by it travels with the speed of.

• A. Sound
• B. Light✓
• C. Ultrasonic
• D. Supersonics

Explanation: Remote controls typically use infrared (IR) signals to communicate with devices. Infrared signals are a form of electromagnetic radiation, which travels at the speed of light. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q59. In which of the system Iisted below is the entropy decreasing:

• A. A gas is cooled
• B. A plate is shattered
• C. An egg is scrambled✓
• D. A drop of dye diffuses in a cup of water

Explanation: Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system. When an egg is in its unscrambled state, it has a relatively low entropy because the molecules are organized in a specific way. When the egg is scrambled, the molecules become more disordered and randomly distributed, increasing the entropy of the system. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q60. The unit of Electric field intensity is:

• A. Volt/metre
• B. Newton/coulomb✓
• C. Joule/Coulomb.metre
• D. volt.metre

Explanation: The electric field intensity is defined as the force experienced by a positive test charge divided by the magnitude of the charge. Mathematically, it is represented as: E = F/q The unit of force is Newtons (N) and the unit of charge is Coulombs (C). Therefore, the unit of electric field intensity is: E = N/C Therefore, option b is correct.

Q61. Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is streched to double its length, then its resistance is ohms is:

• A. r/2
• B. 4r
• C. 2r✓
• D. r/4

Explanation: When a wire is stretched to double its length, its resistance R changes according to the formula: [R' = 2R] So, the resistance of the wire after it's stretched to double its length is 2r. When the length of a wire is doubled, its resistance increases proportionally. This is because resistance is directly proportional to the length of the wire (assuming the material and cross-sectional area remain constant). Therefore, option c is correct.

Q62. Ampere's law is applied over any:

• A. Surface
• B. Closed surface
• C. Path
• D. Closed path✓

Explanation: Ampere's law states that the total magnetic field (B) induced around any closed path is equal to the ratio of the total current passing through the closed path to the distance around the path. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q63. Which of the following quantities remain constant in step up transformer:

• A. Current
• B. Voltage
• C. Power✓
• D. Heat

Explanation: While a step up transformer increases voltage and decreases the current, power remains constant.

Q64. The peak value of alternating current is 5√2 A. The mean square value of current will be:

• A. 5A✓
• B. 2.5A
• C. 5√2 A
• D. 52 A

Explanation: The mean square value (RMS value) of the current is calculated as:RMS value = Peak value / √2= 5√2 / √2= 5 A Therefore, option a is correct.

Q65. Which of the following is not a ferromagnetic material?

• A. Iron
• B. Nickel
• C. Cobalt
• D. Barium✓

Explanation: Barium is not a ferromagnetic material. Ferromagnetic materials have a strong magnetic response to an external magnetic field, and they can retain their magnetization even after the external field is removed. Iron, Nickel, and Cobalt are examples of ferromagnetic materials. Barium is a diamagnetic material, which means it is weakly repelled by both poles of a magnet. It does not exhibit the strong magnetic properties characteristic of ferromagnetic materials. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q66. PN junction when reversed biased act as:

• A. Capacitor
• B. ON switch
• C. Inductor
• D. OFF Switch✓

Explanation: When a PN junction is reverse biased, it acts like an insulator or an OFF switch. This is because the majority carriers (electrons in N-type and holes in P-type) are pushed away from the junction, creating a depletion region with very few charge carriers. This effectively breaks the connection, and very little current flows through the junction. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q67. According to Einstein, increasing the brightness of a beam of light without changing its color will increase:

• A. The number of photons✓
• B. The energy of each photon
• C. The speed of the photons
• D. The frequency of photons

Explanation: Einstein proposed the idea that light is quantized into discrete packets of energy called photons. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency, as given by the equation: [E = hnu] where E is the energy of a photon, h is Planck's constant, and nu is the frequency of the light. When you increase the brightness of a beam of light, you're essentially increasing the total energy being emitted. This can be achieved by increasing the number of photons being emitted, while keeping the color (and thus the frequency) of the light constant. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q68. The reverse process of X ray production can be related to:

• A. Compton effect
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Pair production
• D. Pair Annihilation

Explanation: Pair production is the process in which a photon interacts with a nucleus and produces an electron-positron pair. This is the reverse of the annihilation process, where an electron and a positron collide and annihilate, producing two photons (often in the form of gamma rays). Therefore, option c is correct.

Q69. Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is:

• A. Smaller
• B. Greater✓
• C. Same
• D. Infinite

Explanation: The mass of the resultant nucleus is indeed smaller than the sum of the masses of its constituent nucleons. This reduction in mass is due to the release of binding energy when nucleons come together to form a nucleus. This phenomenon is described by Einstein's mass-energy equivalence principle (E=mc²). Therefore, option b is correct.

Q70. Which of the following is a boson:

• A. Proton
• B. Neutrino
• C. Photon✓
• D. Pion

Explanation: A boson is a type of elementary particle that obeys Bose-Einstein statistics. Photons are examples of bosons. They are the elementary particles of light and carry the electromagnetic force. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q71. The elements which are most abundant in earth crust are:

• A. Si and Al✓
• B. Ca and Mg
• C. B and Ar
• D. B and Al

Explanation: Silicon (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are the two most abundant elements in the Earth's crust. They make up a significant portion of the Earth's crust by mass. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q72. Strongest reducing agent among the halogens is:

• A. Cl2
• B. F2
• C. Br2
• D. I2✓

Explanation: A reducing agent is a substance that causes another substance to be reduced in a chemical reaction. In the halogen group, reducing strength increases as you move down the group. Iodine (I2) is the strongest reducing agent among the halogens because it is the largest and least electronegative halogen. This means that it is more likely to gain electrons and undergo reduction in a chemical reaction. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q73. Which of the following has a greater affinity for oxygen:

• A. B
• B. Na
• C. K✓
• D. Mg

Explanation: Boron (B) is more electronegative compared to the other elements listed (Na, K, and Mg). This means that it has a greater tendency to attract and bond with oxygen. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q74. Potassium ferrocyanide is a:

• A. Normal Salt
• B. Mixed Salt
• C. Double Salt
• D. Complex Salt✓

Explanation: Potassium ferrocyanide, with the chemical formula K4Fe(CN)6, is considered a double salt. It is formed by the combination of two different salts: potassium cyanide (KCN) and iron(II) cyanide (Fe(CN)2). Therefore, option c is correct.

Q75. Which of the following is not ferromagnetic:

• A. Fe
• B. Co
• C. Sb✓
• D. Ni

Explanation: Antimony (Sb) is not ferromagnetic. It is considered a diamagnetic material, which means it is weakly repelled by both poles of a magnet and does not exhibit the strong magnetic properties characteristic of ferromagnetic materials. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q76. Potassium dichromate acts as a strong:

• A. Oxidizing agent✓
• B. Reducing agent
• C. Bleaching agent
• D. Dehydrating agent

Explanation: Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) is a strong oxidizing agent. It readily accepts electrons from other substances, causing them to be oxidized in a chemical reaction. This property makes potassium dichromate useful in various chemical processes, such as in the preparation of aldehydes from primary alcohols. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q77. The first organic compound prepared in the laboratory was:

• A. Peat
• B. Urea✓
• C. Sugar
• D. Alcohol

Explanation: The first organic compound prepared in the laboratory was urea. Urea was synthesized by Friedrich Wöhler in 1828 from inorganic starting materials (ammonium chloride and silver cyanate). This experiment is considered a landmark in the history of chemistry because it showed that organic compounds, which were believed to be produced only by living organisms, could also be synthesized from inorganic substances. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q78. Coal can be converted to petroleum by:

• A. Haber process✓
• B. Destructive distillation
• C. Fischer - Tropsch process
• D. Fractional distillation

Explanation: Coal can be converted to petroleum through a process known as destructive distillation. In this process, coal is heated in the absence of air, causing it to break down into various volatile components, including gases, tars, and oils. These products can be further processed to obtain liquid fuels similar to petroleum. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q79. Fischer - Tropsch synthesis involve the formation of alkanes by the combination of:

• A. CO and H2✓
• B. CO2 and H2
• C. C and H2
• D. All of these

Explanation: The Fischer-Tropsch synthesis involves the formation of alkanes by the combination of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen gas (H2). This process is used to synthesize liquid hydrocarbons, particularly alkanes, from a mixture of CO and H2 gases. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q80. When excess of HCI is added to acetylene, the product is:

• A. Vinyl chloride
• B. Ethyl chloride
• C. 1,2 — dichloroethane✓
• D. 1,1 - dichloroethane

Explanation: When excess hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to acetylene (C2H2), the product formed is 1,2 — dichloroethane (C2H4Cl2). This reaction involves the addition of two molecules of HCl to the triple bond of acetylene, resulting in the formation of 1,2 — dichloroethane. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q81. How many isomers are possible for C2H6O:

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 8✓
• D. 5

Explanation: For the chemical formula C2H6O, which represents an alcohol (ethanol), there are 8 isomeric structures possible. These isomers can be classified as follows:1. Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) - Primary alcohol2. Dimethyl ether (CH3OCH3) - Ether3. Methyl ethyl ether (CH3OCH2CH3) - Ether4. Ethyl methyl ether (CH3CH2OCH3) - Ether5. Ethylene oxide (C2H4O) - Oxirane6. Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) - Aldehyde7. Methoxyethane (CH3OCH2CH3) - Ether8. Acetone (CH3COCH3) - Ketone Therefore, option c is correct.

Q82. Dehydrohalogenation of alkylhalide is carried out in presence of:

• A. Zn dust
• B. Conc. H2SO4
• C. Alcoholic KOH✓
• D. Aqueous KOH.

Explanation: Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide is carried out in the presence of alcoholic KOH (potassium hydroxide dissolved in alcohol). This reaction is a type of elimination reaction where a hydrogen halide (H-X) is removed from the alkyl halide, leaving behind a double bond. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q83. An electron deficient specie is.

• A. Electrophile✓
• B. Nucleophile
• C. Lewis base
• D. None

Explanation: An electron-deficient species is one that has a deficiency of electrons, making it "electron-seeking" or electron-loving. Electrophiles are species that are electron-deficient and tend to accept electrons during a chemical reaction. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q84. The carbon atom carrying positive charge and attached to three other atoms or group is called:

• A. Carbocation✓
• B. Carbanion
• C. Oxonium ion
• D. Carbene

Explanation: A carbocation is a positively charged carbon atom that is attached to three other atoms or groups. It has an electron deficiency, leading to a positive charge. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q85. Geometry of methyl chloride is:

• A. Trigonal planar
• B. Octahedral
• C. Square planar
• D. Tetrahedral✓

Explanation: The geometry of methyl chloride (CH3Cl) is tetrahedral. In CH3Cl, the central carbon atom (C) is bonded to four other atoms: three hydrogen atoms (H) and one chlorine atom (Cl). This arrangement results in a tetrahedral molecular geometry around the carbon atom. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q86. Trimethylene glycol is a:

• A. Vic - diol✓
• B. Gem - diol
• C. Triol
• D. None of these

Explanation: Trimethylene glycol, also known as 1,3-propanediol, is a vicinal diol. In a vicinal diol, the hydroxyl (-OH) groups are attached to adjacent carbon atoms. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q87. Which one is an aromatic alcohol:

• A. Methyl alcohol
• B. Ethyl alcohol
• C. Benzyl alcohol✓
• D. P - cresol

Explanation: An aromatic alcohol is an alcohol that contains an aromatic ring, such as a benzene ring, with a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached. Benzyl alcohol fits this definition, as it has a benzene ring with an attached hydroxyl group. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q88. The appearance of cloudiness in the Lucas test for alcohol is due to formation of:

• A. Alkyl chloride✓
• B. Acid chlorides
• C. Aldehydes
• D. Ketones

Explanation: The appearance of cloudiness in the Lucas test for alcohols is due to the formation of alkyl chloride. In the Lucas test, an alcohol is treated with hydrochloric acid (HCl) and zinc chloride (ZnCl2) in anhydrous conditions. Depending on the type of alcohol, different reaction rates occur. Tertiary alcohols react rapidly to form alkyl chlorides, resulting in a cloudy solution due to the insolubility of the alkyl chloride in the aqueous environment. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q89. The carbon of the carbonyl group is:

• A. Catalytic reduction
• B. Metal hydride✓
• C. Clemmensen method
• D. Lindlar's catalyst

Explanation: The carbon of the carbonyl group is reduced by metal hydrides. Metal hydrides, such as lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4) or sodium borohydride (NaBH4), are powerful reducing agents capable of reducing carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones) to their corresponding alcohols. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q90. IUPAC name of acetone is:

• A. Ethanone
• B. Propanone✓
• C. Ethanal
• D. Ethanoic acid

Explanation: The IUPAC name of acetone is Propanone. This is because it is a three-carbon ketone. The prefix "prop-" indicates three carbon atoms, and the suffix "-one" indicates a ketone functional group. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q91. Which aldehyde is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition:

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldehyde
• C. Butyraldehyde
• D. Propionaldehyde

Explanation: Formaldehyde (HCHO) is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition among the given options. This is because formaldehyde is the simplest aldehyde with a hydrogen atom attached to the carbonyl carbon. The presence of a highly reactive hydrogen atom makes formaldehyde more susceptible to nucleophilic attack compared to other aldehydes. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q92. The compound with highest boiling point is:

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Water✓
• C. Ethyl alcohol
• D. Diethyl ether

Explanation: Among the options provided, water (H2O) has the highest boiling point. This is because water molecules are held together by strong hydrogen bonds, which require a significant amount of energy to break. As a result, water has a higher boiling point compared to the other compounds listed. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q93. Which is the strongest acid:

• A. Ethanol
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Chloroacetic acid
• D. Fluoroacetic acid✓

Explanation: Fluoroacetic acid (FCH2COOH) is the strongest acid among the options provided. This is because it contains a highly electronegative fluorine atom directly attached to the carboxylic acid group. The presence of fluorine increases the acidity of the compound by stabilizing the negative charge on the carboxylate ion formed after donating a proton. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q94. The optimum pH of pepsin is around:

• A. 3
• B. 3.5
• C. 2✓
• D. 2.5

Explanation: The stomach contains gastric glands that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) along with pepsinogen, an inactive precursor of pepsin. When food enters the stomach, HCl is secreted and lowers the pH of the stomach contents. This acidic environment (pH around 2) is created by the HCl and provides the ideal conditions for pepsin activation. At this low pH, pepsinogen is converted into its active form, pepsin. Pepsin then carries out the breakdown of proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can be further absorbed and utilized by the body. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q95. Protein present in haemoglobin has the structure known as:

• A. Primary structure
• B. Secondary structure
• C. Tertiary structure
• D. Quaternary structure✓

Explanation: The protein present in hemoglobin has a tertiary structure. Hemoglobin is a globular protein composed of four polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta chains) that are folded into a complex three-dimensional structure. This three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide chains is known as the tertiary structure. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q96. The term black gold is used for:

• A. Coal
• B. Carbon black
• C. Petroleum✓
• D. Coal tar

Explanation: The term "black gold" is commonly used to refer to petroleum. This nickname comes from the fact that petroleum is a valuable natural resource, and it is often dark or black in color. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q97. Nail polish removers are mainly composed of:

• A. Propyne
• B. Propanone✓
• C. Propanal
• D. Propene

Explanation: Nail polish removers are mainly composed of propanone, which is more commonly known as acetone. Acetone is a powerful solvent that is effective in removing nail polish. It works by dissolving the nail polish, making it easier to wipe or wash away. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q98. Ozone layer in upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:

• A. Chlorofluorocarbons✓
• B. SO2
• C. Smog
• D. Photochemical oxidation

Explanation: The ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is being primarily destroyed by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). These are synthetic compounds that release chlorine and bromine atoms when they are broken down in the stratosphere. These released atoms then catalytically destroy ozone molecules, leading to thinning of the ozone layer. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q99. The basic principle of green chemistry is/are:

• A. To prevent waste creation
• B. To maximize the atom economy
• C. To create less hazardous synthetic chemical
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The basic principles of green chemistry encompass all the options listed: A. To prevent waste creation - This is a key principle of green chemistry. It aims to minimize or eliminate the generation of waste products in chemical processes. B. To maximize the atom economy - This principle emphasizes using synthetic methods that incorporate as many atoms of the starting materials as possible into the final product, reducing waste. C. To create less hazardous synthetic chemicals - Green chemistry promotes the development and use of chemicals that are less toxic and hazardous to human health and the environment. Therefore, all of these principles (A, B, and C) are correct and collectively represent the fundamental goals of green chemistry. So the correct option is d.

Q100. Which of the following methods, relatively gives more information about the structure of an organic compound:

• A. Mass Spectroscopy
• B. NMR Spectroscopy✓
• C. IR Spectroscopy
• D. U.V Visible Spectroscopy

Explanation: Among the options provided, NMR (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance) Spectroscopy gives more detailed information about the structure of an organic compound. It provides insights into the connectivity of atoms, the arrangement of functional groups, and the environment around specific nuclei (like hydrogen and carbon). This technique is especially powerful in elucidating the stereochemistry of molecules. Therefore, option b is correct.