Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2023 Part 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. what is the relationship between prophet lismail(AS) and prophet ishq (AS) ?

• A. Prophet ismail was father of prophet ishaq
• B. Prophet ishaq was brother of prophet ismail
• C. Brother✓
• D. Causins

Explanation: Prophet Ismail (AS) and Prophet Ishaq (AS) were brothers. They were both sons of Prophet Ibrahim (AS) and his wife Sarah. Ismail (AS) was the eldest son, while Ishaq (AS) was born later. Both prophets hold significant roles in the Abrahamic faiths and are revered as important figures in the lineage of prophets.

Q2. which prophet could understand and communicate the language of animals?

• A. Hazrat mosa (AS)
• B. Hazrat Ibrahim (AS)
• C. Hazrat Sulaiman(AS)✓
• D. Hazrat yousaf (AS)

Explanation: Hazrat Sulaiman (AS), also known as Prophet Solomon, had the ability to understand and communicate with animals. It is mentioned in various religious texts that he had been blessed with this unique gift from Allah.

Q3. The Daimonsion of work is same like the Daimonsion of?

• A. Impulse
• B. Torque
• C. Power
• D. Angular mmomentum✓

Explanation: The dimension of work is the same as the dimension of angular momentum. Both work and angular momentum have the dimension of mass times length squared divided by time squared. This means that they have the same units and can be expressed in terms of the same physical quantities.

Q4. The time rate of change of magnetic thes has the exact Daimonsion as that of:

• A. Current
• B. Resistance
• C. Magnetic induction
• D. Potential difference✓

Explanation: The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the same dimension as that of potential difference. Both quantities have the dimension of volts, which is represented by the unit symbol V. This means that they can both be measured using the same unit and are related to the flow of energy or charge.

Q5. The magnitude of i (j×k):

• A. 1✓
• B. 0
• C. 2
• D. None

Explanation: The magnitude of the cross product of j and k is 1. This means that the magnitude of the resulting vector when you take the cross product of j and k is equal to 1. The cross product is a mathematical operation that results in a vector that is perpendicular to both j and k. In this case, the magnitude of that resulting vector is 1.

Q6. A mas accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is:

• A. Zero
• B. Constant but not zero✓
• C. Increase uniformly with respect to time
• D. Both a & b

Explanation: When the resultant force acting on a mass is constant but not zero, the mass will accelerate uniformly. This means that the mass will continue to increase its velocity at a constant rate over time. The acceleration is directly proportional to the resultant force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object, as described by Newton's second law of motion (F = ma). So, even if the resultant force is constant, as long as it is not zero, the mass will experience a non-zero acceleration and undergo uniform acceleration.

Q7. Conservation of find momentum is equivalent to:

• A. Newton 1st lawmation
• B. Newton 2 law of motion
• C. Newton 3 law of motion✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent to Newton's third law of motion. According to Newton's third law, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This means that when two objects interact, the forces they exert on each other are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. When considering the conservation of linear momentum, the total momentum of a system of objects remains constant unless acted upon by external forces. This is because the change in momentum of one object is balanced by the change in momentum of another object due to the equal and opposite forces they exert on each other, as dictated by Newton's third law.

Q8. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:

• A. Circular
• B. Made of two straight line segments
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Parabolic✓

Explanation: When a stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building, it experiences only the force of gravity acting vertically downward. Since there is no initial vertical velocity, the stone's motion is governed solely by the downward force of gravity. The path of the stone is a result of the combination of its horizontal velocity (due to the initial throw) and the vertical acceleration due to gravity. As the stone falls vertically, it also continues to move horizontally due to its initial horizontal velocity. The resulting trajectory of the stone is a curved path known as a parabola.

Q9. A hunter aiming a bird in tree should aim:

• A. A little above the bird✓
• B. A little below
• C. Exactly at the bird
• D. Very high

Explanation: When a hunter aims at a bird in a tree, they should aim a little above the bird. This is because of the effect of gravity on the bullet or projectile. By aiming slightly higher, the bullet will follow a curved path due to gravity and have a better chance of hitting the bird.

Q10. The heat energy dissipated by 40 watt bulb in one hour is:

• A. 14401
• B. 14400J
• C. 144000J✓
• D. 1440,000 J

Explanation: The heat energy dissipated by a 40-watt bulb in one hour is 144,000 joules. This means that the bulb releases 144,000 units of heat energy during that time. It's important to note that this calculation is based on the power of the bulb and the duration of one hour.

Q11. When the body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is:

• A. Negative✓
• B. Positive
• C. Zero
• D. Maximum and positive

Explanation: When the body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is negative. This is because the force of friction acts in the opposite direction of the body's motion. When work is negative, it means that energy is being transferred from the body to the surroundings. In this case, the energy is being dissipated as heat due to the friction.

Q12. Which of the following type of force do not work:

• A. Elastic
• B. Frictional
• C. Gravitational
• D. Centripetal✓

Explanation: centripetal force does not do any work. Centripetal force is the force that keeps an object moving in a curved path, such as when an object is moving in a circle. It always acts perpendicular to the direction of motion, so it does not cause any displacement in the direction of the force. Therefore, no work is done by the centripetal force.

Q13. When sound waves travel from one medium to another medium which of the following remains the same:

• A. Wavelength
• B. Frequency✓
• C. Speed
• D. Intensity

Explanation: When sound waves travel from one medium to another, the frequency of the waves remains the same. Frequency refers to the number of complete cycles of the wave that occur in one second. It is a characteristic of the source of the sound and does not change when the sound waves pass through different mediums.

Q14. What is correct for all transverse waves:

• A. The involve in the oscillation of waves
• B. They can be polarized
• C. They can travel through a medium
• D. Both a & c✓

Explanation: For all transverse waves, they can indeed travel through a medium and cause oscillations of the medium. In transverse waves, the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. This creates a wave motion where the disturbance moves through the medium while the particles oscillate up and down or side to side. Examples of transverse waves include light waves and electromagnetic waves.

Q15. A 100cm long string with one end attached and the other is free to move transversaly is vibrating in its second harmonic motion the wavelength of conservative travelling wave is:

• A. 10
• B. 30
• C. 40✓
• D. 120

Explanation: In the second harmonic motion of a 100cm long string, the wavelength of the conservative traveling wave is 40cm. This means that there are two complete waves within the length of the string. Each wave has a length of 40cm.

Q16. We can hear sound around the corner but cannot see because of:

• A. interference
• B. diffraction✓
• C. polarization
• D. dispersion

Explanation: The diffraction of sound waves around a corner is noticeable. Therefore, sound can be heard around corners but cannot be seen.

Q17. To obtain greater Daimention by a Diffraction grating:

• A. The slit wide shoulde be increase
• B. The slit wide should be decreased
• C. The slit seperate should be increased✓
• D. The slit seperate should be decrease

Explanation: To obtain greater dimensionality using a diffraction grating, the slit separation should indeed increase. This allows for a larger number of slits to be present in the grating, which leads to a greater dispersion of the diffracted light. This increased dispersion can result in more distinct and separated spectral lines or diffraction patterns.

Q18. For all irreversible processes. The entropy of the system:

• A. Decrease
• B. Remain same
• C. Zero
• D. Increase✓

Explanation: When it comes to irreversible processes, the entropy of the system tends to increase. This is because irreversible processes involve the dissipation of energy and the generation of waste or heat. These processes lead to a more disordered state, which is associated with an increase in entropy. In simpler terms, irreversible processes make things more messy and chaotic, increasing the overall disorder of the system.

Q19. The temperature scale which is independent of the nature of the working substances is:

• A. Celcesius
• B. Fahrenheit
• C. Centigrade
• D. Thermodynamics✓

Explanation: In thermodynamics, the temperature scale that is independent of the nature of the working substances is the Kelvin scale. The Kelvin scale is an absolute temperature scale where zero Kelvin (0 K) represents absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. Unlike other temperature scales, such as Celsius or Fahrenheit, the Kelvin scale does not have negative values. It is used extensively in thermodynamics because it provides a consistent and universal measure of temperature.

Q20. if the temperature of the source of heat increases the efficiency of a Carnot engine:

• A. increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remain constant
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Actually, the efficiency of a Carnot engine decreases as the temperature of the heat source increases. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is determined by the temperature difference between the heat source and the heat sink. The larger the temperature difference, the higher the efficiency. So, if the temperature of the heat source increases, the temperature difference decreases, resulting in a lower efficiency.

Q21. The unit of the electric charge is:

• A. N/C
• B. V/m
• C. 1/Cm
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The explanation will be adedd soon!

Q22. The negative gradient of electric potential is as called:

• A. Potential energy
• B. Electric field intensity✓
• C. Electric potential energy
• D. Electron volt

Explanation: The negative gradient of electric potential is indeed called the electric field intensity. It represents the strength and direction of the electric field at a particular point. The electric field intensity tells us how much force a positive test charge would experience if placed in that electric field.

Q23. Two metallic conductors have the same value of resistivity These conductors can be differentiated from the values of their:

• A. Temperature coefficient✓
• B. Resistance
• C. Conductance
• D. Conductivity

Explanation: When two metallic conductors have the same value of resistivity, we can differentiate them based on their temperature coefficient. The temperature coefficient of a conductor tells us how its resistance changes with temperature. Different metals have different temperature coefficients, which means their resistance will change at different rates as the temperature changes. By comparing the temperature coefficients of the two conductors, we can determine how their resistances will vary with temperature.

Q24. if the streams of protons move parallel to each in the same direction, then they:

• A. Repel each other✓
• B. Attract each other
• C. Does not exert force on one another
• D. Get rotate

Explanation: If the streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they will indeed repel each other. This is because protons carry positive charge, and like charges repel. So, when the streams of protons are moving in the same direction, their positive charges will repel each other, causing them to move apart.

Q25. The current produced due to induced emf depends upon

• A. Area of the coil:
• B. Shape of the coil
• C. Turns of coil:
• D. Strength of magnetic field in which coil rotates✓

Explanation: According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the magnitude of the induced electromotive force (emf) and hence the current produced in a coil depends on the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil. This rate of change of magnetic flux depends on factors such as the strength of the magnetic field, the area of the coil, and the rate of rotation or change in orientation of the coil with respect to the magnetic field.

Q26. In a transistor, the emitter to base function is:

• A. Reversed biased
• B. Forward biased✓
• C. Neutral
• D. None of these

Explanation: In a transistor, the emitter to base function is forward-biased. A transistor is a three-terminal semiconductor device that can amplify or switch electronic signals. It consists of three layers: the emitter, the base, and the collector. The emitter is doped heavily with impurities to increase its conductivity, while the base is lightly doped. The collector is moderately doped. When a voltage is applied between the emitter and the base, in the forward direction, the emitter-base junction is forward-biased.

Q27. In Einstein‘s universe what is the fourth dimension:

• A. Distance
• B. Speed
• C. Time✓
• D. Energy

Explanation: Einstein's theory of relativity introduced the revolutionary concept of spacetime, where the three dimensions of space are intertwined with the dimension of time, forming a four-dimensional continuum. This framework allows for the description of events based on four coordinates: three for space and one for time. Time, as the fourth dimension, is integral to understanding how objects move and interact in the universe, particularly under the influence of gravity.The incorrect options can be explained as follows: Distance and speed are related to spatial movement, but they do not represent dimensions in spacetime. Energy, while crucial in Einstein's theories, is not a dimension but rather a quantity that links mass through relativity.

Q28. The excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called:

• A. Ground state
• B. lonized state
• C. Metastable state✓
• D. Ordinary excited state

Explanation: The excited state that persists for an unusually longer period of time is called a "metastable state." In this state, an atom or molecule remains in an excited state for a longer duration before returning to its ground state. This happens because there are no immediate pathways for the release of excess energy. Metastable states can be quite fascinating and have various applications in fields like lasers and particle physics.

Q29. The path traced by beta particles in air is:

• A. Straight
• B. Erratic✓
• C. Circular
• D. Elliptical

Explanation: The path traced by beta particles in air is erratic. This is because beta particles are high-speed electrons emitted during radioactive decay. As they travel, they collide with air molecules, causing them to scatter and lose energy, resulting in a zigzag or erratic path.Option A, Straight, is incorrect because constant collisions with air molecules prevent beta particles from maintaining a straight trajectory over any significant distance.Option C, Circular, and Option D, Elliptical, are incorrect as they describe paths influenced by strong magnetic fields, which beta particles do not experience under normal atmospheric conditions.

Q30. One atom of sodium is:

• A. 23g
• B. NA moles
• C. Positively charged
• D. 1/NA moles✓

Explanation: Given: No. of atoms of sodium = 1 Using fromula: No. of atoms = n * NA 1 = n * NA n = 1/NA Hence, option D is correct.

Q31. Stoichiometry calculations can only be carried out when:

• A. The reaction is irreversible
• B. There is no side reaction
• C. At least one of the reactants is consumed completely
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: When performing stoichiometry calculations, it is ideal to have no side reactions and irreversible reactions. This ensures that the reaction proceeds in a predictable and controlled manner, allowing for accurate calculations of reactants and products. Side reactions can introduce additional variables and complicate the stoichiometric calculations. Irreversible reactions ensure that the reaction proceeds in one direction, making it easier to determine the stoichiometry.

Q32. One-gram atom of chlorine is equal to:

• A. One mole of chlorine atoms
• B. 71 grams
• C. One gram of chlorine atoms
• D. a, b both are correct✓

Explanation: One-gram atom of chlorine is equal to one mole of chlorine atoms, which is approximately 6.022 x 10^23 atoms. Additionally, it is also equal to 71 grams of chlorine. The molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 grams per mole, so 2 moles of chlorine would be 71 grams.

Q33. Total charge on electron is:

• A. -1.6×10-10C
• B. -1.6.10-19C✓
• C. -3.2×10-10 C
• D. -1.6x10-13 C

Explanation: The charge on an electron is −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulomb (C).It is a fundamental constant and represents the smallest unit of negative charge.This negative charge is equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the charge of a proton.

Q34. If maximum value of principle quantum number for an atom is four then total number of electrons in an atom will be ;

• A. 32✓
• B. 60
• C. 18
• D. 28

Explanation: If the maximum value of the principal quantum number for an atom is four, it means that the atom can have up to four energy levels. The total number of electrons in an atom can be calculated using the formula 2n², where n is the principal quantum number. So, for an atom with a maximum principal quantum number of four, the total number of electrons would be 2(4)² = 2(16) = 32 electrons.

Q35. Velocity of an electron will be maximum in the:

• A. First energy level✓
• B. Second energy level
• C. Third energy level
• D. Fourth energy level

Explanation: In the first energy level, the velocity of an electron is not necessarily maximum. The energy level determines the distance of the electron from the nucleus, but it doesn't directly affect its velocity. The velocity of an electron is determined by its kinetic energy, which is related to its speed. The speed of an electron can vary depending on its energy state and the forces acting upon it.

Q36. A container with a porous wall is filled wi of He, H2, N2, and CO2. Which one of these gas the least time to diffuse out of the container molar:

• A. He
• B. H2✓
• C. N2
• D. CO2

Explanation: According to Graham's Law of Effusion, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Hydrogen (H2) has the lowest molar mass (approximately 2 g/mol) among the gases listed, which allows it to diffuse out of the container the quickest. Helium (He) follows with a molar mass of about 4 g/mol, making it faster than nitrogen (N2, 28 g/mol) and carbon dioxide (CO2, 44 g/mol), but slower than H2. Therefore, H2 is the correct answer as it takes the least time to diffuse out of the container.

Q37. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at:

• A. High temperature and low pressure
• B. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• C. High temperature and high pressure
• D. Low temperature and low pressure

Explanation: Low pressure decreases the influence of the size of real gas particles by increasing the volume surrounding each particle. The particles have enough kinetic energy to overcome the attraction between them at high temperatures. Hence, gases behave ideally at low pressure and high temperature.

Q38. Which of the following elements will have strongest Van Der Waal force of attraction between its molecules:

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Oxygen
• C. Chlorine
• D. Nitrogen✓

Explanation: Nitrogen is a diatomic molecule, meaning it exists as N2. Nitrogen molecules have a symmetrical distribution of electrons, which results in temporary fluctuations in electron density and the creation of temporary dipoles. These temporary dipoles give rise to Van der Waals forces, specifically London dispersion forces, between nitrogen molecules. The strength of these forces depends on factors such as the number of electrons and the shape of the molecules. Since nitrogen has a relatively large number of electrons, it can experience stronger Van der Waals forces compared to elements with fewer electrons. So, nitrogen would have relatively strong Van der Waals forces between its molecules.

Q39. Equal number of moles of three gases O2, Cl, and H: are enclosed in a container at room temperature. If the container leaks accidently then:

• A. H₂ will effuse out force✓
• B. Ch will effuse out last
• C. O will effuse out second
• D. All will effuse out at the same time but with different rates

Explanation: If the container accidentally leaks, hydrogen gas (H2) will effuse out of the container faster compared to oxygen gas (O2) and chlorine gas (Cl). This is because the rate of effusion is inversely proportional to the square root of the molar mass. Hydrogen has the lowest molar mass among the three gases, so its particles are lighter and can move more quickly through the leak, leading to faster effusion.

Q40. Methyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to:

• A. Dipole-dipole forces.
• B. Dispersion forces
• C. Hydrogen bonding✓
• D. Dipole-dipole forces and dispersion forces

Explanation: Methyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to the presence of hydrogen bonding. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is bonded to a highly electronegative atom (such as nitrogen or oxygen) and is attracted to another electronegative atom in a neighboring molecule. This creates strong intermolecular forces, causing the molecules to stick together and remain in a liquid state at room temperature.

Q41. All of the following are liquid crystals acept:

• A. Seap salution
• B. DNA
• C. Cholesteryl format
• D. Engine oil✓

Explanation: Engine oil is not a liquid crystal. Liquid crystals are a state of matter that exhibits properties of both liquids and solids. They have a unique molecular arrangement that allows them to flow like a liquid while maintaining some degree of order like a solid. Engine oil, on the other hand, is a viscous liquid that is used to lubricate and cool the engine components in vehicles. It doesn't exhibit the characteristic properties of liquid crystals.

Q42. Crystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal lons are:

• A. ionic crystals
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Molecular crystals
• D. Metallic crystals✓

Explanation: Metallic crystals are crystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal ions. In metallic crystals, the metal ions are surrounded by a "sea" of delocalized electrons, which are free to move throughout the crystal lattice. This delocalized electron cloud gives metallic crystals their unique properties, such as high electrical and thermal conductivity, malleability, and ductility. These properties allow metals to be good conductors of electricity and heat, as well as easily shaped into different forms.

Q43. All of the following are covalent network crystals except:

• A. SiO3
• B. Graphite
• C. S8✓
• D. Diamond

Explanation: S8 refers to sulfur, which forms a molecular crystal rather than a covalent network crystal. In S8, individual sulfur molecules are held together by weak intermolecular forces, such as dispersion forces. Covalent network crystals, on the other hand, consist of a continuous network of covalent bonds throughout the crystal structure. Examples of covalent network crystals include diamond and silicon carbide.

Q44. is an imaginary plane which divides a crystal into two equal halves which are the exact mirror images of each other. The proper term for "X" is:

• A. Axis of rotation
• B. Plane of symmetry✓
• C. Center of symmetry
• D. Axis of inversion

Explanation: A plane of symmetry in crystallography is an imaginary plane that divides a crystal into two equal halves. These halves are mirror images of each other, meaning that if you were to reflect one half across the plane, it would perfectly overlap with the other half. This concept helps us understand the symmetry and structure of crystals.

Q45. If one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine in an empty container then with the passage of time rate of:

• A. The forward reaction increases
• B. Both forward and reverse reaction remains unaffected
• C. The reverse reaction decreases
• D. The forward reaction decreases✓

Explanation: When one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine, they react to form hydrogen iodide. As the reaction proceeds, the concentration of hydrogen and iodine decreases while the concentration of hydrogen iodide increases. Since the rate of the forward reaction depends on the concentrations of the reactants, the rate of the forward reaction decreases over time as the reactant concentrations decrease.

Q46. Buffer is a solution which:

• A. Has constant pH
• B. Resist change in its pH✓
• C. Consists of a strong acid and a strong base
• D. Contains salts of strong acids and strong bases

Explanation: A buffer solution is a solution that resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added to it. It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base and its conjugate acid) which can react with the added acid or base, preventing a significant change in pH. The weak acid/base helps maintain the pH stability of the solution.

Q47. Equilibrium constant expression can be applied to

• A. An aqueous solution of sucrose
• B. An aqueous solution of table salt✓
• C. An aqueous solution of fructose
• D. A solution of kerosene

Explanation: The equilibrium constant expression can be applied to an aqueous solution of salt when the salt dissociates into its constituent ions. The equilibrium constant expression allows us to quantify the extent of the dissociation and determine the concentrations of the ions in the solution at equilibrium. It helps us understand the equilibrium behavior of the salt in the solution.

Q48. Ice can be melted at a temperature below than 0°C by applying pressure. The process is an example of:

• A. Physical change
• B. Non-spontaneous physical change✓
• C. Spontaneous physical change
• D. Non-spontaneous chemical change

Explanation: The process you're referring to is an example of a non-spontaneous physical change. When pressure is applied to ice at a temperature below 0°C, it can melt and turn into water, even though the temperature is still below its normal melting point. This happens because the increased pressure alters the equilibrium between the solid and liquid phases, causing the ice to melt. It's a fascinating phenomenon.

Q49. The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in the chemical reaction is the same no matter the reaction takes place one step or several steps" in the statement of:

• A. First law of thermodynamics
• B. Hess's law✓
• C. Law of mass action
• D. Raoult's law

Explanation: Hess's Law states that the total heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction is the same, whether the reaction occurs in one step or multiple steps. This is because the overall enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the specific pathway taken. It's a useful principle that allows us to calculate the enthalpy changes of complex reactions by using simpler reactions.

Q50. Calorimeter is an apparatus used for measurement:

• A. Mechanism of the reaction
• B. Order of the reaction
• C. Heat of the reaction✓
• D. Stoichiometry of the reaction

Explanation: A calorimeter is a device used to measure the heat of a reaction. It works by isolating the reaction within a container and measuring the temperature change that occurs. By knowing the specific heat capacity of the calorimeter, we can calculate the heat released or absorbed during the reaction. It's a handy tool for studying the energy changes in chemical reactions.

Q51. Oxidation is a chemical process in which a substance:

• A. Gains oxygen
• B. Loses hydrogen
• C. Loses electron
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: In oxidation, a substance loses electrons and may also gain oxygen or lose hydrogen. It's a chemical process that involves the transfer of electrons from one species to another.

Q52. Oxidation state of manganese in KMnO:

• A. +5
• B. +7✓
• C. +3
• D. +2

Explanation: In KMnO₄, the oxidation state of manganese (Mn) is +7. This means that manganese has lost seven electrons and has a positive charge of +7 in the compound. It's an interesting example of how elements can have different oxidation states in different compounds.

Q53. Propancyl chloride is a member of:

• A. Alkyl halides✓
• B. Acid amides
• C. Acid anhydrides
• D. Acid halides

Explanation: Propancyl chloride is indeed a member of the alkyl halide family. Alkyl halides are organic compounds that contain a halogen atom (such as chlorine, bromine, or iodine) bonded to an alkyl group. Propancyl chloride specifically has a chlorine atom bonded to a three-carbon alkyl group.

Q54. Which one of the following is discovered by "Robert Hook" earlier than protoplast?

• A. Cell membrane
• B. Cell wall✓
• C. Nucleus
• D. Mitochondria

Explanation: Robert Hooke discovered the cell wall before the protoplast. He observed and named the cell walls while examining cork cells under a microscope in the 17th century. The protoplast, on the other hand, refers to the living contents of a cell, including the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Q55. This is absent in prokaryotic cells:

• A. Chloroplast✓
• B. Ribosome
• C. Cell wall
• D. DNA

Explanation: Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, do not have chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is a pigment found in the chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells, specifically in plant cells and some algae. It plays a crucial role in photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Prokaryotic cells, on the other hand, do not have chloroplasts or perform photosynthesis.

Q56. The organelle which is not present in animal cells is:

• A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• B. Ribosome
• C. Mitochondrion
• D. Plastid✓

Explanation: Plastids are organelles that are not present in animal cells. They are unique to plant cells and some protists. Plastids have various functions, such as storing pigments like chlorophyll for photosynthesis, storing starch, or even storing lipids. One well-known type of plastid is the chloroplast, which is responsible for photosynthesis. Animal cells do not have plastids, but they have other specialized organelles that serve different functions.

Q57. Which one is drinking process of the cell:

• A. Exocytosis
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Pinocytosis✓
• D. Phagocytosis

Explanation: Pinocytosis is like the drinking process of the cell. It is a type of endocytosis where the cell takes in fluid and dissolved solutes from its surroundings. The cell forms small vesicles to engulf the extracellular fluid, bringing it into the cell. This process allows the cell to take in nutrients, ions, and other molecules from the environment.

Q58. The synthesis of glycogen is known as:

• A. Gluconeogenesis
• B. Glycogenolysis
• C. Glycolysis
• D. Glycogenesis✓

Explanation: Glycogenesis is like the process of "making" glycogen. It is the synthesis of glycogen, which is a form of stored glucose in the body. During glycogenesis, glucose molecules are linked together to form long chains of glycogen, which are stored in the liver and muscles. This process helps regulate blood sugar levels and provides a readily available source of energy when needed.

Q59. All of these are disaccharides except for:

• A. Maltose
• B. Lactose
• C. Sucrose
• D. Fructose✓

Explanation: Fructose is not a disaccharide. It is a monosaccharide, just like glucose and galactose. While disaccharides are composed of two sugar molecules, fructose is a single sugar molecule. It's a sweet-tasting sugar found in fruits and honey. So, fructose stands out from the disaccharides as a monosaccharide.

Q60. The covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called:

• A. Glycosidic bond.✓
• B. Peptide bond
• C. Ester bond
• D. Hydrogen bond

Explanation: The covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called a glycosidic bond. It forms when the hydroxyl group of one sugar molecule reacts with the hydroxyl group of another sugar molecule, resulting in the formation of a bond and the release of a water molecule. In the case of glucose and fructose, their glycosidic bond forms sucrose, which is a disaccharide commonly found in table sugar.

Q61. What happened to reaction if activation energy is increased:

• A. Rate of reaction decreases✓
• B. Rate of reaction Increases
• C. No effect on rate of reaction
• D. Reaction is reversed

Explanation: Actually, if the activation energy of a reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction would decrease, not increase. Activation energy is the minimum energy required for a reaction to occur. By increasing the activation energy, it becomes more difficult for the reactant molecules to overcome this energy barrier and undergo the reaction. As a result, the reaction proceeds at a slower rate.

Q62. An enzyme without Its cofactor is called:

• A. Active site
• B. Co-enzyme
• C. Prosthetic group
• D. Apoenzyme✓

Explanation: An enzyme without its cofactor is called an apoenzyme, my friend! The apoenzyme is the protein component of the enzyme that is inactive without the presence of its necessary cofactor. The cofactor is a non-protein molecule, such as a metal ion or a coenzyme, that binds to the apoenzyme and activates it, allowing it to perform its catalytic function. Together, the apoenzyme and the cofactor form the active enzyme, also known as the holoenzyme.

Q63. Co-enzymes are derived from:

• A. Vitamins
• B. Minerals
• C. Hormones
• D. Both A and b✓

Explanation: Co-enzymes are like "helpers" for enzymes, and they can be derived from various sources, including vitamins and minerals. Vitamins are organic compounds that our bodies need in small amounts to function properly. Some vitamins, such as vitamin B complex and vitamin C, can act as co-enzymes or be used to synthesize co-enzymes. Minerals, on the other hand, are inorganic substances that are also essential for our bodies. Certain minerals, like iron, zinc, and magnesium, can play a role in the structure or function of co-enzymes. So, by consuming a balanced diet that includes vitamins and minerals, we can support the production and activity of co-enzymes in our bodies. It's amazing how our bodies rely on these micronutrients for various biochemical processes!

Q64. Nucleic acids are made up of LAY

• A. NTPS✓
• B. ATPS
• C. dATP
• D. none of these

Explanation: Nucleic acids are made up of nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of three components: a nitrogenous base (like adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine), a sugar molecule (deoxyribose in DNA or ribose in RNA), and a phosphate group. When these nucleotides join together through phosphodiester bonds, they form long chains, which are the nucleic acids. These nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, play crucial roles in storing and transmitting genetic information. It's fascinating how the arrangement of these nucleotides determines the genetic code of life.

Q65. Which of the following light property affects photosynthesis:

• A. light quality✓
• B. Ught Intensity
• C. Light duration
• D. None

Explanation: The light quality affects photosynthesis.Different wavelengths or colors of light have varying effects on the process. Chlorophyll, the pigment responsible for capturing light energy, absorbs light primarily in the red and blue regions of the spectrum. These wavelengths are most effective in driving photosynthesis. Light quality can influence the rate and efficiency of photosynthesis in plants.

Q66. The first stable product of dark reaction is--carbon molecule;

• A. 6
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 3✓

Explanation: The first stable product of the dark reaction is a three-carbon molecule called 3-phosphoglycerate. This molecule is formed during the Calvin cycle, which is part of the dark reaction or the light-independent phase of photosynthesis. 3-phosphoglycerate is an important intermediate that undergoes further transformations to produce glucose and other organic compounds.

Q67. Tobacco mosaic virus is:

• A. Spherical
• B. Tad-pole like
• C. Rod shape✓
• D. Polyhedral

Explanation: The explanation will be added soon!

Q68. All of the following are viruses except:

• A. SARS
• B. FIV
• C. SIV
• D. Mycoplasma✓

Explanation: mycloplasma is not a virus. Mycoplasma is actually a type of bacteria that lacks a cell wall.

Q69. Which of the following hepatitis is transmitted by feco-oral route?

• A. Hepatitis A✓
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Hepatitis C
• D. Hepatitis D

Explanation: Hepatitis A is the type of hepatitis that is transmitted through the feco-oral route, my friend. It is usually spread through contaminated food or water, or through close contact with an infected person. It's important to practice good hygiene and proper sanitation to prevent the spread of this virus.

Q70. Which one archaea dominantly occur in dead sea:

• A. Thermophile
• B. Halophiles✓
• C. Both a and b
• D. Methanogen

Explanation: In the Dead Sea, halophiles are the dominant type of archaea that thrive. Halophiles are microorganisms that can tolerate and even thrive in highly saline environments. The high salt concentration in the Dead Sea creates a unique habitat where these organisms can flourish.

Q71. Which of the following causes tuberculosis and leprosy:

• A. Streptomyces
• B. Actinomycetes✓
• C. Mycoplasma
• D. None of these

Explanation: Antinomycetes are a group of bacteria that includes the genera Mycobacterium, which are responsible for causing tuberculosis and leprosy. These diseases can have significant impacts on individuals and communities, so it's important to raise awareness and take appropriate measures for prevention and treatment.

Q72. All of the above are bacillus bacteria except:

• A. Pseudomonas
• B. Clostridium
• C. Salmonella
• D. Streptococcus✓

Explanation: Streptococcus is not a type of bacillus bacteria. Streptococcus is actually a genus of spherical-shaped bacteria that often form chains.

Q73. The exoskeleton of coelenterates is made of:

• A. Calcium oxalate
• B. Calcium carbonate✓
• C. Sodium carbonate
• D. Silica

Explanation: The exoskeleton of coelenterates, such as corals and some sea anemones, is indeed made of calcium carbonate. This calcium carbonate forms the hard, protective structure that we often see in coral reefs.

Q74. Water to the body of sponges enter by:

• A. Osculum
• B. Ostia✓
• C. Madreporite
• D. Spongocoel

Explanation: Water enters the body of sponges through small openings called ostia. These ostia are like tiny pores on the surface of the sponge. Water flows into the sponge through the ostia, bringing in food particles and oxygen for the sponge to filter and extract. It's fascinating how sponges have this unique way of obtaining water and nutrients.

Q75. Phylum chordata is divided into sub phyla

• A. Two
• B. Three✓
• C. Four
• D. Five

Explanation: The phylum Chordata is indeed divided into three subphyla. These subphyla are Urochordata (tunicates or sea squirts), Cephalochordata (lancelets), and Vertebrata (vertebrates). Each subphylum has its own unique characteristics and members.

Q76. Respiratory system gives the basic ability to:

• A. Smell
• B. Breathe✓
• C. Intake of Oxygen
• D. Giving out carbon dioxide

Explanation: The respiratory system gives us the basic ability to breathe. It allows us to take in oxygen from the air and release carbon dioxide, a waste product, from our bodies. Breathing is essential for the exchange of gases and providing oxygen to our cells.

Q77. Respiratory surface must be preamble, thin having large surface area and good supply of:

• A. Gasses
• B. Lymph
• C. Blood✓
• D. All of them

Explanation: The respiratory surface needs to be permeable, thin, and have a large surface area to facilitate efficient gas exchange. This allows for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the respiratory surface and the surrounding environment. Additionally, a good supply of blood is essential as it helps transport gases to and from the respiratory surface.

Q78. The bronchieins are located at the end of the bronchi and terminate in the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Alveoli✓
• C. Alveolar sac
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: The bronchioles, which are located at the end of the bronchi, terminate in tiny air sacs called alveoli. These alveoli are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration. It's amazing how our respiratory system is structured to ensure efficient gas exchange in our bodies.

Q79. Bone is surrounded by a membrane called:

• A. Perichondrium
• B. Prostomium
• C. Perimycium
• D. Periosteum✓

Explanation: The correct answer is periosteum. The periosteum is a dense fibrous membrane covering the surface of bones. It plays a vital role in bone growth and repair and contains blood vessels and nerves that supply nutrients and sensation to the bone.The perichondrium surrounds cartilage, not bone. The prostomium is unrelated to bone, being a part of certain invertebrates. Perimycium pertains to muscle tissue, not bone.

Q80. Skull of human is made up of bones:

• A. 18
• B. 28
• C. 22✓
• D. 06

Explanation: The human skull is actually made up of 22 bones. These bones include the cranial bones, which protect the brain, and the facial bones, which give shape and structure to our face. It's fascinating how these bones come together to form our unique and intricate skull!

Q81. The false ribs in humans on each side area:

• A. 3✓
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8

Explanation: Humans have 12 pairs of ribs, and the false ribs are the last five pairs. Out of these, the first three pairs of false ribs do not directly attach to the sternum (breastbone) but instead connect to the cartilage of the rib above them. This gives them the name "false" ribs. The last two pairs of false ribs are also called "floating" ribs because they do not attach to the sternum or any other ribs.

Q82. A wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of neuron, from one end to other is:

• A. Reflex arc
• B. Reflex action
• C. Nerve impulse✓
• D. Influx

Explanation: A nerve impulse is indeed a wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of a neuron, from one end to the other. It's like an electrical signal that carries information within our nervous system. These impulses allow for communication between different parts of our body and help coordinate various functions.

Q83. The type of nerve impulse in non myelinated neuron will be:

• A. Continuous✓
• B. Saltaton
• C. Electrical
• D. All of them

Explanation: In non-myelinated neurons, the nerve impulse is continuous. This means that the electrical signal travels along the entire length of the neuron without interruption. It's like a continuous flow of information. In contrast, myelinated neurons have a specialized covering called myelin sheath, which allows for a faster and more efficient transmission of the nerve impulse.

Q84. Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:

• A. Steroid hormones✓
• B. Amino acid naturic
• C. Protein nature
• D. Polypeptide nature

Explanation: Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are indeed steroid hormones. These hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by the endocrine system and play important roles in various bodily functions. Steroid hormones, like testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone, are derived from cholesterol and have a similar chemical structure. They are involved in regulating reproductive processes, development, and other physiological processes.

Q85. Insulin is secreted by:

• A. Alpha cells
• B. Beta cells✓
• C. Delta cells
• D. Acinar cells

Explanation: Beta cells are a type of cells found in the pancreas. These cells are responsible for producing and releasing insulin, which is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels in our body. When we eat, beta cells release insulin to help our cells absorb glucose from the bloodstream and use it for energy. It's fascinating how our body's intricate systems work together to maintain balance.

Q86. Endometriosis will cause infertility In:

• A. Male
• B. Female✓
• C. Both
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus, called the endometrium, grows outside of the uterus. This can lead to the formation of scar tissue, adhesions, and inflammation in the reproductive organs. These changes can affect the functioning of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and uterus, making it more difficult for a woman to conceive. However, it's important to note that not all women with endometriosis experience infertility, and there are various treatment options available.

Q87. The species which are becoming near to extinction are called:

• A. Wild
• B. Endangered✓
• C. Threatened
• D. None

Explanation: Species that are at risk of becoming extinct are called endangered. These are species that have a very small population size and are facing threats such as habitat loss, poaching, pollution, or climate change. Efforts are made to protect and conserve these species to prevent their extinction.

Q88. The railway system is very efficient as the train always arrive, time:

• A. Up
• B. for
• C. At✓
• D. at

Explanation: This phrase suggests that the train schedules are consistently accurate and that trains arrive on time. In this case, it indicates that the railway system is efficient and reliable.

Q89. You _ quit smoking or it will damage your lung

• A. must✓
• B. have to
• C. Might
• D. Should

Explanation: The option A provides completes sense of the sentence.

Q90. What is the term for the study of the nature of right and wrong?

• A. Anthropology
• B. Sociology
• C. Ethics✓
• D. Psychology

Explanation: Ethics is a branch of philosophy that examines moral principles and values, and seeks to understand what is considered morally right or wrong in different contexts. It explores questions about how we should behave, make decisions, and treat others. Ethical theories and frameworks help guide us in making ethical judgments and navigating complex moral dilemmas.

Q91. That is a figure of speech in which two unlike things are compared using "like":

• A. Metaphor
• B. Simile✓
• C. Personification
• D. Hyperbole

Explanation: A simile is a figure of speech that compares two unlike things using the words "like" or "as." It helps create vivid imagery and adds depth to our descriptions. For example, saying "Her smile is as bright as the sun" is a simile because it compares the brightness of a smile to the brightness of the sun. Similes are a fun way to make our language more colorful and expressive.

Q92. Which of the following words is a synonym for "happy":

• A. Sad
• B. Angry
• C. Joyful✓
• D. Boring

Explanation: "Joyful" is indeed a synonym for "happy," Both words express a positive and cheerful state of being. When we are joyful, we experience a deep sense of happiness and delight. It's like feeling an overwhelming sense of joy and contentment. So, if someone is joyful, they are essentially very happy.

Q93. What is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does notexpress a complete thought?

• A. Phrase
• B. Clause✓
• C. Sentence
• D. Paragraph

Explanation: A group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought is called an "incomplete clause" or a "dependent clause. It needs additional information or another clause to form a complete sentence. Dependent clauses often start with subordinating conjunctions like "because," "although," or "when." For example, in the sentence "Although it was raining," the clause "Although it was raining" is a dependent clause because it doesn't express a complete thought on its own.

Q94. What is the term for a sentence that give a command or make a request.

• A. Statement
• B. Question
• C. Exclamation
• D. Imperative✓

Explanation: A sentence that gives a command or makes a request is called an "imperative sentence.Imperative sentences are used to give orders, instructions, or express a strong request. They often start with a verb and do not typically include a subject. For example, "Clean your room!" or "Please pass the salt." Imperative sentences are a common way to communicate directions or ask someone to do something.

Q95. what is the synonym of word "beautiful":

• A. Ugly
• B. Pretty✓
• C. Handsome
• D. Gorgeous

Explanation: "Pretty" is indeed a synonym of the word "beautiful.Both words are used to describe something that is visually pleasing or attractive. They can be used interchangeably to express admiration for someone or something's appearance.

Q96. what is the term used for showing a strong emotions or surprise:

• A. Statement
• B. Question
• C. Exclamation✓
• D. Imperative

Explanation: The term used for showing strong emotions or surprise is an "exclamation.An exclamation is a punctuation mark (!) used at the end of a sentence to express strong emotions such as excitement, surprise, or emphasis. It adds emphasis and intensity to the statement.

Q97. what is the term for a word or phrase that has a similar sound to the word they describe such as "buzz" for the sound of bee?

• A. Simile
• B. Alliteration
• C. Onomatopoeia✓
• D. Metaphor

Explanation: The term for a word or phrase that sounds like the sound it describes is called "onomatopoeia." Onomatopoeic words are words that imitate or mimic the sound they represent. For example, "buzz" imitates the sound of a bee, "hiss" imitates the sound of a snake, or "splash" imitates the sound of water. Onomatopoeia adds a fun and vivid element to language by using words that sound like what they mean.

Q98. Molar concentration of a reactant 'A' is one, then the rate of reaction of the reactant 'A' will be:

• A. Greater than rate constant
• B. Lesser than rate constant
• C. Equal to rate constant✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: If the molar concentration of reactant 'A' is one, the rate of reaction of 'A' will not necessarily be equal to the rate constant. The rate of reaction depends on various factors such as the order of the reaction, presence of catalysts, temperature, and other reactants. The rate constant, on the other hand, is a specific value that represents the rate of reaction at a particular temperature.

Q99. In many reactions reactants pass through many intermediates before producing the product. These reactions consist of elementary steps. The rate at which the product is produced depends on:

• A. Fastest step
• B. Slowest step✓
• C. Intermediate step
• D. First step

Explanation: In many reactions, the rate at which the product is produced depends on the slowest step, also known as the rate-determining step. This is because the overall rate of the reaction is limited by the speed of this particular step. The rate-determining step is typically the step with the highest activation energy or the slowest reaction rate. It sets the pace for the entire reaction, even if other steps may occur more quickly.

Q100. The reaction whose rate doesn't depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression is:

• A. Not possible
• B. Zero order reaction✓
• C. First order reaction
• D. Second order reaction

Explanation: A zero-order reaction is a type of reaction where the rate of the reaction does not depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression. In a zero-order reaction, the rate of the reaction remains constant regardless of changes in the concentration of the reactants. This means that even if the concentration of the reactants increases or decreases, the rate of the reaction will not be affected. The rate of a zero-order reaction is determined solely by the rate constant.