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Kpk Biology 2015 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 17 MCQs from Kpk Biology 2015, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT KPK / ETEA past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all KPK / ETEA papers.

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Q1. The total number of Ribs in human are

  • A. 12
  • B. 24✓
  • C. 31
  • D. 62

Explanation: The vast majority of human beings are born with 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the body. Contrary to a widely held misconception, men and women have the same number of ribs. However, some people are born with more or less than the typical 24 ribs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The vast majority of human beings are born with 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the body. Contrary to a widely held misconception, men and women have the same number of ribs. However, some people are born with more or less than the typical 24 ribs.
  • C. The vast majority of human beings are born with 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the body. Contrary to a widely held misconception, men and women have the same number of ribs. However, some people are born with more or less than the typical 24 ribs.
  • D. The vast majority of human beings are born with 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the body. Contrary to a widely held misconception, men and women have the same number of ribs. However, some people are born with more or less than the typical 24 ribs.

Q2. Cyanosis Is a blue tongue to the skin

  • A. Lack of oxygen✓
  • B. Sodium
  • C. Calcium
  • D. Hydrogen

Explanation: Cyanosis refers to a bluish-purple color of the skin. It is most easily seen where the skin is thin, such as the lips, mouth, earlobes and fingernails. Cyanosis means there may be decreased oxygen in the bloodstream. It may suggest a problem with the lungs or heart.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Cyanosis refers to a bluish-purple color of the skin. It is most easily seen where the skin is thin, such as the lips, mouth, earlobes and fingernails. Cyanosis means there may be decreased oxygen in the bloodstream. It may suggest a problem with the lungs or heart.
  • C. Cyanosis refers to a bluish-purple color of the skin. It is most easily seen where the skin is thin, such as the lips, mouth, earlobes and fingernails. Cyanosis means there may be decreased oxygen in the bloodstream. It may suggest a problem with the lungs or heart.
  • D. Cyanosis refers to a bluish-purple color of the skin. It is most easily seen where the skin is thin, such as the lips, mouth, earlobes and fingernails. Cyanosis means there may be decreased oxygen in the bloodstream. It may suggest a problem with the lungs or heart.

Q3. The animal that warms itself mainly absorbing heat from its surrounding is.

  • A. Homeotherms✓
  • B. Ectotherms
  • C. Endotherms
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Homeotherms are those organisms, that maintains the internal body temperature under the influence of variable environmental conditions through their metabolic activities like shivering, sweating. Mammals and birds are homeotherms.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Ectotherms rely largely on external heat sources such as sunlight to achieve their optimal body temperature for various bodily activities. Accordingly, they depend on ambient conditions to reach operational body temperatures.
  • C. Endotherm, so-called warm-blooded animals; that is, those that maintain a constant body temperature independent of the environment. The endotherms primarily include the birds and mammals; however, some fish are also endothermic.
  • D. This is incorrect.

Q4. Tetanus is an infection of_

  • A. Respiratory system
  • B. Excretory System
  • C. Nervous System✓
  • D. Digestive System

Explanation: Tetanus is an infectious disease affecting the central nervous system

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Tetanus is an infectious disease affecting the central nervous system
  • B. Tetanus is an infectious disease affecting the central nervous system
  • D. Tetanus is an infectious disease affecting the central nervous system

Q5. The act of emptying the bladder is called.

  • A. Nutrition
  • B. Excretion
  • C. Filteration
  • D. Micturition✓

Explanation: Micturition or urination is the process of emptying urine from the storage organ, namely, the urinary bladder.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Micturition or urination is the process of emptying urine from the storage organ, namely, the urinary bladder.
  • B. Micturition or urination is the process of emptying urine from the storage organ, namely, the urinary bladder.
  • C. Micturition or urination is the process of emptying urine from the storage organ, namely, the urinary bladder.

Q6. The disorder in which the bones become thin and porous is_

  • A. Osteoporosis✓
  • B. Rickets
  • C. Arthritis
  • D. Osteomalacia

Explanation: This can lead to osteopenia, which is moderate bone loss, or osteoporosis, which is severe bone loss. In both conditions, bones become thinner and more porous due to the loss of minerals stored in the bones. Osteopenia and osteoporosis are usually painless until a bone breaks or fractures.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children. It causes bone pain, poor growth and soft, weak bones that can lead to bone deformities. Adults can experience a similar condition, which is known as osteomalacia or soft bones. Read more about the signs and symptoms of rickets and osteomalacia.
  • C. "Arthritis" literally means joint inflammation. Joints are places where two bones meet, such as your elbow or knee. There are many different types of arthritis with different causes and treatments. In some types, other organs, such as your eyes, heart, or skin, can also be affected.
  • D. Osteomalacia, often referred to as "soft bone disease," is a metabolic bone disorder characterized by the inadequate mineralization of bone tissue. This condition results from a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, weakening and softening bones.

Q7. The adrenal cortex produces_

  • A. Calcitonin
  • B. Epinephrine
  • C. Aldosterone✓
  • D. Adrenaline

Explanation: The adrenal cortex secretes corticosteroids such as cortisol, corticosteroid, aldosterone, and androgenic hormones.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The adrenal cortex secretes corticosteroids such as cortisol, corticosteroid, aldosterone, and androgenic hormones.
  • B. The adrenal cortex secretes corticosteroids such as cortisol, corticosteroid, aldosterone, and androgenic hormones.
  • D. The adrenal cortex secretes corticosteroids such as cortisol, corticosteroid, aldosterone, and androgenic hormones.

Q8. Insulin is released by_

  • A. A cells
  • B. B cells✓
  • C. Y cells
  • D. All are correct

Explanation: The pancreatic β-cell plays a key role in glucose homeostasis by secreting insulin, the only hormone capable of lowering the blood glucose concentration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The pancreatic β-cell plays a key role in glucose homeostasis by secreting insulin, the only hormone capable of lowering the blood glucose concentration.
  • C. The pancreatic β-cell plays a key role in glucose homeostasis by secreting insulin, the only hormone capable of lowering the blood glucose concentration.
  • D. The pancreatic β-cell plays a key role in glucose homeostasis by secreting insulin, the only hormone capable of lowering the blood glucose concentration.

Q9. Syphilis is caused by_

  • A. E.coli
  • B. Treponema pallidum✓
  • C. Tetragenic
  • D. Hexagenic

Explanation: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes infection when it gets into broken skin or mucus membranes, usually of the genitals. Syphilis is most often transmitted through sexual contact, although it also can be transmitted in other ways.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes infection when it gets into broken skin or mucus membranes, usually of the genitals. Syphilis is most often transmitted through sexual contact, although it also can be transmitted in other ways.
  • C. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes infection when it gets into broken skin or mucus membranes, usually of the genitals. Syphilis is most often transmitted through sexual contact, although it also can be transmitted in other ways.
  • D. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes infection when it gets into broken skin or mucus membranes, usually of the genitals. Syphilis is most often transmitted through sexual contact, although it also can be transmitted in other ways.

Q10. Wheat grain color is the example of_inheritance

  • A. Monogenic
  • B. Polygenic✓
  • C. Tetragenic
  • D. Hexagenic

Explanation: R1 and R2 genes determine the kernel color in wheat. It is an example of polygenic inheritance. In polygenic inheritance, two or more genes influence a single phenotypic character and have a cumulative effect.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Monogenic inheritance is a type of inheritance where it is controlled by alleles for a single locus. According to Mendelian genetics, each gene has two alleles that determine the character, and these alleles segregate independently during gamete formation to produce a distinct character.
  • C. There is no such thing as tetragenic inheritance.
  • D. A hexagon has an inscribed ellipse if and only if its grandparent has an inscribed ellipse; also a hexagon has a circumscribed ellipse if and only if its grandparent has a circumscribed ellipse.

Q11. Replication of DNA occurs in_

  • A. G- 1 phase
  • B. G- 2 phase
  • C. S- phase✓
  • D. None of these

Explanation: In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosome duplication occurs during "S phase" (the phase of DNA synthesis) and chromosome segregation occurs during "M phase" (the mitosis phase).

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. G1 phase together with the S phase and G2 phase comprise the long growth period of the cell cycle cell division called interphase that takes place before cell division in mitosis (M phase). During G1 phase, the cell grows in size and synthesizes mRNA and protein that are required for DNA synthesis.
  • B. The second growth phase starts to prepare the cells with newly replicated DNA for entry into the mitosis phase by putting in place the necessary organelles for mitosis. The cell cycle is a vital part of the continued persistence of all eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
  • D. In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosome duplication occurs during "S phase" (the phase of DNA synthesis) and chromosome segregation occurs during "M phase" (the mitosis phase).

Q12. A chromosome with unequal length of its Arms is called_

  • A. Telocentric
  • B. Acrocentric
  • C. Metacentric
  • D. Submetacentric✓

Explanation: A submetacentric chromosome is a chromosome whose centromere is located near the middle. As a result, the chromosomal arms (i.e. p and q arms) are slightly unequal in length and may also form an L-shape.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Telocentric chromosomes are the chromosomes in which the centromere is placed at the very end of the chromosome, and not found in many species. Structure. An acrocentric chromosome is composed of one extremely short part and an extremely long part. Telocentric chromosomes are rod-shaped. Presence in Humans.
  • B. A chromosome where the centromere is not central and is instead located near the end of the chromosome. Humans usually have five pairs of acrocentric autosomes (chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, 22). The Y chromosome is also acrocentric.
  • C. Metacentric chromosomes – The centromere is present in the middle of the chromosome and divides the chromosome into two equal arms. The p and q arms are almost equal. The shape of the metacentric chromosome is X shape. E.g. 1st, 3rd, 16th, 19th and 20th are metacentric chromosomes in humans.

Q13. Similarity in characteristics resulting from common ancestry is_

  • A. Homolgy✓
  • B. Evolutionary
  • C. Phylogeny
  • D. Analogy

Explanation: The term that is used to describe similar characteristics among different groups of organisms that share common ancestry is HOMOLOGY. Homology results from having a single, common ancestor. The homologous structures in modern-day organisms show proof of shared common ancestry.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. The term that is used to describe similar characteristics among different groups of organisms that share common ancestry is HOMOLOGY. Homology results from having a single, common ancestor. The homologous structures in modern-day organisms show proof of shared common ancestry.
  • C. A phylogenetic tree, also known as a phylogeny, is a diagram that depicts the lines of evolutionary descent of different species, organisms, or genes from a common ancestor.
  • D. Analogy, in biology, similarity of function and superficial resemblance of structures that have different origins. For example, the wings of a fly, a moth, and a bird are analogous because they developed independently as adaptations to a common function—flying.

Q14. Plasmids are mostly derived from _

  • A. Viruses
  • B. Bacteria✓
  • C. Fungi
  • D. Animals

Explanation: A plasmid is a small circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms. Plasmids are physically separate from chromosomal DNA and replicate independently.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A plasmid is a small circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms. Plasmids are physically separate from chromosomal DNA and replicate independently.
  • C. A plasmid is a small circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms. Plasmids are physically separate from chromosomal DNA and replicate independently.
  • D. A plasmid is a small circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms. Plasmids are physically separate from chromosomal DNA and replicate independently.

Q15. Goiter is produced when the diet has deficiency of_

  • A. Vitamins
  • B. Iron
  • C. Iodine✓
  • D. Calcium

Explanation: Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of goiter. The body needs iodine to produce thyroid hormone.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Symptoms of vitamin deficiency include brittle hair and nails, mouth ulcers, hair loss, scaly skin patches, and more. Recognizing these signs can help you adjust your diet accordingly. A well-balanced and nutritious diet has many benefits.
  • B. Symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia are related to decreased oxygen delivery to the entire body and may include: Being pale or having yellow "sallow" skin. Unexplained fatigue or lack of energy. Shortness of breath or chest pain, especially with activity.
  • D. Calcium deficiency can reduce bone strength and lead to osteoporosis, which is characterized by fragile bones and an increased risk of falling [1]. Calcium deficiency can also cause rickets in children and other bone disorders in adults, although these disorders are more commonly caused by vitamin D deficiency.

Q16. BCG vaccine is a type of vaccines_

  • A. Killed
  • B. Live attenuated✓
  • C. Sabunit
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the live attenuated vaccine form of Mycobacterium bovis used to prevent tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. The vaccine was developed by Calmette and Guerin and was first administered to human beings in 1921. BCG is the only vaccine against tuberculosis.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the live attenuated vaccine form of Mycobacterium bovis used to prevent tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. The vaccine was developed by Calmette and Guerin and was first administered to human beings in 1921. BCG is the only vaccine against tuberculosis.
  • C. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the live attenuated vaccine form of Mycobacterium bovis used to prevent tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. The vaccine was developed by Calmette and Guerin and was first administered to human beings in 1921. BCG is the only vaccine against tuberculosis.
  • D. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the live attenuated vaccine form of Mycobacterium bovis used to prevent tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. The vaccine was developed by Calmette and Guerin and was first administered to human beings in 1921. BCG is the only vaccine against tuberculosis.

Q17. Mutations caused by external factors are called_mutations

  • A. Spontaneous
  • B. Induced✓
  • C. Acquired
  • D. A and B

Explanation: Induced mutations are those that result from an exposure to chemicals, UV rays, x-rays, or some other environmental agent.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Spontaneous mutations are naturally occurring alterations in the DNA due to slippage in natural processes. It mainly occurs due to errors in replication, transposable genetic elements, wobble base pairing, etc.
  • C. An acquired gene mutation is not inherited from a parent. Instead, it develops at some point during a person's life. Acquired mutations occur in one cell, and then are passed on to any new cells that come from that cell.
  • D. This is incorrect.

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