Kmu Centralized Admission Test 2023 Part 2 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The dimensions of energy are the same as those of:

• A. Momentum
• B. Acceleration
• C. Force
• D. Work✓

Explanation: Energy and work have the same dimensions because they are closely related concepts. Both energy and work are measured in joules (J) in the International System of Units (SI). This is because work is defined as the transfer of energy that occurs when a force is applied to an object and it moves a certain distance in the direction of the force. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q2. Which of the following is both unitless and dimensionless?

• A. Angle
• B. Solid angle
• C. Mechanical equivalent of heat
• D. Refractive index✓

Explanation: The refractive index is a ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium. Since it is a ratio of similar units (both speeds are in meters per second), it is unitless and dimensionless. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q3. Which of the following is an example of a vector product of two vectors?

• A. Linear momentum
• B. Angular momentum✓
• C. Force
• D. Electric flux

Explanation: Angular momentum is an example of a vector product of two vectors. The vector product, also known as cross product, is an operation between two vectors that results in a new vector.

Q4. A mass accelerates uniformily when the resultant force acting on it:

• A. Is zero
• B. Is constant but not zero✓
• C. Increases uniformly with respect to time
• D. Is proportional to the displacement of the mass from a fixed point

Explanation: A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is constant but not zero.

Q5. If P is the momentum of an object of mass m, then the expression Pm has the same unit as:

• A. Acceleration
• B. Energy✓
• C. Force
• D. Impulse

Explanation: The unit of momentum is kg.m/s and the unit of mass is kg, so the unit of Pm would be kg2.m/s. This unit is equivalent to the unit of energy, which is the joule J. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q6. The range of projectile is the same for two angles which are mutually:

• A. Perpendicular
• B. Supplementary
• C. Complementary✓
• D. 270̇°

Explanation: Two angles are complementary if their sum is 90 degrees. As explained previously, the range equation involves sin2θ. Because sin(180° - 2θ) = sin2θ, the range will be the same for angles θ and (90° - θ), which are complementary.

Q7. A man throws a ball vertically upward while standing in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will fall:

• A. In front of him
• B. In his hand✓
• C. Behind him
• D. Beside him

Explanation: When the man throws the ball vertically upward inside the train, the ball initially moves upward due to the force applied by the man's hand. However, both the man and the train are moving with uniform velocity, which means they have a constant speed and direction. As a result, the ball will continue to move upward relative to the man. Eventually, it will lose its upward velocity and start to fall back down due to the force of gravity acting on it. Since the man is inside the train, and both the man and the train are moving together at a constant velocity, when the ball starts to fall back down, it will fall back into the man's hand. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q8. Which of the following is/are conservative fields:

• A. Gravitational
• B. Electric field
• C. Magnetic field
• D. All the above✓

Explanation: A conservative field is a type of vector field in physics where the work done by a force in moving an object from one point to another is independent of the path taken. In other words, it depends only on the initial and final positions of the object. A. Gravitational field is conservative because the work done in moving an object from one position to another depends only on the initial and final positions, not the path taken. B. Electric field is conservative for the same reason as the gravitational field. The work done by an electric field in moving a charged particle depends only on the initial and final positions. C. Magnetic field is not a conservative field. The work done by a magnetic field on a charged particle depends on the path taken, not just the initial and final positions. So, option D, "All," is correct because gravitational and electric fields are conservative, while the magnetic field is not.

Q9. A flywheel rotates at a constant speed of 3000 rpm. The angle described by the shaf in radian in one second is:

• A. 2m
• B. 30m
• C. 100π✓
• D. 3000m

Explanation: Formula: Angle (in radians) = Angular speed (in radians per second) × Time (in seconds) Given: Angular speed = 3000 revolutions per minute (rpm) = 3000 × 2π radians per minute = 3000 × 2π / 60 radians per second = 100π radians per second Time = 1 second Solution: Angle = Angular speed × Time = 100π × 1 = 100π radians Therefore, option c is correct.

Q10. The moment of inertia of an object does not depend upon:

• A. Mass of an object
• B. Mass of distribution
• C. Angular velocity✓
• D. Axis of rotation

Explanation: The moment of inertia Iof an object is a measure of its resistance to changes in angular velocity. It depends on the mass of the object and how that mass is distributed around the axis of rotation, but it is not influenced by the current angular velocity. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q11. The wave velocity in any medium depends upon:

• A. Elasticity
• B. Density
• C. Homogeneity
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D, "All of the above" because the wave velocity in any medium depends on all of these factors: elasticity, density, and homogeneity. - Elasticity affects how well a material can transmit mechanical waves. More elastic materials allow for faster wave propagation. - Density plays a role because waves travel at different speeds through materials with different densities. For example, sound waves travel faster in denser materials. - Homogeneity refers to the uniformity of a medium. A more homogeneous medium allows for more consistent wave propagation.

Q12. The number of loops in stationary waves depends upon:

• A. velocity of waves
• B. wavelength of waves
• C. nature of the medium
• D. frequency of waves✓

Explanation: No. of loops in stationary waves depend on frequency of waves.

Q13. Doppler's effect is applicable to:

• A. Sound waves
• B. Radio waves
• C. Electromagnetic waves
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Doppler's effect applies to all options (A, B, C). It describes the change in frequency of waves due to relative motion between the source and observer. For sound, it's apparent in pitch shifts; for radio and electromagnetic waves, in frequency shifts affecting observed wavelength.

Q14. The color of sky is blue due to:

• A. Interference of light
• B. Diffraction of light
• C. Polarization of light
• D. Scattering of light✓

Explanation: Rayleigh scattering occurs when small particles in the atmosphere (such as nitrogen and oxygen molecules) scatter shorter wavelengths of light (like blue and violet) more effectively than longer wavelengths (like red and yellow). This is why the sky appears blue to our eyes. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q15. Which of the following waves cannot be polarized?

• A. Radio waves
• B. Ultrasound✓
• C. Ultraviolet
• D. X-rays

Explanation: "Ultrasound" waves are longitudinal in nature, hence they cannot be polarized.Only transverse waves like electromagnetic waves can be polarized.

Q16. In the isothermal process, there is no change in:

• A. Pressure
• B. Workdone
• C. Internal energy✓
• D. Imaginary numbers

Explanation: In an isothermal process, the temperature of the system remains constant. This means there is no change in internal energy, as internal energy is directly related to the temperature of the system. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q17. The heat engine operating in reverse is called:

• A. Electric generator
• B. Refrigerator✓
• C. Carnot engine
• D. Electric motor

Explanation: A heat engine operating in reverse is known as a refrigerator. In a heat engine, work is done on the system to extract heat from a colder reservoir and deliver it to a hotter reservoir. In a refrigerator, the process is reversed, where work is done on the system to transfer heat from a colder space (usually the interior of the refrigerator) to a hotter external environment. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q18. The ratio of heat accepted to the heat rejected by a carnot engine gives :

• A. The efficiency of the working substance✓
• B. The ideal gas scale temperature
• C. The thermal conductivity at the working substance
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The ratio of heat accepted to the heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance. A Carnot engine is a theoretical heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle. It consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends only on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs, and is given by the Carnot efficiency formula: Efficiency = 1 - (Temperature of the cold reservoir / Temperature of the hot reservoir) The heat accepted is the heat energy absorbed by the engine from the hot reservoir, and the heat rejected is the heat energy expelled by the engine to the cold reservoir. The ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected is equal to the ratio of the absolute temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. Therefore, we can rewrite the Carnot efficiency formula as: Efficiency = 1 - (Temperature of the cold reservoir / Temperature of the hot reservoir) Efficiency = 1 - (Heat rejected / Heat accepted) So, the ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance. Therefore, the correct option is (a) - the ratio of heat accepted to heat rejected by a Carnot engine gives the efficiency of the working substance.

Q19. If a soap bubble is charged:

• A. Its size decreases
• B. Its size increases✓
• C. No change
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When a soap bubble is charged, either positively or negatively, the like charges spread over its surface due to electrostatic forces. These like charges repel each other, causing the bubble to expand and increase in size. Option B is correct because it accurately describes this phenomenon. Options A and C are incorrect as they suggest a decrease or no change in size, which contradicts the effects of electrostatic repulsion. Option D is incorrect because there is indeed a change.

Q20. Ohm x Farad is equivalent to:

• A. Second✓
• B. Weber
• C. Henry
• D. Tesla

Explanation: The product of Ohm (unit of resistance) and Farad (unit of capacitance) results in the unit of time, which is the second. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q21. The unit of conductance is:

• A. Ohm
• B. Ohm-meter
• C. Ohm-meter
• D. Mho✓

Explanation: Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance. It is a measure of how easily an electrical current can pass through a material. The unit of conductance is the Siemens (S) or Mho, which is the inverse of the Ohm. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q22. A moving charged particle is surrounded by?

• A. 1 field
• B. 3 fields✓
• C. 2 fields
• D. 4 fields

Explanation: A moving charged particle is surrounded by three fields:Electric Field: This field arises due to the charge of the particle itself and affects other charges in its vicinity.Magnetic Field: Generated due to the movement of the charge. The interaction between charge and motion creates this field.Gravitational Field: The mass of the particle generates a gravitational field, albeit usually very weak compared to the other two fields.Option A (1 field) is incorrect because it ignores the presence of the magnetic and gravitational fields. Option C (2 fields) is incorrect as it overlooks the gravitational field. Option D (4 fields) is incorrect because there isn't an additional field present beyond the electric, magnetic, and gravitational fields mentioned.

Q23. The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the same dimension as that of:

• A. Current
• B. Resistance
• C. Magnetic induction
• D. Potential difference✓

Explanation: The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the same dimensions as potential difference, which is measured in volts (V). Therefore, option d is correct.

Q24. Transistor in a circuit basically acts as:

• A. Voltage amplifier
• B. Oscillator
• C. Current amplifier✓
• D. Regeneration

Explanation: A transistor, in many applications, acts as a current amplifier. It controls the flow of current between its collector and emitter terminals based on a small current at its base terminal. This allows a small input current to control a much larger output current. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q25. The reverse process of photoelectric effect is:

• A. X-rays production✓
• B. Annihilation of matter
• C. Materialization of energy
• D. Pair production

Explanation: The reverse process of the photoelectric effect is known as X-rays production. In this process (reverse photoelectric effect) the production of X-rays from the electrons accelerated by a high potential difference has impinged on a metal surface such as molybdenum and the kinetic energy of these electrons is converted into X-ray photons. Hence, option A is correct.

Q26. The total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is:

• A. Zero
• B. Negative✓
• C. Positive
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is negative, approximately -13.6 eV. This negative value indicates that the electron is bound to the nucleus, requiring energy input to free it. The Schrödinger equation and the Bohr model both support this result, with the ground state corresponding to the principal quantum number n = 1. The other options are incorrect: a zero or positive energy would suggest the electron is not bound to the nucleus, contrary to the nature of a ground state electron.

Q27. The binding energy per nucleon is greater for:

• A. Lighter nuclei
• B. Heavy nuclei✓
• C. Intermediate nuclei
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The binding energy per nucleon is greater for heavier nuclei. This is because as you move to heavier elements, the nuclear force tends to become stronger relative to the electromagnetic repulsion between positively charged protons. As a result, the nucleus of a heavier element is able to hold its protons and neutrons together more tightly, leading to a higher binding energy per nucleon. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q28. 10 moles of HD contains:

• A. 100 moles of bonds
• B. 100 moles of electrons
• C. 30 atoms✓
• D. 40 moles of hydrogen bonds

Explanation: The correct answer is C because 10 moles of HD contains 30 atoms. Each mole of HD contains 3 atoms (1 hydrogen atom and 1 deuterium atom). So, 10 moles would have 10 times 3, which is 30 atoms.

Q29. How much calcium is present in 0.1g of CaCO?

• A. 0.01 g
• B. 0.02 g
• C. 0.03 g
• D. 0.04 g✓

Explanation: Sure! To calculate the amount of calcium in 0.1g of CaCO3, we need to find the molar mass of calcium and CaCO3. The molar mass of calcium is 40.08 g/mol, and the molar mass of CaCO3 is 100.09 g/mol. Now, we can set up a proportion to find the amount of calcium: (0.1g CaCO3) / (100.09 g/mol CaCO3) = (x g Ca) / (40.08 g/mol Ca) Solving for x, we find that x = 0.04 g. So, the correct answer is D, 0.04 g.

Q30. Whether the cathode ray particles have positive or negative charge can be determined by:

• A. Blocking them by an obstacle
• B. Passing them through air
• C. Passing them through oppositely charged plates✓
• D. Passing them through a liquid

Explanation: Cathode rays are composed of electrons, which have a negative charge. When cathode rays are passed through oppositely charged plates, the electrons will be attracted to the positively charged plate and repelled from the negatively charged plate. This deflection of the cathode rays indicates that they are negatively charged. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q31. Statement that "no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers" is:

• A. Aufbau principle
• B. Hund's law
• C. Pauli exclusion principle✓
• D. Heinsberg's uncertainty principle

Explanation: The statement that "no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers" is a direct expression of the Pauli exclusion principle. This principle, formulated by Wolfgang Pauli, states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers (which include the principal quantum number, azimuthal quantum number, magnetic quantum number, and spin quantum number). This principle plays a fundamental role in understanding the electron structure of atoms. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q32. In a line absorption spectrum:

• A. Bright lines are due to absorbance
• B. Dark lines are due to transmittance
• C. Bright and dark lines are due to absorbance and transmittance respectively
• D. Bright and dark lines are due to transmittance and absorbance respectively✓

Explanation: In a line absorption spectrum: - Bright lines (also called absorption lines) occur when atoms absorb specific wavelengths of light, causing dark lines to appear in the spectrum. These lines represent the energies of electrons transitioning from lower to higher energy levels within the atom. - Dark lines (also called spectral lines or absorption bands) occur when certain wavelengths of light are absorbed by the material being observed. This results in a decrease in intensity at those specific wavelengths, creating dark lines against a continuous background. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q33. Van Der Waal constant "a" depends on the intermolecular forces among gas molecules. Comparing the following gases which one will have highest value for "a":

• A. N
• B. Hi
• C. He
• D. CH4✓

Explanation: Van der Waals constant "a" is a measure of the strength of intermolecular forces between gas molecules. Specifically, it accounts for the attraction between the particles. Methane is a larger molecule compared to the diatomic gases. It has a more complex structure and exhibits stronger London dispersion forces due to its larger number of electrons. Since methane (CH4) has a more complex structure and more electrons than the diatomic gases (N2, H2), it experiences stronger intermolecular forces. As a result, it will have the highest value for the Van der Waals constant "a" among the options provided. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q34. If a gas expands suddenly then its:

• A. Pressure decreases
• B. Temperature decreases
• C. Pressure and temperature both decrease✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: When a gas expands suddenly, it undergoes an adiabatic process, meaning there is no exchange of heat with the surroundings. In an adiabatic expansion, the gas does work on its surroundings, causing both its pressure and temperature to decrease. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q35. Boiling point of ammonia NH3 is greater than that of PH3 due to:

• A. Dispersion forces
• B. Dipole dipole forces
• C. Hydrogen bonding✓
• D. Greater molar mass

Explanation: Ammonia (NH3) and phosphine (PH3) are both polar molecules, which means they exhibit dipole-dipole interactions. However, ammonia has an additional type of intermolecular force known as hydrogen bonding. Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom is directly bonded to a highly electronegative atom (in this case, nitrogen in NH3 or phosphorus in PH3). This leads to a particularly strong dipole-dipole interaction. In ammonia (NH3), the hydrogen atoms are bonded to a highly electronegative nitrogen atom, resulting in strong hydrogen bonds. In phosphine (PH3), although it also has polar bonds, the electronegativity difference between phosphorus and hydrogen is not as significant as that between nitrogen and hydrogen, so the hydrogen bonding in PH3 is weaker. The presence of hydrogen bonding in ammonia leads to stronger intermolecular forces compared to phosphine, which is why ammonia has a higher boiling point than phosphine. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q36. If all the following liquids are at the same temperature then liquid having least vapor pressure will be:

• A. Butane C4H10
• B. Pentane C5H12
• C. Hexane C6H14
• D. Heptane C7H16✓

Explanation: Heptane is a larger and more complex molecule compared to the other options. As a result, it has stronger intermolecular forces and lower vapor pressure at a given temperature. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q37. Coordination number of "Na" in NaCl is:

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 6✓

Explanation: In NaCl (sodium chloride), each sodium (Na) ion is surrounded by six chloride (Cl) ions, and vice versa. This arrangement is characteristic of a face-centered cubic crystal lattice structure, which is common in ionic compounds like NaCl. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q38. Every crystal has:

• A. Only one center of symmetry✓
• B. Two centers of symmetry
• C. Three centers of symmetry
• D. Variable number of centers of symmetry

Explanation: A center of symmetry (also known as an inversion center) is a point in a crystal where if you draw a straight line from that point through any atom, there will be an identical atom on the opposite side at an equal distance from the center. In other words, it's a point where the crystal looks the same when inverted. Not all crystals have a center of symmetry, and those that do will only have one. This is a fundamental concept in crystallography. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q39. The particles of solids have:

• A. Transitional motion only
• B. Rotational motion only
• C. Vibrational motion only✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: In a solid, particles are closely packed together in a fixed arrangement. While they do experience some translational and rotational motion, the dominant form of motion for particles in a solid is vibrational. The particles in a solid oscillate around their equilibrium positions due to thermal energy. This means they vibrate in place, but they do not move from one place to another (translational motion) or spin on their axes (rotational motion) to a significant extent. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q40. Homogeneous liquid equilibria:

• A. Are not affected by temperature change
• B. May or may not be affected by pressure change
• C. May or may not be affected by temperature change✓
• D. Are not affected by pressure change

Explanation: Option C is correct because the equilibria of homogeneous liquids can be affected by changes in both temperature and pressure.

Q41. Regarding chemical kinetics, correct statement among the following is:

• A. Order and molecularity both can be zero
• B. Order cannot be zero
• C. Molecularity can be zero
• D. Order can be in fraction while molecularity cannot be in fraction✓

Explanation: Order of a reaction can be a fraction or even a negative number, depending on the reaction mechanism and how the concentration of reactants affects the rate. It is not limited to whole numbers. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q42. In a reversible reaction the catalyst reduces the time to reach equilibrium by:

• A. Increasing the rate of forward reaction
• B. Decreasing the rate of reverse reaction
• C. Increasing the rate of both forward and reverse reactions✓
• D. Decreasing the rate of both forward and reverse reaction

Explanation: Option c is correct because a catalyst in a reversible reaction speeds up both the forward and reverse reactions equally. It does not change the position of equilibrium but helps the system reach equilibrium faster by reducing the time needed for the reactions to proceed in both directions.

Q43. Oxidation number of hydrogen can be:

• A. 0
• B. +1
• C. -1
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Option d is correct because the oxidation number of hydrogen can vary depending on the compound it is part of: - In most compounds, hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1. - In some rare cases, hydrogen can have an oxidation number of -1, such as in metal hydrides like NaH. So, the oxidation number of hydrogen can indeed be 0 (as in H2), +1, or -1, depending on the specific chemical context.

Q44. During a chemical reaction, rate with which a solid substance reacts:

• A. Decreases with passage of time✓
• B. Increases with passage of time
• C. Remains constant
• D. May increase or decrease depending on the pressure

Explanation: Option a is correct because in a chemical reaction involving a solid substance, as the reaction progresses, the surface area of the solid decreases (as it gets consumed). Since the rate of reaction is generally proportional to the surface area of the solid, the rate of reaction decreases with the passage of time.

Q45. The enthalpy change during the formation of one mole of a compound from its element in their standard states is called:

• A. Standard heat of reaction
• B. Standard heat of formation✓
• C. Standard heat of combustion
• D. Standard heat of neutralization

Explanation: Option b is correct because the enthalpy change during the formation of one mole of a compound from its elements in their standard states is defined as the standard heat of formation (∆Hf°).

Q46. The enthalpy change during the dissolution of one mole of gaseous ions in water to produce infinitely dilute solution is known as:

• A. Enthalpy of solution
• B. Enthalpy of hydration✓
• C. Enthalpy of combustion
• D. Enthalpy of neutralization

Explanation: Option B, "Enthalpy of hydration," is correct because it specifically refers to the enthalpy change when one mole of gaseous ions dissolves in water to produce an infinitely dilute solution.

Q47. Born-Haber cycle is used for the measurement of:

• A. Potential energy
• B. Kinetic energy
• C. Chemical energy
• D. Lattice energy✓

Explanation: Option D, "Lattice energy," is correct because the Born-Haber cycle is a method used in chemistry to calculate the lattice energy of an ionic compound. The Born-Haber cycle is a series of theoretical energy changes that allows scientists to calculate the lattice energy of an ionic compound from other known thermodynamic data, such as ionization energies, electron affinities, and enthalpies of formation. It is a valuable tool in understanding the energetics of ionic compounds and is particularly useful in the study of crystal structures and their stability.

Q48. Regarding batteries, all of the following statements are incorrect except that:

• A. Primary cells are non-rechargeable✓
• B. Lead acid battery is non-rechargeable
• C. Secondary cells are non-rechargeable
• D. Daniel cell is rechargeable

Explanation: Statement A is correct because primary cells are indeed non-rechargeable. Primary cells, also known as non-rechargeable batteries, are designed for one-time use. Once their chemical reactions are exhausted, they cannot be recharged.

Q49. Which of the following is the electronic configuration of an alkali earth metal of 3rd period:

• A. [Ne] 3s
• B. [Ne] 3s1✓
• C. [Ne] 3s2 3p
• D. [Ne] 3s 3px 3py

Explanation: Option B, "[Ne] 3s¹," It correctly indicates that the alkali earth metal in question has one electron in the 3s orbital, which is characteristic of the electronic configuration of alkali earth metals in the 3rd period.

Q50. All are basic hydroxides except one:

• A. Mg(OH)
• B. Be(OH)2✓
• C. Ca(OH):
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Option B is the correct answer. Beryllium hydroxide (Be(OH)2) is amphoteric, meaning it can act as both an acid and a base. It can react with both acids and bases, making it distinct from basic hydroxides.

Q51. Which chloride of lead is ionic in nature:

• A. PbCl2✓
• B. PbCh
• C. PbCl
• D. All

Explanation: In PbCl2, lead (Pb) has a 2+ charge, and each chloride ion (Cl-) has a 1- charge. This results in a 1:2 ratio of lead ions to chloride ions, indicating an ionic compound. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q52. With increase in number of unpaired electrons, paramagnetism:

• A. Increases.✓
• B. Decreases.
• C. Remains constant.
• D. Decreases then increases.

Explanation: Paramagnetism is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the material, so most atoms with incompletely filled atomic orbitals are paramagnetic, although exceptions such as copper exist. Due to their spin, unpaired electrons have a magnetic dipole moment and act like tiny magnets.

Q53. Most of the catalytic elements or their compounds belong to:

• A. s-block
• B. p-block
• C. d-block✓
• D. f-block

Explanation: C. D block Catalytic elements or their compounds typically belong to the d-block elements, also known as the transition metals. This is because transition metals have the ability to undergo changes in their oxidation states, which allows them to participate in a wide range of chemical reactions and catalytic processes. Elements in the s-block and p-block do not have this characteristic to the same extent, making them less commonly used as catalysts. Elements in the f-block are generally less commonly used for catalytic purposes compared to the d-block elements.

Q54. The precise definition of organic chemistry is:

• A. Study of carbon containing compounds
• B. Study of hydrocarbons
• C. Study of hydrocarbons and their derivatives✓
• D. Study of combustible compounds

Explanation: Organic chemistry is the branch of chemistry that primarily deals with the study of carbon-containing compounds. While it originally focused on hydrocarbons (compounds composed of only carbon and hydrogen), it has since expanded to include the study of a wide range of carbon-based molecules and their various derivatives. This includes compounds that may contain elements other than carbon and hydrogen, such as oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and more. Therefore, option C is the most accurate and comprehensive definition of organic chemistry. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q55. To count the cells which apparatus is used?

• A. Cell counter✓
• B. Inverted microscope
• C. Centrifuge
• D. Microscope

Explanation: A cell counter is a specialized instrument designed for the automated counting of cells in a sample. It provides a quick and accurate way to determine the concentration of cells in a given sample. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q56. Nine outer pair of tubules and two single central tubules are present in the internal structure of:

• A. Centriole
• B. Microfilament
• C. Cilia and flagella✓
• D. Spindle fibre

Explanation: Cilia and flagella are cellular organelles responsible for locomotion and moving substances across the cell surface. Their internal structure includes a "9+2" arrangement of microtubules. This means there are nine outer pairs of microtubules surrounding two central single microtubules. This structural arrangement provides stability and support for the cilia and flagella, allowing them to function effectively in their respective roles. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q57. Which one of the following makes the membrane selectively permeable:

• A. Lipids
• B. Proteins✓
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Both a and b

Explanation: Proteins play a crucial role in making the cell membrane selectively permeable. They are responsible for facilitating the transport of specific molecules across the membrane, either through passive processes like facilitated diffusion or active processes like active transport. Additionally, proteins can act as receptors, channels, and carriers for various substances, allowing the cell to control what enters and exits. Therefore, option b is correct.

Q58. All the following are double layer membraned except for:

• A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Glyoxisome✓

Explanation: Glyoxisomes are single-membraned organelles found in plant and fungal cells. They are involved in lipid metabolism and are particularly important in germinating seeds. Unlike the other options listed, glyoxisomes do not have a double membrane structure. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q59. Most abundant carbohydrate in nature:

• A. Chitin
• B. Glucose
• C. Cellulose✓
• D. Starch

Explanation: Cellulose is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature. It is a complex polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants, providing structural support to plant cells. It is made up of long chains of glucose molecules linked together. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q60. The linkage between maltose is:

• A. 1,2 glycosidic linkage
• B. 1,3 glycosidic linkage
• C. 1,4 glycosidic linkage✓
• D. 1,5 glycosidic linkage

Explanation: Maltose is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules linked together. The linkage between these glucose molecules in maltose is a 1,4 glycosidic linkage. This means that the carbon atom 1 of one glucose molecule is bonded to the carbon atom 4 of the other glucose molecule through a glycosidic bond. This type of linkage is common in many naturally occurring disaccharides like maltose, sucrose, and lactose. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q61. Keratin protein occurs in:

• A. Hair
• B. Nails
• C. Outer skin
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Keratin is a structural protein that is found in various tissues of the body, including hair, nails, and the outer layer of the skin (epidermis). It provides strength and rigidity to these structures. A. Hair: Hair is composed primarily of keratin protein. It forms the shaft of the hair and gives it its characteristic strength. B. Nails: Nails are also made up of keratin. The nail plate, which is the visible part of the nail, is composed of densely packed, hardened keratin cells. C. Outer skin: The outer layer of the skin, the epidermis, contains keratinocytes, which are specialized skin cells that produce keratin. This keratin provides a protective barrier for the skin. Therefore, option d is correct.

Q62. All enzymes are chemically:

• A. Proteins✓
• B. Lipids
• C. Nucleic acids
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Enzymes are biologically active molecules that function as catalysts in living organisms. They accelerate chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for a reaction to occur. Enzymes are made up of amino acids and are classified as proteins. While some enzymes may require cofactors (such as metal ions or coenzymes), the core structure and catalytic activity of enzymes are derived from their proteinaceous nature. This makes option A, "Proteins," the correct choice.

Q63. The optimum pH value for catalase in humans is:

• A. 7.0✓
• B. 4.6
• C. 6.1
• D. 1.3

Explanation: Catalase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in breaking down hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2) in living organisms. The optimum pH value for catalase in humans is around 7, which is considered neutral. At this pH, catalase exhibits its highest catalytic activity. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q64. All of the following are true for enzymes except:

• A. They are globular proteins
• B. They catalyze chemical reactions
• C. They alter the direction of the reaction✓
• D. They reduce energy of activation

Explanation: Enzymes do not alter the direction of a chemical reaction. They facilitate reactions in both forward and reverse directions, but they do not change the inherent thermodynamics or equilibrium constant of the reaction. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q65. Which of the following is a five carbon compound in kreb's cycle:

• A. Fumaric acid
• B. Citric acid
• C. Malic acid
• D. Alpha keto-glutarate✓

Explanation: Alpha-ketoglutarate, also known as 2-oxoglutarate, is a five-carbon compound in the Krebs cycle. It is an intermediate that plays a crucial role in the cycle, participating in various reactions and ultimately leading to the production of energy-rich molecules. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q66. The number of ATPs produced in anaerobic respiration is:

• A. 8
• B. 4
• C. 2✓
• D. 10

Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, specifically in glycolysis (which is the initial stage of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration), a net gain of 2 ATP molecules is produced per molecule of glucose. This occurs regardless of whether oxygen is present or not. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q67. Which step of respiration takes place in mitochondria:

• A. Link reaction
• B. Kreb's cycle
• C. Electron transport chain
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: All the options listed (A. Link reaction, B. Krebs cycle, and C. Electron transport chain) take place in the mitochondria. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q68. HIV targets which cells:

• A. Plasma cells
• B. T-lymphocytes
• C. CD4 cells
• D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily targets T-lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell crucial for the immune system. Among T-lymphocytes, it specifically targets CD4 cells, which have a receptor on their surface that allows the virus to enter and infect the cell. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q69. Which of the following is a viral infection:

• A. Cholera
• B. Influenza✓
• C. Diphtheria
• D. Pneumonia

Explanation: Influenza is a viral infection caused by influenza viruses. It affects the respiratory system and is characterized by symptoms such as fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, and fatigue. It is caused specifically by influenza A, B, and C viruses. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q70. The most common sexually transmitted disease in the world:

• A. AIDS✓
• B. Cancer
• C. Hepatitis A
• D. Hepatitis B

Explanation: AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and is considered one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases in the world. It is a global health concern with millions of people affected worldwide. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q71. Bacteria was discovered by a scientist:

• A. Italian
• B. Dutch✓
• C. German
• D. French

Explanation: The discovery of bacteria is attributed to Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch scientist. In the late 17th century, he used a microscope of his own design to observe single-celled microorganisms, including bacteria, for the first time. His pioneering work laid the foundation for the field of microbiology. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q72. Bacteria which are used in producing transgenic plants such as golden rice:

• A. E.coli
• B. Mycobacterium
• C. Xanthomonas
• D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens✓

Explanation: The correct option is D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a type of soil bacterium that has the natural ability to transfer a portion of its DNA (called Ti plasmid) into plant cells. This ability is utilized in biotechnology to introduce desired genes into plants, making them transgenic. In the case of golden rice, Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to transfer genes that encode for enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of beta-carotene, which gives the rice its characteristic golden color.

Q73. In bacterial cell, food is stored in the form of:

• A. Starch
• B. Cellulose
• C. Glycogen✓
• D. Hemicellulose

Explanation: C. Glycogen is correct.In bacterial cells, food is stored in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of glucose. It is structurally similar to starch, which is the storage form of glucose in plants, but differs in its branching pattern.

Q74. Which one of the following is an ectoparasite:

• A. Liver fluke
• B. Leech✓
• C. Taenia
• D. Ascaris

Explanation: B. Leech is correct.An ectoparasite is an organism that lives on the outside of its host, feeding off its blood or other bodily fluids. Leeches are a type of ectoparasite that attach themselves to the skin of their host and feed on their blood. They are equipped with specialized mouthparts for this purpose.

Q75. The largest mammal is:

• A. Elephant
• B. Horse
• C. Blue whale✓
• D. Carnel

Explanation: The blue whale (Balaenoptera musculus) is the largest mammal on Earth. It holds this title both in terms of length and weight. Adult blue whales can reach lengths of over 100 feet (30 meters) and weigh as much as 200 tons (180 metric tonnes). Therefore, option C is correct.

Q76. Due to presence of cranium, the name craniata is given to:

• A. Amphioxus
• B. Vertebrate✓
• C. Invertebrate
• D. Chordata

Explanation: The name "Craniata" is given to organisms that possess a cranium, which is a bony or cartilaginous structure that encloses and protects the brain. Vertebrates, which include mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fish, are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column (or spine) and a cranium, among other features. These two structures are crucial for the protection and support of the central nervous system. Therefore, option B is correct.

Q77. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after forcible expiration is:

• A. Total volume
• B. Tidal volume
• C. Residual volume✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The residual volume is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration. It is the amount of air that cannot be forcibly expelled from the lungs. This residual volume is important for maintaining lung function and preventing lung collapse. Therefore, option C is correct.

Q78. Inside the nose air becomes filtered, moist and:

• A. Cool
• B. Warmth✓
• C. Cleaned
• D. None of them

Explanation: B. Warmth is correct.Inside the nose, the air becomes filtered, moist, and warmed. This is due to the presence of specialized structures like the nasal hairs, mucus-producing cells, and blood vessels in the nasal passages.

Q79. Hamburger's phenomenon is also known as:

• A. Potassium shift
• B. Sodium shift
• C. Chloride shift✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: C. Chloride shift is correct.Hamburger's phenomenon, also known as the chloride shift, refers to a physiological process that occurs in red blood cells. During carbon dioxide transport in the blood, carbon dioxide (CO2) is converted to bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) inside red blood cells. To maintain charge balance, chloride ions (Cl-) move into the red blood cells from the plasma. This exchange of chloride ions for bicarbonate ions is known as the chloride shift.

Q80. Vertebral column of human has bones:

• A. 13
• B. 23
• C. 33
• D. 26✓

Explanation: The vertebral column of a human typically consists of 26 bones. These bones are divided into five regions: cervical (7 bones), thoracic (12 bones), lumbar (5 bones), sacral (5 fused bones), and coccygeal (4 fused bones). Therefore, option D is correct.

Q81. The total number of bones in human upper limb is:

• A. 31
• B. 32✓
• C. 33
• D. 34

Explanation: B. 32 is correct. The human upper limb consists of the following bones: 1. Clavicle (2) 2. Scapula (2) 3. Humerus (2) 4. Radius (2) 5. Ulna (2) 6. Carpals (16, 8 in each hand) 7. Metacarpals (10, 5 in each hand) 8. Phalanges (28, 14 in each hand) Adding up these numbers, you get a total of 32 bones in the human upper limb.

Q82. Inflammation of a joint is:

• A. Arthritis✓
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Vasculitis
• D. Meningitis

Explanation: A. Arthritis is correct.Arthritis refers to the inflammation of one or more joints. It can cause pain, swelling, stiffness, and reduced range of motion in affected joints.

Q83. For every two K+ that are actively transported inwards, how many Na+ are pumped out:

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3✓
• D. 4

Explanation: C. 3 is correct.The sodium-potassium pump is a crucial membrane protein found in animal cells, including nerve cells. It actively transports potassium ions (K+) into the cell while pumping sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell.For every cycle of the pump, three sodium ions are pumped out for every two potassium ions pumped in. This creates an electrochemical gradient that is important for various cellular processes, including the generation of nerve impulses.

Q84. Which one of the following act as neurotransmitter in sympathetic nervous system:

• A. Acetylcholine
• B. ADH
• C. Adrenaline
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: In the sympathetic nervous system, the primary neurotransmitter released by postganglionic neurons is norepinephrine (also known as noradrenaline), not acetylcholine, ADH (antidiuretic hormone), or adrenaline. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system, and it is also released by preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic system. However, postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine.ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It is not a neurotransmitter.Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a hormone released by the adrenal glands in response to stress or excitement. While it can function as a neurotransmitter in some parts of the nervous system, it is not the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q85. Exophthalmia and grave disease are concerned with:

• A. Thyroid✓
• B. Parathyroid
• C. Pituitary
• D. Adrenals

Explanation: A. Thyroid is correct.Exophthalmia, also known as exophthalmos, refers to the abnormal protrusion or bulging of the eyes. This condition is commonly associated with Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland.In Graves' disease, the immune system mistakenly targets the thyroid gland, leading to an overproduction of thyroid hormones. This excessive hormone production can cause various symptoms, including exophthalmos.

Q86. The hormone which is clinically used as bronchodilator and heart stimulant is:

• A. Epinephrine✓
• B. Norepinephrine
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Thyroxin

Explanation: A. Epinephrine is correct. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a hormone that acts as a potent bronchodilator (opens up the airways) and a heart stimulant. It is used clinically to treat conditions like asthma, severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), and cardiac arrest.

Q87. The causative agent of gonorrhea is:

• A. Treponema pallidum
• B. Neisseria gonorrhea✓
• C. E.coli
• D. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation: B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is correct.Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus bacterium that infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive and urinary tracts in both males and females.

Q88. Which of the following condition is hybrid:

• A. TT
• B. Tt✓
• C. tt
• D. All of these

Explanation: B. Tt is correct.In genetics, a hybrid refers to an organism that has two different alleles for a particular trait. In this case, the trait is represented by the letter "T". Tt represents a heterozygous condition, meaning there are two different alleles for the trait (one dominant and one recessive).

Q89. The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is:

• A. A community
• B. A species✓
• C. A population
• D. An ecosystem

Explanation: B. A species is correct.The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is a species. Evolution occurs at the level of populations, and a population consists of individuals of the same species that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

Q90. Select the synonym for "ubiquitous":

• A. Rare
• B. Common✓
• C. Unique
• D. Extravagant

Explanation: B. Common is correct."Ubiquitous" means present, appearing, or found everywhere. The synonym for "ubiquitous" is "common" because it also refers to something that is widespread and can be found in many places.

Q91. What is the name for a word that is spelled the same way forwards and backwards?

• A. Palindrome✓
• B. Synonym
• C. Homonym
• D. Antonym

Explanation: A. Palindrome is correct.A palindrome is a word, phrase, number, or other sequence of characters that reads the same forward and backward (ignoring spaces, punctuation, and capitalization). For example, "radar" is a palindrome because it reads the same way in both directions.

Q92. Which literary term refers to the feeling of uncertainty or tension that the reader experiences while reading a story?

• A. Climax
• B. Foreshadowing
• C. Suspense✓
• D. Flashback

Explanation: C. Suspense is correct.Suspense is the literary term that refers to the feeling of uncertainty or tension that the reader experiences while reading a story. It arises from the anticipation of what will happen next and creates a sense of excitement and engagement for the reader.

Q93. What is the synonym for the word "ephemeral"?

• A. Eternal
• B. Temporary✓
• C. Permanent
• D. Endless

Explanation: B. Temporary is correct."Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time or transitory. A synonym for "ephemeral" is "temporary" because it also describes something that is not lasting or enduring for an extended period.

Q94. Which figure of speech involves the use of exaggeration for emphasis or effect?

• A. Metaphor
• B. Simile
• C. Hyperbole✓
• D. Personification

Explanation: C. Hyperbole is correct. Hyperbole is a figure of speech that involves the use of exaggeration for emphasis or effect. It is used to create an impact, evoke strong feelings, or add humor to a statement. For example, saying "I've told you a million times" is an example of hyperbole, where the actual number is greatly exaggerated for emphasis.

Q95. Which part of speech is used to describe a noun or pronoun?

• A. Verb
• B. Conjunction
• C. Adverb
• D. Adjective✓

Explanation: D. Adjective is correct.An adjective is a part of speech used to describe or modify a noun or pronoun. It provides more information about the noun or pronoun by giving details about its size, color, shape, etc.

Q96. Who wrote the famous play "Romeo and Juliet"?

• A. Charles Dickens
• B. William Shakespeare✓
• C. Jane Austen
• D. Emily Brontë

Explanation: B. William Shakespeare is correct. William Shakespeare is the renowned English playwright who wrote the famous play "Romeo and Juliet." It is one of his most well-known works and is considered a masterpiece of tragic romantic literature.

Q97. Break the ice implies:

• A. Walk on ice sheet
• B. Swallow ice cube
• C. Chisel the ice
• D. To make beginning✓

Explanation: D. To make a beginning is correct. The expression "break the ice" is an idiom that means to initiate or start a conversation or interaction, especially in a situation where there may be initial awkwardness or tension. It is a metaphorical phrase and has nothing to do with physically breaking actual ice, as suggested by options A, B, and C.

Q98. What is ethics primarily concerned with?

• A. Religion
• B. Morality✓
• C. Science
• D. Politics

Explanation: B. Morality is correct. Ethics is primarily concerned with morality, which involves distinguishing between right and wrong behavior and making judgments about what is good or bad. It is a branch of philosophy that explores questions related to how individuals and societies should behave, and it provides frameworks for evaluating and guiding human conduct.

Q99. Which of the following is an essential component of ethical behavior?

• A. Honesty and integrity✓
• B. Wealth and power
• C. Secrecy and deception
• D. Competition at all cost

Explanation: A. Honesty and integrity is correct. Honesty and integrity are essential components of ethical behavior. They involve being truthful, transparent, and having strong moral principles. Acting with honesty and integrity forms the foundation of ethical conduct because it promotes trust, fairness, and accountability in personal and professional relationships.

Q100. The word "ethics" is derived from the Greek word:

• A. Ethos✓
• B. Ethise
• C. Ethees
• D. Ethies

Explanation: A. Ethos is correct. The word "ethics" is derived from the Greek word "ethos" (ἦθος), which means character, custom, or habit. "Ethos" is foundational to the study of ethics, as it encompasses the guiding beliefs, values, and moral principles of a person, group, or society. It forms the basis for determining what is considered morally right or wrong in a given context.