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Kpk Biology 2018 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 18 MCQs from Kpk Biology 2018, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT KPK / ETEA past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all KPK / ETEA papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. Yak, Gorilla and Chimpanzee are the examples of animals
- A. Domesticated
- B. Wild
- C. Tamed✓
- D. None of these
Explanation: C) Tamed: Taming refers to the process of training and conditioning wild animals to be comfortable around humans and to follow certain commands. However, even though they may be tamed, they are still considered wild animals. Examples of tamed animals include yak , chipanzee , gorilla etc.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Domesticated: This refers to animals that have been bred and trained by humans over generations to live and work alongside them. They are typically used for agricultural purposes, companionship, or as working animals. Examples include dogs, cats, and horses.
- B. B) Wild: These animals live in their natural habitats and have not been domesticated or tamed by humans. They are not under human control and rely on their instincts to survive. Examples include lions, tigers, and elephants.
- D. D) None: This option means that the given animals (Yak, Gorilla, and Chimpanzee) fall under the category of tamed. They are naturally wild animals that live in their respective habitats without human interference.
Q2. Human insulin gene was inserted into the bacterium Escherichia coli by:
- A. Sanger
- B. Nicolson
- C. Herbert Boyer✓
- D. Alec Jeffery
Explanation: C) Herbert Boyer: Herbert Boyer, along with Stanley Cohen, conducted groundbreaking research in genetic engineering. They successfully inserted the human insulin gene into the bacterium Escherichia coli in 1973. This achievement marked a milestone in biotechnology, leading to the production of synthetic human insulin in bacteria for medical use.Therefore, the correct answer is C) Herbert Boyer, who played a pivotal role in the development of recombinant DNA technology by inserting the human insulin gene into Escherichia coli.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Sanger: Frederick Sanger was a biochemist known for his pioneering work in DNA sequencing methods, specifically the Sanger sequencing technique. This technique is used for determining the nucleotide sequence of DNA. It does not involve gene insertion into bacteria.
- B. B) Nicolson: This option likely refers to Liane Russell and Michael Nicolson, who conducted research in genetics and radiobiology, particularly focused on genetic effects of radiation exposure. Their work is not directly related to gene insertion into bacteria.
- D. D) Alec Jeffreys: Alec Jeffreys is a geneticist known for his discovery of DNA fingerprinting, which revolutionized forensic science and paternity testing. While his work is significant in the field of genetics, it does not involve the insertion of the human insulin gene into bacteria.
Q3. The most widely recognized damage by ultra violet rays occurs to the _
- A. Eyes
- B. Skin✓
- C. Lungs
- D. Brain
Explanation: B) Skin: UV rays are well-known for causing damage to the skin. They can lead to sunburn, premature aging, and an increased risk of skin cancer, including melanoma.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Eyes: Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays can cause damage to the eyes, particularly the cornea and the lens. Prolonged exposure without protection can lead to conditions like cataracts and photokeratitis (a painful eye condition).But it is not the main effected region by UV light.
- C. .C) Lungs: While UV rays can indirectly impact the lungs by increasing the risk of skin cancer that can spread to other organs, direct damage to the lungs from UV rays is not a widely recognized concern.
- D. D) Brain: UV rays do not typically cause direct damage to the brain. However, it's important to protect the head and face from excessive sun exposure to prevent potential skin damage.
Q4. One Dobson Unit (DU) is equal to _
- A. 1 mm
- B. 0.1 mm
- C. 0.01 mm✓
- D. 0.001 mm
Explanation: C) 0.01 mm. Dobson Unit (DU) is a unit used to measure the thickness of the ozone layer. It represents the thickness of ozone that would be required to create a layer of pure ozone with a thickness of 0.01 millimeters at standard temperature and pressure.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. One Dobson unit is equal to 0.01 mm so this option is incorrect.
- B. One Dobson unit is equal to 0.01 mm so this option is incorrect.
- D. One Dobson unit is equal to 0.01 mm so this option is incorrect.
Q5. In Rhizobium _ binds to oxygen
- A. Haemocyanin
- B. Haemolymph
- C. Leg - Haemoglobin✓
- D. Haemoglobin
Explanation: C) Leg hemoglobin: Leg hemoglobin is a protein found in the root nodules of leguminous plants, such as peas and beans. It binds to oxygen, creating a low-oxygen environment that allows Rhizobium bacteria to perform nitrogen fixation.In the case of Rhizobium, it is leg hemoglobin that binds to oxygen, creating the necessary conditions for nitrogen fixation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Hemocyanin: Hemocyanin is a copper-containing protein found in some mollusks and arthropods, but it is not involved in oxygen binding in Rhizobium.
- B. B) Heamolymph: I'm not familiar with the term "heamolymph." It might not be directly related to oxygen binding in Rhizobium.
- D. D) Haemoglobin: Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells of vertebrates, and it is responsible for binding and transporting oxygen. While haemoglobin is not directly involved in oxygen binding in Rhizobium, leg hemoglobin in the plant's root nodules plays a similar role.
Q6. There are 10% of AA individuals and 15% BB individuals in the population what the function of individuals are heterozygotes?
- A. 75%✓
- B. 35%
- C. 80%
- D. 25%
Explanation: To determine the frequency of heterozygotes in the population, we first need to find the frequency of the homozygous individuals (AA and BB) and then subtract it from 100% to find the frequency of the heterozygotes.Given:- 10% of individuals are AA (homozygous dominant).- 15% of individuals are BB (homozygous recessive).Let's find the frequency of homozygous individuals:Frequency of AA = 10%Frequency of BB = 15%Total frequency of homozygous individuals = Frequency of AA + Frequency of BBTotal frequency of homozygous individuals = 10% + 15%Total frequency of homozygous individuals = 25%Now, to find the frequency of heterozygotes:Frequency of heterozygotes = 100% - Total frequency of homozygous individualsFrequency of heterozygotes = 100% - 25%Frequency of heterozygotes = 75%So, the correct answer is A) 75. The function of individuals who are heterozygotes comprises 75% of the population.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. B) 35: This is not the correct calculation for the percentage of heterozygotes.
- C. C) 80: This is not the correct calculation for the percentage of heterozygotes.
- D. D) 25: This is the sum of the percentages of AA and BB individuals, not the percentage of heterozygotes.
Q7. _ that occurs in more than one percent of the population are called polymorphism.
- A. Mutations✓
- B. Regulations
- C. Terminations
- D. None of these
Explanation: Polymorphisms are genetic variations that occur in more than one percent of the population. A) Mutation: Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations, but not all mutations are considered polymorphisms.So, the correct answer is A) mutation. Polymorphisms are a type of genetic variation resulting from mutations that are present in a significant portion of the population.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. B) Regulation: Regulation refers to the control of gene expression and does not directly relate to the definition of polymorphisms.
- C. C) Termination: Termination typically refers to the end of a process or event and is not relevant to the definition of polymorphisms.
- D. D) None: This option is not correct. Polymorphisms are indeed genetic variations that occur in more than one percent of the population.
Q8. Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome are the examples of _
- A. Monosmy
- B. Nullisomy
- C. Trisomy✓
- D. Tetrasomy
Explanation: Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome are examples of trisomy.C) Trisomy: Trisomy is a condition where an individual has an extra copy of a particular chromosome, resulting in three copies instead of the usual pair. Down's syndrome, characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21, and Klinefelter's syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, are both examples of trisomy.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Monosomy: Monosomy refers to a condition where an individual has only one copy of a particular chromosome instead of the usual pair. This is not the case in Down's syndrome or Klinefelter's syndrome.
- B. B) Nullisomy: Nullisomy is a condition where an individual is missing both copies of a particular chromosome. This is not the case in Down's syndrome or Klinefelter's syndrome.
- D. D) Tetrasomy: Tetrasomy is a condition where an individual has four copies of a particular chromosome instead of the usual pair. This is not the case in Down's syndrome or Klinefelter's syndrome.
Q9. Crossing a heterozygous individual for two traits (F1) with it recessive parent (P1) tells us about _
- A. Unknown parents
- B. F2 generation✓
- C. Gene linkage
- D. Multiple alleles
Explanation: F2 generation: Yes, crossing the F1 individual with its recessive parent helps us understand the traits and genetic combinations that will appear in the F2 generation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Unknown parents: This option does not relate to the described scenario. Crossing a heterozygous individual for two traits (F1) with its recessive parent (P1) provides information about the inheritance patterns in the offspring generation (F2), not about the unknown parents.
- C. C) Gene linkage: Gene linkage refers to the tendency of genes located on the same chromosome to be inherited together. This concept is not directly related to the scenario described.
- D. D) Multiple alleles: Multiple alleles refer to the existence of more than two alternative forms of a gene. This concept is not directly related to the scenario described.
Q10. Blastopore is found in _
- A. Morulla
- B. Gastrula✓
- C. Neurula
- D. Zygote
Explanation: The correct answer is B) gastrula.B) Gastrula: During gastrulation, which follows the morula stage, the embryo undergoes significant morphological changes, forming three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. The blastopore is the invagination or indentation that appears during gastrulation, marking the beginning of the formation of the digestive tract. It is the site where cells ingress and migrate, leading to the formation of the embryonic gut.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Morula: The morula is an early stage of embryonic development consisting of a solid ball of cells. It forms after several rounds of cell division of the zygote but does not contain a blastopore.
- C. C) Neurula: The neurula is a stage in vertebrate embryonic development characterized by the formation of the neural tube from the ectoderm. While significant developmental processes occur during neurulation, the blastopore is not present at this stage.
- D. D) Zygote: The zygote is the initial cell formed by the fusion of gametes during fertilization. It undergoes cleavage to form the morula, which eventually develops into the gastrula. The blastopore does not exist at the zygote stage.
Q11. The process of spermatogenesis is controlled by hormonal from_
- A. Adrenal gland
- B. Pituitary gland
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Both pituitary gland and hypothalamaus✓
Explanation: D) Both B and C: This option is correct because spermatogenesis is controlled by hormones from both the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release hormones that directly influence spermatogenesis.Therefore, the correct answer is D) both B and C.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Adrenal: The adrenal glands are responsible for producing hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol, which are not directly involved in spermatogenesis.
- B. B) Pituitary: The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, secretes hormones that regulate various bodily functions, including spermatogenesis. It releases follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulate the production of sperm in the testes.
- C. C) Hypothalamus: The hypothalamus, also located in the brain, controls the pituitary gland by releasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). GnRH stimulates the pituitary gland to release FSH and LH, which then act on the testes to initiate and regulate spermatogenesis.
Q12. The tropic movement of curvature included in plant organs in response to unilateral effect of light is called _
- A. Kinesis
- B. Getropism
- C. Phototropism✓
- D. Chemotropism
Explanation: The tropic movement of curvature in plant organs in response to the unilateral effect of light is called phototropism (option C).Therefore, the correct answer is C) phototropism, which specifically describes the tropic movement of curvature in plant organs in response to the unilateral effect of light.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Kinesis: Kinesis refers to a non-directional movement or change in activity rate in response to a stimulus. It is not specifically related to the unilateral effect of light on plant organs.
- B. B) Geotropism: Geotropism, also known as gravitropism, refers to the growth or movement of a plant in response to gravity. It is not specifically related to the unilateral effect of light.
- D. D) Chemotropism: Chemotropism refers to the growth or movement of a plant in response to a chemical stimulus. It is not specifically related to the unilateral effect of light.
Q13. In male LH is also known as
- A. MSH
- B. ICSH✓
- C. ACTH
- D. GnRH
Explanation: B) ICSH: ICSH stands for interstitial cell-stimulating hormone. As I mentioned earlier, it is another name for LH when referring to its role in stimulating the interstitial cells (Leydig cells) in the testes to produce testosterone. Testosterone is an important hormone involved in male reproductive functions.So, in summary, LH in males is also known as ICSH (option B).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) MSH: MSH stands for melanocyte-stimulating hormone. It is a hormone that plays a role in regulating the production of melanin, which determines the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. However, MSH is not specifically associated with LH in males.
- C. C) ACTH: ACTH stands for adrenocorticotropic hormone. It is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. ACTH is not directly related to LH in males.
- D. D) GnRH: GnRH stands for gonadotropin-releasing hormone. It is a hormone that is released by the hypothalamus and stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone). GnRH is responsible for the regulation of reproductive functions in both males and females.
Q14. Speed of nerve impulses is faster in
- A. Synapse
- B. Myelinated neutron✓
- C. Non-Myelinated neutron
- D. None of these
Explanation: B) Myelinated neuron: A myelinated neuron is a nerve cell that has a protective covering called myelin sheath around its axon. This myelin sheath acts as an insulator and helps to speed up the conduction of nerve impulses. The myelin sheath allows the nerve impulses to "jump" from one node of Ranvier to another, which is known as saltatory conduction. This process significantly increases the speed of nerve impulses in myelinated neurons.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Synapse: A synapse is a junction between two nerve cells where they communicate with each other. The speed of nerve impulses is not specifically related to synapses, as synapses are involved in the transmission of signals between neurons rather than the speed of the impulses themselves.
- C. C) Non-myelinated neuron: A non-myelinated neuron is a nerve cell that lacks a myelin sheath around its axon. Without the myelin sheath, the nerve impulses have to travel continuously along the entire length of the axon, resulting in a slower conduction speed compared to myelinated neurons.
- D. D) None: This option suggests that none of the given options are true. However, if option B is true, then the correct answer would be B) myelinated neuron.
Q15. Bone fracture is said to be _ fracture if this bone ends penetrate the skin and form a wound.
- A. Open
- B. Compound
- C. Minor
- D. Both A and B✓
Explanation: If option D is true, which states that a bone fracture is both an open fracture (option A) and a compound fracture (option B),Therefore, if option D is true, the correct answer would be D) both A and B, as both "open" and "compound" fractures refer to the situation where the bone ends penetrate the skin and form a wound.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Open: An open fracture refers to a type of fracture where the broken bone ends penetrate the skin, creating an external wound. This can increase the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention.
- B. B) Compound: A compound fracture is another term used to describe a fracture where the broken bone ends protrude through the skin, resulting in an open wound. It is essentially the same as an open fracture.
- C. C) Minor: The term "minor" does not accurately describe a fracture where the bone ends penetrate the skin. This type of fracture is considered more severe and requires prompt medical intervention.
Q16. Which portion of the Nephron active pumps our Na+ with Cl- passively to create a salty medulla?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubules
- B. Ascending loop of Henle✓
- C. Distal convoluted tubule
- D. Both A and B
Explanation: The correct answer is B) ascending loop of Henle.B) Ascending loop of Henle: This segment of the nephron actively pumps sodium (Na⁺) out of the tubular fluid into the interstitial space of the renal medulla. This active transport of sodium creates a concentration gradient in the medulla, making it salty. Chloride ions (Cl⁻) are passively reabsorbed along with sodium ions, contributing to the osmotic gradient in the medulla. The ascending loop of Henle is crucial for establishing the hypertonic environment necessary for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A) Proximal convoluted tubule: This portion of the nephron is primarily responsible for reabsorbing water, ions, and nutrients back into the bloodstream. While it plays a crucial role in reabsorption, it does not specifically contribute to the creation of the salty medulla.
- C. C) Distal convoluted tubule: This part of the nephron is involved in fine-tuning electrolyte balance and pH regulation by further reabsorbing sodium ions and regulating potassium and calcium ions. While it plays a role in electrolyte balance, it does not significantly contribute to the establishment of the hypertonic medullary environment.
- D. D) Both A and B: The proximal convoluted tubule (A) is involved in the reabsorption of many substances, but it doesn't directly contribute to the creation of the salty medulla. Only the ascending loop of Henle (B) actively pumps sodium out of the tubular fluid, establishing the hypertonic environment in the renal medulla. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
Q17. Sharks is _
- A. Ureotelic✓
- B. Ammonotelic
- C. Urecotelic
- D. None of these
Explanation: Sharks are ureotelic because their primary nitrogenous waste product is urea, which is less toxic and requires less water for excretion compared to ammonia. This adaptation is essential for sharks, which inhabit environments with varying levels of salt concentration, allowing them to efficiently regulate their internal osmolarity while conserving water.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Sharks, being aquatic animals, do not excrete ammonia directly due to its toxicity in water. Instead, they efficiently convert ammonia to urea in their liver, which is less toxic and can be stored in their bodies. This adaptation allows sharks to maintain osmotic balance in their environment while efficiently disposing of nitrogenous waste.
- C. Sharks are not urecotelic because they possess a highly efficient osmoregulatory system adapted to living in seawater. Their kidneys efficiently excrete excess salts through active transport mechanisms, maintaining a balance of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in their bodies. This adaptation allows them to regulate their internal osmolarity despite the high salt concentration of seawater, making them not solely reliant on excreting urea as a means of osmoregulation.
- D. Option A ureotelic is correct so it is incorrect.
Q18. Tuberculosis (TB) is the bacterial infection of _
- A. Lungs✓
- B. Lymph nodes
- C. Bones
- D. All of these
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