Kpk Mdcat 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Cowardice is an example of a/an _.

• A. Common noun
• B. Proper noun
• C. Countable noun
• D. Abstract noun✓

Explanation: Cowardice means lack of bravery. Since it does not refer to a physical object. That's why, it is an abstract noun.

Q2. A bridegroom is a/an example of:

• A. Neuter gender
• B. Common gender
• C. Masculine gender✓
• D. Feminine gender

Explanation: Bridegroom means a man on his wedding day.

Q3. I waited for the bus but it was late. (Identify the sentence:

• A. Simple
• B. Complex
• C. Compound✓
• D. Mixed

Explanation: The given sentence contains two independent clauses joined by coordinating conjunction.So,the given sentence is a compound sentence.

Q4. We can drive _ the tunnel. (Use the correct preposition):

• A. By
• B. At
• C. Through✓
• D. Into

Explanation: Through means moving from one end or side of something to the other. Since this preposition suits the given sentence best, so Option C is correct.

Q5. She needs to clean the room. (Choose the correct passive voice):

• A. The room needed to clean by her.
• B. The room needed to be cleaned by her.
• C. The room needs to be clean by her.
• D. The room needs to be cleaned by her.✓

Explanation: Option D correctly uses the passive voice. It uses the auxiliary verb "be" in combination with the past participle form of the verb "cleaned" to form the passive construction.

Q6. What figure of speech is used in this sentence, "He is the black sheep of the class."

• A. Simile
• B. Metaphor✓
• C. Alliteration
• D. Hyperbole

Explanation: In the question, the person is being compared to something non-human form like sheep so it is a metaphor.

Q7. Had I studied very well, I _ rewarded with a scholarship.

• A. Was
• B. Were
• C. Will have been
• D. Would have been✓

Explanation: To solve this type of question, put IF+Subject before the sentence. Example:''If I had studied very well, I _ rewarded with a scholarship.'' It is a conditional Type 3 sentence. If + past perfect, would/wouldn't have + past participle

Q8. My brother and I met an acquaintance of _ in the shopping mall.

• A. Ourselves
• B. Us
• C. Our
• D. Ours✓

Explanation: "Ours" is used following the verb, at the end of the sentence Example: "That book is ours." Moreover, "Ours" refers to something that belongs or relates both to yourself and to one or more other people. In the sentence, acquaintance belongs to both persons, so Option D is correct.

Q9. The word "Adept" means:

• A. Proficient✓
• B. Naive
• C. Friend
• D. Abode

Explanation: The word "Adept" means a person who is skilled at something or "ماہر"

Q10. The word "frugality" means:

• A. Economical✓
• B. Enthusiasm
• C. Foolishness
• D. Effective

Explanation: Frugality means being careful to use only as much money, food, etc., or کفایت شعاری. So, the economy is the best option.

Q11. The antonym for the word "chaotic" is:

• A. Embarrassing
• B. Hectic
• C. Orderly✓
• D. Nervous

Explanation: Can you please give me explanations for each option in this question? Chaotic means completely unordered and unpredictable, and confusing or افراتفری. So, the ANTONYM of the word will be "orderly." The easier way to solve the question is to check the connotations. Since, chaotic is a negative word, its antonym will be a positive word. Only Option C has a positive connotation, so option C is the correct option.

Q12. I said to you,"What a nice scenery!" (Choose the correct indirect narration for the given sentence.)

• A. I exclaimed that it was a nice scenery.✓
• B. I exclaimed that it is a nice scenery.
• C. I told you that what a nice scenery.
• D. I told you that what was a nice scenery.

Explanation: To make an indirect narration of a sentence with an exclamation mark, change said to exclaimed. In other words, an exclamatory sentence becomes an assertive sentence.

Q13. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

• A. No, I haven't never been to a shopping mall.
• B. No, I haven't ever been to a shopping mall.✓
• C. No, I have ever been to a shopping mall.
• D. No, I haven't ever never been to a shopping mall.

Explanation: To answer this question, remember not to use two negative words in a single sentence. The use of the second negative negates the previous idea.

Q14. The child _ spoken to his parents before going on the trip.

• A. Have
• B. Will be
• C. Had✓
• D. Would

Explanation: In this sentence, the use of SPOKEN (3rd form of speak) represents the use of perfect tense. So, HAS/HAVE/HAD should be used. The use of BEFORE shows that the first part of the sentence was completed in the past. So, past tense should be used.

Q15. The cause of the car accident can have been malfunctioning brake pads. (Choose the incorrect underlined item)

• A. The cause
• B. Can✓
• C. Have
• D. Malfunctioning

Explanation: To express hypothetical situations, Could have been is used instead of can have been. Example: “I could have succeeded if she had offered any help.”

Q16. I am as much intelligent as _

• A. He✓
• B. Himself
• C. Him
• D. His

Explanation: To solve this type of question,put a helping verb at the end of the sentence. Example: "I am as much intelligent as _ (is)" Now, it is clear that a subject pronoun should be used to replace a subject.

Q17. Read the passage and answer the question: "Comprehension of medical books is considered as one of the most difficult processes among understanding technical terms of diversified fields. Many studies have considered reading as a guessing activity; which means regardless of the student's level, the text will frequently contain numerous difficult words. The ability to guess and infer the meanings of unknown terminology might be viewed as a skill that should be developed." All is true except:

• A. Acquiring technical jargon is difficult in technical professions, such as medical.
• B. The only reading approach used by medical students is inferring the meaning of challenging words.✓
• C. The technical terminology makes comprehension of medical text challenging
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The passage does not suggest that guessing difficult terminologies is the ONLY reading approach.It is just a consideration and the writer uses the word "FREQUENTLY" which means often but not always.

Q18. Read the passage and answer the questions:"People say that certain cancers are protected against by tomatoes and processed tomato products like tomato sauce and canned tomatoes. Lycopene has been found to be responsible for tomato's and tomato product's ability to prevent certain cancers. Lycopene is the vivid red pigment that gives red hue to tomatoes and other red fruits. The processed tomatoes are found to have more Lycopene. Tomato paste contains four times as much Lycopene as fresh tomatoes do because Lycopene is strongly linked to vegetable fiber and is soluble in water. Further, oil helps in absorption of Lycopene because it is a fat-soluble substance."It can be understood from the passage that:

• A. As far as Lycopene intake is concerned: It is a pigment which is solved quickly in water and juice.
• B. Lycopene hardly offers any protection against cancer.
• C. Tomato products contain high concentrations of Lycopene and fat.
• D. There is a correlation between the Lycopene consumption and the prevention of some cancer types.✓

Explanation: The passage suggests that there is a correlation between lycopene consumption and prevention of certain cancer types. So, Option C is correct.

Q19. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of viruses?

• A. They do not respire.
• B. They do not excrete.
• C. They do not have the ability to reproduce.✓
• D. They can be crystallised.

Explanation: Viruses are acellular, obligate, intracellular parasites. Viruses are not alive, because they do not complete all of the seven life processes: Movement, Respiration, Sensitivity, Nutrition, Excretion, Reproduction, and Growth. The only property of life they exhibit is replication.

Q20. In 1935 W.M. Stanley prepared an extract of:

• A. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV)✓
• B. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• C. Flu virus
• D. Polio virus

Explanation: Wendell Stanley studied the tobacco mosaic virus, which attacks the leaves of tobacco plants. From considerable quantities of infected tobacco leaves, he succeeded in extracting the virus in the form of pure crystals in 1935.

Q21. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) particles surround with a coat known as the viral envelope or membrane made up of:

• A. Glycoprotein
• B. Glycolipid
• C. Lipoprotein✓
• D. Sulpholipid

Explanation: Lipoproteins are particles made of protein and fats (lipids). Viral envelopes consist of a lipoprotein bilayer that closely surrounds a shell of virus-encoded membrane-associated proteins.

Q22. The word hepatitis means inflammation of the:

• A. Pancreas
• B. Liver✓
• C. Spleen
• D. Gall bladder

Explanation: Inflammation is swelling that happens when tissues of the body are injured or infected. Diagram:

Q23. The resting membrane potential of neuron is measured about:

• A. -30 millivolts
• B. -50 millivolts
• C. -70 millivolts✓
• D. -100 millivolts

Explanation: This option is the correct answer. The resting membrane potential of a typical neuron is approximately -70 millivolts. This means that the inside of the neuron is 70 millivolts more negative than the outside. Diagram:

Q24. In aerobic respiration, the glucose molecule is completely broken down into carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O) and _ energy. C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ?

• A. 2 ATP
• B. 4 ATP
• C. 34 ATP
• D. 36 ATP✓

Explanation: Respiration is defined as the oxidation of food molecules that release energy in the form of ATP. Aerobic respiration involves the following stages: Glycolysis, Link Reaction, Kreb’s Cycle, and Oxidative Phosphorylation. 3 NADH2 = 3 ATPs 1 FADH2 = 2 ATPs The 2 NADH2 molecules formed during glycolysis remain in the cytoplasm as the mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to NADH2. They deposit hydrogen ions on the mitochondrial membrane. As a result, hydrogen will be gained by FAD to form 2 FADH2 molecules. When FADH2 gets hydrolysed, 4 ATP molecules are lost. Hence, 40 - 4 = 36 ATP molecules are formed during aerobic respiration. The yield is approximately 29−32 ATP molecules per glucose molecule Diagram:

Q25. The four types of fundamental biological molecules present in protoplasm are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and?

• A. Enzymes
• B. Hormones
• C. Nucleic Acids✓
• D. Alkaloids

Explanation: A biological molecule refers to any molecule that is produced by living organisms. The four major types of biomolecules are carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins. Diagram:

Q26. Ribose is a pentose sugar (5 carbon) that contains:

• A. Aldehyde group✓
• B. Ketone group
• C. Carboxyl group
• D. Ester group

Explanation: The term carbohydrates (or sugars) refers to a group of polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones. This means that a carbohydrate molecule contains several hydroxyl groups and either an aldehyde or a ketone group. Diagram:

Q27. Proteins are macromolecules formed of units known as amino acids. The amino acids in which the variable group (R) is represented by a H atom is:

• A. Lysine
• B. Phenylalanine
• C. Glycine✓
• D. Alanine

Explanation: Amino acids are organic compounds which contain both an amine group (NH2) and a carboxyl group (COOH). They are distinguished by the attached functional group R (side chain). Diagram:

Q28. The type of lipids which do not contain fatty acids are:

• A. Phospholipids
• B. Waxes
• C. Steroids✓
• D. Acylglycerol

Explanation: Fatty acids are carboxylic acids. They have a very long pleated backbone of carbon atoms with hydrogen atoms attached and a carboxyl group (COOH) at one end. Diagram:

Q29. In which part of the chloroplast the fixation of carbon dioxide results in the formation of sugars?

• A. Grana
• B. Stroma✓
• C. Intergranum
• D. Outer membrane of chloroplast

Explanation: Chloroplasts are biconvex disc-like organelles that are surrounded by a double membrane. Diagram:

Q30. The colloidal mixture of ions, organic and inorganic salts present in the nucleus is called:

• A. Nuclear membrane
• B. Nucleolus
• C. Nucleoplasm✓
• D. Chromosome

Explanation: The nucleus is a highly specialised organelle that serves as the information processing and administrative centre of the cell. It is composed of various structures namely nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, chromatin and nucleolus. Diagram:

Q31. Those nerves that originate from or lead to the brain are called cerebral nerves. There are_pairs of cranial nerves in humans.

• A. 6
• B. 12✓
• C. 14
• D. 31

Explanation: The peripheral nervous system consists of the nerves that branch out from the brain and spinal cord. The PNS includes the peripheral nerves, neuromuscular junctions, cranial nerves, and spinal nerves. Diagram:

Q32. The hormone that triggers the release of milk in lactating women is:

• A. Growth hormone
• B. Antidiuretic hormone
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Follicle stimulating hormone

Explanation: Lactation is the process of producing breast milk. Hormones signal the mammary glands in our body to start producing milk to feed the baby. Diagram:

Q33. The group of animals having a single celled body which performs all the vital activities of life are called:

• A. Protozoa✓
• B. Parazoa
• C. Metazoa
• D. Nanozoa

Explanation: Protozoa are unicellular, heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms comprising four organisation types: amebae, flagellates, ciliates, and parasitic sporozoans. They are either free-living or parasites. Diagram:

Q34. The word “annelida” is of greek origin; “annellus” means:

• A. Little ring✓
• B. Segmented body
• C. Thread
• D. Hollow

Explanation: Annelid, phylum name Annelida, also called a segmented worm, is a member of a phylum of invertebrate animals that are characterised by the possession of a body cavity (or coelom), movable bristles (or setae), and a body divided into segments by transverse rings, or annulations, from which they take their name. The name of the phylum is derived from the Latin word annellus, which means a little ring. Diagram:

Q35. Most of the coenzymes are the derivatives of:

• A. Lipid
• B. Vitamins✓
• C. Steroids
• D. Waxes

Explanation: Most of the coenzymes are derivatives of vitamins. Coenzymes are organic molecules that work alongside enzymes to facilitate various biochemical reactions in the body. Many coenzymes are derived from essential vitamins, such as B vitamins (e.g., NAD+, FAD, coenzyme A), which play crucial roles in carrying and transferring chemical groups or electrons during metabolic processes. These coenzymes are essential for various metabolic pathways and are obtained from dietary sources since the body typically cannot synthesize them in sufficient quantities.

Q36. Genetic drift is the change in the allele frequency of the population due to;

• A. Random chance✓
• B. Non-random mating
• C. Natural selection
• D. Artificial selection

Explanation: Genetic drift is a change in allele frequencies in a population from generation to generation that occurs due to chance events. To be more exact, genetic drift is changed due to "sampling error" in selecting the alleles for the next generation from the gene pool of the current generation. Diagram:

Q37. The basis of Lamarck theory of inheritance is:

• A. Survival of the fittest
• B. Selection by nature
• C. Inheritance of acquired character✓
• D. Theory of special creation

Explanation: The theory of Lamarck defines that the traits acquired by any generation will be inherited by the next generation of the same species. Lamarck believed that organisms develop new organs or modify existing organs due to environmental problems. Acquiring new traits completely depends upon the species. Diagram:

Q38. Which one of the following part of the human respiratory system forms the gas exchange surface?

• A. Trachea
• B. Larynx
• C. Bronchi
• D. Alveoli✓

Explanation: Alveoli are tiny, balloon-shaped air sacs in our lungs. The function of the alveoli is to move oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules into and out of our bloodstream. The alveoli are the gas exchange surface in humans. Diagram:

Q39. The average adult human has a lung capacity of approximately:

• A. 2 litres
• B. 5 litres✓
• C. 9 litres
• D. 12 litres

Explanation: Lung capacity or total lung capacity (TLC) is the volume of air in the lungs upon the maximum effort of inspiration. Among healthy adults, the average lung capacity is about 5 litres. Diagram:

Q40. The process of spermatogenesis (formation of sperm) takes place in which part of the male reproductive system?

• A. Urethra
• B. Epididymis
• C. Oviduct
• D. Seminiferous tubules✓

Explanation: Testes are composed largely of seminiferous tubules—coiled tubes, the walls of which contain cells that produce sperm—and are surrounded by a capsule, the tunica albuginea. Seminiferous tubules may constitute up to 90 per cent of the testis. Diagram:

Q41. Which one of the following cells have a haploid number of chromosomes?

• A. Sperm cell✓
• B. Mesophyll cell
• C. Skin cell
• D. Muscular cell

Explanation: The word haploid (meaning ‘half’) describes a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes. Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes, which are arranged in homologous pairs. Diagram:

Q42. Those joints in which the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing joint cavity are called:

• A. Fibrous joints
• B. Cartilaginous joints
• C. Synovial joint✓
• D. Immovable joint

Explanation: Freely movable joints are classified structurally as synovial joints. Unlike fibrous and cartilaginous joints, synovial joints have a joint cavity (fluid-filled space) between connecting bones. Diagram:

Q43. The joints present in the elbow and knee are an example of which type of joint?

• A. Immovable joint
• B. Slightly movable joint
• C. Hinge joint✓
• D. Ball and socket joint

Explanation: Joints are locations in the body where bones meet. Diagram:

Q44. A man of blood group A marries a woman of blood group B and they have one child. Which one of the following statements about the child’s blood is correct?

• A. It could be group A only.
• B. It could be group AB only.
• C. It could be group A or group B only.
• D. It could be any of the groups A, B, AB and O.✓

Explanation: ABO blood group in humans is controlled by three different alleles IA, IB and i. While the dominant alleles (IA and IB) code for the antigens A and B, respectively, i allele (which is recessive to both IA and IB) does not code for any antigen. The blood group of the man is A, which means the possible genotypes are IAIA or IAi. Likewise, the blood group of the woman is B, which means the possible genotypes are IBIB or IBi. Therefore, A, B, AB, and O are the possible blood groups of offspring when a man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. Diagram:

Q45. Red green colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait that renders individuals unable to distinguish shades of red or green, and both appear as:

• A. Red
• B. Green
• C. Grey✓
• D. Yellow

Explanation: Red-green colour blindness is the most common variety of colour deficiency in humans. It happens to people who can’t see shades of red and green the same way as people with normal colour perception do. People who can’t see red or green might perceive things the rest of us would think of as grey. Diagram:

Q46. The statement “the membrane is like a sea of lipids in which proteins are floating” represents:

• A. Gorter & Grendel Model
• B. J F Danielle & Davson Model
• C. Robertson Model
• D. S J Singer & Nicolson Model✓

Explanation: The fluid mosaic model was first proposed by S.J. Singer and Garth L. Nicolson in 1972 to explain the structure of the plasma membrane. They described the plasma membrane as protein icebergs in a sea of lipids. Diagram:

Q47. Detoxification of drug is the main role of:

• A. Golgi bodies
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
• D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum✓

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not have ribosomes. One of the most important functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is to detoxify the body from metabolic wastes and drugs. It is also concerned with the synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids and, sometimes, with their metabolism. Diagram:

Q48. The chloroplasts contain:

• A. Proteins only
• B. Ribosomes only
• C. Small circular DNA only
• D. Proteins, Ribosomes, and small circular DNA✓

Explanation: Chloroplasts are chlorophyll-containing organelles in plant cells; they play a vital role in life on Earth since photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts. Chloroplasts develop from proplastids. Chloroplasts contain their own DNA and ribosomes and thus can make their own proteins. It is estimated that the chloroplast contains between 2000 and 5000 different proteins; thus, the majority of chloroplast proteins are encoded by the nuclear genome. Diagram:

Q49. Mitochondria was first seen as granules in:

• A. White blood cells
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Muscle cells✓
• D. Liver cells

Explanation: Albert von Kolliker discovered the existence of mitochondria around 1857 while he was studying human muscle cells, and he noted strange granules in them. Diagram:

Q50. Haemoglobin is a:

• A. Carbohydrate
• B. Protein✓
• C. Nucleic acid
• D. Enzyme

Explanation: Proteins are large, complex molecules that play many vital roles in the body. Haemoglobin (Hb) is a protein found in the red blood cells that carries oxygen in our body and gives blood its red colour. Diagram:

Q51. The glycerol is a _ carbon compound.

• A. Three✓
• B. Four
• C. Five
• D. Six

Explanation: Glycerol is a trihydroxy sugar alcohol containing three carbon atoms. It is an odourless liquid that is used as a solvent, sweetening agent, and also as medicine. Triglycerides are composed of a glycerol molecule bound to three fatty acid molecules by ester bonds. Diagram:

Q52. Enzymes are _ in nature.

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins✓
• C. Lipids
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy required to initiate a reaction. Diagram:

Q53. The range of visible light is from:

• A. 300-650 nm
• B. 350-700 nm
• C. 380-750 nm✓
• D. 430-790 nm

Explanation: The visible light spectrum is the segment of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye can view. Cone-shaped cells in our eyes act as receivers tuned to the wavelengths in this narrow band of the spectrum. Other portions of the spectrum have wavelengths too large or too small and energetic for the biological limitations of our perception. Wavelength of visible light ranges from 380-750 nm. Visible light consists of seven colours – violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red. Each colour of the visible light spectrum has its distinct wavelength. The wavelengths are as follows: Violet: 380–450 nm Indigo: 450-485 nm Blue: 485–500 nm Green: 500–565 nm Yellow: 565–590 nm Orange: 590–625 nm Red: 625–750 nm Diagram:

Q54. Which scientist among the following hypothesised that plant splits water to release oxygen as a by-product:

• A. Van Niel✓
• B. Lysenko
• C. Calvin
• D. Kreb

Explanation: Scientist Cornelius van Niel first postulated in the 1930s that the oxygen released from photosynthesis comes from the water molecule. Through experiments with bacteria, he suggested by analogy that the O2 released in plant photosynthesis is derived from H2O rather than CO2. Diagram:

Q55. The Calvin Cycle is completed in _ stages:

• A. Two
• B. Three✓
• C. Four
• D. Five

Explanation: Calvin cycle is a cyclic enzyme-controlled process which involves the reduction of carbon dioxide in the presence of ATP and NADPH to form sugars. The process occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast. The Calvin cycle can be simplified into three stages: Carbon Fixation: A molecule of RuBP accepts CO2 in the presence of the enzyme rubisco to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate which splits to form 2 molecules of glycerate-3-phosphate (GP). The combination of RuBP with CO2 is known as carbon fixation. Reduction of GP: Each phosphoglycerate molecule undergoes reduction using ATP and NADPH to form triose phosphate. Regeneration of RuBP: Most triose phosphate molecules use energy in the form of ATP to regenerate RuBP. One complete turn of the cycle consumes 9 ATP molecules and 6 NADPH molecules to form one molecule of triose phosphate. Diagram:

Q56. Which of the following pairs of diseases is caused by a virus?

• A. Syphilis and Tuberculosis (TB)
• B. Aids and Typhoid
• C. Measles and Mumps✓
• D. Tetanus and Cholera

Explanation: Viruses are very small infectious agents. They’re made up of a piece of genetic material, such as DNA or RNA, that’s enclosed in a coat of protein. A viral disease is any illness or health condition caused by a virus. Diagram:

Q57. The terminal portion of the male duct system is:

• A. Vasa efferentia
• B. Vas deferens
• C. Urethra✓
• D. Epididymis

Explanation: Sperm cells pass through a series of ducts to reach the outside of the body. After they leave the testes, the sperm passes through the epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. Diagram:

Q58. The cell wall of bacteria is made up of:

• A. Chitin
• B. Cellulose
• C. Peptidoglycan✓
• D. Pectin

Explanation: A cell wall is defined as a rigid external layer that is specifically designed to provide structural support and rigidity. Diagram:

Q59. Which one of the following is not a carnivorous plant:

• A. Pitcher plant
• B. Sundew
• C. Butterworts
• D. Money plant✓

Explanation: Carnivorous plants, also known as insectivorous plants, grow in acidic bog-like soils that are quite poor in mineral salts and other elements, particularly nitrogen. Thus, they are especially adapted for capturing and digesting insects and other animals by means of ingenious pitfalls and traps in order to make up for their nutrient-deficient habitats. Diagram:

Q60. All of the following are characteristics of cartilage except:

• A. It is a type of connective tissue.
• B. The precursor cells are chondrocytes.
• C. It contains blood vessels.✓
• D. It heals very slowly.

Explanation: Cartilage is a unique tissue type because it doesn’t have blood vessels (avascular) or nerves. Instead, cartilage cells (known as chondrocytes) are found in a gel-like “matrix” that provides nourishment to the cells. Diagram:

Q61. Which one of the following is not related to arthritis?

• A. Inflammation of joint
• B. An autoimmune disease
• C. The leading cause of disability in patients over the age of 65
• D. Inflammation of nerve✓

Explanation: Neuritis is a condition caused by inflammation of a nerve or nerve. It can be caused by injury, infection, or autoimmune disease. Diagram:

Q62. An exception to Mendel’s law is:

• A. Linkage✓
• B. Dominance
• C. Purity of gametes
• D. Independent assortment

Explanation: Gregor Mendel, through his work on pea plants, discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance. Mendel's laws of heredity are usually stated as the law of dominance, the law of segregation, and the law of independent assortment. Diagram:

Q63. The hollow elongated tube formed when muscle fibre penetrates deep into the cell is known as:

• A. A tubule
• B. M tubule
• C. T tubule✓
• D. Z tubule

Explanation: T tubules are formed by inward extensions of the sarcolemma. They are extensions of the cell membrane that penetrate into the centre of striated muscle cells. Their function is to allow electrical impulses travelling along the sarcomere to move deeper into the cell. Impulses from the T tubules stimulate the membranes forming the sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This stimulation causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release its stored calcium ions. Diagram:

Q64. The type of neuron that carries nerve impulses from tissue and organ to the spinal cord and brain is:

• A. Sensory neuron✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Intermediate neuron
• D. Associative neuron

Explanation: Neurons (or nerve cells) are specialised cells that transmit and receive electrical signals in the body. Neurons are composed of three main parts: dendrites, a cell body, and an axon. Diagram:

Q65. Hormones are usually:

• A. Genetic messengers
• B. Physical messengers
• C. Chemical messengers✓
• D. Biological catalyst

Explanation: A chemical messenger is a molecule or compound that helps in the passage of information from one cell to another cell. Diagram:

Q66. Which of the following lobes of the pituitary gland is known as the master gland of the body?

• A. Anterior gland✓
• B. Posterior gland
• C. Intermediate gland
• D. Anterior-posterior gland

Explanation: The pituitary gland is sometimes called the master gland of the endocrine system. This is because it controls the functions of many of the other endocrine glands. Diagram:

Q67. Which of the following hormones is responsible for reducing the blood glucose level?

• A. Thyroid hormone
• B. Insulin hormone✓
• C. Glucagon hormone
• D. ADH hormone

Explanation: Hormones are chemical messengers that coordinate different functions in our body. Diagram:

Q68. If the homozygous white-eyed Drosophila female is crossed with red-eyed Drosophila male, what is the probability of the male offspring having white colour eyes:

• A. 0%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 100%✓

Explanation: After crossing between white-eyed female (XWXW) with red-eyed male (X+Y), in the F1 generation, all the females flies were red-eyed and all the male flies were white-eyed. This result obtained is not the same as expected from the normal Mendelian ratio. This shows that the pattern of inheritance of eye color is dependent on X-chromosome. Therefore, it was concluded that the gene for eye color is located on the X-chromosome.

Q69. The term ‘’survival of fittest’’ was used by:

• A. Lamarck
• B. Darwin
• C. Herbert Spencer✓
• D. Mayr

Explanation: Survival of the fittest refers to the fact that the 'fittest' can survive in any environment, regardless of their complexity. For example, many complex creatures would immediately die in conditions where many bacteria live. Diagram:

Q70. The raw materials that is used by natural selection for better survival is/are:

• A. Variation only
• B. Mutation only
• C. Similarity only
• D. Variation and mutation✓

Explanation: Natural selection is a process whereby species have traits that enable them to adapt to an environment, survive and reproduce, and then pass on their genes to the next generation. Diagram:

Q71. The Archaeopteryx is a fossil bird which possesses the characters of both:

• A. Fishes and Amphibians
• B. Amphibians and Reptiles
• C. Reptiles and Birds✓
• D. Birds and Mammals

Explanation: Archeopteryx, the fossil bird, was discovered from rocks in East Germany. Diagram:

Q72. Which of the following contains the same number of molecules as 22 grams of carbon dioxide?

• A. 9 g of water✓
• B. 2 g of hydrogen gas
• C. 32 g of oxygen gas
• D. 71 g of chlorine gas

Explanation: According to Avogadro’s law, the number of molecules is directly proportional to the number of moles of a molecule. The number of molecules in 22 g of carbon dioxide is No. Of molecules=moles ×NA =mass/molar mass ×Na =22/44×NA = 0.5 NA

Q73. The molecular mass of a compound is 60, and its empirical formula is CH2O. What will be the molecular formula for a compound?

• A. C6H12O6
• B. C2H4O2✓
• C. C2H6O2
• D. C2H8O2

Explanation: Molecular formula=n×empirical formula Where n is an integer. n = molecular formula mass/empirical formula mass n = 60/30=2 Molecular formula=2×CH2O = C2H4O2

Q74. Greater the wavelength associated with the photon

• A. Greater is its energy
• B. Smaller is its energy✓
• C. Its energy will be variable
• D. Its energy will remain constant

Explanation: The energy of a photon is given by Planck’s equation as E=hc/ λ Since energy is inversely proportional to the wavelength of a photon so a photon of greater wavelength will have smaller energy, the amount of energy for a single photon is discrete for a fixed wavelength, in the sense that you will find only integer multiples of that energy hc/λ at that given wavelength, and the photon can only ever deliver energy hc/λ, not some fraction.

Q75. Identify the compound given below, which has the bonds formed by the overlapping of sp and p orbitals

• A. BeCl2✓
• B. BF3
• C. H2O
• D. NH3

Explanation: Hybridization is the process in which atomic orbitals of the same atoms with slightly different energies intermix to form hybrid orbitals. The hybrid orbitals are nearly equivalent in size, shape and energy—three types of hybridization: sp3, sp2, sp.

Q76. Which of the following element has the highest ionization energy

• A. O
• B. C
• C. N✓
• D. Be

Explanation: Ionisation energy is the quantity of energy needed to remove an electron from an atom. The ionisation energy of an atom is directly proportional to the effective nuclear charge of an atom/ion. Hence, ionisation increases left to right in a period and is observed to be highest for noble gases. Also, there is an exception in the ionization energy trend for the 2nd and 5th groups due to half-filled orbitals, which have extra stability, so more energy is required to remove electrons. Hence the order is N>O>C>Be. The order of ionization energy in periods is: I-A<III-A<II-A<IV-A<VI-A<V-A<VII-A<VIII-A

Q77. Which of the following shows marked deviation from ideal behaviour at given temperature and pressure

• A. CO2✓
• B. He
• C. H2
• D. N2

Explanation: An ideal gas is composed of randomly moving minute particles, which undergo elastic collisions. Real gases are the ones which do not follow the ideal relations of gas law. The deviation of real gas from ideal gas behaviour occurs due to the assumption that if pressure increases, the volume decreases. The volume will approach a smaller number but will not be zero because the molecules will occupy some space that cannot be compressed further. The deviation from ideal behaviour depends on the following factors 1-size 2-Intermolecular forces The larger size and strong intermolecular forces make gases more real or in other words make them non-ideal which in turn show marked deviation from ideal behaviour. Looking at the graph, it is seen that at a constant temperature, the pV vs p plot is not a straight line for real gases. There is a significant deviation from the ideal behaviour. In the case of hydrogen and helium, if the value of p increases, then pV also increases. In other cases, for example, methane and carbon dioxide, initially there is a negative deviation from the ideal behaviour, the increase in pressure decreases the value of pV and reaches a minimum value. After it reaches the minimum point, pV value starts increasing and crosses the line for the ideal gas and then shows positive deviation continuously.

Q78. Exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is due to

• A. The strong polar bond between H&F
• B. Smaller size of Fluorine
• C. Strong hydrogen bonding✓
• D. More electronegativity of flourine

Explanation: Acidic strength is a measure of to what extent the acid releases its proton. The more easily an acid releases its proton, the stronger it is. The exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is due to hydrogen bonding. The partially positive hydrogen is entrapped between two highly electronegative atoms of F.So it is difficult for HF to release a proton. That's why its acidic strength is low as compared to HI, Hcl, etc.

Q79. Which of the following compound has the lowest boiling point

• A. Water
• B. Ethanol
• C. Hydrogen sulphide✓
• D. Acetic acid

Explanation: The boiling point is highly dependent on the intermolecular forces of a compound. Compounds with stronger intermolecular forces, larger masses, and less branching will have higher boiling points. Intermolecular forces of attraction increase as molecular size increases. So, a large amount of heat is required to break strong intermolecular forces, and thus boiling point increases.

Q80. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because

• A. A large heat is used
• B. Heat is evenly distributed
• C. The boiling point of water rises inside✓
• D. The higher pressure softens food inside

Explanation: Boiling point: The boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the pressure surrounding the liquid, and the liquid changes to vapor.When we normally cook food, the temperature inside increases until the water starts to boil. And at the boiling point, the temperature of the system will not increase as the heat goes into boiling the water. But when we cook food inside the pressure cooker, the temperature at which water boils increases because inside the pressure cooker, the pressure increases. Due to an increase in surrounding pressure, the boiling point temperature also increases. Hence, the heat will increase the temperature of the system instead of boiling the water. Since cooking reactions speed up at higher temperatures, food cooks faster. Hence, the correct option is C.

Q81. Which of the following ionic compound has highest value of lattice energy

• A. NaF✓
• B. LiCl
• C. NaI
• D. KI

Explanation: Lattice energy = Charge on cation×charge on anion/Inter ionic distance Smaller the size of ions, the larger the magnitude of charges, more the lattice energy. In a periodic table, while moving down, the group ionic radius increases, and the lattice energy decreases. While moving left to the right in a period charge on the ion increases, and the lattice energy also increases. In NaF, LiCl, NaI, and KI, the charges are the same on both cations and anions. Li, Na, and K belong to the same group, and atomic size increases down the group, but among F and Cl, the size of F is less than Cl hence the lattice energy of NaF is highest.

Q82. Which one of the following is the example of polar molecular solids

• A. Ice✓
• B. Iodine
• C. Copper
• D. Phosphorous

Explanation: UniPolar Molecular solids: The molecules of substances like HCl(s), SO2(s), and NH3(s) are formed by polar covalent bonds.The molecules in such solids are held together by relatively stronger dipole-dipole interactions. Other examples are ice, napthalene, sucrose, benzoic acid, etc. These solids are soft and non-conductors of electricity. Their melting points are higher than those of nonpolar molecular solids, yet most of these are gases or liquids under room temperature and pressure. Non-polar molecular solids: Solid iodine, dry ice, etc.

Q83. Which of the following ions form the most stable complex compounds

• A. Cu+2✓
• B. Ni+2
• C. Fe+2
• D. Mn+2

Explanation: Charge on the central metal ion: In general, the greater the charge density on the central ion, the greater the stability of its complexes. The greater the charge and the smaller the size of an ion, i.e., (the larger the charge/radius ratio of an ion), the greater the stability of its complex. Cu++ ions form the most stable complex compound due to higher charge density. As the charge on all given ions is the same so size factor determines the overall stability of complexes. The size of copper is the least among the given ions. There is a direct relationship between the charge density of metal ions and the stability of the complex.

Q84. All of the following compounds are organic except

• A. KOCN✓
• B. C6H5OH
• C. CH3COOCH
• D. CH3OH

Explanation: Organic compound is any of a large class of chemical compounds in which one or more atoms of carbon are covalently linked to atoms of other elements, most commonly hydrogen, oxygen, or nitrogen. The few carbon-containing compounds not classified as organic include carbides, carbonates, and cyanides. The study of the properties, reactions, and syntheses of organic compounds comprise the discipline known as organic chemistry. Examples of organic compounds are carbohydrates, fats (lipids), proteins, and nucleic acids, which are the basis for the molecules of life. Organic compounds also include petroleum and natural gas, which are the main components of fossil fuels. Inorganic compounds do not contain any C-H bond or functional group directly attached to carbon for example, KOCN, HCN and iodine etc. Options B,C and D have direct C-H bond making them organic.

Q85. The isomers of a substance must have

• A. Same molecular mass✓
• B. Same chemical properties
• C. Same structural formula
• D. Same functional group

Explanation: Two or more compounds having the same molecular formula but different physical, chemical properties and structural formula are called isomers. Isomers only show the same chemical properties when they have the same functional group. Otherwise, their properties can be different. `The isomers always have the same molecular formula and with the same molecular formula the molecular mass of isomers must be the same.

Q86. Which of the following compounds has highest boiling point

• A. Cyclohexane
• B. Cycloheptane✓
• C. Cyclopentane
• D. Cyclobutane

Explanation: The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure is termed the boiling point of a liquid. Different liquids possess different boiling points due to the difference in n the intermolecular forces operating between the molecules of the liquid. The boiling point increases with an increase in the number of carbons in an alkyl chain. The boiling point decreases with branching in the carbon chain due to a decrease in surface area; hence intermolecular force between molecules also decreases. The boiling point also depends upon the carbon chain and molecular mass. More carbon atoms constitute a larger chain, and so a larger amount of heat is required to break the bonds along the chain. Cylcoheptane having 7 carbon atoms, has a higher boiling point than others.

Q87. Propyne reacts with aqueous sulphuric acid in the presence of HgSO4 to form?

• A. Acetone✓
• B. 1-propanol
• C. 2-propanol
• D. Acetaldehyde

Explanation: The reaction of propyne with dil. Sulphuric acid, in the presence of HgSO4, is a hydrolysis reaction. In this reaction, first, enol is formed, which contains a double bond (ene) and an alcoholic group (ol). But enol formed is unstable in acidic conditions. So it isomerizes to keto form by rearrangement into stable keto form. Therefore, in this reaction, acetone is formed.

Q88. The electrophile which is considered to be an active agent in nitration of benzene is

• A. NO2+✓
• B. NO2-
• C. NO+
• D. HNO2+

Explanation: Benzene reacts with nitric acid at 50-55°C in the presence of sulphuric acid to form nitrobenzene. This reaction is known as the nitration of Benzene.

Q89. Which compound reacts most rapidly with the SN1 mechanism?

• A. Chloromethane
• B. 1-Chloroethane
• C. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane✓
• D. 2-chloropropane

Explanation: The SN1 reaction is a nucleophilic substitution reaction where the rate-determining step is unimolecular. It is a type of organic substitution reaction. SN1 stands for substitution nucleophilic unimolecular. Thus, the rate equation (which states that the SN1 reaction is dependent on the electrophile but not on the nucleophile) holds in situations where the amount of the nucleophile is far greater than the amount of the carbocation intermediate. This reaction involves the formation of a carbocation intermediate. It is generally seen in the reactions of tertiary or secondary alkyl halides with secondary or tertiary alcohols under strongly acidic or strongly basic conditions. The SN1 reaction is often referred to as the dissociative mechanism in inorganic chemistry. Given below are some examples of an SN1 type of nucleophilic substitution.2-chloro-2-methylpropane is a tertiary alkyl halide.

Q90. Which of the following alkyl halides has the highest boiling point

• A. n-butyliodide✓
• B. isobutyl iodide
• C. isopropyl bromide
• D. n-propyl bromide

Explanation: The given compounds are simply hydrocarbons substituted with halogens. Thus they are called alkyl halides. Some of them are branched. Generally, molecules that do not have branching increase their boiling point with respect to their increase in molecular weight. The boiling point is dependent on the forces between the molecules. Moreover, the boiling point increases when the number of carbon atoms is increased. When the number of carbon atoms increases, the surface area and the size of the molecule also increase. There are van der Waals forces between them. This is also increased with the increase in the surface area. When the force is more, more energy, i.e., more temperature, is needed for boiling. As it is obvious that the branched compounds have less surface area. Thus the force is less. So branched alkyl halides have less boiling point.

Q91. Which of the following will not affect the SN1 mechanism?

• A. Nature of solvent
• B. Carbocation
• C. Nature of nucleophile✓
• D. Carbanion

Explanation: The strength of the nucleophile does not affect the reaction rate of SN1 because, as stated above, the nucleophile is not involved in the rate-determining step.

Q92. Which of the following compounds is most acidic?

• A. Water
• B. Ethanol
• C. Phenol✓
• D. Cyclohexanol

Explanation: The acid which releases its proton easily is considered to be stronger. For organic compounds, the order of acidity carboxylic acids>phenol>water>alcohol>ethers. Phenol is the most acidic of all the given compounds. Among the given compounds, in phenol, the electron-withdrawing phenyl ring polarizes the O-H bond, thereby facilitating the release of H as H+ making phenol the most acidic.

Q93. Buffer capacity is maximum when both components have?

• A. High concentration
• B. Equal concentration✓
• C. Low concentration
• D. High and equal concentration

Explanation: The capacity of a buffer to neutralize added acid or base depends on the concentrations of HA and A⁻ in the solution. The buffer capacity of a solution is maximum under the following conditions : [Salt] = [Acid] (in acid buffer) (Salt] = [Base] (in base buffer).In this condition, pH=pka and PoH=pkb Buffer solutions with a pH equal to the pKa value of the acid (used to make this solution) have the greatest buffering capacity. For a given ratio of [HA] to [A⁻], the equal and greater the concentrations, the higher the overall buffer capacity.

Q94. If the solubility product (Ksp) value is large, the salt in water is?

• A. More slouble✓
• B. Less soluble
• C. Moderately soluble
• D. No concentration

Explanation: The solubility product constant is the equilibrium constant for a solid substance dissolving in an aqueous solution. It represents the level at which a solute dissolves in solution. The more soluble substance means it has a higher solubility product value. Solubility products were only applicable for sparingly soluble ionic compounds(10-2 molar). The state of the solution when no solution is added after this state resulting precipitating solution. Such a mixture is called a saturated solution. Ksp depends solely upon temperature but to little extent.

Q95. The unit of rate constant K is dm3 mol-1 s-1 for a chemical reaction, and the order of the reaction is?

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 0
• D. 3

Explanation: The formula for finding the order of the reaction is K=(dm3mol-1)^1-n s-1. Where n is the order of the reaction. Option A: For 1st order of the reaction. K=s-1 Option B: For 3rd order of the reaction. K=dm6 mol-2 s-1 Option C: For zero order of the reaction. K=dm-3 mol+1 s-1 Option D: For 2nd order of the reaction.k=dm3 mol-1 s-1

Q96. A system that can exchange or transfer both energy and matter with the surroundings is

• A. Isolated system
• B. Closed system
• C. Open system✓
• D. Adiabatic system

Explanation: An open system can exchange both energy and matter with its surroundings. The stovetop example would be an open system because heat and water vapor can be lost to the air.

Q97. The sum of all the energies of all the molecules or atoms of a substance is called its?

• A. Specific heat
• B. Heat capacity
• C. Latent heat
• D. Internal energy✓

Explanation: Internal energy U of a system or a body with well-defined boundaries is the total of the kinetic energy due to the motion of molecules and the potential energy associated with the vibrational motion and electric energy of atoms within molecules. Internal energy also includes the energy in all the chemical bonds.

Q98. Which of the following elements has the same oxidation number in all of its known compounds?

• A. Beryllium✓
• B. Chlorine
• C. Nitrogen
• D. Bromine

Explanation: In periodic table groups I-A, II-A members and fluorine show only one oxidation state in all of their compounds. Group I-A members show +1, Group II-A members show +2 and fluorine shows -1 in all known compounds.

Q99. The cathode has the reduction potential

• A. Less than the anode
• B. More than the anode✓
• C. Same as that of anode
• D. Zero

Explanation: In electrochemistry, the electrode potential is the electromotive force of a galvanic cell built from a standard reference electrode and another electrode to be characterized. By convention, the reference electrode is the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE). It is defined to have a potential of zero volts. In the electrochemical series, the elements above Hydrogen always act as anodes having less(negative) reduction potential because oxidation occurs at them, and they have the tendency to lose electrons. On the other hand, the elements below hydrogen act as cathodes, and reduction occurs at them because they have more( positive) reduction potential than anodes.

Q100. A radius greater than its parent atom is called:

• A. Cationic radii
• B. Atomic radii
• C. Covalent radii
• D. Anionic radii✓

Explanation: Cationic radii: Is smaller than the actual atom because of the loss of 1 electron from the parent atom Atomic radii: The actual radii of the parent atom Covalent radii: The covalent radius is a measure of the size of an atom that forms part of one covalent bond. Anionic radii: Is greater in size than the parent atom because when an atom gains an electron, the size of the electronic cloud increases

Q101. What is the composition of alloy, German silver?

• A. Cu+Zn+Ni✓
• B. Cu+Ag+Ni
• C. Cu+Sn+Zn+Pb
• D. Al+Cu+Mg+Mn

Explanation: German silver basically doesn't contain silver in it, so it might be a bit confusing its comp is 60% copper, 20% zinc, and 20% nickel The alloy made from Aluminium, copper, magnesium, and manganese is duralumin which is used in making aircraft bodies, undersea vessels, and automobile parts.

Q102. One mole of a reactant reacts with a rate of 0.6 mol dm-1s-1. What is the rate constant of this reaction if reaction is first order?

• A. 1s-1
• B. 0.3 s-1
• C. 0.6 s-1✓
• D. 0.9 s-1

Explanation: The constant which defines the relationship between the molar concentration of the reactants and the rate of the chemical reaction is known as the rate constant. The rate constant is symbolized as k . Rate = -d[A]/dt = k[A]1 = k[A] So basically, it will be the same as we can see that reactant is 1 mole, so the rate constant will be 0.6 as reaction is first order

Q103. What will be the product when phenol reacts with concentrated HNO3?

• A. Picric acid✓
• B. Para-Nitrophenol
• C. Ortho-Nitrophenol
• D. All of the above

Explanation: When phenol reacts with concentrated nitric acid, it undergoes nitration, resulting in the formation of picric acid (trinitrophenol, C6H2(NO2)3OH). The reaction involves the substitution of three nitro (-NO2) groups onto the phenol ring.

Q104. Acetone reacts with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of?

• A. Electrophilic addition
• B. Electrophilic substitution
• C. Nucleophilic substitution
• D. Nucleophilic addition✓

Explanation: It is an example of nucleophilic addition. Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of a nucleophilic addition reaction of a carbonyl compound. In this reaction, the cyanide ion attacks the carbonyl group of acetone and acts as a nucleophile.

Q105. Benedict's solution is the combination of?

• A. sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and copper(II) sulfate pentahydrate.✓
• B. Cu(OH)2 NaOH+ Tartaric acid (C4H6O7)
• C. Ag(NH1)2OH + NaOH + H2SO4
• D. NaCl+NaOH+Citric acid (C4H6O7)

Explanation: A chemical solution that changes color in the presence of glucose and other reducing sugars is used in clinical urine tests for diabetes. It is a mixture of sodium or potassium citrate, sodium carbonate, and copper sulfate.

Q106. Which of the following statements is false about the acid-strength of acetic acid?

• A. Acetic acid is a stronger acid than monochloroacetic acid.✓
• B. Acetic acid is a stronger acid than propionic acid.
• C. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than Trichloroacetic acid.
• D. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than formic acid.

Explanation: Monochloroacetic acid Cl−CH2−COOH is the strongest acid than acetic acid CH3−COOH. −Cl is an electron withdrawing group. It increases the acidity of acetic acid by dispersing negative charge by inductive effect and stabilizing the acetate anion.

Q107. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called

• A. Secondary structure
• B. Tertiary structure
• C. Primary structure✓
• D. Quaternary structure

Explanation: The most common types of secondary structures are the α helix and the β pleated sheet. 2. The tertiary structure of a protein refers to the overall three-dimensional arrangement of its polypeptide chain in space. 3. Protein primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids in a peptide or protein 4. Quaternary structure in proteins is the most intricate degree of organization still considered a single molecule. To be considered to have a quaternary structure, a protein must have two or more peptide chains forming subunits.

Q108. The amount of products that are actually produced during a chemical reaction by performing an experiment is called _.

• A. Mole
• B. Actual yield✓
• C. Theoretical yield
• D. Percent yield

Explanation: The mole is defined as containing exactly 6.02214076×10²³ elementary entities. 2. The amount that is actually produced in a reaction is called the actual yield 3. The theoretical yield is the maximum possible mass of a product that can be made in a chemical reaction. 4. {Percent Yield} = (Actual Yield){Theoretical Yield} \times 100 \%

Q109. The shape of ammonia (NH3) is _.

• A. Trigonal bi pyramidal
• B. Trigonal pyramidal✓
• C. Trigonal plannar
• D. Square plannar

Explanation: The ammonia molecule has a trigonal pyramidal shape with three hydrogen atoms and an unshared pair of electrons attached to the nitrogen atom.

Q110. The thermal decomposition of nitrogen pentaoxide in gaseous state follows, which one of the following order of reaction? N2O3 (g) -> 2NO2 (g) + 1/2O2 (g)

• A. First order✓
• B. Second onder
• C. Fractional order
• D. Third order

Explanation: The decomposition of n2o5 is a first-order reaction.

Q111. The temperature above which two conjugate solutions merge into one another is called _.

• A. Critical solution temperature✓
• B. Critical solution point
• C. Absolute solution temperature
• D. Absolute solution point

Explanation: Upper consolute temp. ( Critical solution temp.)

Q112. In which of the following molecule hydrogen bond is not present?

• A. H2O
• B. HF
• C. CH4✓
• D. NH3

Explanation: Methane do not have hydrogen bonds but all others contain hydrogen bonds of different level of strength.

Q113. The distillation carried out under reduced pressure is called _.

• A. Steam distillation
• B. Simple distillation
• C. Fractional distillation
• D. Vacuum distillation✓

Explanation: Vacuum distillation is distillation performed under reduced pressure, which allows the purification of compounds not readily distilled at ambient pressures or simply to save time or energy.

Q114. Which one of the following pairs of compounds is not isomorphic in nature?

• A. NaF and MgO
• B. KNO3 and NaNO3✓
• C. ZnO and CdS
• D. AgNO3 and KNO3

Explanation: In crystallography, compounds are isomorphous if their symmetry is the same and their unit cell parameters are similar. Molecules are isomorphous if they have similar shapes. All other compounds are isomorphic in nature. Here, KNO3 and NaNO3 - Both potassium nitrate (KNO3) and sodium nitrate (NaNO3) have different crystal structures and are not isomorphic. This is the correct answer.

Q115. The value of solubility products depends only on _.

• A. Temperature✓
• B. Solvent
• C. Pressure
• D. Catalyst

Explanation: The solubility product is a kind of equilibrium constant, and its value depends on temperature. Ksp usually increases with an increase in temperature due to increased solubility. It does not upon option B solvent, option C pressure, and option D catalyst.

Q116. All alkaline earth metals oxides are white in colour except _.

• A. Beryllium✓
• B. Magnesium
• C. Calcium
• D. Strontium

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Beryllium. Among the given alkaline earth metals, beryllium is the exception that does not display a white color for its oxide. Beryllium oxide is colorless, unlike the white oxides of other typical alkaline earth metals.

Q117. Optical activity of a compound is measured by an instrument called _.

• A. Hydrometer
• B. Barometer
• C. Calorimeter
• D. Polarimeter✓

Explanation: A polarimeter is a scientific instrument used to measure the angle of rotation caused by passing polarized light through an optically active substance.

Q118. The structural isomerism in which isomers are in dynamic equillibrium with each other is:

• A. Chain isomerism
• B. Position isomerism
• C. Metameriom isomerism
• D. Tautomerism isomerism✓

Explanation: Tautomerism is a kind of isomerism in which a single compound exits in 2 or more readily interconvertible forms in equilibrium.

Q119. Isopropyl benzene is also called _.

• A. Cumene✓
• B. Xylene
• C. Toluene
• D. Cresol

Explanation: Cumene (isopropylbenzene) is an organic compound that contains a benzene ring with an isopropyl substitution.

Q120. The first ionization energy of Al is less than Mg. This is due to:

• A. Electron in the 3P1 of Al✓
• B. Al is less metallic than Mg
• C. Mg comes first than Al
• D. lonization energy from Mg to Al decreases

Explanation: The outer electron in magnesium is in an s sub-shell. However, the outer electron in aluminum is in a p sub-shell, so it is higher in energy than the outer electron in magnesium. This means that less energy is needed to remove it.

Q121. Which one has Prussian blue colour?

• A. Ferric hexa cyano ferrate (i)✓
• B. Iron (III) hesa cyano ferrate (II)
• C. Sodium hexa cyano ferrate (III)
• D. Both (A) & (B)

Explanation: Opt A Prussian blue. Opt B Dark red to Dark purple to Dark blue powder to crystaline. Opt C Sodium ferrocyanide is an odorless yellow solid.

Q122. Which one is a stronger Lewis Base?

• A. Phenol
• B. Aniline
• C. Pyridine✓
• D. Both (A) & (B) have equal strength

Explanation: Pyridine basicity appears to be less sensitive to the substituent effect in ionic liquids than in water.

Q123. Photon of which of the following series will have largest wave length?

• A. Bracket series
• B. Pfund series✓
• C. Balmer series
• D. Paschen series

Explanation: The Pfund series of the hydrogen spectrum has as its longest wavelength component a line at 7400nm Describe the electron transitions that produce this series. That is, give a quantum number that is common to this series

Q124. Which one of the following elements has the largest second ionization energy?

• A. K✓
• B. Ca
• C. Cl
• D. Bi

Explanation: The second ionization energy is the removal of the second electron from the outermost of the atom. Diagram:

Q125. The stronger the reduction potential,the more difficult it is to:

• A. Reduce the compound.
• B. Oxidize the compound.✓
• C. Electrolyze the compound.
• D. Neither reduce nor oxidize the compound.

Explanation: The stronger the reduction potential,the easier it is for the element to gain electrons and show reduction. Diagram:

Q126. A body covers displacement of 10m towards the North and returns back to the initial point by covering 10m towards the South, its total displacement is?

• A. 20m North
• B. 10m South
• C. 0m along North-South✓
• D. 0m

Explanation: Displacement refers to an object’s change in position. It’s the vector that points from the object’s initial point to the final point, regardless of the path actually taken. Displacement is always the shortest linear path traveled by the body. From the given data, we get that the body traveled a distance of 20m. Yet, when the body finished the journey, it returned to the same position it left. Thus, there is no displacement for its motion; that is, its total displacement is 0m along North-South.

Q127. The unit of kinetic energy is same as that of:

• A. Momentum
• B. Velocity
• C. Force
• D. Work✓

Explanation: The SI unit of kinetic energy is Joule which is equal to 1 kg.m2/s2. Diagram:

Q128. Which one is not a vector quantity?

• A. Angular displacement
• B. Impulse
• C. Moment of inertia✓
• D. Momentum

Explanation: The physical quantities for which both magnitude and direction are defined distinctly are known as vector quantities. Diagram:

Q129. In Newton’s first law of motion which quantity remains constant:

• A. Velocity✓
• B. Angular displacement
• C. Amplitude
• D. Amount of work

Explanation: Newton's first law of motion states that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, and a body in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant velocity unless an external force acts on it. Diagram:

Q130. Law of inertia satisfies:

• A. Condition of equilibrium✓
• B. Condition of variable force
• C. Condition of force in contact
• D. Condition of conservation of mass

Explanation: Law of inertia, also called Newton’s first law, states that an object will continue to be either in a state of motion or in a state of rest unless an external force acts on it. Diagram:

Q131. When five times the momentum of a body is equal to the kinetic energy of the same body, then its velocity is equal to:

• A. 5m/s
• B. 10m/s✓
• C. 15m/s
• D. 20m/s

Explanation: According to the given data, ⇒ 5P = K.E As, P = mv and K.E = ½ mv2 ⇒ 5(mv) = ½ mv2 ⇒ 5 x 2 = mv2 / mv ∴ v = 10 m/s Where, P = momentum m = mass v = velocity

Q132. When angular speed of body is doubled, the centripetal acceleration becomes:

• A. Doubled
• B. Thrice
• C. Four times✓
• D. Remains the same

Explanation: Centripetal acceleration is given by: ⇒ ac = v2 / r If velocity is doubled, then we get: ⇒ ac = (2v)2 / r ⇨ = 4v2 / r ∴ ac = 4 ac

Q133. A projectile is launched, its velocity is maximum at:

• A. Point of projection✓
• B. Highest point
• C. Between launching and highest point
• D. All points

Explanation: Projectile motion is a form of motion experienced by an object or particle (a projectile ) that is thrown near the Earth's surface and moves along a curved path under the action of gravity only. As there is no force acting horizontally, the horizontal component of velocity remains constant throughout the flight. Diagram:

Q134. The equation for kinetic energy is:

• A. K.E = mv²
• B. K.E = 1/2 mv²✓
• C. K.E = mgh/2
• D. K.E = mgh

Explanation: The kinetic energy of a body is the energy possessed by the body by virtue of its motion. It depends on the mass and square of the velocity of the object. Mathematically, K.E= 1/2 mv2, where K.E = kinetic energy m = mass of the object v = velocity of the object.

Q135. Two bodies A and B of temperatures TA = 100°C and TB = 0°C, are brought into thermal contact with each other. Which one of the following is possible at thermal equilibrium?

• A. TA = 0°C, TB = 100°C
• B. TA = 60°C, TB = 50°C
• C. TA = 45°C, TB = 45°C✓
• D. TA = 60°C, TB = 40°C

Explanation: Thermal equilibrium occurs when two bodies are in contact with each other and can freely exchange energy. Systems are in thermal equilibrium when they have the same temperature. Diagram:

Q136. In an isolated thermodynamic system:

• A. No heat transfers to environment
• B. Neither heat nor any mass are transferred to environment✓
• C. No dissipated energy and heat are transferred to environment
• D. No mass transfers to environment

Explanation: An isolated system is a thermodynamic system that cannot exchange either energy or matter outside the boundaries of the system. Diagram:

Q137. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by:

• A. U = ½ QV2
• B. U= CV2/2✓
• C. U = ½ QC
• D. U = Q/2v

Explanation: Energy stored in a capacitor is electrical potential energy, and it is thus related to the charge Q and voltage V on the capacitor. The energy stored in a capacitor can be expressed in three ways: Ecap = QV/2 = CV2/2 = Q2/2C

Q138. Two charges, one of which is Q1 = 3 μC and second one Q2 = -1 μC are separated by 100cm. The electric potential is zero at a point:

• A. 25cm from Q2✓
• B. 75cm from Q2
• C. 50cm from Q1
• D. 33.3cm from Q1

Explanation: The electric potential is defined as the amount of work energy needed to move a unit of electric charge from a reference point to a specific point in an electric field. For two opposite charges of unequal magnitudes, the electric potential is zero at a point where the charges have canceled each other out. The mathematical formula for electric potential is V = kQ/r. The electric potential for two-point charges is V = V1 + V2. Let potential is zero at a distance x from 3μC ⇒ k(3) / x + k(-1) / (100-x) = 0 ⇒ 3 / x = 1 / (100-x) ⇒ 3(100-x) = 1(x) ⇒ 300-3x = x ⇒ 300 = x + 3x ⇒ 300 = 4x ⇒ x = 300/4 ⇒ x = 75 Therefore, from a distance of 100-75 = 25 cm from Q2, the electric potential is zero. Diagram:

Q139. Magnetic lines of force are:

• A. Imaginary lines which show actual magnetic field✓
• B. Actual lines which show actual magnetic field
• C. Actual lines which show imaginary magnetic field
• D. Imaginary lines which show imaginary magnetic field

Explanation: Magnetic lines of force or magnetic field lines are imaginary lines representing the direction and strength of the actual magnetic field. Diagram:

Q140. Potential divider circuit is made when:

• A. Current is divided
• B. EMF source is divided
• C. Resistance is divided✓
• D. Number of electrons are divided

Explanation: A potential divider is a simple circuit that uses resistors to supply a variable 'potential difference' (i.e., voltage). The potential divider is made when resistance is divided. The circuit essentially consists of two resistors in series, normally connected between the input voltage and zero volts/ground. Diagram:

Q141. A conductor has resistance R. If its length is stretched to twice the actual and its radius is reduced to one third of its original value, the new resistance will be:

• A. 3R
• B. 9R
• C. 18R✓
• D. 27R

Explanation: Resistance is given by: ⇒ R = ρ L / A Since, A = π r^2 If its length is doubled its original value and its radius is reduced to one-third of its original value, then the area is reduced to one-ninth of its original value. ⇒ R = ρ 2L / A/9 ⇒ R = 18 x ρ L / A ⇒ R = 18R Diagram:

Q142. Electricity consumption is calculated commercially in:

• A. Kilo-watt
• B. Kilo-watt hour✓
• C. Mega watt
• D. Giga watt

Explanation: Electricity consumption represents the amount of electrical energy that has been consumed over a specific time in units of Wh (and commercially in units of kWh). Diagram:

Q143. Two electric bulbs, ‘’A’’ and ‘’B’’ of power 500W and 2000W, respectively, are connected to a 240V supply. The ratio of current passing through bulb ‘A’ to the current passing through bulb ‘B’ is:

• A. 1:2
• B. 1:4✓
• C. 1:8
• D. 1:16

Explanation: Given data: Power of bulb A = P1 = 500W Power of bulb B = P2 = 2000W Voltage = V = 240V To find: The ratio of current passing through bulb ‘A’ to the current passing through bulb ‘B’ = ? Solution: Current is given by: ⇒ I=P/V Now to find the ratio, ⇒ I1 : I2 ⇒ P1/V : P2/V ⇒ 500/240 : 2000/240 ⇒ 2 : 8 ⇒ 1 : 4

Q144. A conductor has a length equal to pi meters and radius of r meters. Its resistance will be equal to:

• A. R = ρ/r1
• B. R = ρ/r2✓
• C. R = ρ/r3
• D. R = ρ/r4

Explanation: We know that resistance is given by: ⇒ R = ρ L / A ………(i) Since, A = π r2 and according to given data, L = π Substituting the values in equation (i), we get: ⇒ R = ρ π / π r2 ⇒ R = ρ/r2 Diagram:

Q145. A charged particle entered in a magnetic field anti-parallel to the field, magnetic force on this particle is:

• A. BINA
• B. BeVsinθ
• C. Zero✓
• D. Iqtv

Explanation: The magnetic force acting on the charged particle is given by : F=qvBsinθ ……………..(1) Where, q is charged particle v is the speed of the charged particle θ is the angle between velocity and magnetic field When a charged particle enters the uniform magnetic field anti-parallel to it, then the angle between the electron and magnetic field is 0 degrees. So, sin(θ) = sin (0) = 0 Putting in eq. (1) we get: ⇒ F = qv B sin (0) = qvB(0) = 0 So, F = 0 Hence, no force will act on the charged particle. Diagram:

Q146. When a neutron enters into a magnetic field B perpendicular with velocity v, its acceleration is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Centripetal
• C. Positive
• D. Uniform and non-zero

Explanation: A charged particle experiences a force when moving through a magnetic field, whereas a chargeless particle experiences no force when moving through a magnetic field.

Q147. What is the inappropriate statement for a step-up transformer?

• A. It increases given AC voltage
• B. It decreases given alternating current
• C. Heat is never produced in step-up transformer✓
• D. Its input energy is always less than its output energy

Explanation: A step-up transformer is a transformer that increases the voltage from the primary coil to the secondary coil while managing the same power at the rated frequency in both coils. It converts low voltage & high current from the primary side to the high voltage & low current on the secondary side of the transformer. Its input energy is always less than its output energy. Diagram:

Q148. When two conductors each of resistance R are attached in series to external circuit, their net resistance is:

• A. R
• B. 2R✓
• C. 3R
• D. 4R

Explanation: When two conductors each of resistance R are attached in series to an external circuit, their net resistance is equivalent resistance, R = R+R = 2R Diagram:

Q149. An ideal AC generator has equal input and output, its heat dissipation will be:

• A. Of some finite value
• B. Zero✓
• C. Maximum
• D. Very much small

Explanation: An ideal AC generator is a hypothetical generator in which energy (heat) and power are not lost or dissipated through friction, deformation, wear, or other inefficiencies. Diagram:

Q150. The unit of magnetic flux is:

• A. Tesla
• B. Weber✓
• C. Gauss
• D. Henry

Explanation: The unit of magnetic flux is the Weber (Wb).

Q151. AC generator stops suddenly when:

• A. External voltage overcomes the back emf
• B. Torque of back emf overcomes the external torque✓
• C. Resistance of the coil produces heat
• D. Moment of inertia of the coil decreases

Explanation: An AC generator is an electric generator that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy in the form of alternative emf or alternating current. A motor is just like a generator running in reverse. When the coil of the motor rotates across the magnetic field by the applied voltage, an emf is induced in it. The induced emf is in such a direction that opposes the emf running the motor. Due to this reason, the induced emf is called back emf. When the motor is just started, the back emf is almost zero, and hence a large current passes through the coil. As the motor speeds up, the back emf increases and the current decreases in amount. However, the current is sufficient to provide torque on the coil to drive the load and overcome losses due to friction. If the motor is overloaded, it slows down. Consequently, the back emf decreases and allows the motor to draw more current. Diagram:

Q152. Output current of half wave rectifier is:

• A. AC current
• B. Unidirectional current✓
• C. Zero always
• D. Straight line parallel to vertical axis

Explanation: Half wave rectifier is one in which the half cycle of AC voltage gets converted into pulsating DC voltage. The remaining half cycle of AC is suppressed by the rectifier circuit or the output DC current for the remaining half cycle is zero. Diagram:

Q153. The resistance of full wave rectifier is:

• A. Less than the resistance of half wave rectifier
• B. More than the resistance of half wave rectifier
• C. Equal to the resistance of half wave rectifier✓
• D. Negligible in comparison to the resistance of half wave rectifier

Explanation: The resistance of a full wave rectifier is actually equal to the resistance of a half wave rectifier. This is because the basic circuit configuration of both the rectifiers is the same and they use the same load resistance.

Q154. An electron will have maximum kinetic energy when it has:

• A. Long wavelength
• B. Short wavelength✓
• C. Low frequency
• D. Circular motion

Explanation: The maximum kinetic energy of an electron is given by E = ℎ 𝑓 − 𝑊, m an x where ℎ is the Planck constant, 𝑓 is the frequency of the incident photon, and 𝑊 is the work function of the metal surface. K.E. of an electron is directly proportional to frequency. Thus, the higher the frequency, the maximum the kinetic energy of electrons will be. As we know that the frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength. That means that waves with a high frequency have a short wavelength, while waves with a low frequency have a longer wavelength.

Q155. When AC is converted to DC, the process is called:

• A. Magnification
• B. Amplification
• C. Rectification✓
• D. Resolution

Explanation: Both AC and DC describe types of current flow in a circuit. In direct current (DC), the electric charge (current) only flows in one direction. Electric charge in alternating current (AC), on the other hand, changes direction periodically. Diagram:

Q156. In pair annihilation, two gamma-ray photons created, travel in opposite directions not in the same direction, because:

• A. This proves law of conservation of energy
• B. This proves law of conservation of momentum✓
• C. This proves law of conservation of charge
• D. This proves law of conservation of mass-energy

Explanation: The inverse process to pair production is called pair annihilation, in which a particle and its antiparticle collide and annihilate each other, the total energy of the two particles appearing as electromagnetic radiation. Diagram:

Q157. The radiation emitted by warm blooded animals lies in the region of:

• A. Visible
• B. Ultraviolet
• C. Infrared✓
• D. X-rays

Explanation: Electromagnetic radiation comes in a range of energies, known as the electromagnetic spectrum. The spectrum consists of radiation such as gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared and radio. Diagram:

Q158. Which photon is traveling with the largest speed in a vacuum?

• A. Gamma photon
• B. Visible light photon
• C. Infrared photon
• D. All photons move with the speed of light✓

Explanation: A vacuum refers to the space in which no matter is present. Therefore, any object moving inside such space faces no frictional forces and so will naturally move faster. The reason here is that in a vacuum, the photons of any EM wave travel at equal speeds. According to this formula, the product of frequency and wavelength remains constant for a given photon which is the speed of light. c= fλ c=3.00 × 108 m/sc=3.00 × 108 m/s Regardless of frequency or wavelength (which is what distinguishes each option from the other), the speed of the photon will be the same. However, the propagation speed through anything with a refractive index ( or optical density ) is slower than this. Generally speaking, longer wavelengths travel through some mediums faster than others.

Q159. The net displacement divided by the total time(t) is known as:

• A. Istantaneous velocity
• B. Uniform velocity
• C. Average velocity✓
• D. Variable velocity

Explanation: The average velocity of the body is defined as the ratio of the net displacement of the body to the total time taken. Average velocity vavg=Displacement/time

Q160. The half life of a radioactive sample predicts about

• A. Whole life of sample
• B. Disintegration time for half of the atoms✓
• C. Decay only
• D. Total time for stable atoms

Explanation: The radioactive half-life for a given radioisotope is the time for half the radioactive nuclei in any sample to undergo radioactive decay. After two half-lives, there will be one fourth the original sample, after three half-lives one eight the original sample, and so forth.

Q161. In a conducting electric wire, the electric current flows due to

• A. Protons
• B. Ions
• C. Holes
• D. Electrons✓

Explanation: When metal is connected to a battery, the free electrons get accelerated due to the electric field (set up by the battery) and they gain velocity and energy. However, the passage is not smooth, and the electrons collide with the lattice ion, in which the ultimate gainer (of energy) is the ion. As we know the temperature of a body is related to the energy of vibrations of these ions, these collisions result in an increase in the temperature of the metal, mainly due to the free electron.

Q162. The shortest possible wavelength is associated with

• A. Lyman series✓
• B. Balmer series
• C. Bracket series
• D. Paschen series

Explanation: E(Layman)>E(Balmer)>E(paschen)> E(bracket)>E(p-fund). The reverse order is for wavelengths. 1/λ=Rh(1/p2-1/n2) Where Rh is Rydberg constant and ‘n’ is always larger than ‘p’ as p is the lower energy level.

Q163. Which radiation cannot be generated under electron transitions in different orbits?

• A. Infrared
• B. Ultraviolet
• C. X-rays
• D. Gamma rays✓

Explanation: In an electronic transition of atom it only emits ultraviolet, visible and infrared rays and if transitions are from heavier atoms X-ray can also emitted.

Q164. Radioactivity does not depend upon

• A. Initial number of atoms
• B. Temperature✓
• C. Nature of material
• D. Time

Explanation: Radioactivity is a process of spontaneous disintegration or breaking of unstable atomic nuclei by the emission of radiation like α−ray or β−ray or λ−ray. The radioactive process is spontaneous which means it occurs by itself. It cannot be initiated, stopped, accelerated or decelerated by external factors like by changing chemical conditions or by changing physical conditions like temperature or pressure.

Q165. Which one is not the unit of radioactivity?

• A. Bq
• B. Ci
• C. Decay/second
• D. tesla/m2✓

Explanation: Tesla m2 is the unit of magnetic flux .tesla/m2 is not the unit of any physical quantity.

Q166. Curie is the unit of?

• A. Radioactivity✓
• B. Temperature
• C. Half life
• D. Transition of magnetism

Explanation: Radioactivity refers to the particles which are emitted from nuclei as a result of nuclear instability.This was discovered by Henri becquerel in 1896.It emits radioactive elements viz- alpha, beta, gamma rays.A curie is a non-SI unit of radioactivity.The System International of units (SI system) uses the unit of becquerel (Bq) as its unit of radioactivity. One curie is equal to 37 billion Bq. 37 billion Bq = 1 curie.

Q167. Which one is the stable element in the following:

• A. Lead✓
• B. Plutonium
• C. Radium
• D. Protactinium

Explanation: Stability means that the given atom or molecule is stable and exists like this only in nature. The stability may be the chemical stability, structural stability or the nuclear stability. In a periodic table the noble gases are regarded as the most stable in terms of chemical stability and not in terms of structural or nuclear stability.

Q168. In physics it ia observed that when matter and anti-matter combine, they form

• A. Particles with zero charge✓
• B. Particles with positive charge
• C. Particles with negative charge
• D. Particles with dual mass

Explanation: When matter and antimatter collide, the particles destroy each other, with a huge energy release this process is called annihilation. As a result of th, chargeless and massless particles are produced. Depending on the colliding particles, not only is there a great energy release, but new, different particles may also be produced (such as neutrinos and various flavors of quarks). They both lose their own property of Particle and completely become the wave of energy. It means suddenly they disappear producing a huge amount of energy like a bomb during its explosion. We know E = MC2 So we can get a huge amount of energy for losing a negligible amount of mass. And this equation is being applied to produce nuclear energy in nowadays. But we are not able to turn the whole amount of mass into energy by the process of nuclear reaction. It will be possible in the process of matter and antimatter annihilation. The mass of both matter and antimatter will completely turn into the energy during annihilation. And we will get a huge amount of energy, far greater than nuclear energy.

Q169. The longest wavelength observed in Balmer series is

• A. 36R/5✓
• B. 36R/7
• C. 36R/11
• D. 36R/13

Explanation: For longest wavelength, λ(longest)=(p×n) 2/(p+n)RH longest wavelength is observed in balmer series if the transition takes place from n=2 to n=3. Using Rydberg equation λ = 1/Rh(1/p2-1/n2) where p=lower energy level and n=higher energy level. For balmer series λ = 1/Rh(1/22-1/32) =36/5 Rh

Q170. The shortest wavelength of the lyman series is( RH=Rydberg constant).

• A. RH
• B. 1/RH✓
• C. 3RH
• D. 5/RH

Explanation: For shortest wavelength , λ( shortest)= P2/RH For the Lyman series, n=1. For the shortest wavelength in the Lyman series (i.e., series limit), the energy difference in two states showing transition should be maximum, i.e.,n2=∞. 1/λ =RH{1/12-1/∞2} 1/ λ = RH Λ=1/RH

Q171. For the treatment of cancer, the source of gamma rays used, is:

• A. Co-60✓
• B. I-126
• C. Na-15
• D. Pb-207

Explanation: Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope of cobalt that emits gamma rays. It is commonly used in radiation therapy for the treatment of cancer. The gamma rays emitted by Co-60 can penetrate tissues and are used to target and destroy cancer cells.

Q172. The velocity-time graph of motion starting from rest with uniform acceleration is a straight line.

• A. Not passing through origin
• B. Parallel to time axis
• C. Parallel to velocity axis
• D. Passing through origin✓

Explanation: The velocity-time graph of motion with uniform acceleration is inclined to both the time and velocity axis and passes through the origin.

Q173. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 45° with horizontal, and its range is R1. Another projectile is projected at 45 degrees with vertical and its range is R2. The relation between R1 and R2 is?

• A. R2=2R1
• B. R1=2R2
• C. R1=R2✓
• D. 3R=R1

Explanation: R=Vi2(sin2theta)/g R is same for both θ and (90−θ). If angle w.r.t. vertical is 45° then w.r.t to horizontal it will be 90°-45°= 45°. Hence angle with horizontal and vertical is same so ranges will be same for both angles.

Q174. A cyclist comes to a kidding stop in 10 m. During this process, the opposite force on the cycle due to road is 200N. How much work does the road do on cycle?

• A. (-1800 J)
• B. (-2000 J)✓
• C. 2000 J
• D. 1900 J

Explanation: Skidding displacement, d=10m. Force exerted on the cycle by the road, f=200N. Angle between the force exerted by the road on the cycle and the displacement of the cycle, θ=180° Work done by the road on the cycle, w=? Step 2: Formula used w=fdcosθ ………………………(a) Step 3: Calculation of the work done by the road on the cycle Substituting the given values in equation (a), we get w=200N×10m×cos1800 w=-2000J. The negative sign indicates that the force and the displacement are opposite to each other.Hence, the magnitude of the work done by the road on the cycle is equal to 2000J.

Q175. The energy of a simple harmonic oscillator at a displacement ‘a’ is partly kinetic and partly potential. The energy of simple harmonic oscillator remains constant everywhere, which one of the following option will be correct about the simple harmonic oscillator.

• A. K.E is maximum at extreme position
• B. P.E is maximum at extreme position✓
• C. Both K.E and P.E are minimum at mean position
• D. P.E is maximum at mean position

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, the formula for kinetic energy and potential energy are as below: K.E=1/2mv2(a2-x2) and U=1/2mv2x2 Step1: Formula of kinetic and potential energy for simple harmonic motion In simple harmonic motion, the formula for kinetic energy and potential energy are as below: K.E=1/2mv2(a2-x2) and U= 1/2mω2x2 Step2: Find values at the mean position where m is mass, a is the amplitude of the particle, and x is the distance from the mean position. At the mean position, x will be zero. =>K= 1/2mω2a2 and U=0. So, the value of kinetic energy will be maximum and potential energy is zero. That is the minimum value.

Q176. The speed of a wave on a particular string is 24ms-1. If the string is 6.0 m long to which frequencies will it resonate.

• A. 1Hz,2Hz,3Hz
• B. 2Hz,4Hz,6Hz✓
• C. 3Hz,6Hz,9Hz
• D. 5Hz,10Hz,15Hz

Explanation: For a string, the formula for fundamental frequency is F=nv/2l By putting values F=24/2(6)=2 HZ The overtones are: F=2(2)=4Hz F=2(3)=6Hz

Q177. The apparent change in the frequency of sound caused by the relative motion of either of source of sound or listener or both is called?

• A. Zeeman effect
• B. Starkeffect
• C. Doppler effect✓
• D. Compton effect

Explanation: An increase (or decrease) in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move towards (or away from) each other. The effect causes the sudden change in pitch noticeable in a passing siren, as well as the redshift seen by astronomers.

Q178. The time period of simple pendulum of mass ‘m’ is ‘T’. When the simple pendulum’s mass is replaced by another mass of 3 times the older mass such that the length of pendulum will not change then the new time period will be

• A. T✓
• B. 3T
• C. T/3
• D. 2T

Explanation: The time period of a simple pendulum is given by: T=2π√l/g According to the above formula, the time period of a simple pendulum is independent of the mass and depends only on the length and acceleration due to gravity.

Q179. The velocity of a wave is v, its time period is T, and f is its frequency. Then the correct equation for the frequency is?

• A. T=vf
• B. 1f=v+T
• C. 1f=1/T✓
• D. T=v/T

Explanation: Time period (T) is the amount of time an oscillating body takes to repeat itself, and Frequency (f or ν) is the number of times it repeats in one second or unit of time. If you measure time in s (seconds), then the frequency is measured in Hz (cycles or periods per second). Frequency is inversely proportional to the time period. i.e., f=1/T.

Q180. Read the passage below and answer "The water resources of our country are very much underutilized. The main reason behind this is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods, unwise use of water for irrigation and domestic use. We can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and through awareness campaigns among people not to waste water resources." Building of dams is an essential step in the conservation of water resources.

• A. Definitely true✓
• B. Probably true
• C. Data is inadequate
• D. Probably false

Explanation: According to the author,we can make full use of water resources by building dams on rivers.

Q181. Read the passage below and answer "The water resources of our country are very much underutilized. The main reason behind this is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods, unwise use of water for irrigation and domestic use. We can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and through awareness campaigns among people not to waste water resources." Occurrence of floods add to the water resources.

• A. Definitely true
• B. Probably true
• C. Probably false
• D. Definitely false✓

Explanation: Option D is correct because the passage suggests that flood results in the wastage of a large portion of water resources. So, the given statement is definitely false.

Q182. Read the passage below and answer "The water resources of our country are very much underutilized. The main reason behind this is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods, unwise use of water for irrigation and domestic use. We can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and through awareness campaigns among people not to waste water resources." The country does not have enough funds to develop water resources.

• A. Definitely true✓
• B. Probably true
• C. Data is inadequate
• D. Probably false

Explanation: According to the author, "The main reason behind this is the lack of capital and technology." The lack of capital is mentioned very clearly in the passage, so the correct answer will be "definitely true."

Q183. In a certain language, REMOTE is coded as ROTEME. Which word would be coded as PNIICC?

• A. PINCIC
• B. PNICIC
• C. PICNIC✓
• D. PICCIN

Explanation: In this language, REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which means: The first and last letters remain the same. The second letter is swapped with the fourth letter. The third letter is swapped with the fifth letter. In the case of PNIICC, interchange the second letter with the fourth letter and the third letter with the fifth letter. So, the final word obtained will be PICNIC. Hence, Option C is correct. Diagram:

Q184. Five bags are lying in a pile one above the other. If A is above B, C is above D but below E and D is above A, which bag is in the middle.

• A. E
• B. D✓
• C. A
• D. B

Explanation: According to the given statement,the order of five bags is as follows: E (Top) C D A B (Bottom) So,we can conclude that D is present in the middle.

Q185. Find the term which does not fit into the sequence: 1 CV, 5 FU, 9 IT, 15 LS, 17 OR

• A. 17 OR
• B. 5 FU
• C. 9 IT
• D. 15 LS✓

Explanation: In this sequence, the first letters have a difference of 4. i.e. 1, 1+4=5, 5+4=9, 9+4=13, 13+4=17. 15LS does not follow the sequence. Rather, 15 LS should be substituted with 13 LS. 2nd letter:C +3=F+3=1+3=L+3=0 3rd letter :V-1=U-1=T-1=S-1 = R Thus, the term 15LS is wrong and must be replaced by 13LS. Diagram:

Q186. Who proposed the concept that an organism can pass on acquired modifications to its offspring?

• A. Lamarck✓
• B. Darwin
• C. Malthus
• D. Aristotle

Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (1744-1829) proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics, also known as Lamarckism. He suggested that organisms can pass on traits they acquire during their lifetime to their offspring. For example, he believed that giraffes developed long necks because they stretched to reach leaves, and then passed this trait to their offspring.However, this theory was later disputed and largely discredited by the scientific community, particularly after the discovery of genetics and the modern synthesis of evolution.

Q187. Cytotoxic T-Cells _

• A. Directly kill invaders✓
• B. Aid B cells in their job
• C. Both a and b
• D. Suppress T cell activity

Explanation: Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are a type of immune cell that directly kill infected cells, cancer cells, or cells that have been damaged in other ways. They recognize and bind to antigens presented by infected or abnormal cells and release toxic substances, such as perforin and granzymes, that lead to the destruction of the targeted cells.

Q188. A bacterium with single polar flagellum is:

• A. Amphitrichous
• B. Atrichous
• C. Lophotrichous
• D. Monotrichous✓

Explanation: A bacterium with a single polar flagellum is classified as Monotrichous. This means that the flagellum is located at one end (pole) of the bacterial cell.

Q189. The genome of the Human Immunodeficiency VIrus (HIV) is made up of:

• A. cDNA
• B. DNA
• C. RNA✓
• D. rRNA

Explanation: The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is a retrovirus, which means its genome is composed of two single-stranded RNA molecules. The HIV genome consists of:- 2 copies of single-stranded RNA (ssRNA)- 9 genes encoding 15 proteins- Approximately 9,700 nucleotides in totalHIV's RNA genome is converted to DNA through reverse transcription, a process facilitated by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate.

Q190. Hip joint and shoulder joint are examples of:

• A. Cartilaginous joints
• B. Synovial joint✓
• C. Hinge joint
• D. Ball and socket joint

Explanation: The hip joint and shoulder joint are both examples of synovial joints, which are characterized by:- A space between the bones (synovial cavity)- Synovial fluid for lubrication- Articular cartilage covering the ends of the bones- The rounded head of one bone (femur in the hip, humerus in the shoulder) fits into a cup-like depression (acetabulum in the hip, glenoid cavity in the shoulder

Q191. Locus of a gene on a chromosome means its:

• A. Position✓
• B. Function
• C. Start point
• D. End point

Explanation: The locus of a gene on a chromosome refers to its specific location or position on the chromosome. It is the precise point on the chromosome where the gene is situated, and it is usually described by its chromosomal coordinates (e.g., 3q21, meaning the gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 3, at position 21).

Q192. The carotenoids absorb light in the visible spectrum between _ and _ wavelengths.

• A. 400-600 nm
• B. 530-700 nm
• C. 620-700 nm✓
• D. 500-600 nm

Explanation: Carotenoids are a group of pigments that absorb light in the visible spectrum, specifically in the range of 620-700 nanometers (nm). This range corresponds to the orange to red region of the visible spectrum.

Q193. The cells of the endoderm of Coelenterates are specialised for:

• A. Excretion
• B. Digestion✓
• C. Defense
• D. Respiration

Explanation: In Coelenterates (also known as Cnidarians), such as jellyfish, corals, and sea anemones, the endoderm (also known as the gastrodermis) is the innermost layer of cells that lines the digestive cavity. The cells of the endoderm are specialized for digestion, specifically:- Nutrient absorption- Enzyme secretion- Intracellular digestion (breaking down food particles within cells)The endoderm cells are responsible for:- Secreting digestive enzymes to break down food- Absorbing nutrients from the digested food- Eliminating waste products

Q194. Viruses are NOT classified based on:

• A. Morphology
• B. Host specificity
• C. Cell membrane✓
• D. Envelope

Explanation: Viruses are not classified based on the presence or absence of a cell membrane because:- Viruses do not have a cell membrane like cellular organisms do. Instead, they have a protein coat called a capsid that surrounds their genetic material.- Some viruses have an envelope, which is a lipid bilayer derived from the host cell membrane, but this is not a universal characteristic among viruses.

Q195. An additional covering surrounds the cell wall of /some bacteria that either prevents the bacteria from blog phagocytosed by host cells or helps them to make biofilm.Which of the following term is used for this covering?

• A. Capsule✓
• B. Slime
• C. Glycocalyx
• D. Spore

Explanation: The capsule is an additional covering that surrounds the cell wall of some bacteria, providing protection against:- Phagocytosis (engulfment by host cells)- Desiccation (drying out)- Antibiotics and other antimicrobial agentsThe capsule is composed of polysaccharides (complex sugars) and can be found in both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Q196. The protein coat surrounding the genome of virus is called:

• A. Capsid✓
• B. DNA sheath
• C. Phage
• D. Viroid

Explanation: The capsule is an additional covering that surrounds the cell wall of some bacteria, providing protection against:- Phagocytosis (engulfment by host cells)- Desiccation (drying out)- Antibiotics and other antimicrobial agentsThe capsule is composed of polysaccharides (complex sugars) and can be found in both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Q197. In the non-cyclic electron transport of light reaction, the deficit of electrons occur in the chlorophyll, as it absorbs energy

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: In the non-cyclic electron transport of the light reaction, also known as the Z-scheme, the deficit of electrons occurs in the chlorophyll molecule (specifically, chlorophyll a) as it absorbs energy from light. This energy excites an electron, which is then transferred to a special molecule called an electron acceptor, leaving a deficit of two electrons in the chlorophyll molecule.

Q198. What is the number of carbon atoms in Pyruvic acid?

• A. 2
• B. 3✓
• C. 4
• D. 5

Explanation: Pyruvic acid is a three-carbon molecule with the chemical formula C3H4O3. It is a key product of cellular respiration and is produced during glycolysis, the first stage of cellular respiration.

Q199. Sucrose is hydrolysed into:

• A. Lactse and Glucose
• B. Lactose and fructose
• C. Glucose and fructose✓
• D. Glucose and galactose

Explanation: Sucrose, also known as table sugar, is a disaccharide that is hydrolyzed into two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme sucrase:Sucrose (C12H22O11) → Glucose (C6H12O6) + Fructose (C6H12O6)

Q200. _ is the heat required to convert a gram of water into vapours at its boiling point.

• A. Heat of vapourization✓
• B. Specific heat capacity
• C. Heat of ionization
• D. Polarity of water

Explanation: The heat of vaporization is the amount of heat energy required to convert a unit mass of a substance (in this case, water) from its liquid phase to its vapor phase at its boiling point. For water, the heat of vaporization is approximately 2250 kJ/kg or 540 cal/g.