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Kpk Biology 2021 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 18 MCQs from Kpk Biology 2021, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT KPK / ETEA past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all KPK / ETEA papers.

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Q1. _ is the dominant trait of flower position in pea plants.

  • A. Yellow
  • B. Purple
  • C. Terminal
  • D. Axial

Explanation: The dominant trait of flower position in pea plants is "axial." This means the flowers are located along the stem, rather than at the tip (terminal). In terms of color, purple is dominant over yellow in Mendelian genetics.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The dominant trait of flower position in pea plants is "axial." This means the flowers are located along the stem, rather than at the tip (terminal). In terms of color, purple is dominant over yellow in Mendelian genetics.
  • B. The dominant trait of flower position in pea plants is "axial." This means the flowers are located along the stem, rather than at the tip (terminal). In terms of color, purple is dominant over yellow in Mendelian genetics.
  • C. The dominant trait of flower position in pea plants is "axial." This means the flowers are located along the stem, rather than at the tip (terminal). In terms of color, purple is dominant over yellow in Mendelian genetics.

Q2. A person with _ blood type can receive blood from any blood type.

  • A. A
  • B. AB
  • C. B
  • D. O

Explanation: A person with AB blood type can receive blood from any blood type. This is because individuals with AB blood type have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells and do not produce antibodies against either A or B blood types.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Individuals with blood type A can receive blood from A and O blood types because they have A antigens but not B antigens. However, they produce antibodies against B blood type.
  • C. Individuals with blood type B can receive blood from B and O blood types because they have B antigens but not A antigens. However, they produce antibodies against A blood type.
  • D. Individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from O blood type because they do not have A or B antigens on their red blood cells. However, they produce antibodies against both A and B blood types.

Q3. Total number of Genetic codes are _.

  • A. 63
  • B. 64
  • C. 65
  • D. 66

Explanation: Total number of Genetic codes is 64. If three base pairs combination will be used, gives 64 combinations which is more than enough, the biologist hypothesized that each amino acid is coded by triplet of base pairs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Total number of Genetic codes is 64. If three base pairs combination will be used, gives 64 combinations which is more than enough, the biologist hypothesized that each amino acid is coded by triplet of base pairs.
  • C. Total number of Genetic codes is 64. If three base pairs combination will be used, gives 64 combinations which is more than enough, the biologist hypothesized that each amino acid is coded by triplet of base pairs.
  • D. Total number of Genetic codes is 64. If three base pairs combination will be used, gives 64 combinations which is more than enough, the biologist hypothesized that each amino acid is coded by triplet of base pairs.

Q4. Similarities in characteristics resulting from common ancestry is known as _.

  • A. Omithology
  • B. Herpetology
  • C. Analogy
  • D. Homology

Explanation: This is the correct term for the concept described in the question. Homology refers to similarities in characteristics resulting from common ancestry. These similarities are due to shared evolutionary history rather than convergent evolution. For example, the similar bone structure in the forelimbs of humans, bats, and whales is considered homologous because it derives from a common ancestor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is the scientific study of birds, which focuses on their behavior, ecology, physiology, and more. It's not directly related to the concept described.
  • B. This is the study of reptiles and amphibians. Like ornithology, it's a specific field of study and doesn't directly relate to the concept described.
  • C. In biology, an analogy refers to similarities between organisms that are not due to common ancestry but rather due to convergent evolution. This means they have similar traits because they live in similar environments or perform similar functions, not because they share a recent common ancestor.

Q5. The random loss of alleles in a population is called _.

  • A. Mutation
  • B. Selection
  • C. Gene flow
  • D. Genetic drift

Explanation: This is the correct term for the concept described in the question. Genetic drift is the random fluctuation of allele frequencies in a population due to chance events. These chance events can include things like random deaths, births, or other demographic factors. Genetic drift is particularly important in small populations, where chance events can have a significant impact on allele frequencies over time.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism. Mutations can occur randomly and can lead to new alleles being introduced into a population, but they are not specifically related to the random loss of alleles.
  • B. Selection refers to the process by which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time due to their effects on survival and reproduction. While selection can lead to changes in allele frequencies, it's not specifically about the random loss of alleles.
  • C. Gene flow is the movement of genes between populations, usually through migration. It can lead to changes in allele frequencies within a population, but it's not specifically about the random loss of alleles.

Q6. _ is an immunosuppressive agent.

  • A. Insulin
  • B. Penicillin
  • C. Cyclosporine
  • D. Lovastatin

Explanation: Cyclosporine is indeed an immunosuppressive agent. It's commonly used to prevent organ rejection after transplant surgery and to treat autoimmune diseases by inhibiting the activity of T cells in the immune system.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Insulin is not an immunosuppressive agent. It's a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells.
  • B. Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It works by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, but it doesn't suppress the immune system.
  • D. Lovastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. It works by inhibiting an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis and has no direct effect on the immune system.

Q7. Types of pain receptors are:

  • A. Cutaneous
  • B. Somatic
  • C. Visceral
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: All of the above are types of pain receptors so this option is correct.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. These receptors are located in the skin and respond to stimuli such as temperature, pressure, and injury. They help in detecting sensations like heat, cold, and touch on the skin's surface.
  • B. These receptors are found in the muscles, joints, bones, and ligaments throughout the body. They detect sensations related to mechanical stress, stretching, and tissue damage, providing the perception of pain in response to injuries or other harmful stimuli.
  • C. These receptors are located in the internal organs of the body, such as the heart, lungs, stomach, and intestines. They respond to stimuli such as inflammation, distension, and ischemia (lack of blood flow), signaling pain that is often described as deep, dull, and poorly localized.

Q8. All of the given are secreted by anterior pituitary except _.

  • A. GH
  • B. ADH
  • C. FSH
  • D. TSH

Explanation: ADH, also known as vasopressin, is not secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Instead, it is produced by the hypothalamus and stored and released from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH regulates water balance in the body by controlling the reabsorption of water by the kidneys, thus affecting urine concentration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, GH plays a crucial role in growth, cell repair, and metabolism regulation.
  • C. FSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. In females, FSH stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles and promotes the production of estrogen. In males, FSH stimulates the production of sperm in the testes.
  • D. Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism, growth, and energy expenditure.

Q9. Hypersecretion of insulin results in _.

  • A. Polyuria
  • B. Polydipsia
  • C. Hypoglycemia
  • D. Polyphagia

Explanation: Hypersecretion of insulin can lead to hypoglycemia, which is characterized by abnormally low blood sugar levels. This can result in symptoms such as sweating, trembling, confusion, and even loss of consciousness if severe.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Polyuria refers to excessive urination. Hypersecretion of insulin does not directly result in polyuria. However, if insulin levels are too high, it can lead to hypoglycemia, which may trigger mechanisms in the body to increase urine output, but polyuria is not a direct consequence of insulin hypersecretion.
  • B. Polydipsia is excessive thirst. Hypersecretion of insulin can lead to hypoglycemia, which in turn can cause increased thirst as the body attempts to restore fluid balance.
  • D. Polyphagia is excessive hunger or increased appetite. Hypersecretion of insulin typically leads to increased glucose uptake by cells, which can result in hypoglycemia and trigger feelings of hunger or increased appetite as the body tries to replenish glucose levels.

Q10. Territorial behaviour is exhibited by _.

  • A. Baboons
  • B. Fish
  • C. Birds
  • D. Cat

Explanation: Baboons show territorial behaviour. The Old World monkeys lack a prehensile tail, and their nostrils open downward. They include mandrills, macaques, rhesus monkeys, and baboons.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Baboons show territorial behaviour. The Old World monkeys lack a prehensile tail, and their nostrils open downward. They include mandrills, macaques, rhesus monkeys, and baboons.
  • C. Baboons show territorial behaviour. The Old World monkeys lack a prehensile tail, and their nostrils open downward. They include mandrills, macaques, rhesus monkeys, and baboons.
  • D. Baboons show territorial behaviour. The Old World monkeys lack a prehensile tail, and their nostrils open downward. They include mandrills, macaques, rhesus monkeys, and baboons.

Q11. _ is not a cause of male infertility.

  • A. Uterine fibroids
  • B. Varicocele
  • C. Sperm movement
  • D. Cystic fibroids

Explanation: Uterine fibroids are noncancerous growths of the uterus that can cause fertility issues in women by interfering with the implantation of a fertilized egg. However, they are not a cause of male infertility.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Varicocele is a condition characterized by swelling of the veins within the scrotum, which can impact sperm production and quality. It's a common cause of male infertility.
  • C. Sperm movement, also known as sperm motility, is crucial for male fertility. If sperm cannot swim properly, they may have difficulty reaching and fertilizing the egg, leading to infertility.
  • D. There is no such medical condition as "cystic fibroids." However, cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system. While it doesn't directly cause male infertility, it can lead to complications that affect reproductive health.

Q12. The protective coat which surround the embryo is known as _.

  • A. Chorion
  • B. Allantois
  • C. Amnion
  • D. Yolk

Explanation: The amnion is the innermost membrane that surrounds the embryo in reptiles, birds, and mammals. It contains the amniotic fluid, which cushions and protects the embryo, as well as regulates temperature and prevents dehydration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The chorion is one of the membranes that surround the embryo in reptiles, birds, and mammals. It helps in exchange of gases between the embryo and the environment.
  • B. The allantois is another membrane found in reptiles, birds, and mammals. It stores waste products produced by the embryo and also helps with gas exchange.
  • D. The yolk is the nutrient-rich substance found in the egg of birds and reptiles. It provides the embryo with essential nutrients for development.

Q13. _ is directly connected with larynx.

  • A. Bronchi
  • B. Bronchioles
  • C. Alveoli
  • D. Trachea

Explanation: The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is the airway that connects the larynx to the bronchi. It is directly connected with the larynx and serves as the passage for air to move in and out of the lungs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. These are the large air passages that branch off from the trachea into the lungs, but they are not directly connected to the larynx.
  • B. Bronchioles are smaller air passages within the lungs that branch off from the bronchi. They are not directly connected to the larynx.
  • C. Alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs, but they are not directly connected to the larynx.

Q14. Isoniazid and rifampin are the most common drugs used for treatment of _.

  • A. Sinusitis
  • B. Pneumonia
  • C. Tuberculosis
  • D. Nausea

Explanation: Isoniazid and rifampin are the most common drugs used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB), a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Sinusitis is an inflammation or swelling of the tissue lining the sinuses. Isoniazid and rifampin are not typically used to treat sinusitis.
  • B. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. While isoniazid and rifampin are sometimes used in the treatment of certain types of pneumonia, they are not the most common drugs for this condition.
  • D. Nausea is a symptom of various conditions, but isoniazid and rifampin are not used to treat nausea. They are antibiotics primarily used in the treatment of bacterial infections, particularly TB.

Q15. Which animal can derive water from cellular oxidation?

  • A. Kangroo rat
  • B. Hag fish
  • C. Shark
  • D. Snail

Explanation: Some animals like camel, kangaroo-rat, etc., in the absence of environmental water get it through metabolic water by breakdown of fats and other compounds during cellular oxidation reactions as a byproduct.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Some animals like camel, kangaroo-rat, etc., in the absence of environmental water get it through metabolic water by breakdown of fats and other compounds during cellular oxidation reactions as a byproduct.
  • C. Some animals like camel, kangaroo-rat, etc., in the absence of environmental water get it through metabolic water by breakdown of fats and other compounds during cellular oxidation reactions as a byproduct.
  • D. Some animals like camel, kangaroo-rat, etc., in the absence of environmental water get it through metabolic water by breakdown of fats and other compounds during cellular oxidation reactions as a byproduct.

Q16. The level of uric acid may rise due to high intake of _ in the food.

  • A. Calcium
  • B. Protein
  • C. Oxalate
  • D. Phosphate

Explanation: This is the correct answer. High intake of protein-rich foods, especially those high in purines like red meat, organ meats, and certain seafood, can lead to increased uric acid levels. When the body breaks down purines, it produces uric acid as a byproduct.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. High intake of calcium-rich foods doesn't directly contribute to elevated uric acid levels. In fact, calcium intake might actually help lower the risk of gout, a condition caused by high levels of uric acid.
  • C. Oxalate-rich foods, like spinach, beets, and nuts, are associated with kidney stones but not directly linked to elevated uric acid levels.
  • D. While high phosphate levels in the blood can be a concern in certain conditions, they are not directly associated with elevated uric acid levels from dietary intake.

Q17. Number of bones in human skull are _.

  • A. 24
  • B. 25
  • C. 26
  • D. 28

Explanation: The axial skeleton is on the central axis of the body and comprises the skull, vertebral column and thoracic cage including ribs and sternum. It has eighty (80) bones, including twenty-eight bones in the skull, one hyoid bone, twenty-six bones in the vertebral column, twenty-four ribs and one sternum.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The axial skeleton is on the central axis of the body and comprises the skull, vertebral column and thoracic cage including ribs and sternum. It has eighty (80) bones, including twenty-eight bones in the skull, one hyoid bone, twenty-six bones in the vertebral column, twenty-four ribs and one sternum.
  • B. The axial skeleton is on the central axis of the body and comprises the skull, vertebral column and thoracic cage including ribs and sternum. It has eighty (80) bones, including twenty-eight bones in the skull, one hyoid bone, twenty-six bones in the vertebral column, twenty-four ribs and one sternum.
  • C. The axial skeleton is on the central axis of the body and comprises the skull, vertebral column and thoracic cage including ribs and sternum. It has eighty (80) bones, including twenty-eight bones in the skull, one hyoid bone, twenty-six bones in the vertebral column, twenty-four ribs and one sternum.

Q18. _ joints permit movement in one plane.

  • A. Hinge
  • B. Ball and socket
  • C. Fibrous
  • D. Cartilaginous

Explanation: These joints permit movement in one plane, like a door hinge. Examples include the elbow and knee joints.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. These joints allow movement in multiple planes, including rotation. The rounded end of one bone fits into a cup-like socket of another bone. Examples include the hip and shoulder joints.
  • C. These joints are immovable or permit very limited movement. They are connected by fibrous tissue, such as in the skull sutures.
  • D. These joints allow slight movement and are connected by cartilage. Examples include the joints between vertebrae in the spine and the pubic symphysis.

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