Kpk Mdcat 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. _ is spread through sexual contact:

• A. Gonorrhea✓
• B. Influenza
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Cholera

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q2. The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to:

• A. Amoeba
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. Virus

Q3. The cells found in the lacunae of the bone are called:

• A. Chondrocytes
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Osteoclasts✓
• D. Osteocytes

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q4. Where are spindle fibres attached on a chromosome during cell division?

• A. Centromere✓
• B. Histone proteins
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Telomere

Q5. The _ surrounds the muscle fiber of the skeletal muscle:

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. Myofibrils
• C. Endomysium
• D. Sarcoplasm✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q6. Which organelle contributes towards steroid production?

• A. Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Lysosome
• D. Ribosomes

Q7. What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction?

• A. Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
• B. Released from the myosin head
• C. Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum✓
• D. Exchanged for sodium ions

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q8. The lysosomes found in eukaryotes contain:

• A. Hydrolytic enzymes✓
• B. Meiotic enzymes
• C. Oxidative enzymes
• D. Mitotic enzymes

Q9. Which of the following blood groups has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum?

• A. A
• B. AB
• C. B
• D. O✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q10. Plasma membrane is differentially permeable due to the presence of:

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Lipids✓
• C. Proteins
• D. Vitamins

Q11. What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I?

• A. Chromosomes duplicate without any exchange of parts
• B. Homologous chromosomes exchange different pairs leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation✓
• C. Homologous chromosomes exchange identical parts, resulting in no genetic variation
• D. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q12. The genetic makeup that your parents have transferred to you for your hair color makes up your:

• A. Genotype✓
• B. Karyotype
• C. Phenotype
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q13. The following function/activity is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system:

• A. Cardiac muscle contraction
• B. Salivation
• C. Smooth muscle contraction
• D. Thoughts and emotions✓

Q14. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant’s supply of:

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Lipids
• C. Nitrates✓
• D. Water

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q15. A motor neuron:

• A. Carries impulse from effectors to CNS
• B. Carries impulse from receptors to CNS
• C. Carries impulse from CNS to muscles✓
• D. Connects sensory nerves to ganglions

Q16. Which is true for an X-linked dominant trait?

• A. All female offspring of the affected father will be affected✓
• B. Half of the female offspring of the affected father will be affected
• C. No male offspring of an affected mother will be affected
• D. No female offspring of the affected father will be affected

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q17. Diffusion of _ across the post synaptic membrane causes it to depolarize:

• A. Calcium ions
• B. Chloride ions
• C. Potassium ions
• D. Sodium ions✓

Q18. Malpighian tubules are found in:

• A. Earthworm
• B. Grasshopper✓
• C. Leech
• D. Slug

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q19. A reflex action does not involve the:

• A. Brain✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Sensory neuron
• D. Spinal cord

Q20. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

• A. Free radicals
• B. Hydrogen peroxide
• C. Interferons✓
• D. Oxygen

Q21. What happens to the enzyme after an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

• A. Reduced to inactive form
• B. Becomes inert
• C. Changes into substrate
• D. Used for another reaction✓

Q22. Catalase can be activated at pH:

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 7✓

Q23. Sharks belong to class:

• A. Chondrichthyes✓
• B. Osteichthyes
• C. Urochordata
• D. Coelenterata

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q24. Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in Streptococcus?

• A. Carry fewer genes than the chromosome
• B. Replicate autonomously from the chromosome
• C. They are considered as genetic elements
• D. The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication✓

Q25. Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by?

• A. Heavy metal ions✓
• B. Light
• C. Acid
• D. Base

Q26. Canal system is a characteristic of:

• A. Cnidarians
• B. Protozoans
• C. Porifera✓
• D. Segmented worms

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q27. Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?

• A. Both gram-negative and positive bacteria
• B. Gram-negative
• C. Gram-positive✓
• D. Mycobacteria

Q28. A competitive inhibitor:

• A. Accelerates the chemical reaction
• B. Competes with the enzyme
• C. Is irreversible
• D. Is reversible✓

Q29. Mantle is the feature of

• A. Annelids
• B. Arthropods
• C. Echinoderms
• D. Molluscs✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q30. Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide evidence of:

• A. Convergent evolution✓
• B. Divergent evolution
• C. No evolution
• D. Same origin

Q31. The production of energy is:

• A. Faster in anaerobic respiration✓
• B. Faster in aerobic respiration
• C. The same in both types of respiration
• D. Not associated with respiration

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q32. The embryological stages of _ show similarity in anatomical features.

• A. All living things
• B. All non-vertebrates
• C. All vertebrates✓
• D. Human, jellyfish, and mouse

Q33. The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by microorganism, is called:

• A. Lactic acid fermentation
• B. Alcoholic fermentation✓
• C. Cellular respiration
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q34. _ is used in the production of Humulin.

• A. Fungi
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Protozoa
• D. Virus

Q35. Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?

• A. Amylase✓
• B. Lipase
• C. Peptidase
• D. Protease

Q36. Chromosome is typically made up from a combination of:

• A. DNA and protein✓
• B. DNA and RNA
• C. RNA and lipids
• D. RNA and proteins

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q37. Which of the following does NOT relate to smooth muscles?

• A. Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
• B. Have spindle-shaped cells
• C. Line the wall of the heart✓
• D. Lack striations

Q38. Which cytoplasmic organelle makes their own proteins?

• A. Chromosomes
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Mitochondria✓
• D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q39. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?

• A. Cholecystokinin
• B. Gastrin✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Secretin

Q40. Which term best describes an organism’s physical characteristics?

• A. Allele
• B. Genetic code
• C. Genotype
• D. Trait✓

Q41. The active movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due to:

• A. Cyclosis✓
• B. Endoplasmic streaming movements
• C. Golgi apparatus
• D. Transfer RNA

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q42. In an inflammatory response, bradykinin causes?

• A. Activation of natural killer cells
• B. Blockage in blood vessels
• C. Constriction of blood vessels
• D. Leakage of fluid from blood vessels✓

Q43. What will happen with the addition of salt to water?

• A. Water potential will increase
• B. Water potential will remain the same
• C. Osmotic potential will increase✓
• D. Osmotic potential will remain the same

Q44. Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Cerebellum✓
• C. Hippocampus
• D. Medulla oblongata

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q45. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

• A. Antibodies from mother’s milk✓
• B. Previous chickenpox infection
• C. Inactivated polio vaccine
• D. Live polio vaccine

Q46. The neurotransmitter _ is hydrolyzed by monoamine oxidase:

• A. Acetylcholine
• B. Adrenaline✓
• C. Serotonin
• D. Glutamate

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q47. Bacteria that lack flagella are called?

• A. Amphitrichous
• B. Atrichous✓
• C. Lophotrichous
• D. Peritrichous

Q48. Most of the neurons in the CNS are:

• A. Bipolar
• B. Multipolar✓
• C. Pseudo unipolar
• D. Unipolar

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q49. Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?

• A. Contain DNA
• B. Can replicate on their own✓
• C. Can infect bacteria
• D. They have a sub-cellular structure

Q50. Antibiotics can be used against:

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Influenza
• C. Polio
• D. Salmonella typhi✓

Q51. The genetic code is bound by a lipid membrane in:

• A. Enterovirus
• B. Hepatitis A virus
• C. Flu virus✓
• D. Polio virus

Q52. How do enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by?

• A. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate
• B. Increase the activation energy
• C. Increase the substrate concentration
• D. Lowering the activation energy✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q53. The _ in semen facilitate the transport of sperms.

• A. Androgen
• B. Prostaglandins✓
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Testosterone

Q54. The process of ATP synthesis through a combination of chemical and osmotic events is known as:

• A. Fermentation
• B. Glycolysis
• C. Oxidative phosphorylation✓
• D. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

Q55. Acidity of urine is neutralized by?

• A. Cowper's gland✓
• B. Prostate gland
• C. Seminal vesicle
• D. Vas deferens

Q56. According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is:

• A. Inheritance of acquired characteristics✓
• B. Mutation
• C. Natural selection
• D. Survival of the fittest

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q57. Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV virus found?

• A. Surrounding the viral core
• B. Inside the capsid✓
• C. In the protein spikes
• D. Outside the capsid

Q58. The corpus luteum is essentially formed from:

• A. Graafian follicle✓
• B. Ovum
• C. Oogonium
• D. Oocyte

Q59. What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the baleen whale?

• A. Analogous to the fin of living fish
• B. Fossil structure from an extinct animal
• C. Homologous structure of the wings of a bat
• D. Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q60. The outer layer of uterus is called as:

• A. Endometrium
• B. Myometrium
• C. Mesometrium
• D. Perimetrium✓

Q61. Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall?

• A. Chief cells secrete intrinsic factor
• B. Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen
• C. Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor✓
• D. Hormonal secretions activate the stomach lining

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q62. Viruses can NOT:

• A. Crystallize
• B. Mutate
• C. Excrete✓
• D. Infect bacteria

Q63. Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8✓

Q64. Sugarcane contains _.

• A. Fructose
• B. Glucose
• C. Sucrose✓
• D. Ribose

Q65. Sickle cell anaemia results from:

• A. Reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin
• B. Linkage between the polypeptide chains in the haemoglobin molecule
• C. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule✓
• D. Viral infections of RNA viruses

Q66. What is the ester of fatty acids and long-chain alcohol this called?

• A. Phospholipid
• B. Glycerol
• C. Acylglycerol
• D. Wax✓

Q67. Which is INCORRECT about the globular proteins?

• A. Are spherical in shape
• B. Soluble in water
• C. Abundantly found in hair✓
• D. Have polypeptide chains

Q68. Lipids, which do not contain fatty acid are:

• A. Phosphatidic acids
• B. Steroids✓
• C. Waxes
• D. Neutral lipids

Q69. Which one of the following r molecules has a zero-G dipolemoment?

• A. BF✓
• B. NF3
• C. NH3
• D. H2O

Q70. The unhybridized p orbital in sp hybridization is:

• A. in the same plane
• B. Out of the plane
• C. Parallel to sp² orbitals
• D. Perpendicular to sp² orbitals✓
• E.

Q71. 760 torr is equal to Pascal

• A. 1
• B. 76
• C. 760
• D. 101325✓

Q72. How many grams of CO2 can be produced by thermally decomposing 10 moles of ZnCO3?

• A. 320
• B. 360
• C. 400
• D. 440✓

Q73. The homolytic fission of C-H bond in an alkane result in

• A. Alkyl free radical✓
• B. Carbanion
• C. Carbocation
• D. Methylpropane

Q74. Addition of HBr to isobutylene mainly gives

• A. isobutyl bromide
• B. n-butyl bromide
• C. sec-butyl bromide
• D. tert-butyl bromide✓

Q75. Dehydrohalogenation of alkylhalide is carried out in presence of

• A. Alcoholic KOH✓
• B. Aqueous KOH
• C. Conc. H2SO4
• D. Zn dust

Q76. he pk of n-propyl amine is

• A. 3.24
• B. 3,28
• C. 3.32✓
• D. 3.35

Q77. The carbon atom carrying positive charge and attached to three other atoms or groups is called

• A. Carbanion
• B. Carbene
• C. Carbocation✓
• D. Oxonium

Q78. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

• A. ethyl alcohol
• B. isopropyl alcohol
• C. n-propyl alcohol✓
• D. tert-butyl alcohol

Q79. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium produces

• A. Aldehyde
• B. Alkoxide✓
• C. Ethane
• D. Ethene

Q80. Molar heat of vaporization of water is

• A. 40.7 cal/mol
• B. 40.7 J/mol
• C. 40.7 kcal/mol
• D. 40.7 kJ/mol✓

Q81. Oxidation of secondary alcohol gives

• A. carboxylic acid
• B. ether
• C. ketone✓
• D. phenol

Q82. Distillation under very reduced pressure is distillation

• A. Destructive
• B. Steam
• C. Fractional
• D. Vacuum✓

Q83. Which aldehyde is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition?

• A. Acetaldehyde
• B. Butyraldehyde
• C. Formaldehyde✓
• D. Propionaldehyde

Q84. Acetic acid can be prepared by the hydrolysis of

• A. ethanal
• B. ethanol
• C. methanoic acid
• D. methyl cyanide✓

Q85. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

• A. Angle on which it is thrown
• B. Both mass of the body and the angle at which it is thrown
• C. Mass of earth✓
• D. Mass of the body

Q86. protein present in haemoglobin has _ structure

• A. primrary
• B. secondary
• C. tertiary
• D. quaternary✓

Q87. Choose the sentence with the correct tense and sentence structure:

• A. He is going to the market yesterday.
• B. I had been waiting for the bus, and it arrives.
• C. She will finish her homework before she went to bed.
• D. They were playing football when it started to rain.✓

Q88. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor

• A. Binds with substrate
• B. Competes with enzyme
• C. Competes with substrate✓
• D. Irreversibly binds with enzyme

Q89. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• B. My father is talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• C. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fell from the bicycle.✓
• D. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I am falling from the bicycle.

Q90. How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)?

• A. 2✓
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8

Q91. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. She didn't knew about the surprise party.
• B. She hasn't knew about the surprise party.
• C. She didn't know about the surprise party✓
• D. She doesn't knew about the surprise party

Q92. After she _ the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion.

• A. Has climbed
• B. Have climbed
• C. Had climbed✓
• D. Was climbing

Q93. Punctuate the given sentence correctly. The teacher asked did you complete your homework.

• A. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework?
• B. The teacher asked, "Did you complete your homework?✓
• C. The teacher asked, "did you complete your homework".
• D. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework.

Q94. Punctuate the following sentence correctly. Lets meet at Sarahs house after school

• A. Let's meet at Sarah's house after school.✓
• B. Let's meet at Sarahs' house after school.
• C. Lets meet at Sarah's house after school.
• D. Let's meet, at Sarah's house after school

Q95. Do you usually take a bus...the market?

• A. By
• B. For
• C. Of
• D. To✓

Q96. He has been working _ weeks.

• A. At
• B. By
• C. To
• D. On✓

Q97. Identify the sentence that contains an ERROR in word order, style, or vocabulary:

• A. He has a talent for solving complex problems.
• B. She enjoys reading, writing, and to paint.✓
• C. The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.
• D. They quickly adapted to the new environment.

Q98. Heating 24.8g of copper carbonate (CuCO3) in a crucible produced only 13.9g of copper oxide (CuO). What is the percentage yield of copper oxide?

• A. 81.79%
• B. 83.98%
• C. 86.87%✓
• D. 89.68%

Q99. Identify the ERROR in the sentence: The chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal.

• A. Punctuation
• B. Style
• C. Vocabulary
• D. Word order✓

Q100. Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating

• A. Actual yield
• B. Theoretical yield
• C. Percentage yield✓
• D. Amount of the reactant unused

Q101. Order is the law of civilization as chaos is the law of the _. The most appropriate word to be filled in is:

• A. City
• B. Universe
• C. Wilderness✓
• D. Metropolis

Q102. The example of metallic solid is

• A. B
• B. C
• C. Cu✓
• D. Si

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q103. Blueprint is to architect as algorithm is to:

• A. Designer
• B. Engineer
• C. Physician
• D. Programmer✓

Q104. Actual yield will reach the ideal (theoretical) value if the % yield of the reaction is,

• A. 10%
• B. 50%
• C. 90%
• D. 100%✓

Q105. Which of the following sub-shell does not exist?

• A. 1p✓
• B. 1s
• C. 5d
• D. 6f

Q106. when a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, the property is

• A. allotropy
• B. anisotropy✓
• C. isomorphism
• D. polymorphism

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q107. Regular exercise has been shown to improve overall health by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, such as heart disease and diabetes. Additionally, exercise enhances mental well-being by reducing stress, anxiety, and depression. Despite these benefits, many people find it challenging to maintain a consistent exercise routine due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation." Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements can be inferred?

• A. Busy schedules and lack of motivation are barriers to regular exercise.✓
• B. Chronic diseases cannot be prevented by regular exercise
• C. Exercise is only beneficial for physical health, not mental health
• D. People who exercise regularly never experience stress or anxiety

Q108. The splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is

• A. Aufbau principle
• B. Pauli exclusion principle
• C. Stark effect
• D. Zeeman effect✓

Q109. Which of the following words is a synonym for "meticulous"?

• A. Abhorrent
• B. Heedless
• C. Precise✓
• D. Incautious

Q110. Which element has the electronic configuration of noble-gas notation [Kr], 5s², 4d²

• A. Mo
• B. Se
• C. Sr
• D. Zr✓

Q111. A person who sells goods and services is a

• A. Consumer
• B. Purchaser
• C. Patron
• D. Vendor✓

Q112. Total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of central atom in water are

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4✓
• D. 5

Q113. forward reaction is the one that

• A. is very slow at the beginning of the reaction
• B. reacts to form reactants
• C. speeds up gradually and at equilibrium its rate becomes constant
• D. takes place from left to right as given in chemical equation✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q114. What is the mass of 1 mole of calcium carbonate (CaCO3)?

• A. 50g
• B. 75g
• C. 100g✓
• D. 125g

Q115. The detective noticed a subtle change in the suspect's tone when he asked about his whereabouts on the night of the crime, which hinted at something more significant. What does "subtle" most likely mean?

• A. Notable
• B. Slight✓
• C. Dramatic
• D. Obvious

Q116. Which one of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure?

• A. C2H4
• B. CH4
• C. H₂O
• D. NH3✓

Q117. Despite the complicated situation, she remained _, calmly assessing her options before deciding. Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice:

• A. Composed✓
• B. Frantic
• C. Hysterical
• D. Erratic

Q118. Find out synonym of "Elated":

• A. Confused
• B. Nervous
• C. Overjoyed✓
• D. Disappointed

Q119. When the mass of a body moving along a circle becomes half and radius becomes double, and v is constant, the centripetal force becomes?

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. One-fourth✓
• D. Remains Same

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q120. Read the following statements and identify the best cause-and-effect relation:i. Sara's productivity at work has significantly decreased over the past month.ii. Sara has been experiencing frequent interruptions due to ongoing construction work near her office.Which of the following best describes the cause-and-effect relationship.

• A. Sara's decreased productivity is causing the construction work.
• B. The ongoing construction work is causing Sara's decreased productivity.✓
• C. Sara's productivity was already decreasing before the construction work began.
• D. The construction work is unrelated to Sara's productivity.

Q121. For a positive charged particle (q) moving with a velocity (v) in a magnetic Filed of flux density B, the force (F) acting on the charge particle is given by the expression?

• A. q = Fv x B✓
• B. F = qv x B
• C. F= v x B/q
• D. q = v x B/F

Q122. how many moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5g of HCL, according to the neutralization reactionHCl(aq)+NaOH(aq)NaCl(aq)+H2O(I)

• A. 0.252
• B. 0.452✓
• C. 0.652
• D. 0.852

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q123. What happens when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase?

• A. They cancel each other out resulting in a destructive interference
• B. They combine to form a wave double the amplitude, resulting in constructive interference✓
• C. They produce a wave with zero amplitude
• D. They produce a wave with the same amplitude as the individual waves

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q124. A store offers a 10% discount on all items. After applying the discount, the price of an item is Rs. 450. What was the original price of the item?

• A. Rs. 490
• B. Rs. 495
• C. Rs. 500✓
• D. Rs. 505

Q125. Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

• A. It is along the axis of the coil
• B. It is circular around the wires
• C. It is strongest at the ends of the solenoid✓
• D. It is zero when current flows through it

Q126. I went 10m to the East from my house, then turned north and walked another 15m, and then I turned west and covered 12m, and then turned south and covered 15m. How far am I from my house?

• A. 0 m
• B. 1 m
• C. 2 m✓
• D. 3 m

Q127. in the production of SO3 from SO2 and oxygen, the yield of SO3 is increased by

• A. adding a catalyst
• B. adding more SO2✓
• C. increasing temperature
• D. removing oxygen

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q128. One-meter-long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla what is the value of induced emf?

• A. 12 V
• B. 19.4 V✓
• C. 20.6 V
• D. 25 V

Q129. If a>b, b>c, and d>a then?

• A. b<d✓
• B. a<c
• C. b>d
• D. c>d

Q130. Find out the missing term in the sequence: 15, 14,12, 9?

• A. 5✓
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8

Q131. The inductance of a coil depends on

• A. Number of turns✓
• B. Resistance of the wire used
• C. Type of insulation used on the wire
• D. Voltage applied to the coil

Q132. All omnivores are herbivores. No herbivores are carnivores. Some carnivores are humans. Which of the following conclusions are TRUE? CONCLUSIONS: I. Some humans are carnivores. II. No carnivores are omnivores. III. Some omnivores are carnivores.

• A. I and II✓
• B. I and III
• C. II and III
• D. III

Q133. consider N2 +3H2(g) -2NH3(g) ΔH=-92.46kj/molthe optimum temperature (C) to produce ammonia is

• A. 0
• B. 450✓
• C. 5000
• D. constant temperature

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q134. The direction of induced current is determined

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's Law✓
• C. Lenz's Law
• D. Ohm's Law

Q135. Which type of waves can be polarized?

• A. Longitudinal waves
• B. Mechanical waves
• C. Sound waves
• D. Transverse waves✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q136. Lenz's law is consistent with the

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's law
• C. Law of conservation of energy
• D. Ohm's Law✓

Q137. The basic principle behind the operation of the transformer is

• A. Coulomb's law
• B. Electromagnetic Induction
• C. Gas's Law✓
• D. Hess's law

Q138. When the PN junction is reverse-biased, its reverse current is of the order of:

• A. Gigaamperes
• B. Kiloamperes✓
• C. Megaamperes
• D. Microamperes

Q139. For longitudinal waves,

• A. The particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the wave's propagation
• B. The particles of the medium remain stationary as the wave passes through
• C. The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave's propagation✓
• D. Their velocity is enhanced when they travel through vacuum

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q140. the unit of Kc for the system PCl5 - PCl3 +Cl2 is

• A. dm3/mol
• B. mol/dm3✓
• C. mol/dm6
• D. mol2/dm6

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q141. According to the principle of superimposition, when 2 or more waves overlap at a point in space, the amplitude of the resultant wave at that point is

• A. Always zero
• B. The product of the individual wave amplitude
• C. The product of the frequencies of the individual waves
• D. The sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q142. The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gàs is NOT dependent on

• A. Density
• B. Moisture
• C. Pressure✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q143. A tuning fork having angular frequency equal 440Hz produces sound waves which travel with the speed of 340 m/s. What is the separation between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of the sound waves?

• A. 0.57 m
• B. 0.67 m
• C. 0.77 m✓
• D. 0.87 m

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q144. The momentum of moving photon is:

• A. mc2✓
• B. I/h
• C. h/λ
• D. zero

Q145. A police car, with its siren on, is moving towards a stationary listener. How does the stationary listener receive the frequency of the sound emitted by the siren? It

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Stays the same
• D. Varies randomly

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q146. In every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases two times
• C. Increases four times✓
• D. Remains constant

Q147. In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases?

• A. The temperature decreases
• B. The temperature increases✓
• C. The temperature remains constant
• D. The temperature first increases then decreases

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q148. As per 2nd photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is?

• A. Below the threshold frequency✓
• B. Equals the threshold frequency
• C. Three times the threshold frequency
• D. Twice the threshold frequency

Q149. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following statement is true?

• A. Pressure and temperature of the gas increase
• B. The internal energy of the gas increases
• C. The temperature of the gas remains constant✓
• D. The work done by the gas is zero

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q150. If an electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from second to first orbit, the emitted radiation has awavelength of?

• A. 4/3RH
• B. 3/4RH✓
• C. RH
• D. 4RH

Q151. Consider an ideal gas confined to the cylinder with a fixed piston, on heating the gas, all the heat supplied increases

• A. Kinetic energy of the molecules✓
• B. Potential Energy of the molecules
• C. The intermolecular forces between gas molecules
• D. The number of gas molecules

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q152. Black body is an ideal radiator that radiates ................. at all wavelengths.

• A. Inconsistently
• B. Distinctly
• C. Equally
• D. Unequally✓

Q153. What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent?

• A. Becomes four times✓
• B. Doubles
• C. Increases by half
• D. Triples

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q154. Mass number A refers to ..............

• A. Number of electrons
• B. Number of nucleons
• C. Number of neutrons
• D. Number of protons✓

Q155. According to Coulomb's law, what happens to the electrostatic force between the 2-point charges if the distance between them is doubled?

• A. The force becomes one-fourth✓
• B. The force becomes half
• C. The force doubles
• D. The force remains the same

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q156. A wheels makes 3 complete revolutions.What is the total number of radians through which a point on wheel has rotated?

• A. 2π
• B. 3π
• C. 6π✓
• D. 9π

Q157. for a first order reaction A-B, the rate constant is 0.0458 s-1 . calculate rate of the reaction if the concentration of reactant is 0.35mol dm-3

• A. 0.012 mol dm-3 s-1
• B. 0.014 mol dm-3 s-1
• C. 0.016 mol dm-3 s-1✓
• D. 0.018 mol dm-3 s-1

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q158. λ is a ............ constant.

• A. Decay
• B. Dielectric
• C. Plank's✓
• D. Proportionality

Q159. For rigid body that rotates about a fixed axis, the angle swept out by a line passing through any point on the body and intersecting the axis of rotation perpendicularly is called ?

• A. angular acceleartion
• B. angular displacement✓
• C. angular momentum
• D. angular velocity

Q160. What does one Coulomb represent in terms of charge?

• A. The amount of charge transported by a current of 1 Ampere in 1 second✓
• B. The charge of 1 proton
• C. The charge of 1 electron
• D. The charge required to create a force of 1 Newton between two charges separated by 1 meter

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q161. Two points charges, +5µC and -5µC are placed at points A and B, respectively, which are separated by a distance 2d. What is the electric potential at the midpoint M of the line joining A and B?

• A. 2kQ/d
• B. kQ/d
• C. -kQ/d
• D. zero✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q162. Gamma ray camera can observe radiations from the .............. that are concentrated in the organs.

• A. Atoms
• B. Isotopes
• C. Nucleons✓
• D. Neutrons

Q163. a reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B, the rate equation is

• A. Rate = k [A]
• B. Rate = k [A][B]
• C. Rate = k [A]2[B]
• D. Rate = k [A][B]2✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q164. In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do?

• A. Has no effect inside the spaceship
• B. Increases spaceship's rotation
• C. Pulls objects towards the centre.
• D. Pushes the objects towards the outer wal✓

Q165. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance

• A. Increases four times✓
• B. Increases six times
• C. Is doubled
• D. Remains the same

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q166. A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path?

• A. The car's inertia resisting any change in direction
• B. The car's mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle✓
• C. The engine's power pushing the car forward
• D. The friction between the tyres and the road

Q167. If the dielectric material between the plates of the capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?

• A. The electric field becomes zero
• B. The electric field decreases
• C. The electric field increases✓
• D. The electric field remains the same

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q168. what mass of aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is produced from 18.5g of Al metal, when it reacts completely with oxygen gas according to the following equation4Al(S) + 302(g) - 2Al2O3(S)

• A. 30.8g
• B. 32.6g
• C. 34.9g✓
• D. 36.5g

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q169. calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal gas expands from 15 dm3 to 20 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 2 atmospheres

• A. -10 atm.dm3✓
• B. -5 atm.dm3
• C. 5 atm.dm3
• D. 10 atm.dm3

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q170. Capacitance of a capacitor increases with a decrease in:

• A. Dielectric constant
• B. Plate area
• C. Permittivity
• D. Plate separation✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q171. The I-V Graph for a non-Ohmic material is always

• A. Curved✓
• B. Horizontal
• C. Linear
• D. Perpendicular

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q172. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its Sl unit?

• A. Energy- Newton
• B. Force - Joule
• C. Power - Watt
• D. Velocity - m/s2✓

Q173. Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per

• A. Degree rise in temperature✓
• B. Unit increase in electric current
• C. Unit decrease in capacitance
• D. Degree drop in temperature

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q174. For metals, the temperature coefficient of resistance is:

• A. Infinity
• B. Negative
• C. Positive✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q175. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 100-Watt bulb and 200-Watt bulb designed to operate on the same voltage, then power of:

• A. R1 is two times R2✓
• B. R2 is two times R1
• C. R2 is four times R1
• D. R1. is four times 02

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q176. The maximum power transfer theorem states that maximum power is delivered to the load when

• A. The load resistance is half of the source resistance
• B. The load resistance is zero
• C. The load resistance is double the source resistance
• D. The load resistance is equal to the source resistance✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q177. Electron Volt (eV) is another unit of

• A. Charge
• B. Current
• C. Energy✓
• D. Power

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q178. An electron is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, which of the following is correct statement about electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• A. Force acting is equal to electron charge
• B. Force acting is equal to the magnetic field strength
• C. Force acting is maximum✓
• D. Zero force is acting on it

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q179. .............. is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with constant velocity?

• A. Friction
• B. Inertia
• C. Mass✓
• D. Weight

Q180. A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved?

• A. Kinetic energy alone
• B. Momentum alone✓
• C. Momentum and kinetic energy both
• D. Neither kinetic energy nor momentum

Q181. The vertical and horizontal component of the projectile motion are

• A. Correlated with each other
• B. Dependent on each other
• C. Independent of each other
• D. Associated with each other✓

Q182. A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a high cliff with an initial speed of 15m/s. After 2 seconds, which of the following statement describi the ball's horizontal and vertical components?

• A. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while ver velocity is 20m/s downwards
• B. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while ver velocity is 15m/s downwards
• C. The horizontal velocity is 30m/s while ver velocity is 20m/s downwards✓
• D. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while ver velocity is 0m/s

Q183. How does an angle between the force applied the direction of motion influence the work done or object?

• A. Work is constant regardless of the angle
• B. Work is maximum when the angle is 0°
• C. Work is negative when the angle is 90°
• D. Work is 0 when the angle is 45°✓

Q184. A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by thepatient's weight?

• A. Half of the work
• B. Maximum work
• C. Minimum work✓
• D. No work

Q185. If a constant force of 10N is applied to move a object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done

• A. 2 J
• B. 5 J
• C. 15 J
• D. 50 J✓

Q186. When 1 mole of ice melts at 0° and constant pressure of 1 atmosphere, 6025 J of heat is absorbed by the system. The molar volume of ice and water are 0.020and 0.018 dm3, respectively. Calculate ΔE.(1dm3.atm=101.33J)

• A. 6010.20J
• B. 6015.20J
• C. 6020.20J
• D. 6025.20J✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q187. One slice of bread with a tablespoon of peanut butter on it contains 20g carbohydrate, 10g protein,and 9g fat. Calculate total energy consumed in this intake

• A. 158kcal
• B. 173kcal
• C. 201kcal✓
• D. 218kcal

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q188. ΔH can be measured indirectly by applying

• A. Avogadro's law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Gas's Law
• D. Hes's Law✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q189. The heat of sublimation of potassium is 98kJ/mol. The heat of dissociation of bromine gas is 192.5 kJ/mol. The ionization energy of K is 414 kJ/mol. The electron affinity of Br -334.7kJ/mol and the heat of formation of KBr is -405.8 kJ/mol. Calculate the lattice energy of KBr

• A. -679.3✓
• B. -669.5
• C. 669.5
• D. 679.3

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q190. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution?

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Ammonium hydroxide
• C. Carbonic acid
• D. Potassium iodide✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q191. When 4 g of magnesium was heated in excess of oxygen. Calculate the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide (MgO).

• A. 3.7g
• B. 4.2g
• C. 5.4g
• D. 6.6g✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q192. The electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode is chosen as

• A. -1V
• B. 0V✓
• C. 1V
• D. 2V

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q193. Electronegativity of Al is approximately equal to that of

• A. B
• B. Be✓
• C. Mg
• D. Na

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q194. Which of the following alkali metal forms only normal oxide with O2?

• A. K
• B. Li✓
• C. Na
• D. Rb

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q195. Third period element that initially reacts rapidly with oxygen to form a protective oxide coating that prevents further reactions is

• A. Al✓
• B. Mg
• C. Na
• D. Si

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q196. Cu2+ salt solution is blue in colour due to transition of electrons from

• A. d to d orbital✓
• B. p to d orbital
• C. p to p orbital
• D. s to p orbital

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q197. Potassium ferrocyanide is which type of salt?

• A. complex✓
• B. double
• C. mixed
• D. normal

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q198. Name of ketone functional group is

• A. amino
• B. carbonyl✓
• C. carboxyl
• D. formyl

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q199. Pyridine belongs to which class of organic compounds?

• A. Alicyclic
• B. Heterocyclic✓
• C. Homocyclic
• D. Hydrocarbon

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q200. .Which of the following elements cannot be detected directly in a given organic compound?

• A. chlorine
• B. nitrogen
• C. oxygen✓
• D. phosphorus

Explanation: explanation will be added soon