Kpk Mdcat 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Find out synonym of "Elated":

• A. Confused
• B. Nervous
• C. Overjoyed✓
• D. Disappointed

Explanation: Elated can be best described as 'overjoyed' as it refers to being extremely happy or delighted; feeling a great amount of joy or happiness, often in response to a positive event or news.

Q2. "Despite the complicated situation, she remained _, calmly assessing her options before deciding. "Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice:

• A. Composed✓
• B. Frantic
• C. Hysterical
• D. Erratic

Explanation: Option A, "composed" fits best in the context.

Q3. Read the following passage to answer the given question:The detective noticed a subtle change in the suspect's tone when he asked about his whereabouts on the night of the crime, which hinted at something more significant. What does "subtle" most likely mean?

• A. Notable
• B. Slight✓
• C. Dramatic
• D. Obvious

Explanation: Small in degree, amount, or size; minor or not significant; often used to describe something that is barely noticeable or has little impact.

Q4. A person who sells goods and services is a _.

• A. Consumer
• B. Purchaser
• C. Patron
• D. Vendor✓

Explanation: A person or business that sells goods or services to customers; often refers to suppliers or sellers in a marketplace or retail setting.

Q5. Which of the following words is a synonym for "meticulous"?

• A. Abhorrent
• B. Heedless
• C. Precise✓
• D. Incautious

Explanation: The most suitable answer is "precise" as it means clearly defined or stated; exact and accurate in detail, leaving no room for ambiguity or misunderstanding. This links to being almost "perfect" clearly stating the synonym of meticulous.

Q6. Read the following passage to answer the given question:Regular exercise has been shown to improve overall health by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, such as heart disease and diabetes. Additionally, exercise enhances mental well-being by reducing stress, anxiety, and depression. Despite these benefits, many people find it challenging to maintain a consistent exercise routine due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation." Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements can be inferred?

• A. Busy schedules and lack of motivation are barriers to regular exercise✓
• B. Chronic diseases cannot be prevented by regular exercise
• C. Exercise is only beneficial for physical health, not mental health
• D. People who exercise regularly never experience stress or anxiety

Explanation: This option is correct. The paragraph explicitly mentions that "many people find it challenging to maintain a consistent exercise routine due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation."

Q7. Blueprint is to architect as algorithm is to _.

• A. Designer
• B. Engineer
• C. Physician
• D. Programmer✓

Explanation: Blueprint is to architect: A blueprint is a detailed plan created by an architect to guide the construction of a building.Algorithm is to programmer: An algorithm is a set of instructions or a plan created by a programmer to solve a problem or perform a task in programming.

Q8. The most appropriate word to be filled in is:Order is the law of civilization as chaos is the law of the _.

• A. City
• B. Universe
• C. Wilderness✓
• D. Metropolis

Explanation: The wilderness or nature is often viewed as a place of chaos in the sense that it is untamed, unpredictable, and not governed by the structured laws that human civilization follows. The wilderness is full of natural forces, survival struggles, and randomness, which could be described as chaotic compared to the order of human society. This choice creates a balanced and meaningful analogy: just as civilization is built on order, the wilderness can be seen as dominated by chaos.

Q9. Identify the error in the sentence. The chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal.

• A. Punctuation
• B. Style
• C. Vocabulary
• D. Word order✓

Explanation: This option is correct, as the order of words is incorrect and it causes a lack of coherence within the sentence.

Q10. Identify the sentence that contains an error in word order, style, or vocabulary:

• A. He has a talent for solving complex problems.
• B. She enjoys reading, writing, and to paint.✓
• C. The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.
• D. They quickly adapted to the new environment.

Explanation: In this sentence, the error lies in the phrase "to paint." When listing activities that someone enjoys, all items in the list should be in the same form. The correct form should be "She enjoys reading, writing, and painting," maintaining the gerund form for all items.

Q11. He has been working _ this project for weeks.

• A. At
• B. By
• C. To
• D. On✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'on', as it is used to indicate that someone is engaged in a task or project. In this context, 'working on this project' implies that the individual is actively participating in the project over a period of time. The other options are incorrect for the following reasons: 'At' is used for locations and does not fit the context of a project. 'By' does not convey the idea of engagement with a project and is not idiomatic in this usage. 'To' suggests a direction or goal rather than the ongoing work itself. Therefore, 'on' is the most appropriate preposition in this scenario.

Q12. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.Do you usually take a bus _ the market?

• A. By
• B. For
• C. Of
• D. To✓

Explanation: This option is correct. "To" is used to indicate the destination, as in "to the market."

Q13. Punctuate the following sentence correctly. Lets meet at Sarahs house after school

• A. Let's meet at Sarah's house after school.✓
• B. Let's meet at Sarahs' house after school.
• C. Lets meet at Sarah's house after school.
• D. Let's meet, at Sarah's house after school

Explanation: This option is correct. It includes the contraction "Let's" (short for "Let us") and correctly uses "Sarah's" to show possession.

Q14. Punctuate the given sentence correctly. The teacher asked did you complete your homework.

• A. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework?
• B. The teacher asked, "Did you complete your homework?"✓
• C. The teacher asked, "did you complete your homework".
• D. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework.

Explanation: This option is correct. It uses quotation marks to indicate direct speech and includes a question mark inside the quotation marks, which is standard for questions.

Q15. After she _ the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion.

• A. Has climbed
• B. Have climbed
• C. Had climbed✓
• D. Was climbing

Explanation: This option is correct. "Had climbed" is past perfect tense, which is used to show an action completed before another past action or event. It effectively shows that the climbing occurred before her exhaustion.

Q16. Choose the correct sentence according to the rules of subject verb agreement.

• A. She didn't knew about the surprise party.
• B. She hasn't knew about the surprise party.
• C. She didn't know about the surprise party✓
• D. She doesn't knew about the surprise party

Explanation: This sentence is correct. It uses didn't with the base form "know," which is the appropriate structure for negation in the simple past tense.

Q17. Choose the sentence with the correct tense and sentence structure:

• A. He is going to the market yesterday.
• B. I had been waiting for the bus, and it arrives.
• C. She will finish her homework before she went to bed.
• D. They were playing football when it started to rain.✓

Explanation: This sentence is correct. It uses the past continuous tense ("were playing") to indicate an ongoing action in the past, which is appropriately interrupted by another past event ("it started to rain").

Q18. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• B. My father is talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• C. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fell from the bicycle.✓
• D. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I am falling from the bicycle.

Explanation: This sentence is correct. It uses past continuous ("was talking") for an ongoing action and simple past ("fell") for an action that interrupts it, following a correct sequence of tenses.

Q19. _ is spread through sexual contact.

• A. Gonorrhea✓
• B. Influenza
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Cholera

Explanation: Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can be spread through:1. Vaginal, anal, or oral sex2. Skin-to-skin contact with an infected partner3. Mother-to-child transmission during childbirth

Q20. The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to:

• A. Amoeba
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. Virus

Explanation: Peptidoglycan is a complex polymer found in the cell walls of bacteria. It provides structural strength, rigidity, and shape to the cell wall and protects the cell from osmotic lysis. Peptidoglycan is composed of sugar chains cross-linked by short peptide chains, forming a strong, mesh-like structure. This structure is crucial for bacterial survival, especially in Gram-positive bacteria, where peptidoglycan is particularly thick.

Q21. The cells found in the lacunae of the bone are called:

• A. Chondrocytes
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Osteoclasts
• D. Osteocytes✓

Explanation: An osteocyte, a cell that lies within the substance of fully formed bone. It occupies a small chamber called a lacuna, which is contained in the calcified matrix of bone. Osteocytes derive from osteoblasts, or bone-forming cells, and are essentially osteoblasts surrounded by the products they have secreted.

Q22. Where are spindle fibres attached on a chromosome during cell division?

• A. Centromere✓
• B. Histone proteins
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Telomere

Explanation: The centromere is the region of a chromosome that links sister chromatids (duplicated chromosomes). It plays a crucial role during cell division by attaching to spindle fibers, which pull the chromatids apart to opposite poles of the cell, ensuring that each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes. The centromere is essential for accurate chromosome segregation.

Q23. The _ surrounds the muscle fiber of the skeletal muscle:

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. Myofibrils
• C. Endomysium✓
• D. Sarcoplasm

Explanation: Endomysium is a thin layer of connective tissue that wraps around each muscle fiber (muscle cell) in skeletal muscle.

Q24. Which organelle contributes towards steroid production?

• A. Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Lysosome
• D. Ribosomes

Explanation: The correct answer is the Endoplasmic Reticulum, specifically the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER), which synthesizes steroids by converting cholesterol into various steroid hormones through enzymatic reactions. The SER is vital for the production of essential hormones like cortisol, estrogen, and testosterone, particularly in cells specialized for steroid secretion. The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages lipid-based molecules but does not directly synthesize steroids, making it an incorrect choice. Similarly, lysosomes are involved in waste digestion and recycling within the cell but have no role in steroid production. Lastly, ribosomes focus on protein synthesis, which is unrelated to the synthesis of steroid hormones.

Q25. What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction?

• A. Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
• B. Released from the myosin head
• C. Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum✓
• D. Exchanged for sodium ions

Explanation: When skeletal muscles recover from contraction (relax), calcium ions (Ca²⁺) are actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) by specialized calcium pumps. This reduces calcium levels in the muscle fibers, which stops the interaction between actin and myosin, allowing the muscle to relax.

Q26. The lysosomes found in eukaryotes contain:

• A. Hydrolytic enzymes✓
• B. Meiotic enzymes
• C. Oxidative enzymes
• D. Mitotic enzymes

Explanation: Hydrolytic enzymes in lysosomes are responsible for breaking down biomolecules, including proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. These enzymes work optimally in the acidic environment of the lysosome and are crucial for recycling cellular components and digesting waste material

Q27. Which of the following blood groups has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum?

• A. A
• B. AB
• C. B
• D. O✓

Explanation: Has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Q28. Plasma membrane is differentially permeable due to the presence of:

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Lipids✓
• C. Proteins
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: The correct answer is Lipids (Option B). The plasma membrane is primarily composed of a bilayer of phospholipids, which creates a hydrophobic environment that selectively allows certain substances to pass while blocking others. This selective permeability is crucial for maintaining the internal environment of the cell.Carbohydrates (Option A) are important for cell recognition and communication, but do not directly contribute to the structural integrity of the plasma membrane. Proteins (Option C) are involved in various functions such as transport and signaling, but do not form the membrane structure that determines permeability. Vitamins (Option D) are not involved in the architecture of the plasma membrane and do not play a role in its differential permeability.

Q29. What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I?

• A. Chromosomes duplicate without any exchange of parts.
• B. Homologous chromosomes exchange different pairs leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation.✓
• C. Homologous chromosomes exchange identical parts, resulting in no genetic variation.
• D. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts.

Explanation: During meiosis, homologous chromosomes undergo a process called crossing over or recombination, where they exchange segments of genetic material at specific points called chiasmata. This exchange leads to the formation of recombinant chromatids, which carry combinations of alleles that differ from those of the parental chromosomes. As a result, the gametes produced at the end of meiosis exhibit increased genetic variation, contributing to the diversity of traits in offspring. This genetic variability is essential for evolution and adaptation within populations.

Q30. The genetic makeup that your parents have transferred to you for your hair color makes up your:

• A. Genotype✓
• B. Karyotype
• C. Phenotype
• D. None of the above

Explanation: A genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual, consisting of the specific alleles (variants of a gene) inherited from their parents. It determines traits and characteristics, often represented by letters (e.g., AA, Aa, or aa for a single gene with two alleles). The genotype interacts with environmental factors to influence the phenotype, which is the observable expression of those traits. Genotypes can be homozygous (two identical alleles) or heterozygous (two different alleles) for a particular gene

Q31. The following function/activity is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system:

• A. Cardiac muscle contraction
• B. Salivation
• C. Smooth muscle contraction
• D. Thoughts and emotions✓

Explanation: Thoughts and emotions are governed by the central nervous system (CNS), particularly the brain regions such as the prefrontal cortex for complex thought processes and the limbic system for emotional responses, involving intricate interactions of neural circuits, neurotransmitters, and hormones.

Q32. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant’s supply of:

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Lipids
• C. Nitrates✓
• D. Water

Explanation: Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals to supplement their supply of nitrogen and other essential nutrients. These nutrients are often limited in the nutrient-poor soils where carnivorous plants typically grow, making animal digestion a valuable alternative source for supporting their growth and survival.

Q33. A motor neuron:

• A. Carries impulse from effectors to CNS
• B. Carries impulse from receptors to CNS
• C. Carries impulse from CNS to muscles✓
• D. Connects sensory nerves to ganglions

Explanation: Efferent neurons (or motor neurons) carry impulses from the central nervous system (CNS) to muscles and glands. These impulses initiate muscle contraction or glandular secretion, enabling responses such as movement or other actions in the body based on CNS signals.

Q34. Which is true for an X-linked dominant trait?

• A. All female offspring of the affected father will be affected.✓
• B. Half of the female offspring of the affected father will be affected.
• C. No male offspring of an affected mother will be affected.
• D. No female offspring of the affected father will be affected.

Explanation: In X-linked dominant inheritance, an affected father will pass the trait to all his daughters (since he contributes his affected X chromosome to them) but none of his sons, as they inherit his Y chromosome.

Q35. Diffusion of _ across the post synaptic membrane causes it to depolarize:

• A. Calcium ions
• B. Chloride ions
• C. Potassium ions
• D. Sodium ions✓

Explanation: Diffusion of sodium ions (Na⁺) across the postsynaptic membrane causes it to depolarize. When an excitatory neurotransmitter binds to a receptor, it opens ion channels, allowing positively charged ions like sodium ions to rush into the cell. This influx of positive charge makes the inside of the cell less negative, which is known as depolarization and can lead to an action potential.

Q36. Malpighian tubules are found in:

• A. Earthworm
• B. Grasshopper✓
• C. Leech
• D. Slug

Explanation: A grasshopper is an Arthropod so it has Malphigian tubules.Malpighian tubules are the excretory and osmoregulatory organs found in insects, myriapods, arachnids, and tardigrades. They are finger-like projections that branch off from the gut and are analogous to kidneys in vertebrates

Q37. A reflex action does not involve the:

• A. Brain✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Sensory neuron
• D. Spinal cord

Explanation: This simple reflex circuit includes each of the four elements of a neural pathway. (1) The sensory neuron has pain-sensitive endings in the skin and a long fiber leading to the spinal cord. That neuron stimulates (2) an association neuron in the spinal cord, which in turn stimulates (3) a motor neuron, also in the cord. The axon of the motor neuron carries action potentials to (4) muscles, causing them to contract and withdraw the body part from the damaging stimulus. The sensory neuron also makes a synapse on association neurons not involved in the reflex that carry signals to the brain, informing it of the danger.

Q38. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

• A. Free radicals
• B. Hydrogen peroxide
• C. Interferons✓
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Interferons are proteins produced and released by host cells in response to viral infections, as well as in response to other stimuli, such as immune responses

Q39. What happens to the enzyme after an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

• A. Reduced to inactive form
• B. Becomes inert
• C. Changes into substrate
• D. Used for another reaction✓

Explanation: After an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the enzyme remains unchanged and can be reused. It catalyzes the reaction by binding to the substrate, forming an enzyme-substrate complex, and then releasing the product(s) while returning to its original state. This allows the enzyme to participate in multiple reaction cycles.

Q40. Catalase can be activated at pH:

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 7✓

Explanation: The pH required for catalase enzyme is 7.

Q41. Sharks belong to class:

• A. Chondrichthyes✓
• B. Osteichthyes
• C. Urochordata
• D. Coelenterata

Explanation: Chondrichthyes includes sharks, rays, and skates. They are primarily marine and have a wide range of adaptations for hunting and survival in diverse environments.Chondrichthyes is a class of fish characterized by a skeleton made of cartilage rather than bone.

Q42. Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in Streptococcus?

• A. Carry fewer genes than the chromosome
• B. Replicate autonomously from the chromosome
• C. They are considered as genetic elements
• D. The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication✓

Explanation: Actually, the bacterial chromosome does not depend on plasmids for replication. Bacterial chromosomes replicate independently, using their own origin of replication. Plasmids can replicate autonomously but are separate from the main chromosomal DNA. While plasmids can carry genes that may assist with replication or other functions, the chromosome's replication process is not reliant on plasmids.

Q43. Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by?

• A. Heavy metal ions✓
• B. Light
• C. Acid
• D. Base

Explanation: Heavy metal ions can act as enzyme inhibitors by binding to the enzyme's active site or other critical sites, altering its structure and function

Q44. Canal system is a characteristic of:

• A. Cnidarians
• B. Protozoans
• C. Porifera✓
• D. Segmented worms

Explanation: The canal system in Porifera (sponges) is a unique and efficient water filtration system that facilitates feeding, respiration, and waste removal.

Q45. Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?

• A. Both gram-negative and positive bacteria
• B. Gram-negative
• C. Gram-positive✓
• D. Mycobacteria

Explanation: Many Gram-positive bacilli (rod-shaped bacteria), such as Bacillus and Clostridium species, can form endospores, which are highly resistant structures that protect the bacterial DNA during unfavorable conditions (e.g., heat, desiccation, and chemicals).

Q46. When inhibitor compete with substrate for active site, it is:

• A. Non-competitive inhibition
• B. Competitive inhibition✓
• C. Irreversible inhibition
• D. Allosteric inhibition

Explanation: Competitive inhibitors mimic the substrate and bind to the active site.

Q47. Mantle is the feature of

• A. Annelids
• B. Arthropods
• C. Echinoderms
• D. Molluscs✓

Explanation: In molluscs, the mantle is a vital tissue layer that serves multiple essential functions. It lines the body cavity and, in shelled molluscs, secretes calcium carbonate to create and maintain the shell, providing the animal with protection and support. The mantle also encloses the mantle cavity, where respiration occurs; this cavity typically contains gills (or lungs in some species), enabling the mollusk to perform gas exchange efficiently. Additionally, the mantle cavity acts as an excretory route, allowing waste products to be expelled. In certain molluscs, such as cephalopods, the mantle has evolved to assist in movement and defense, showcasing its adaptability and importance to molluscan biology.

Q48. Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide evidence of:

• A. Convergent evolution✓
• B. Divergent evolution
• C. No evolution
• D. Same origin

Explanation: Convergent evolution is the process by which unrelated or distantly related organisms develop similar traits or adaptations independently, often as a result of adapting to similar environmental pressures or ecological niches. This phenomenon leads to the appearance of analogous structures—features that perform similar functions but do not arise from a common ancestor. Classic examples include the wings of bats, birds, and insects, which evolved separately to serve the purpose of flight, and the streamlined bodies of dolphins (mammals) and sharks (fish), which both developed to move efficiently through water. Convergent evolution illustrates how similar environmental demands can shape different species in similar ways, despite their distinct evolutionary backgrounds.

Q49. The production of energy is:

• A. Faster in anaerobic respiration✓
• B. Faster in aerobic respiration
• C. The same in both types of respiration
• D. Not associated with respiration

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration is generally faster than aerobic respiration because it does not require oxygen, allowing cells to produce energy more quickly in the absence of oxygen. This process yields ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through fermentation or other pathways, often resulting in byproducts like lactic acid or ethanol. However, anaerobic respiration produces less ATP per glucose molecule compared to aerobic respiration.

Q50. The embryological stages of _ show similarity in anatomical features.

• A. All living things
• B. All non-vertebrates
• C. All vertebrates✓
• D. Human, jellyfish, and mouse

Explanation: The embryological stages of vertebrates show similarity in anatomical features.These shared embryonic features are homologous structures, meaning their underlying similarity is due to their derivation from a common ancestral structure. The genes and developmental pathways that control the early stages of vertebrate development are highly conserved (have remained largely unchanged) throughout evolutionary history.

Q51. The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by microorganism, is called:

• A. Lactic acid fermentation
• B. Alcoholic fermentation✓
• C. Cellular respiration
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Alcoholic fermentation is an anaerobic process used by yeast and some bacteria to produce energy.

Q52. _ is used in the production of Humulin.

• A. Fungi
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. Virus

Explanation: Bacteria, specifically Escherichia coli, are used in the production of Humulin (human insulin) through genetic engineering.

Q53. Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?

• A. Amylase✓
• B. Lipase
• C. Peptidase
• D. Protease

Explanation: Amylase is typically released in its active form. It is an enzyme responsible for breaking down starches and carbohydrates into simpler sugars.

Q54. Chromosome is typically made up from a combination of:

• A. DNA and protein✓
• B. DNA and RNA
• C. RNA and lipids
• D. RNA and proteins

Explanation: A chromosome is composed primarily of DNA, proteins, and a small amount of RNA. The DNA carries genetic information in a double-helix structure, which is organized into functional units called genes. This DNA is tightly wrapped around proteins known as histones, forming nucleosomes, which help compact the DNA and organize it into chromatin. The chromatin further coils and condenses to form the structured, compact chromosome, especially during cell division. Additionally, some RNA molecules are associated with chromosomes, particularly in regions involved in the production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA). This highly organized structure enables chromosomes to efficiently store, protect, and transmit genetic information within the nucleus of a cell.

Q55. Which of the following does NOT relate to smooth muscles?

• A. Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
• B. Have spindle-shaped cells
• C. Line the wall of the heart✓
• D. Lack striations

Explanation: Smooth muscles do not line the wall of the heart. The heart is lined by cardiac muscle, which has striations and is also controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Smooth muscles are found in the walls of organs such as blood vessels, the digestive tract, and the respiratory system; they lack striations and have spindle-shaped cells.

Q56. Which cytoplasmic organelle makes their own proteins?

• A. Chromosomes
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Mitochondria✓
• D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria are the cytoplasmic organelles capable of making their own proteins. They have their own DNA and ribosomes, which allow them to synthesize some of the proteins needed for their function independently of the cell's nuclear DNA. This ability supports their role in energy production and other cellular processes.

Q57. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?

• A. Cholecystokinin
• B. Gastrin✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Secretin

Explanation: Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the stomach’s parietal cells to secrete gastric acid (HCl), which is a major component of gastric juice. This helps in digesting food and absorbing nutrients.

Q58. Which term best describes an organism’s physical characteristics?

• A. Allele
• B. Genetic code
• C. Genotype
• D. Trait✓

Explanation: A trait is a specific characteristic or feature of an organism, influenced by genetics and sometimes environmental factors. Traits can include physical features like eye color or behaviors, and are often determined by the expression of specific genes.

Q59. The active movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due to:

• A. Cyclosis✓
• B. Endoplasmic streaming movements
• C. Golgi apparatus
• D. Transfer RNA

Explanation: Cyclosis, or cytoplasmic streaming, is the movement of the cytoplasm within a cell. This process helps distribute nutrients, organelles, and other materials throughout the cell, aiding in cellular function and growth.

Q60. In an inflammatory response, bradykinin causes?

• A. Activation of natural killer cells
• B. Blockage in blood vessels
• C. Constriction of blood vessels
• D. Dilation of blood vessels✓

Explanation: It relaxes blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the affected area.

Q61. What will happen with the addition of salt to water?

• A. Water potential will increase
• B. Water potential will not remain the same due to addition of solute, hence this option is incorrect.
• C. Osmotic potential will increase✓
• D. Osmotic potential will remain the same

Explanation: Adding salt (solute) to water increases the osmotic potential. This is because osmotic potential is influenced by the concentration of solutes in a solution. When salt dissolves in water, it dissociates into sodium and chloride ions, increasing the total solute concentration. Consequently, this raises the osmotic potential, leading to a greater tendency for water to move toward the area of higher solute concentration to achieve equilibrium.

Q62. Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Cerebellum✓
• C. Hippocampus
• D. Medulla oblongata

Explanation: The cerebellum is the "little brain" located at the back of the head, below the cerebrum. It plays a crucial role in motor control by coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and posture.

Q63. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

• A. Antibodies from mother’s milk✓
• B. Previous chickenpox infection
• C. Inactivated polio vaccine
• D. Live polio vaccine

Explanation: This offers passive immunity since the antibodies are transferred from mother to infant through breast milk, providing immediate protection without requiring the infant's immune system to produce its own antibodies.

Q64. The neurotransmitter _ is hydrolyzed by monoamine oxidase:

• A. Acetylcholine
• B. Adrenaline✓
• C. Serotonin
• D. Glutamate

Explanation: Monoamine oxidase (MAO) is an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters, including adrenaline (epinephrine), in the body. When adrenaline is released during stress or excitement, MAO helps regulate its levels by catalyzing its oxidative deamination, leading to its conversion into inactive metabolites. This process is important for maintaining neurotransmitter balance and preventing excessive stimulation of adrenergic receptors, thereby helping to modulate physiological responses such as heart rate and blood pressure.

Q65. A bacteria without flagella is called:

• A. Amphitrichous
• B. Atrichous✓
• C. Lophotrichous
• D. Peritrichous

Explanation: Bacterial cells which do not contain any flagella are called atrichous.

Q66. Most of the neurons in the CNS are:

• A. Bipolar
• B. Multipolar✓
• C. Pseudo unipolar
• D. Unipolar

Explanation: A multipolar neuron is the most common type of neuron, characterized by one axon and multiple dendrites extending from the cell body. They are the most common type in the CNS and are involved in integrating information, as seen in motor neurons and interneurons.

Q67. Which of the following is not true about viruses?

• A. Contain DNA
• B. Can replicate on their own✓
• C. Can infect bacteria
• D. They have a sub-cellular structure

Explanation: Viruses cannot replicate on their own. They lack the cellular machinery needed for reproduction and must infect a host cell to replicate. Once inside a host cell, a virus hijacks the cell's machinery to produce viral components, which are then assembled into new virus particles. This dependence on a host cell is a defining characteristic of viruses.

Q68. Antibiotics can be used against:

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Influenza
• C. Polio
• D. Salmonella typhi✓

Explanation: Caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, which is the agent of typhoid fever. Antibiotics are effective here and are used to treat the infection.

Q69. The genetic code is bound by a lipid membrane in:

• A. Enterovirus
• B. Hepatitis A virus
• C. Flu virus✓
• D. Polio virus

Explanation: The flu virus, or influenza virus, is an enveloped virus, meaning its genetic material (RNA) is enclosed within a protective lipid membrane derived from the host cell during viral replication. This lipid membrane, or envelope, contains viral proteins such as hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA), which are crucial for the virus’s ability to infect host cells and spread.The lipid envelope helps the virus evade the host immune system and facilitates entry into host cells by fusing with their membranes. However, this envelope also makes the virus more vulnerable to environmental factors like soap and disinfectants, which can disrupt the lipid membrane and inactivate the virus.

Q70. How do enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by?

• A. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate
• B. Increase the activation energy
• C. Increase the substrate concentration
• D. Lowering the activation energy✓

Explanation: Enzymes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions, enabling them to occur more rapidly and efficiently. They do this by providing a specially shaped active site that binds substrates in an optimal orientation, stabilizing the transition state so less energy is required to reach it. Additionally, enzymes can induce strain in substrate molecules, making bonds easier to break and facilitating the reaction. This reduction in activation energy accelerates reaction rates, allowing vital cellular processes to occur quickly enough to sustain life.

Q71. The _ in semen facilitate the transport of sperms.

• A. Androgen
• B. Prostaglandins✓
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: These lipid compounds, present in semen, help stimulate contractions in the female reproductive tract, particularly in the uterus and fallopian tubes. These contractions aid in moving sperm upward toward the egg, enhancing the chances of fertilization. Prostaglandins thus play a supportive role in sperm motility and successful conception.

Q72. The process of ATP synthesis through a combination of chemical and osmotic events is known as:

• A. Fermentation
• B. Glycolysis
• C. Oxidative phosphorylation✓
• D. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

Explanation: Oxidative phosphorylation is the final stage of cellular respiration, where most of the cell’s ATP is produced. This process occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane and relies on an electron transport chain (ETC) and chemiosmosis.

Q73. Acidity of urine is neutralized by?

• A. Cowper's gland✓
• B. Prostate gland
• C. Seminal vesicle
• D. Vas deferens

Explanation: The Cowper’s glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, produce a clear, alkaline mucus-like fluid that helps neutralize the acidity of urine in the urethra before ejaculation. This secretion protects sperm from the acidic environment, which can be harmful to them, creating a more favorable condition for sperm to pass through the urethra. Additionally, the fluid from the Cowper’s glands lubricates the urethra, facilitating the smooth passage of sperm.

Q74. According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is:

• A. Inheritance of acquired characteristics✓
• B. Mutation
• C. Natural selection
• D. Survival of the fittest

Explanation: According to Lamarck, these acquired traits could be passed on to offspring. This means that traits developed during an organism's lifetime could be inherited by the next generation.The inheritance of acquired characteristics is the idea that traits a parent organism develops during its lifetime can be passed on to its offspring, a concept famously associated with Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. For example, a giraffe stretching its neck to reach higher leaves would pass that longer neck to its young. This theory was largely discredited by modern genetics, which shows that acquired traits (like a broken bone or a suntan) do not change the DNA in reproductive cells and therefore cannot be inherited.

Q75. Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV found?

• A. Surrounding the viral core
• B. Inside the capsid✓
• C. In the protein spikes
• D. Outside the capsid

Explanation: The enzymes required for HIV replication, such as reverse transcriptase and integrase, are indeed found within the capsid of the virus. The capsid is a protein shell that encases the viral RNA and these essential enzymes. Once HIV enters a host cell, the capsid disassembles, releasing the viral RNA and enzymes, which are necessary for the replication process.

Q76. The corpus luteum is essentially formed from:

• A. Graafian follicle✓
• B. Ovum
• C. Oogonium
• D. Oocyte

Explanation: The Graafian follicle plays a crucial role in ovulation, and its transformation into the corpus luteum is vital for hormonal regulation during the menstrual cycle and early pregnancy.

Q77. What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the baleen whale?

• A. Analogous to the fin of living fish
• B. Fossil structure from an extinct animal
• C. Homologous structure of the wings of a bat
• D. Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor✓

Explanation: In baleen whales, vestigial pelvic bones are examples of structures that had a function in their ancestors. These bones are remnants of hind limbs, which would have been functional in the land-dwelling ancestors of whales. Although these pelvic bones no longer serve their original purpose of supporting hind limbs, they have not entirely disappeared. Instead, they persist as small, internal bones near the tail and are thought to play a minimal role in reproductive organ support rather than locomotion. This vestigial structure provides insight into the evolutionary transition of whales from land-dwelling mammals to fully aquatic animals.

Q78. The outer layer of uterus is called as:

• A. Endometrium
• B. Myometrium
• C. Mesometrium
• D. Perimetrium✓

Explanation: The perimetrium is the outermost layer of the uterus, also known as the serosa. It is a thin layer of tissue that covers the outside of the uterus and is continuous with the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity. The perimetrium provides a protective covering for the uterus and reduces friction between the uterus and other abdominal organs. It also helps anchor the uterus within the pelvic cavity by connecting to surrounding structures, though it plays a more structural and protective role rather than a functional role in uterine contractions or hormonal regulation.

Q79. Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall?

• A. Chief cells secrete intrinsic factor
• B. Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen
• C. Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor✓
• D. Hormonal secretions activate the stomach lining

Explanation: Parietal cells, located in the gastric glands of the stomach lining, secrete intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) in the intestines. Vitamin B12 is crucial for red blood cell production and neurological function. Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 in the stomach, protecting it from degradation and facilitating its absorption in the ileum, the last part of the small intestine. A deficiency in intrinsic factor can lead to pernicious anaemia, a condition characterised by a decreased ability to absorb vitamin B12, resulting in a range of health issues, including fatigue and neurological problems. Parietal cells also secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps create the acidic environment necessary for digestion and activates digestive enzymes.

Q80. Viruses can not:

• A. Crystallize
• B. Mutate
• C. Excrete✓
• D. Infect bacteria

Explanation: Viruses do not excrete waste in the same way that living organisms do. They are not considered living cells; instead, they are composed of genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat and, in some cases, a lipid envelope. Viruses lack the cellular machinery required for metabolism, including processes like excretion

Q81. Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8✓

Explanation: Pancreatic Lipase works at the optimum pH of 8.

Q82. Sugarcane contains _.

• A. Fructose
• B. Glucose
• C. Sucrose✓
• D. Ribose

Explanation: Sucrose is the primary sugar found in sugarcane, a tropical grass cultivated for its high sugar content. Sucrose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and fructose molecules, and it accumulates in the stalks of the sugarcane plant. During harvesting, sugarcane is crushed, and the juice extracted is then processed to purify and crystallize the sucrose for use as table sugar. Sucrose from sugarcane is widely used as a sweetener and in food production, making sugarcane one of the most important crops for sugar production globally.

Q83. Sickle cell anaemia results from:

• A. Reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin
• B. Linkage between the polypeptide chains in the haemoglobin molecule
• C. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule✓
• D. Viral infections of RNA viruses

Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation in the HBB gene, which provides instructions for making hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. This mutation leads to the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S (HbS).

Q84. What is the ester of fatty acids and long-chain alcohol called?

• A. Phospholipid
• B. Glycerol
• C. Acylglycerol
• D. Wax✓

Explanation: The ester of fatty acids and long-chain alcohols is called a wax ester. Wax esters are a type of lipid formed by the esterification of a fatty acid (long-chain carboxylic acid) with a long-chain alcohol. This structure makes them highly hydrophobic and gives them a waxy consistency.

Q85. Which is incorrect about the globular proteins?

• A. Are spherical in shape
• B. Soluble in water
• C. Abundantly found in hair✓
• D. Have polypeptide chains

Explanation: Hair is packed with keratin, and keratin is a classic fibrous protein. Its long, tightly coiled structure gives hair strength, flexibility, and resistance to stretching. The way these keratin fibers cross-link with sulfur bonds is what makes hair tough and durable.

Q86. Lipids, which do not contain fatty acid are:

• A. Phosphatidic acids
• B. Steroids✓
• C. Waxes
• D. Neutral lipids

Explanation: Unlike other lipids (such as triglycerides and phospholipids), which are composed of fatty acid chains, steroids have a distinct structure characterized by four fused carbon rings (three six-membered rings and one five-membered ring).

Q87. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment.

• A. NH3
• B. NF3
• C. BF3✓
• D. H2O

Explanation: The dipole moment of BF3 is zero because the molecule is symmetrical. The three B-F bonds are arranged in a trigonal planar configuration, and the electronegativity of boron and fluorine are similar. This means that the partial charges on the boron and fluorine atoms are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, so they cancel each other out.

Q88. The unhybridized "p" orbital in sp2 hybridization is:

• A. Parallel to sp2 orbitals
• B. In the same plane as sp2 orbitals
• C. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals✓
• D. Out of the plane of sp2 orbitals

Explanation: In sp2 hybridization, the unhybridized "p" orbital is perpendicular to the plane formed by the three sp2 hybrid orbitals. The three sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in the same plane, forming an angle of approximately 120 degrees with each other. The unhybridized "p" orbital is oriented at a right angle to this plane.

Q89. 760 torr is equal to Pascal

• A. 1
• B. 76
• C. 760
• D. 101325✓

Explanation: 760 torr=101325 Pascals.

Q90. How many grams of CO2 can be produced by thermally decomposing 10 moles of ZnCO3?

• A. 320
• B. 360
• C. 400
• D. 440✓

Explanation: If we have 10 moles of ZnCO₃, the decomposition will produce 10 moles of CO₂.Next, we need to convert moles of CO₂ to grams. The molar mass of CO₂ is 44g/molmass=moles×molar mass=10moles×44.01g/mol=440.1

Q91. The homolytic fission of C-H bond in an alkane result in

• A. Alkyl free radical✓
• B. Carbanion
• C. Carbocation
• D. Methylpropane

Explanation: The homolytic fission of one C-H bond produces a methyl radical (•CH₃) and a hydrogen radical (•H). This process is important in various chemical reactions, including combustion and polymerization.

Q92. Addition of HBr to isobutylene mainly gives

• A. isobutyl bromide
• B. n-butyl bromide
• C. sec-butyl bromide
• D. tert-butyl bromide✓

Explanation: The addition of HBr to isobutylene predominantly yields tert-butyl bromide because the reaction proceeds through a carbocation intermediate. When HBr adds to isobutylene, the double bond opens up, and the bromine atom attaches to the more substituted carbon, leading to the formation of a tertiary carbocation. This intermediate is more stable than secondary or primary carbocations, favoring the formation of tert-butyl bromide. In contrast, isobutyl bromide, n-butyl bromide, and sec-butyl bromide would require pathways that do not occur under these conditions, making them incorrect options.

Q93. Dehydrohalogenation of alkylhalide is carried out in presence of:

• A. Zn dust
• B. Conc. H2SO4
• C. Alcoholic KOH✓
• D. Aqueous KOH.

Explanation: Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide is carried out in the presence of alcoholic KOH (potassium hydroxide dissolved in alcohol). This reaction is a type of elimination reaction where a hydrogen halide (H-X) is removed from the alkyl halide, leaving behind a double bond. Therefore, option c is correct.

Q94. The pKa of n-propyl amine is

• A. 3.24
• B. 3.28
• C. 3.32✓
• D. 3.35

Explanation: C is the correct option.

Q95. The carbon atom carrying positive charge and attached to three other atoms or group is called:

• A. Carbocation✓
• B. Carbanion
• C. Oxonium ion
• D. Carbene

Explanation: A carbocation is a positively charged carbon atom that is attached to three other atoms or groups. It has an electron deficiency, leading to a positive charge. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q96. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

• A. ethyl alcohol
• B. isopropyl alcohol
• C. n-propyl alcohol✓
• D. tert-butyl alcohol

Explanation: N-propyl alcohol has the highest boiling point i.e 97.2 degrees.

Q97. The reaction of alcohol with sodium produces:

• A. Ethane
• B. Alkoxide✓
• C. Ethene
• D. Aldehyde

Explanation: Alkoxide (Correct Answer): When an alcohol reacts with sodium (Na), it forms an alkoxide. An alkoxide ion is formed by the removal of a hydrogen atom from the alcohol's hydroxyl group (OH) and its replacement with a sodium atom (Na⁺), resulting in the general formula R-O⁻Na⁺, where R represents an alkyl group.

Q98. Molar heat of vaporization of water is

• A. 40.7 cal/mol
• B. 40.7 J/mol
• C. 40.7 kcal/mol
• D. 40.7 kJ/mol✓

Explanation: The molar heat of vaporization of water is approximately 40.7 kJ/mol at its boiling point (100 °C or 212 °F) under standard atmospheric pressure.

Q99. Oxidation of secondary alcohol gives

• A. Carboxylic acid
• B. Ether
• C. Ketone✓
• D. Phenol

Explanation: The oxidation of a secondary alcohol typically results in the formation of a ketone. During this reaction, the hydroxyl group (-OH) of the alcohol is converted to a carbonyl group (C=O), leading to the loss of two hydrogen atoms.

Q100. Which of the following elements cannot be detected directly in a given organic compound?

• A. Chlorine
• B. Nitrogen
• C. Oxygen✓
• D. Phosphorus

Explanation: Phosphorus (P), while it can be identified through specific methods (like phosphorus-specific techniques or using reagents), is not as commonly detected in the same straightforward manner as the other three elements in many standard analyses

Q101. Pyridine belongs to which class of organic compounds?

• A. Heterocyclic✓
• B. Hydrocarbon
• C. Alicyclic
• D. Homocyclic

Explanation: Pyridine is an aromatic compound with a six-membered ring similar to benzene. However, one of the carbon atoms in the ring is replaced by a nitrogen atom, making it a heterocyclic compound.

Q102. Name of ketone functional group is

• A. Amino
• B. Carbonyl✓
• C. Carboxyl
• D. Formyl

Explanation: A functional group containing a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom (C=O). It is found in aldehydes, ketones, and carboxylic acids

Q103. Potassium ferrocyanide is a:

• A. Normal Salt
• B. Mixed Salt
• C. Double Salt
• D. Complex Salt✓

Explanation: Potassium ferrocyanide, with the chemical formula K4Fe(CN)6, is considered a double salt. It is formed by the combination of two different salts: potassium cyanide (KCN) and iron(II) cyanide (Fe(CN)2). Therefore, option c is correct.

Q104. Cu2+ salt solution is blue in colour due to transition of electrons from

• A. d to d orbital✓
• B. p to d orbital
• C. p to p orbital
• D. s to p orbital

Explanation: Transition metals show colored complexes due to their d-d transitions.

Q105. Third period element that initially reacts rapidly with oxygen to form a protective oxide coating that prevents further reactions is

• A. Al✓
• B. Mg
• C. Na
• D. Si

Explanation: Al forms Al2O3 after reacting with oxygen which acts as a protective layer against further corrosion.

Q106. Which of the following alkali metal forms only normal oxide with O2?

• A. K
• B. Li✓
• C. Na
• D. Rb

Explanation: The normal oxide of lithium is lithium oxide (Li₂O). It is formed when lithium reacts with oxygen in a stoichiometric ratio. Lithium oxide is a white solid and is basic in nature, reacting with acids to form lithium salts. It has various applications, including in ceramics, as a flux in glassmaking, and in lithium-ion batteries.

Q107. Electronegativity of Al is approximately equal to that of

• A. B
• B. Be✓
• C. Mg
• D. Na

Explanation: The correct answers are Be (Beryllium) and Mg (Magnesium) as they both have electronegativity values that are approximately equal to that of Al (Aluminum). The electronegativity of Aluminum is around 1.61, while Beryllium is about 1.57 and Magnesium about 1.31, making them close in value. B (Boron) is incorrect because it has a higher electronegativity of approximately 2.04. Na (Sodium) is also incorrect as it has a lower electronegativity of around 0.93, which is significantly lower than that of Aluminum.

Q108. The electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode is chosen as

• A. -1V
• B. 0V✓
• C. 1V
• D. 2V

Explanation: The potential of S.H.E is chosen as 0 volts.

Q109. When 4 g of magnesium was heated in excess of oxygen. Calculate the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide (MgO).

• A. 3.7g
• B. 4.2g
• C. 5.4g
• D. 6.6g✓

Explanation: Molar mass of Mg = 24.31 g/mol.Moles of Mg= mass of Mg /molar mass of Mg= 4g/24.31g/mol ≈0.164mol​2Mg+O2→2MgOFrom the equation, 2 moles of Mg produce 2 moles of MgO. Therefore, 1 mole of Mg produces 1 mole of MgO.Calculate the number of moles of magnesium oxide producedSince the ratio is 1:1, the moles of MgO produced will also be approximately 0.164 mol.Molar mass of MgO = 24.31 g/mol (Mg) + 16.00 g/mol (O) = 40.31 g/mol.Mass of MgO=0.164mol×40.31g/mol≈6.6g

Q110. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution?

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Ammonium hydroxide
• C. Carbonic acid
• D. Potassium iodide✓

Explanation: Potassium iodide (KI) is considered a strong electrolyte because it dissociates completely into its constituent ions when dissolved in water.

Q111. The heat of sublimation of potassium is 98kJ/mol. The heat of dissociation of bromine gas is 192.5 kJ/mol. The ionization energy of K is 414 kJ/mol. The electron affinity of Br -334.7kJ/mol and the heat of formation of KBr is -405.8 kJ/mol. Calculate the lattice energy of KBr

• A. -679.3✓
• B. -669.5
• C. 669.5
• D. 679.3

Explanation: By applying Hess's lawΔHf=ΔHsubl+ΔHdiss+ΔHIE+ΔHEA+U (U is the lattice energy)The lattice energy of KBr is approximately 679.35 kJ/mol (the negative sign indicates that energy is released when the lattice forms).

Q112. ΔH can be measured indirectly by applying

• A. Avogadro's law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Gas's Law
• D. Hess's Law✓

Explanation: Hess's Law states that the total enthalpy change during a chemical reaction is the same, regardless of whether the reaction occurs in one step or multiple steps. This means that the enthalpy change is a state function and is independent of the pathway taken.

Q113. One slice of bread with a tablespoon of peanut butter on it contains 20g carbohydrate, 10g protein,and 9g fat. Calculate total energy consumed in this intake

• A. 158kcal
• B. 173kcal
• C. 201kcal✓
• D. 218kcal

Explanation: Energy from carbohydrates=20g×4kcal/g=80kcalEnergy from protein=10g×4kcal/g=40kcalEnergy from fat=9g×9kcal/g=81kcalTotal energy=Energy from carbohydrates+Energy from protein+Energy from fatTotal energy=80kcal+40kcal+81kcal=201kcal

Q114. When 1 mole of ice melts at 0° and constant pressure of 1 atmosphere, 6025 J of heat is absorbed by the system. The molar volume of ice and water are 0.020and 0.018 dm3, respectively. Calculate ΔE.(1dm3.atm=101.33J)

• A. 6010.20J
• B. 6015.20J
• C. 6020.20J
• D. 6025.20J✓

Explanation: ΔE=q−PΔVΔV=Vwater −Vice​ =0.018dm3 −0.020dm3 =−0.002dm3PΔV=(1atm)×(−0.002dm)=−0.002dm3atmPΔV=−0.002dm3⋅atm×101.33J/(dm3⋅atm)=−0.20266JΔE=q−PΔV=6025J−(−0.20266J)ΔE=6025J+0.20266J≈6025.20266J

Q115. calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal gas expands from 15 dm3 to 20 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 2 atmospheres

• A. -10 atm.dm3✓
• B. -5 atm.dm3
• C. 5 atm.dm3
• D. 10 atm.dm3

Explanation: W=-PΔVΔV is 20-15 =5dm3 W=- 2atm x 5dm3 =-10atm.dm3

Q116. what mass of aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is produced from 18.5g of Al metal, when it reacts completely with oxygen gas according to the following equation4Al(S) + 302(g) - 2Al2O3(S)

• A. 30.8g
• B. 32.6g
• C. 34.9g✓
• D. 36.5g

Explanation: The molar mass of aluminum (Al) is approximately 26.98 g/mol.Moles of Al=18.5g/26.98g/mol ​ ≈0.686moles The molar mass of Al₂O₃ is approximately: 101.96g/molMass =moles×molar mass=0.343moles×101.96g/mol≈35.00g

Q117. A reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B, the rate equation is

• A. rate = k [A] [B]2✓
• B. rate = k [A]2[B]
• C. rate = k [A] [B]
• D. rate = k [A]

Explanation: The correct rate equation is rate = k [A] [B]2. This equation correctly reflects that the reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B. This means that the rate will double if the concentration of A is doubled and quadruple if the concentration of B is doubled. The other options do not match the given conditions: Option B suggests a second order with respect to A, Option C suggests first order for both A and B, and Option D suggests zero order with respect to B.

Q118. for a first order reaction A-B, the rate constant is 0.0458 s-1 . calculate rate of the reaction if the concentration of reactant is 0.35mol dm-3

• A. 0.012 mol dm-3 s-1
• B. 0.014 mol dm-3 s-1
• C. 0.016 mol dm-3 s-1✓
• D. 0.018 mol dm-3 s-1

Explanation: For a first-order reaction, the rate of the reaction can be calculated using the following formula:Rate=k×[A]Rate=0.0458s−1 ×0.35mol dm−3Rate=0.01603mol dm−3 s−1

Q119. The unit of Kc for the system PCl5 - PCl3 +Cl2 is

• A. dm3/mol
• B. mol/dm3✓
• C. mol/dm6
• D. mol2/dm6

Explanation: This option is correct, since concentration is measured in mol/dm³, we substitute the units:Kc = (mol/dm3) x (mol/dm3) / (mol/dm3) = mol/dm3 after cancellation of all relevant units.

Q120. Distillation under very reduced pressure is distillation

• A. Destructive
• B. Steam
• C. Fractional
• D. Vacuum✓

Explanation: Distillation under very reduced pressure is known as vacuum distillation. This technique is used to separate components of a mixture based on differences in boiling points, particularly when dealing with substances that have high boiling points or are thermally sensitive.

Q121. Which aldehyde is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition:

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldehyde
• C. Butyraldehyde
• D. Propionaldehyde

Explanation: Formaldehyde (HCHO) is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition among the given options. This is because formaldehyde is the simplest aldehyde with a hydrogen atom attached to the carbonyl carbon. The presence of a highly reactive hydrogen atom makes formaldehyde more susceptible to nucleophilic attack compared to other aldehydes. Therefore, option a is correct.

Q122. Acetic acid can be prepared by the hydrolysis of

• A. ethanal
• B. ethanol
• C. methanoic acid
• D. methyl cyanide✓

Explanation: The hydrolysis of methyl cyanide is an effective method to produce acetic acid, involving the conversion of the nitrile functional group to a carboxylic acid

Q123. Protein present in haemoglobin has _ structure

• A. Primrary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. Quaternary✓

Explanation: Hemoglobin exists in a quaternary structure, which is essential for its function in transporting oxygen in the blood like oxygen transport, enabling cooperative binding and regulation of oxygen release to tissues.

Q124. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor

• A. Binds with substrate
• B. Competes with enzyme
• C. Competes with substrate✓
• D. Irreversibly binds with enzyme

Explanation: In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active site of the enzyme, affecting the kinetics of the reaction but not the maximum reaction rate when substrate concentration is sufficiently high.

Q125. How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)?

• A. 1.5✓
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: To find the number of moles in 60 g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH), you can use the formula:Number of moles=mass(g)/molar mass (g/mol)Molar mass of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g/molNumber of moles= 60/40=1.5 molesSo, there are 1.5 moles of sodium

Q126. Heating 24.8g of copper carbonate (CuCO3) in a crucible produced only 13.9g of copper oxide (CuO). What is the percentage yield of copper oxide?

• A. 81.79%
• B. 83.98%
• C. 86.87%✓
• D. 89.68%

Explanation: To calculate the percentage yield of copper oxide (CuO) from the thermal decomposition of copper carbonate (CuCO₃), we first need to determine the theoretical yield of CuO based on the starting amount of CuCO₃.Moles of CuCO3 = 24.8 g/123.5 g/mol​ ≈0.200 molesFrom the balanced equation, 1 mole of CuCO₃ produces 1 mole of CuO. Therefore, 0.200 moles of CuCO₃ will produce 0.200 moles of CuO.Mass of CuO=moles×molar mass=0.200 moles×79.5 g/mol≈15.9 gNow, we can find the percentage yield using the actual yield (13.9 g) and the theoretical yield (15.9 g):Percentage Yield=(actual yield/theoretical yield)×100 ​=(13.9 g/15.9 g)×100≈87.4%

Q127. Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating

• A. Actual yield
• B. Theoretical yield
• C. Percentage yield✓
• D. Amount of the reactant unused

Explanation: Percentage yield measures the efficiency of a chemical reaction by comparing the actual yield (amount of product actually obtained) to the theoretical yield.

Q128. The example of metallic solid is

• A. B
• B. C
• C. Cu✓
• D. Si

Explanation: Copper is a metallic solid.

Q129. Actual yield will reach the ideal (theoretical) value if the % yield of the reaction is:

• A. 10 %
• B. 50 %
• C. 90 %
• D. 100 %✓

Explanation: Actual yield is equal to theoretical yield when the reaction goes to completion and there is no loss of product so the efficiency of the reaction is 100%.

Q130. Which of the following sub-shell does not exist?

• A. 1p✓
• B. 5d
• C. 7f
• D. 1s

Explanation: The "1p" sub-shell does not exist. In electron configuration notation, sub-shells are represented by a combination of numbers and letters. The numbers indicate the principal energy level (or shell) and the letters represent the sub-shell type. The letters used to denote sub-shells are s, p, d, and f. However, there is no "1p" sub-shell. The correct notation for the sub-shells in the first principal energy level would be 1s.

Q131. when a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, the property is

• A. Allotropy
• B. Anisotropy✓
• C. Isomorphism
• D. Polymorphism

Explanation: This option is correct. Anisotropy is the property of a material to exhibit different physical properties (like electrical conductivity) in different directions within the crystal structure, which fits the scenario described.

Q132. The splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is called:

• A. Stark effect
• B. Zeeman effect✓
• C. Aufbau principle
• D. Pauli's exclusion principle

Explanation: In the Zeeman effect, magnetic field causes the electrons in an atom to have different energies, depending on their orientation in the field. This results in the splitting of the spectral lines into multiple components. This effect is named after the Dutch physicist Pieter Zeeman, who discovered it in 1896.

Q133. Which element has the electronic configuration of noble-gas notation [Kr], 5s², 4d²

• A. Mo
• B. Se
• C. Sr
• D. Zr✓

Explanation: Zr (Zirconium) has the atomic number 40, with the configuration [Kr],5s2,4d2

Q134. Total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of central atom in water are

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4✓
• D. 5

Explanation: the total number of electron pairs in the valence shell of the central atom (oxygen) in water is:2 bonding pairs (with hydrogen) + 2 lone pairs = 4 electron pairs.Therefore, the total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of the central atom in water

Q135. Forward reaction is the one that

• A. Is very slow at the beginning of the reaction
• B. Reacts to form reactants
• C. Speeds up gradually and at equilibrium its rate becomes constant
• D. Takes place from left to right as given in chemical equation✓

Explanation: This is the correct definition of a forward reaction. It refers to the process where reactants (on the left side of the equation) are converted into products (on the right side).

Q136. What is the mass of 1 mole of calcium carbonate (CaCO3)?

• A. 50g
• B. 75g
• C. 100g✓
• D. 125g

Explanation: The mass of 1 mole of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) is approximately 100.09 grams

Q137. Which one of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure?

• A. CH4
• B. NH3✓
• C. H2O
• D. C2H4

Explanation: NH3 has a pyramidal structure because the central nitrogen atom has 3 single bonds and 1 lone pair of electrons. The lone pair of electrons repel the bonding pairs of electrons, distorting the molecule into a pyramidal shape. The bond angles in NH3 are 107°.

Q138. For a positive charged particle (q) moving with a velocity (v) in a magnetic Filed of flux density B, the force (F) acting on the charge particle is given by the expression?

• A. q = Fv x B
• B. F = qv x B✓
• C. F= v x B/q
• D. q = v x B/F

Explanation: B is the correct option.

Q139. how many moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5g of HCL, according to the neutralization reactionHCl(aq)+NaOH(aq)NaCl(aq)+H2O(I)

• A. 0.252
• B. 0.452✓
• C. 0.652
• D. 0.852

Explanation: moles of HCl=mass/molar mass = 16.5g/36.46g/mol ​ ≈0.452molesDetermine the reaction stoichiometry: The balanced equation for the reaction is:HCl+NaOH→NaClFrom the equation, 1 mole of HCl produces 1 mole of NaCl.Calculate moles of NaCl produced: Since the reaction is 1:1, the moles of NaCl produced will be equal to the moles of HCl reacted.Moles of NaCl=0.452molesTherefore, approximately 0.452 moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5 g of HCl.

Q140. In the production of SO3 from SO2 and oxygen, the yield of SO3 is increased by

• A. Adding a catalyst
• B. Adding more SO2✓
• C. Increasing temperature
• D. Removing oxygen

Explanation: Increasing the concentration of SO₂ or O₂ can also push the reaction toward producing more SO₃.

Q141. consider N2 +3H2(g) -2NH3(g) ΔH=-92.46kj/molthe optimum temperature (C) to produce ammonia is

• A. 0
• B. 450✓
• C. 5000
• D. constant temperature

Explanation: The optimal temperature for this reaction is typically around 400-500°C (752-932°F).

Q142. The direction of induced current is determined

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Lenz's Law✓
• D. Ohm's Law

Explanation: The direction of induced current is given by Lenz's law.

Q143. Which type of waves can be polarized?

• A. Longitudinal waves
• B. Mechanical waves
• C. Sound waves
• D. Transverse waves✓

Explanation: This option is correct. Transverse waves have particle motion perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, allowing them to be polarized. Examples include light waves and waves on a string.

Q144. Lenz's law is consistent with the

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's law
• C. Law of conservation of energy✓
• D. Ohm's Law

Explanation: Lenz's Law upholds the law of conservation of energy, ensuring that induced currents always work against the changes in magnetic flux, thereby preserving energy within the system.

Q145. The basic principle behind the operation of the transformer is

• A. Coulomb's law
• B. Electromagnetic Induction✓
• C. Gaus's Law
• D. Hess's law

Explanation: A transformer operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction, converting AC voltage levels between primary and secondary coils based on their turns ratio.

Q146. When the PN junction is reverse-biased, its reverse current is of the order of:

• A. Gigaamperes
• B. Kiloamperes
• C. Megaamperes
• D. Microamperes✓

Explanation: The reverse current in a reverse-biased PN junction is of the order of microamperes to nanoamperes, indicating a very small current compared to forward bias conditions.

Q147. For longitudinal waves,

• A. The particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the wave's propagation
• B. The particles of the medium remain stationary as the wave passes through
• C. The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave's propagation✓
• D. Their velocity is enhanced when they travel through vacuum

Explanation: The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave's propagation in a longitudinal wave.

Q148. According to the principle of superimposition, when 2 or more waves overlap at a point in space, the amplitude of the resultant wave at that point is

• A. Always zero
• B. The product of the individual wave amplitude
• C. The product of the frequencies of the individual waves
• D. The sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves✓

Explanation: The amplitude of the resultant wave at a point where two or more waves overlap is the algebraic sum of the individual amplitudes of those waves.

Q149. The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gàs is NOT dependent on

• A. Density
• B. Moisture
• C. Pressure✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The speed of sound is influenced by the medium through which it travels, temperature, density, elasticity, humidity.

Q150. A tuning fork having angular frequency equal 440Hz produces sound waves which travel with the speed of 340 m/s. What is the separation between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of the sound waves?

• A. 0.57 m
• B. 0.38 m✓
• C. 0.77 m
• D. 0.87 m

Explanation: Step 1:First, find the wavelength of the sound wave using the formula:wavelength = speed ÷ frequency= 340 ÷ 440= 0.7727 metersStep 2:In a longitudinal wave like sound, the distance between a compression and the next rarefaction is half of the wavelength.So, separation = 0.7727 ÷ 2= 0.38635 meters

Q151. The momentum of moving photon is:

• A. mc2
• B. I/h
• C. h/λ✓
• D. zero

Explanation: p=hf/cfrom this equation momentum becomes h/λ

Q152. A police car, with its siren on, is moving towards a stationary listener. How does the stationary listener receive the frequency of the sound emitted by the siren? It

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Stays the same
• D. Varies randomly

Explanation: Frequency of the sound increases as source moves towards the stationary observer.

Q153. In every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body:

• A. Decreases✓
• B. Increases two times
• C. Increases four times
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: The wavelength associated with a freely falling body decreases as it falls faster (due to increasing velocity) over time. This illustrates the wave-particle duality of matter, where even macroscopic objects can have associated wavelengths, albeit extremely small.

Q154. In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases?

• A. The temperature decreases
• B. The temperature increases✓
• C. The temperature remains constant
• D. Temperature increases first then decreases

Explanation: During an adiabatic process, when the volume of a gas decreases, its temperature increases due to the work done on the gas, which raises its internal energy.

Q155. As per 2nd photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is?

• A. Below the threshold frequency✓
• B. Equals the threshold frequency
• C. Three times the threshold frequency
• D. Twice the threshold frequency

Explanation: The photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is below the threshold frequency of the material.

Q156. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following statement is true?

• A. Pressure and temperature of the gas increase
• B. The internal energy of the gas increases
• C. The temperature of the gas remains constant✓
• D. The work done by the gas is zero

Explanation: C is the correct option.

Q157. If an electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from second to first orbit, the emitted radiation has a wavelength of?

• A. 4/3RH✓
• B. 3/4RH
• C. RH
• D. 4RH

Explanation: 1/λ =RH (1/n12-1/n22)= RH (1/12-1/22)λ =4/3RH

Q158. Consider an ideal gas confined to the cylinder with a fixed piston, on heating the gas, all the heat supplied increases

• A. Kinetic energy of the molecules✓
• B. Potential Energy of the molecules
• C. The intermolecular forces between gas molecules
• D. The number of gas molecules

Explanation: For an ideal gas, the internal energy (U) is directly related to its temperature. Heating the gas increases its internal energy. The increase in internal energy results in a rise in the temperature of the gas

Q159. Black body is an ideal radiator that radiates ................. at all wavelengths.

• A. Inconsistently
• B. Distinctly
• C. Equally✓
• D. Unequally

Explanation: While a black body emits radiation across all wavelengths, the distribution of that radiation is not equal in intensity; it follows a specific curve that peaks at a wavelength determined by the body's temperature

Q160. What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent?

• A. Becomes four times✓
• B. Doubles
• C. Increases by half
• D. Triples

Explanation: When the separation between the two charges is decreased by 50%, the force between them increases to four times its original value

Q161. Mass number A refers to ..............

• A. Number of electrons
• B. Number of nucleons✓
• C. Number of neutrons
• D. Number of protons

Explanation: The sum of atomic number (Z) and number of neutrons is called atomic mass(A). Protons and neutrons are collectively called nucleons.

Q162. According to Coulomb's law, what happens to the electrostatic force between the 2-point charges if the distance between them is doubled?

• A. The force becomes one-fourth✓
• B. The force becomes half
• C. The force doubles
• D. The force remains the same

Explanation: A is the correct option.

Q163. A wheels makes 3 complete revolutions.What is the total number of radians through which a point on wheel has rotated?

• A. 2π
• B. 3π
• C. 6π✓
• D. 9π

Explanation: 1 rev=2πradTotal radians= 3rev x 2rad=6π radians

Q164. λ is a ............ constant.

• A. Decay✓
• B. Dielectric
• C. Plank's
• D. Proportionality

Explanation: This term generally refers to a reduction in quantity or intensity, particularly in contexts like radioactive decay

Q165. For rigid body that rotates about a fixed axis, the angle swept out by a line passing through any point on the body and intersecting the axis of rotation perpendicularly is called ?

• A. angular acceleartion
• B. angular displacement✓
• C. angular momentum
• D. angular velocity

Explanation: The angle through which an object rotates about a fixed point or axis, measured in radians (rad) or degrees, representing the change in angular position.

Q166. What does one Coulomb represent in terms of charge?

• A. The amount of charge transported by a current of 1 Ampere in 1 second✓
• B. The charge of 1 proton
• C. The charge of 1 electron
• D. The charge required to create a force of 1 Newton between two charges separated by 1 meter

Explanation: I=Q/tQ will be 1C if time is 1second and current is 1ampere.

Q167. Two points charges, +5µC and -5µC are placed at points A and B, respectively, which are separated by a distance 2d. What is the electric potential at the midpoint M of the line joining A and B?

• A. 2kQ/d
• B. kQ/d
• C. -kQ/d
• D. zero✓

Explanation: The electric potential between the midpoint of two opposite charges with equal magnitudes is always zero.

Q168. Gamma ray camera can observe radiations from the .............. that are concentrated in the organs.

• A. Atoms
• B. Isotopes✓
• C. Nucleons
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: This option is correct. Isotopes are forms of elements that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Certain isotopes are radioactive and emit gamma rays. In medical imaging, radioactive isotopes are used to observe the radiations concentrated in organs, making them ideal for gamma ray cameras.

Q169. In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do?

• A. Has no effect inside the spaceship
• B. Increases spaceship's rotation
• C. Pulls objects towards the centre.
• D. Pushes the objects towards the outer wall✓

Explanation: In a rotating spaceship, the centripetal force is crucial for producing artificial gravity by pushing occupants against the walls of the spaceship, simulating the effects of gravitational pull.

Q170. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance

• A. Increases four times✓
• B. Increases six times
• C. Is doubled
• D. Remains the same

Explanation: When the distance between the plates is reduced to half and the area of the plates is doubled, the capacitance increases to four times its original value.

Q171. A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path?

• A. The car's inertia resisting any change in direction
• B. The car's mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle
• C. The engine's power pushing the car forward
• D. The friction between the tyres and the road✓

Explanation: The necessary centripetal force for a car moving in a circular path at a constant speed is primarily provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road.

Q172. If the dielectric material between the plates of the capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?

• A. The electric field becomes zero
• B. The electric field decreases
• C. The electric field increases✓
• D. The electric field remains the same

Explanation: When the dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor is removed, the electric field (E) between the plates generally increases.

Q173. Capacitance of a capacitor increases with a decrease in:

• A. Dielectric constant
• B. Plate area
• C. Permittivity
• D. Plate separation✓

Explanation: Increasing the plate separation (d) decreases the capacitance, as the capacitance is inversely proportional to the distance between the plates. This is because a greater distance requires a larger voltage to store the same amount of charge.

Q174. The I-V Graph for a non-Ohmic material is always

• A. Curved✓
• B. Horizontal
• C. Linear
• D. Perpendicular

Explanation: The I-V graph of non-ohmic materials is characterized by a curved shape rather than a straight line, indicating a non-linear relationship between current and voltage.

Q175. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its Sl unit?

• A. Energy- Newton
• B. Force - Joule
• C. Power - joule
• D. Velocity - m/s✓

Explanation: The SI unit of velocity is m/s.

Q176. Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per

• A. Degree rise in temperature✓
• B. Unit increase in electric current
• C. Unit decrease in capacitance
• D. Degree drop in temperature

Explanation: The temperature coefficient of resistance (α) is defined as the increase in resistance per ohm of the original resistance per degree Celsius change in temperature.

Q177. For metals, the temperature coefficient of resistance is:

• A. Infinity
• B. Negative
• C. Positive✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: The coefficient of temperature for resistance in metals is positive.

Q178. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 100-Watt bulb and 200-Watt bulb designed to operate on the same voltage, then resistance of:

• A. R1 is two times R2✓
• B. R2 is two times R1
• C. R2 is four times R1
• D. R1 is four times R2

Explanation: The power formula P = V^2/R can be rearranged to find the resistance R = V^2/P. For the same voltage V, the resistance is inversely proportional to power. Therefore, R1 (100-W bulb) = V^2/100 and R2 (200-W bulb) = V^2/200. This means R1 is twice R2 because 100 is half of 200.Option A is correct because it correctly applies the inverse relationship between power and resistance. Options B, C, and D fail to apply this relationship accurately.

Q179. The maximum power transfer theorem states that maximum power is delivered to the load when

• A. The load resistance is half of the source resistance
• B. The load resistance is zero
• C. The load resistance is double the source resistance
• D. The load resistance is equal to the source resistance✓

Explanation: When the load resistance matches the source resistance, the system operates at optimal efficiency, ensuring that the maximum possible power is transferred to the load.

Q180. Electron Volt (eV) is another unit of

• A. Charge
• B. Current
• C. Energy✓
• D. Power

Explanation: Energy can be measured in electron volts.

Q181. An electron is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, which of the following is correct statement about electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• A. Force acting is equal to electron charge
• B. Force acting is equal to the magnetic field strength
• C. Force acting is maximum✓
• D. Zero force is acting on it

Explanation: F=qvBsin(θ)where θ is the angle between magnetic field and the chargesince theta is 90 degrees here and sin 90 is 1 hence the force will be maximum.

Q182. .............. is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with constant velocity?

• A. Friction
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Mass
• D. Weight

Explanation: Inertia is the property of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. An object at rest tends to stay at rest, and an object in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force. Inertia is directly related to mass: the greater the mass, the greater the inertia.

Q183. A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved?

• A. Kinetic energy alone✓
• B. Momentum alone
• C. Momentum and kinetic energy both
• D. Neither kinetic energy nor momentum

Explanation: The momentum is not conserved due to external forces such as reaction force of the tree acting on the car once it hits the tree. Also as it is inelastic collisions so kinetic energy will also not be conserved

Q184. The vertical and horizontal component of the projectile motion are

• A. Correlated with each other
• B. Dependent on each other
• C. Independent of each other✓
• D. Associated with each other

Explanation: This option is correct, since the horizontal velocity remains constant while the vertical velocity is affected by factors such as weight and acceleration due to gravity.

Q185. A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a high cliff with an initial speed of 15m/s. After 2 seconds, which of the following statement describes the ball's horizontal and vertical components?

• A. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards✓
• B. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 15m/s downwards
• C. The horizontal velocity is 30m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards
• D. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 0m/s

Explanation: The horizontal velocity (vx) remains constant because there are no horizontal forces acting on the ball (ignoring air resistance).The vertical component of velocity increases due to gravity. The vertical velocity can be calculated using the formula: vy=g⋅t. which will become 9.8 x 2=19.6 approx. 20m/s.

Q186. How does an angle between the force applied the direction of motion influence the work done or object?

• A. Work is constant regardless of the angle
• B. Work is maximum when the angle is 0°✓
• C. Work is negative when the angle is 90°
• D. Work is 0 when the angle is 45°

Explanation: Work is maximum when angle is zero because cos 0 is 1.

Q187. A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by the patient's weight?

• A. Half of the work
• B. Maximum work
• C. Minimum work
• D. No work✓

Explanation: since the patient weight is in downward direction and motion is in forward direction so both are perpendicular and makes an angle of 90 degrees so cos 90 is 0 so work will also be zero

Q188. If a constant force of 10N is applied to move a object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done

• A. 2 J
• B. 5 J
• C. 15 J
• D. 50 J✓

Explanation: W=F d cosθ= (10)(5)cos(0)=50J

Q189. What happens when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase?

• A. They cancel each other out resulting in a destructive interference
• B. They combine to form a wave double the amplitude, resulting in constructive interference✓
• C. They produce a wave with zero amplitude
• D. They produce a wave with the same amplitude as the individual waves

Explanation: This option is correct. When two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase (their peaks and troughs align), they combine constructively, resulting in a wave with an amplitude that is the sum of their individual amplitudes, effectively doubling it.

Q190. Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

• A. It is along the axis of the coil✓
• B. It is circular around the wires
• C. It is strongest at the ends of the solenoid
• D. It is zero when current flows through it

Explanation: Magnetic field inside the solenoid is stronger as compared to outside the solenoid.

Q191. One-meter-long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla what is the value of induced emf?

• A. 12 V✓
• B. 19.4 V
• C. 20.6 V
• D. 25 V

Explanation: induced emf=B⋅L⋅v =0.6T×1m×20m/s =12 V

Q192. The inductance of a coil depends on

• A. Number of turns✓
• B. Resistance of the wire used
• C. Type of insulation used on the wire
• D. Voltage applied to the coil

Explanation: The inductance of a coil depends on the number of turns, the core material, the cross-sectional area, the length of the coil, the spacing between turns, and the frequency of the current.

Q193. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

• A. Angle on which it is thrown
• B. Both mass of the body and the angle at which it is thrown
• C. Mass of earth✓
• D. Mass of the body

Explanation: Escape velocity depends on mass of Earth and radius of the body escaping.

Q194. When the mass of a body moving along a circle becomes half and radius becomes double, and v is constant, the centripetal force becomes?

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. One fourth✓
• D. Remains same

Explanation: the centripetal force becomes one-fourth of its original value when the mass is halved and the radius is doubled, but since vvv is constant, the centripetal force remains the same in terms of its requirement to keep the motion uniform. Therefore, in the context of the problem, the force required to maintain circular motion is unaffected by these changes in mass and radius.

Q195. Read the following statements and identify the best cause-and-effect relation:i. Sara's productivity at work has significantly decreased over the past month.ii. Sara has been experiencing frequent interruptions due to ongoing construction work near her office.Which of the following best describes the cause-and-effect relationship.

• A. Sara's decreased productivity is causing the construction work.
• B. The ongoing construction work is causing Sara's decreased productivity.✓
• C. Sara's productivity was already decreasing before the construction work began.
• D. The construction work is unrelated to Sara's productivity.

Explanation: The construction work is causing Sara's decreased productivity. This directly links the interruptions from construction to her decline in productivity, indicating that the construction is a disruptive factor in her work environment.

Q196. A store offers a 10% discount on all items. After applying the discount, the price of an item is Rs. 450. What was the original price of the item?

• A. Rs. 490
• B. Rs. 495
• C. Rs. 500✓
• D. Rs. 505

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Rs. 500. To find the original price before the discount, we can set up the equation based on the final price after the discount. A 10% discount means that the customer pays 90% of the original price. Thus, if the final price is Rs. 450, we can express this as:0.9 * Original Price = 450To find the original price, we divide 450 by 0.9:Original Price = 450 / 0.9 = Rs. 500Now, let's evaluate the other options:Option A (Rs. 490) is incorrect because a 10% discount on Rs. 490 gives Rs. 441. Option B (Rs. 495) is incorrect as well because it results in Rs. 445.50 after discount. Option D (Rs. 505) leads to a discounted price of Rs. 454.50. Only Option C correctly satisfies the condition given in the question.

Q197. I went 10m to the East from my house, then turned north and walked another 15m, and then I turned west and covered 12m, and then turned south and covered 15m. How far am I from my house?

• A. 0 m
• B. 1 m
• C. 2 m✓
• D. 3 m

Explanation: To determine how far you are from your house, consider each movement:Starting from the house at the origin (0,0), moving 10m east places you at (10,0).Then, moving 15m north takes you to (10,15).Next, moving 12m west brings you to (-2,15).Finally, moving 15m south results in your final coordinates being (-2,0).Your distance from the house (0,0) to (-2,0) is 2m. Thus, Option C is correct, while the other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the final distance from the starting point.

Q198. If a>b, b>c, and d>a then?

• A. b<d✓
• B. a<c
• C. b>d
• D. c>d

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Since d>a and a>b, we can conclude that b<d by transitive property (if a>b and d>a, then d>b.

Q199. Find out the missing term in the sequence: 15, 14,12, 9?

• A. 5✓
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8

Explanation: The differences between consecutive terms in the sequence are as follows:From 15 to 14, the difference is 1.From 14 to 12, the difference is 2.From 12 to 9, the difference is 3.This shows that the differences are increasing by 1 each time.To find the next term, we can continue this pattern:The next difference would be 4.So, we subtract 4 from the last term (9):9−4=5Thus, the missing term in the sequence is 5.

Q200. All omnivores are herbivores. No herbivores are carnivores. Some carnivores are humans. Which of the following conclusions are TRUE? CONCLUSIONS: I. Some humans are carnivores. II. No carnivores are omnivores. III. Some omnivores are carnivores.

• A. I and II✓
• B. I and III
• C. II and III
• D. III

Explanation: I. Some humans are carnivores.This conclusion is true because the statement explicitly states that some carnivores are humans.II. No carnivores are omnivores.This conclusion is also true. Since all omnivores are herbivores and no herbivores are carnivores, it logically follows that no carnivores can be omnivores.III. Some omnivores are carnivores.This conclusion is false. The first and second statements indicate that omnivores cannot be carnivores due to the established separation between herbivores and carnivores.Based on this analysis, the true conclusions are I and II.