Kpk Mdcat Mock Paper 4 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the errors and choose the correct option:

• A. Guliver travels was written to Swift.
• B. Guliver travels was written at Swift.
• C. Guliver’s Travels was written by Swift.✓
• D. Gulivers’ Travel was written by Swift.

Explanation: Option A and Option B are incorrect since the apostrophe + ‘s’ (‘s) is absent which is needed after the noun “Gulliver” to indicate the possessive nature of the travels (i.e. to indicates that the travels were of Gulliver). Since Gulliver had more than one travel in the story, the word should be “Travels” and not “Travel”. Hence, Option D is incorrect, and Option C is correct.

Q2. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required. _ umbrella is of no avail against a thunderstorm.

• A. The
• B. A
• C. An✓
• D. No article required

Explanation: Umbrella referred here is non-specific hence the article “the” will not be used here rather a/an should. 'An' is used because the first letter of the word is vowel.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. I wish I have been a millionaire.
• B. I wish I am being a millionaire.
• C. I wish I were a millionaire.✓
• D. I wish I was a millionaire.

Explanation: The correct sentence is: I wish I were a millionaire. The sentence is used by the speaker to express an unfulfilled desire (to be a millionaire). This means that the person is referring to an event in the past that they wanted to be true. Hence, the present perfect tense and present continuous tense in Option A and Option B respectively, are incorrect. When speaking in simple past, “I was” is the correct verb form. However, for hypothetical situations such as the one given in the question, “I were” is the correct verb form. (Another example to illustrate this is the sentence “If I were you, I would go to the party”). Hence, Option C is correct

Q4. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. Samar bought an apple, an orange and an pear.
• B. Samar bought an apple a orange and a pear.
• C. Samar bought an apple, an orange, and a pear.✓
• D. Samar bought a apple, an orange and a pear.

Explanation: Option A: This sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of the comma makes the sentence grammatically incorrect.Option B: This sentence is also missing a comma before "and." Similar to option A, it should be "an orange, and a pear." The lack of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect as well.Option C: This sentence is correctly punctuated with commas. It uses the comma before "and" when listing three items. Each item in the list is separated by a comma, and the final comma (known as the Oxford comma) is used before "and." This option is grammatically correct.Option D: Similar to options A and B, this sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect.

Q5. He extolled the virtues of the Russian people. [The underlined word means:]

• A. Admired
• B. Praised✓
• C. Censured
• D. Adopted

Explanation: Extoll means to praise enthusiastically.Extol (verb) - highly praised; lauded or acclaimed.Present tense: Extol/ExtolsPresent participle: ExtollingPast tense: ExtolledPast participle: ExtolledExample Sentences:She is forever extolling the virtues of her children.The health benefits of exercise are widely extolled.They kept extolling my managerial skills.

Q6. His bad friends will ruin him.[Passive form of the sentence is.]

• A. He will be ruin by his bad friends.
• B. He is ruined by his bad friends.
• C. He will be ruined by his bad friends.✓
• D. He is being ruined by his bad friends.

Explanation: This highlights the correct structure of the passive voice where the subject is being affected. The correct use of tense is also employed, “will be ruined”, in accordance with the original, active sentence

Q7. The rising price of electricity has _ affected the less fortunate.

• A. Positively
• B. Not
• C. Adversely✓
• D. Slowly

Explanation: Adversely - in a negative, contrary, or unfavorable way or direction.The less fortunate could only be adversely (negatively) affected as they cannot afford to pay the increasing prices

Q8. 'Money Grubbing‘ impllies:

• A. Money saving
• B. Money making
• C. Money hunting✓
• D. Money spending

Explanation: By definition it means seeking greedily to obtain money.

Q9. 'Get into a soup‘ impllies:

• A. Face a predicament✓
• B. Play a game of cards
• C. Swallow a fly in soup
• D. Go for hot spicy soup

Explanation: Get into a soup’ means to be in an unpleasant or difficult situation. Predicament is a difficult, unpleasant, or embarrassing situation. So option A is correct.

Q10. I eagerly look forward _ seeing you again.

• A. at
• B. to✓
• C. on
• D. by

Explanation: The question asks you to use correct ​​Adjective + Preposition Combination. The adjective here is ‘forward’ and ‘to’ is always used with forward as a correct preposition. ‘At’ is used after adjectives like ‘employed’, ‘good’ etc. ‘On’ is used after verbs e.g. ‘depend on’. ‘By’ is used after adjectives like ‘composed’, ‘employed’, etc.

Q11. You will be the perfect in charge _ this group.

• A. of✓
• B. to
• C. by
• D. on

Explanation: In charge of’ means having control of or responsibility for something i.e. the ‘group’ in this case.

Q12. 'APPRAISE‘ means:

• A. Praise a man out of place
• B. Tell a story at bed time
• C. Evaluate the equality of✓
• D. Do shopping in a bazar

Explanation: "Appraise" means to assess, evaluate, or judge the value, quality, or worth of something or someone. It involves carefully examining the object or person to determine its characteristics, strengths, weaknesses, or potential. Appraising can be done in various contexts, such as appraising the value of a property, appraising an employee's performance, or appraising the quality of a product. It often requires expert knowledge or a critical analysis to provide an informed and accurate appraisal. Appraise means to evaluate or estimate the nature, quality, ability, extent or significance. So the most appropriate option is C.

Q13. (Fix this) Please help someone the house is ….life.

• A. at
• B. in
• C. on✓
• D. by

Explanation: c) on:This option is the correct one. "on" is used to indicate that something is physically resting or positioned on top of something else. In this case, the house is "on fire," which means the fire is burning on the surface of the house.

Q14. 'CRANKY SPOUSE‘ implies:

• A. A carefully selected loving partner of life
• B. Fussy and bad-tempered wife or husband✓
• C. Money squandering younger second wife
• D. A device fitted behind the rear seat of a car

Explanation: Cranky means to be bad-tempered or irritable, whereas spouse is ones significant other i.e theri husband or wife, therefore the answer will be B

Q15. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. The government should accrue taxes for strengthen the economy of the country.
• B. The government should accrue taxes in strengthen the economy of the country
• C. The government should accrue taxes to strengthen the economy of the country.✓
• D. The government should accrue taxes by strengthen the economy of the country.

Explanation: By comparing all four sentences ,you notice there is only one difference i.e. PREPOSITION and for fact the best suited is 'to strengthen'.

Q16. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word:CHIVALRY

• A. Coward
• B. Non-cooperative
• C. Imitating
• D. Gallant✓

Explanation: “Chivalry” is used to indicate thoughtful or attentive behavior towards someone.

Q17. The delegates in Anatolia could transfer their activities to Istanbul, put Mustafa Kamal’s ideas into practice and yet not longer stand in opposition to the Padishah.

• A. In
• B. To
• C. Into
• D. Not longer✓

Explanation: "No longer" would be correct form of expression in this sentence.

Q18. All of the following are co-enzymes except:

• A. NAD
• B. FAD
• C. NADP
• D. ADP✓

Explanation: Coenzymes are non-protein, organic compounds required by many enzymes for catalytic activity. They are often vitamins or derivatives of vitamins. The main function of coenzymes is to act as intermediate carriers of transferred electrons or functional groups in a reaction. ADP (adenosine diphosphate) is a biological molecule consisting of one adenine, one sugar, and two phosphates. Its most important role is that it is combined with a phosphate molecule to make ATP, the premier energy molecule in living cells. ADP is also used to help activate platelets in clotting. ADP is not a coenzyme.

Q19. Carotenoids pigments are:

• A. Yellow, Red, Green, Blue
• B. Orange, Yellow, Red, Brown✓
• C. Green, Yellow, Blue, Brown
• D. Blue, Red, Green, Yellow

Explanation: Photosynthetic organisms contain light-absorbing molecules called pigments that absorb only specific wavelengths of visible light while reflecting others. The set of wavelengths absorbed by a pigment is its absorption spectrum. The set of wavelengths that a pigment doesn't absorb is reflected, and the reflected light is what we see as color. Carotenoids are accessory pigment molecules that may be yellow, orange, red, or brown. They absorb light energy and transfer it to the primary pigment molecules (chlorophyll-a) within the reaction center. Carotenoids also protect the primary pigments from excessive light (photoprotection). They absorb violet and blue-green light. There are two major types of carotenoids: the hydrocarbon class, or carotenes, and the oxygenated (alcoholic) class, or xanthophylls.

Q20. Polio immunization vaccine is effective:

• A. 50%
• B. 60%
• C. 80%
• D. 90%✓

Explanation: Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a disabling and potentially deadly disease. It is caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads from person to person and can infect a person’s spinal cord, causing paralysis. There is no cure for polio, but it can be prevented with safe and effective vaccination.Two types of vaccines protect against polio, or poliomyelitis: 1. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) - It is given by a shot in the leg or arm, depending on the patient’s age. 2. Oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) - Children receive doses of the vaccine by drops in the mouth.A person is considered to be fully vaccinated if they received:Four doses of any combination of IPV and trivalent oral polio vaccine (tOPV), orA primary series of at least three doses of IPV or tOPVTwo doses of inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) are 90% effective or more against polio; three doses are 99% to 100% effective.

Q21. Balantidium coli lives in the intestinal tract of:

• A. Pigs and rats
• B. Pigs and monkeys✓
• C. Rats and dogs
• D. Cats and sheep

Explanation: Swine are the primary reservoir hosts of Balantidium coli. Humans can also be reservoirs, and other potential animal hosts include non-human primates. Balantidium coli is a normal inhabitant of the cecum and colon of non-human primates and pigs. Mode of Transmission:Balantidium coli is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. Humans can become infected by eating and drinking contaminated food and water that has come into contact with infective animal or human fecal matter. Signs and Symptoms:Balantidium coli infects the large intestine in humans and produces infective microscopic cysts that are passed in the feces, potentially leading to re-infection or infection of others. Immune-compromised people are the most likely to experience more severe signs and symptoms. These include persistent diarrhea, dysentery, abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and vomiting. If left untreated, perforation of the colon can occur.

Q22. Excited electrons from photo system-II are captured by:

• A. PC
• B. PQ✓
• C. Cytochrome-b
• D. Pentamerous

Explanation: Plastoquinone (PQ) is a quinone molecule involved in the electron transport chain associated with the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. When photosystem II absorbs energy, the primary pigment molecules in the reaction center undergo excitation and lose electrons. These electrons are accepted by plastoquinone which transfers the electrons further down the electron transport chain to plastocyanin through the cytochrome b6f complex.

Q23. Dicotyledonous flowers are usually:

• A. Clmerous
• B. Trimerous
• C. Tetramerous
• D. Pentamerous✓

Explanation: Flowering plants are divided into two broad groups by botanists: monocots and dicots. The distinction between the two is made based on the number of cotyledons present in the seed after the plant germinates. As their names suggest, monocots have one cotyledon, while dicots have two. In pentamerous flowers, the floral parts are either arranged in five or even multiples of five. The dicotyledonous flower commonly has a pentamerous symmetry.

Q24. In stomach the pepsinogen is synthesized and secreted by:

• A. Mucus cells
• B. Parietal cells
• C. Hormonal cells
• D. Chief cells✓

Explanation: Pepsinogens are synthesized and secreted primarily by the gastric chief cells of the human stomach before being converted into the proteolytic enzyme pepsin, which is crucial for digestive processes in the stomach.

Q25. Amount of O2 carried by red blood cells is:

• A. 77%
• B. 90%
• C. 87%
• D. 97%✓

Explanation: Red blood cells (also known as erythrocytes) contain a protein called hemoglobin, which carries oxygen from the lungs to all parts of the body. Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein that is found within all RBCs. Haemoglobin is made of four subunits: two alpha subunits and two beta subunits. Each subunit surrounds a central heme group that contains iron and binds one oxygen molecule, allowing each hemoglobin molecule to bind four oxygen molecules, forming oxyhemoglobin. Approximately, 97% of oxygen is carried by the red blood cells as oxyhemoglobin, while 3% is transported as dissolved oxygen in the plasma.

Q26. 6-NADH can yield:

• A. 12-ATP
• B. 38-ATP
• C. 18-ATP✓
• D. 36-ATP

Explanation: An NADH molecule on oxidation theoretically releases sufficient energy to make 3 ATP molecules. Therefore, 6 molecules of NADH can yield: 6 NADH → 6 3 = 18 molecules of ATPThe actual yield of ATP per molecule of NADH is however less. It's 2.5 molecules of ATP/NADH. Therefore, the actual yield of ATP when 6 NADH molecules undergo oxidation is: 6 NADH → 6 2.5 = 15 molecules of ATPSince 15 molecules of ATP is not given as an option, the theoretical yield of ATP i.e. 18 molecules (Option C) is the answer.

Q27. Rhizobium belong to sub group of bacteria called:

• A. Alpha-Protobacteria✓
• B. Beta-Protobacteria
• C. Gamma-Protobacteria
• D. Delta-Protobacterla

Explanation: Proteobacteria is a phylum of gram-negative bacteria. The Proteobacteria are further divided into 5 classes: Alphaproteobacteria, Betaproteobacteria, Gammaproteobacteria, Deltaproteobacteria, and Epsilonproteobacteria.The first class of Proteobacteria is the Alphaproteobacteria, many of which are obligate or facultative intracellular bacteria. Some species are characterized as oligotrophs, organisms capable of living in low-nutrient environments such as deep oceanic sediments. Rhizobium is a genus of alphaproteobacteria. Rhizobium are gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria that occur either as free-living soil bacteria or in interaction with the roots of leguminous plants.

Q28. The presence of microorganisms in drinking water is determined by:

• A. COD
• B. TOC
• C. BOD✓
• D. TDS

Explanation: Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a chemical procedure for determining the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by microorganisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at a certain temperature over a specific period. The greater the value of BOD, the more rapidly oxygen is depleted in water bodies. This means less oxygen is available to higher forms of aquatic life.

Q29. Blood pressure towards the brain during rest hours is:

• A. 850mm/minute
• B. 900mm/minute
• C. 750mm/minute✓
• D. 730mm/minute

Explanation: Cerebral circulation refers to the flow of blood through the network of blood vessels supplying the brain. The arteries deliver oxygenated blood, glucose, and other nutrients to the brain and the veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart, removing carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other metabolic products. The four main arteries that supply blood to our brain are the left and right internal carotid arteries and the left and right vertebral arteries. When cerebral circulation is impaired, less oxygen and glucose reach the brain. This can cause brain damage and neurological problems. The rate of blood flow toward the brain during rest is 750ml/minute.This is a value to be memorized from the following table given in KPK Biology Book 1.

Q30. Photo-respiration can generate:

• A. 4-ATP
• B. 36-ATP
• C. 32-ATP
• D. NO-ATP✓

Explanation: Photorespiration (also known as the C2 cycle) is a metabolic process in plants where the enzyme rubisco combines O2 with RuBP in the presence of light to form unwanted products. The process leads to the production of CO2. The rate of photorespiration increases at high light intensities. At high light intensities, the rate of photolysis of water and light-dependent reactions increases. This increases the rate of production of oxygen leading to an increase in [O2] : [CO2], thereby favoring the oxygenase activity of rubisco combining O2 with RuBP. Photorespiration causes the rate of photosynthesis to decrease as less RuBP is available for carbon fixation. Thus, it leads to a decrease in the rate of the Calvin cycle and hence the overall rate of photosynthesis. It wastes energy and decreases sugar synthesis. In the photorespiratory pathway, there is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH.

Q31. Dark reaction gets completed by the regeneration of:

• A. PGA
• B. PGAL
• C. RUBP✓
• D. RUBISCO

Explanation: In the third and final stage of the Calvin cycle i.e. regeneration of RuBP, 1 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecule is used to create glucose or other organic compounds as it exits the cycle. The rest of the 5 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules are recycled to regenerate 3 molecules of RuBP to enable the Calvin cycle to continue.

Q32. Sucrose on hydrolysis yield:

• A. Glucose
• B. Glucose and fructose✓
• C. Glucose and maltose
• D. Maltose and fructose

Explanation: Sucrose (C12H22O11) is a disaccharide made up of two monosaccharides i.e. glucose and fructose. Therefore, when sucrose is hydrolyzed it forms a 1:1 mixture of glucose and fructose. Sucrose occurs naturally in sugarcane, sugar beets, sugar maple sap, dates, and honey.

Q33. Which of the following fish have 14 pairs of gill slits?

• A. Dog fish
• B. Lamprey✓
• C. Cat fish
• D. Ray fish

Explanation: Maximum number of gill slits present in cyclostomes . Cyclostomes have 6-15 pairs of gills. Lampreys are example of cyclostomes.

Q34. Polysaccharide cellulose is the building material of:

• A. Primary cell-wall✓
• B. Secondary cell-wall
• C. Middle lamella
• D. Plasma membrane

Explanation: Cellulose contains lignin, a polysaccharide that is the building material of the primary cell wall in plants. Hence the answer is A.

Q35. Lobsters belong to class:

• A. Myriapoda
• B. Arychnida
• C. Hexapoda
• D. Crustacean✓

Explanation: Crustaceans form a very large group of arthropods, which includes crabs, lobsters, crayfish etc. They are distinguished from other groups, like insects by possession of biramous limbs an the nauplius form of the larvae. Hence the answer is D.

Q36. Replication progresses at a rate of about 50 base pairs per second in:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Virus
• C. Eukaryote✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: In eukaryotes; like humans DNA is replicated at about 50 base pairs per second. Therefore the answer is C.

Q37. The pigments of chlorophyll a,b, and carotenoids are present in:

• A. Stroma
• B. Grana
• C. Thylakoid membrane✓
• D. Crista

Explanation: Chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids are found in the thylakoid membrane, hence the answer will be C.

Q38. Myoglobin is found in:

• A. Bone
• B. Connective tissue
• C. Muscles✓
• D. Cartilage

Explanation: Myoglobin is found in the heart and skeletal muscles, hence the answer will be C.

Q39. Messer‘s capsules are the receptors for

• A. Temperature
• B. Pain
• C. Pressure
• D. Touch✓

Explanation: Mesissner corpuscles are an integral aspect of the human sensory system, required for discriminatory touch and grip control. Therefore the answer is D.

Q40. Who used puzzle boxes in experiment on animal learning?

• A. Pavlove
• B. E.L. Thorndike✓
• C. Konrad Lorenz
• D. Kohle

Explanation: Edward Thorndike studied learning in animals (usually cats). He devised a classic experiment in which he used a puzzle box to empirically test the laws of learning. Hence the answer is B.

Q41. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

• A. Cancer
• B. Apoptosis
• C. Necrosis✓
• D. Metastasis

Explanation: Necrosis is a form of cell injury which results in the premature death of cells in living cells by autolysis. Hence the answer will be C.

Q42. Human body thermostat is:

• A. Medulla
• B. Medulla oblongata
• C. Body fluid
• D. Hypothalamus✓

Explanation: The hypothalamus in the brain is the master switch that works as a thermostat to regulate the body’s core temperature. When our internal temperature changes, sensors in the central nervous system send messages to the hypothalamus. In response, it sends signals to various organs and systems in the body. They respond with a variety of mechanisms. If the body needs to cool down, the mechanisms include: sweating, and vasodilation. If the body needs to warm up, the mechanisms include vasoconstriction, thermogenesis, and hormonal thermogenesis.

Q43. How many pairs of cranial nerves are mixed in nature?

• A. 02 pairs
• B. 04 pairs✓
• C. 06 pairs
• D. 08 pairs

Explanation: The cranial nerves are a set of 12 paired nerves in the back of our brain. Cranial nerves send electrical signals between our brain, face, neck, and torso. The cranial nerves help us taste, smell, hear, and feel sensations. They also help us make facial expressions, blink our eyes and move our tongues. Mixed cranial nerves are the cranial nerves that contain sensory and motor nerve fibers. There are four such nerves in our peripheral nervous system: The trigeminal nerve (CN V), Facial nerve (CN VII), Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and Vagus nerve (CN X).

Q44. "80–S" ribosome is formed by the combination of:

• A. 30S and 40S
• B. 70S and 10S
• C. 50S and 30S
• D. 60S and 40S✓

Explanation: Ribosomes are non-membrane-bounded organelles that are present in large numbers in all living cells and serve as the site of protein synthesis. Ribosomes occur both as free particles in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and as particles attached to the membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells. Each ribosome is composed of two subunits, a larger one and a smaller one, each of which has a characteristic shape. Ribosomes are the sites at which information carried in the genetic code is converted into protein molecules. 80S ribosomes are found in eukaryotic cells. 80S ribosomes contain a small 40S subunit and a large 60S subunit. The large subunit (the 60S) catalyzes the formation of the peptide bond, and the small 40S ribosomal unit holds the mRNA molecule so that tRNA can compare and attach amino acids to it.

Q45. The optimum pH of enzyme maltase is:

• A. 4.5
• B. 5.5
• C. 6.1 – 6.8✓
• D. 6.7 – 7

Explanation: Maltase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the disaccharide maltose to the simple sugar glucose. The enzyme is found in plants, bacteria, and yeast; in humans and other vertebrates, it is thought to be synthesized by cells of the mucous membrane lining the intestinal wall. Optimum pH is the pH value at which an enzyme can work best. The optimum pH of maltase falls within the range of 6.1 - 6.8.

Q46. The hormone released by the posterior pitultary that stimulates the contraction of uterine and mammary gland muscles is called:

• A. Prolactin
• B. IH
• C. FSH
• D. Oxytocin✓

Explanation: Oxytocin is the hormone released by the posterior pituitary that stimulates the contraction of uterine(during labor) and mammary gland muscles.

Q47. Deficiency of which of the following causes diuresis?

• A. LH
• B. ACTH
• C. FSH
• D. ADH✓

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, decreasing the amount of urine produced. A high ADH level causes the body to produce less urine. A deficiency results in greater urine production.ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone), also known as vasopressin, is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary role is to regulate the water balance in the body by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. ADH plays a crucial role in maintaining proper hydration and preventing excessive water loss. The main functions of ADH in the kidneys are as follows: 1. Water reabsorption: When the body is dehydrated or when the blood osmolarity (concentration of solutes) increases, the hypothalamus senses this change and signals the posterior pituitary to release ADH into the bloodstream. ADH then acts on the kidney's collecting ducts, making them more permeable to water. As a result, water is reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, reducing the amount of water lost in the urine. 2. Concentration of urine: By increasing water reabsorption, ADH helps in concentrating urine. When the body is dehydrated, ADH levels rise, and more water is reabsorbed from the urine, leading to a reduced volume of urine with a higher concentration of waste products. 3. Regulation of blood pressure: In addition to its role in water balance, ADH also has vasoconstrictive effects, meaning it can constrict blood vessels. This property helps maintain blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels and increasing vascular resistance. Imbalances in ADH levels can lead to various medical conditions. For example: 1. Diabetes Insipidus: In diabetes insipidus, the body either fails to produce enough ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys do not respond appropriately to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). As a result, excessive amounts of dilute urine are produced, leading to increased thirst and frequent urination. 2. Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH): In SIADH, the body releases excessive amounts of ADH, leading to water retention and a decreased concentration of sodium in the blood. This can result in hyponatremia (low blood sodium levels) and fluid overload. The regulation of ADH release is tightly controlled by the body's homeostatic mechanisms, ensuring that water balance is maintained within a narrow range. ADH is a critical hormone in the body's overall water balance and helps to ensure that the body remains properly hydrated and the blood osmolarity remains within a healthy range.

Q48. In which of the following is the phenotypic and genotypic ratio the same?

• A. Co-dominance
• B. Over dominance
• C. Epitasis
• D. Incomplete dominance✓

Explanation: In incomplete dominance, a monohybrid cross shows the results as in the figure below; Here the genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same, therefore the correct answer will be D.

Q49. Nucleus was discovered by:

• A. Waldyne
• B. T.H. Margan
• C. Robert Brown✓
• D. Kohler

Explanation: In 1831, Robert Brown discovered the nucleus in the cell, hence the answer is C.

Q50. A jawless fish lays eggs in fresh water and its ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis. This fish return to the ocean as _

• A. Neomyxine
• B. Petromyzon✓
• C. Eptatretus
• D. Myxine

Explanation: Petromyzon, commonly known as lampreys, are jawless fish that exhibit the described life cycle. They lay their eggs in fresh water, and the eggs hatch into larvae called ammocoetes. After undergoing metamorphosis, the adult lampreys return to the ocean for their adult stage.

Q51. Mature ovum in human beings is surrounded by:

• A. Plasma membrane
• B. Vitelline membrane
• C. Corona radiata
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Mature ova (egg cells) in humans are surrounded by all three: plasma membrane, vitelline membrane, and corona radiata.

Q52. In mitochondria UGA Codon act to specify

• A. Arginine
• B. Glutamine
• C. Tryptophan✓
• D. Valine

Explanation: A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal during protein synthesis. Tryptophan is an essential amino acid used to make proteins. The body does not make it, so it must be consumed in the diet. It is an amino acid needed for normal growth in infants and for the production and maintenance of the body's proteins, muscles, enzymes, and neurotransmitters. Tryptophan is encoded by a single codon UGG in most organisms. Since mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles they can synthesise their proteins. Hence, tryptophan is encoded by the codon UGA in mitochondria.

Q53. Which one of the following animals is viviparous?

• A. Rat✓
• B. Kangaroo
• C. Duckbilled platypus
• D. Spiny ant eater

Explanation: Viviparous species are those who give birth to living young ones directly instead of laying eggs. Rats are viviparous, therefore the correct answer will be A.

Q54. Oligosaccharides class of carbohydrates contain monosaccharides of about:

• A. 2 to 8 units
• B. 2 to 9 units
• C. 2 to 10 units✓
• D. 2 to 11 units

Explanation: Oligosaccharides are traditionally defined as polymers of monosaccharides containing from two to ten residues, although this range is often extended to 25 as naturally occurring polysaccharides rarely contain less than 25 repeat units.

Q55. The product of light reaction travel from:

• A. Cristae to stroma
• B. Stroma to grana
• C. Grana to cristae
• D. Grana to stroma✓

Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in 2 steps:1. Light-dependent reactions2. Light-independent reactionsLight-dependent reactions occur on the thylakoid membrane (stacks of thylakoids are called grana) and involve the production of ATP and NADPH using light energy. ATP and NADPH are required for the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions) which occurs within the stroma of the chloroplast. The Calvin cycle makes use of ATP and NADPH (from light-dependent reactions) and CO2 to synthesize sugars (triose phosphates). Thus, the products of light-dependent reactions travel from the grana to the stroma.

Q56. Chemiosmosis occurs in the:

• A. Grana
• B. Stroma
• C. Thylakoids✓
• D. InterGrana

Explanation: In chloroplasts, chemiosmosis occurs in the thylakoids.

Q57. If two heterozygous tall plants are crossed together, the proportion of phenotypically tall plants will be:

• A. 50%
• B. 25%
• C. 75%✓
• D. 100%

Explanation: A cross between two heterozygous tall plants results in 25% homozygous tall, 50% heterozygous tall, and 25% dwarf plants. So we add 50+25 to get 75% as the proportion of phenotypically tall plants.

Q58. Erepsin acts upon:

• A. Polypeptides
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Dipeptides✓
• D. Fats

Explanation: Erepsin consists of many enzymes and works best in alkaline pH. It doesn't act upon proteins but does act upon lower peptides such as dipeptides, hence the answer will be C.

Q59. Which one of the following animals is filter feeder?

• A. Teeth
• B. Sycon✓
• C. Fresh water mussels
• D. Jelly fish

Explanation: Sycon are sponges that receive food particles with the help of collar cells, therefore are called filter feeders.

Q60. Cristea of mitochondria are the sites of:

• A. Electron transport chain✓
• B. Photophosphorylation
• C. Krebs cycle
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: Mitochondrial cristae are the main sites of biological energy conversion in all non-photosynthetic eukaryotes, like the electron transport chain. Therefore the answer will be A.

Q61. Biorhythms are called circadian which means about one day so they are also called?

• A. Diurnal tempo
• B. Diurnal time
• C. Diurnal rhythms✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: "Diurnal rhythms" are the circadian rhythm synced with day and night (24 hours). Biorhythms are often referred to as "diurnal rhythms" because they are biological cycles that repeat approximately every 24 hours, corresponding to the day-night cycle. Option A,B and D are incorrect.

Q62. What is the most common fuel of energy for cells?

• A. Protein
• B. Lipid
• C. Carbohydrate✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The most common fuel of energy for cells is carbohydrate. Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is then used to produce ATP, the cell's energy currency. ATP is used to power all of the cell's activities, including muscle contraction, cell division, and the transport of molecules across the cell membrane.

Q63. Deficiency of which element causes yellowing in plants?

• A. Magnesium✓
• B. Iron
• C. Chlorine
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: "The explanation for this question will be added soon!".

Q64. The bacteriophage incorporates in the host genome in which phase?

• A. Lysogenic cycle✓
• B. Lytic cycle
• C. Both
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The bacteriophage incorporates in the host genome in the lysogenic cycle. In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteriophage DNA integrates into the host DNA and becomes a prophage. The prophage is then replicated along with the host DNA and is passed on to daughter cells when the host cell divides. The prophage can remain dormant in the host cell for many generations, or it can be triggered to enter the lytic cycle and produce new phages.

Q65. Body having a meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are the characteristics of which Phylum?

• A. Mollusca
• B. Protozoa
• C. Coelenterata
• D. Porifera✓

Explanation: Porifera, commonly known as sponges, exhibit the described characteristics. Sponges have a meshwork of cells called choanocytes that line their internal cavities. These choanocytes have flagella that create water currents to filter and capture food particles. Sponges also undergo indirect development, meaning they go through larval stages before reaching their adult form.

Q66. A hormone that helps in growing seedless grapes:

• A. Auxins✓
• B. Cytokinins
• C. Ethylene
• D. Gibberellins

Explanation: DefH9-iaaM gene is expressed in the ovules and placenta but also in the tissues derived from them, allowing the synthesis of auxin also in later stages of fruit growth. This continuous supply of auxin produces seedless fruits that are equal or bigger in size compared to pollinated fruits.

Q67. Both DNA and RNA are synthesize by the process of:

• A. Transcription✓
• B. Replication
• C. Polymerization
• D. PCR

Explanation: The process by which DNA is copied to RNA is called transcription.

Q68. The cross between two dissimillar individuals is called:

• A. Test cross
• B. Interbreeding
• C. Eplstasls
• D. Hybridization✓

Explanation: Hybridization is the process of an animal or plant breeding with an individual of another species or variety. So D is the correct option.

Q69. Brunner‘s glands are found in:

• A. Stomach
• B. Duodenum✓
• C. Ileum
• D. Colon

Explanation: Brunner’s glands are branched tubular mucus glands normally found in the mucosa and submucosa of the duodenum. Therefore the answer is B.

Q70. An organism that adopts saprophytic mode of nutrition during part of its life is called:

• A. Facultative saprophyte✓
• B. Facultative parasite
• C. Obligate saprophyte
• D. Obligate parasite

Explanation: Saprophytic is the mode of nutrition in which organisms feed on dead and decayed matter, a facultative saprophyte ia a mainly parasitic organism with the ability to survive for a part of its life cycle as a saprophyte, therefore the answer will be A.

Q71. Which viruses can convert normal cells into cancer cells?

• A. Retrovirus✓
• B. Adenovirus
• C. Poliovirus
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Retroviruses are the type of viruses that can potentially convert normal cells into cancer cells. Retroviruses, like the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), have an RNA genome that is reverse transcribed into DNA and integrated into the host cell's genome. This integration process can disrupt normal cellular genes or regulatory elements, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and potentially causing cancer.

Q72. Umbilical cord contains which of the following?

• A. Pluripotent stem cells
• B. Blood stem cells
• C. Cord blood stem cells✓
• D. Both a and b

Explanation: The umbilical cord is a flexible cord-like structure that connects a developing fetus to the placenta in the mother's womb. It contains a rich source of stem cells known as cord blood stem cells. These stem cells are found in the blood of the umbilical cord and the placenta.

Q73. What is the approximate diameter of retroviruses?

• A. 150 nm
• B. 100 nm✓
• C. 200 nm
• D. 250 nm

Explanation: The virions are 80–100 nm in diameter, and their outer lipid envelope incorporates and displays the viral glycoproteins (Fig. 1). The shape and location of the internal protein core are characteristic for various genera of the family.

Q74. ----- is formed by two pairs of light chains, and one pair of heavy chains.

• A. actin
• B. myosine✓
• C. myofibril
• D. Fibroin

Explanation: Myosin is a protein that plays a key role in muscle contraction. It is composed of two pairs of light chains and one pair of heavy chains. The light chains are smaller in size compared to the heavy chains. The combination of light chains and heavy chains forms the structure of myosin, which is responsible for the interaction between myosin and actin during muscle contraction.

Q75. Choose the correct statement.

• A. All mammals are viviparous.
• B. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.✓
• C. All reptiles have a three chambered heart.
• D. All pisces have gills covered by an operculum

Explanation: Cyclostomes, which include lampreys and hagfish, are jawless fish. They do not possess jaws or paired fins. This characteristic distinguishes them from other fish groups, such as cartilaginous fish (sharks and rays) and bony fish (which possess jaws and paired fins). Therefore, option B is the correct statement.

Q76. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?

• A. Viviparity✓
• B. Warm blooded nature
• C. Ossified endoskeleton
• D. Breathing using lungs

Explanation: Viviparity refers to the ability of an organism to give birth to live young. While some mammals are viviparous (e.g., humans, dogs, and cats), birds are not. Birds reproduce by laying eggs, which undergo external development. Therefore, viviparity is a characteristic shared by mammals but not birds. On the other hand, options B, C, and D are characteristics shared by both birds and mammals. Both birds and mammals are warm-blooded, meaning they can maintain a relatively constant body temperature. They also have an ossified endoskeleton made of bones, which provides support and protection. Additionally, both birds and mammals have lungs for breathing, enabling them to extract oxygen from the air.

Q77. To decrease the salt potential, the guard cells absorb:

• A. Sodium Ions
• B. Magnesium ions
• C. Potassium ions✓
• D. Calcium ions

Explanation: Influx of potassium ions decreases water potential in the guard cell so water enters the cell from surrounding cells. As a result salt potential decreases.

Q78. All of the following are triploblastic animals except:

• A. Annelida
• B. Mollusca
• C. Coelenterata✓
• D. Echinodermata

Explanation: Phylum Coelenterata is a group of aquatic and marine organisms with a radially symmetrical body. They are diploblastic organisms in which the body is made up of two embryonic layers i.e. ectoderm and endoderm.

Q79. Hermaphrodite phylum is:

• A. Annelida✓
• B. Arthropoda
• C. Echinodermata
• D. Mollusca

Explanation: A hermaphrodite is an organism (plant or animal) having both male and female reproductive organs. Annelids are mostly hermaphroditic organisms.

Q80. Cell-wall of gram positive bacteria is composed of:

• A. Glycolipids
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Lipoproteins
• D. Peptidoglycan✓

Explanation: Pepdidolygan is a polymer which is the major constituent of bacterial cell walls.

Q81. The oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin in humans when the blood is 100% oxygenated is:

• A. 19.4 ml
• B. 19.6 ml
• C. 20 ml✓
• D. 21 ml

Explanation: In 100ml of blood, there is about 15 g of Hb, so that 100ml of blood has the capacity to bind 20.1ml of oxygen. this quantity is called the oxygen binding capacity of blood (Cb).

Q82. In which of the following, does the pharynx opens directly into the intestine?

• A. Planaria✓
• B. Earthworm
• C. Cockroach
• D. Snail

Explanation: In planaria, the mouth opens into muscular tubular pharynx which leads into the intestine.

Q83. Bile is released from the gall bladder by the action of:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Cholecystokinin✓
• C. Secretin
• D. Renin

Explanation: When stimulated by the cholecystokinin (CCK), the gallbladder contracts pushing bile through the cystic duct and into the common bile duct.

Q84. A cell-wall that is composed of sugar and amino acids is called:

• A. Murein✓
• B. Chitin
• C. Lignin
• D. Pectin

Explanation: Peptidoglycan or murein is a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like peptidoglycan layer outside the plasma membrane of most bacteria, forming the cell wall. Hence the correct answer would be A.

Q85. When the entire body of a bacterium is covered by flagella, such a bacterium is called:

• A. Atrichous
• B. Lopho-trichous
• C. Lampi trichous
• D. Petri-trichous✓

Explanation: Bacteria bearing flagellum all over the body are called peritrichous, atrichous are those without any flagellum. Hence the correct answer is D.

Q86. Choose the true statement regarding the reaction given below 2Na(g) + Cl2(g)--> 2NaCl(s)

• A. Chloride is oxidized and sodium is reduced
• B. Chlorine acts as an oxidizing agent and sodium as reducing agent✓
• C. Chlorine acts as a reducing agent and
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In the reaction given below: 2Na(s)+Cl2(g)⟶2NaCl(s) 0 0 +1 -1 Na is oxidized to Na+and hence, Cl2 is the oxidizer. Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q87. What are the values of principal quantum number and azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Chlorine atom?

• A. 1.6
• B. 1.3
• C. 3.1✓
• D. 6.1

Explanation: The electronic configuration of the chlorine is [Ne]3s23p5. Therefore the quantum numbers for chlorine are principal quantum number (n) is 3, azimuthal quantum number (l) = 1.

Q88. Kp = Kc (RT)△n in the equation if △n < 0 then:

• A. Kp = Ke
• B. Kp<Ke✓
• C. Kp>Ke
• D. Kp< 0

Explanation: Kp And Kc are the equilibrium constants of an ideal gaseous mixture. Kp is the equilibrium constant used when equilibrium concentrations are expressed in atmospheric pressure and Kc is the equilibrium constant used when equilibrium concentrations are expressed in molarity. When the change in the number of moles of gas molecules is less than zero, that is Δn < 0⇒ Kp<Kc.

Q89. Select meta directing group of the following?

• A. –OH
• B. – NR2
• C. –CN✓
• D. –OR

Explanation: Meta directing group withdraws the electron from the ortho and para position making benzene less reactive. The incoming electrophile then prefers to attack the meta position. The meta-directing group includes NO2, COOH, CHO, SO3H, CN, COR, etc. Hence the correct answer is C. All others are ortho and para-directing groups.

Q90. NH4OH(aq) ⇌ NH4+(aq)+ OH–(aq) Consider the above ionization, Ammonium chloride is added to the system. Select the correct statement.

• A. The equilibrium will shift to the right
• B. The equilibrium will shift to the left✓
• C. The equilibrium will remain undisturbed
• D. The equilibrium will be attained quickly

Explanation: When NH4Cl is added to NH4OH solution, concentration of NH4+ ions increases so the equilibrium shift towards left. So the dissociation of ammonium hydroxide is reduced.

Q91. Select molecule that has unpaired electrons in anti-bonding molecular orbitals:

• A. N2
• B. Cl2
• C. H2
• D. O2✓

Explanation: O2 has two unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals.

Q92. The order of reducing power of halide ion is:

• A. I–1> Br–>Cl–> F–✓
• B. F–>Cl–> Br–> l–
• C. l–1>Cl–> F–> Br–
• D. Br–>Cl–> l–> F–

Explanation: From the reduction potential values, it can be seen that iodide is the best-reducing agent. It has a low reduction potential value which indicates that it easily reduces others and itself gets oxidized.

Q93. Stable electronic configuration of Cu(29) is:

• A. [Ar] 4S2 3d4
• B. [Ar] 4S0 3d10
• C. [Ar] 4S1 3d10✓
• D. [Ar] 4S2 3d7 4p2

Explanation: It is a transition element. Copper (Cu) is a chemical element, a reddish, extremely ductile metal of Group 11 (IB) of the periodic table that is an unusually good conductor of electricity and heat. Due to the interelectronic repulsions one electron present in 4s enters to 3d subshell. We can write a stable electronic configuration of copper is written as 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1. There is additional stability because of the completely occupied 3d subshell and half-filled 4s subshell.orThe electronic configurations of copper (and chromium) are unique since without filling the 4s orbitals, electrons entered into 3-d orbitals. Copper has an atomic number of 29 hence 29 electrons are fulfilled by option C as well.

Q94. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 In the above reaction, the limiting reagent is:

• A. N2
• B. H2✓
• C. Ammonia
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The balanced equation is shown below. N2 (g)+ 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) If equal moles of each reactant are used, hydrogen will be the limiting reagent as 3 moles are hydrogen are used up for every one mole of nitrogen to form ammonia.

Q95. Hydrolysis of ester in the presence of KOH is called:

• A. Esterification
• B. Decarboxylation
• C. Saponification✓
• D. Neutralization

Explanation: Esters can be hydrolyzed to form a carboxylate salt and alcohol using KOH and water. KOH is an alkaline reagent, and the alkaline hydrolysis of esters is called saponification.

Q96. Salts which dissolve in water with evolution of heat. The effect of temperature on their solubility will be:

• A. Increases with increase in temperature
• B. Decreases with increase in temperature✓
• C. Solubility does not change
• D. In some cases it increases while in others it decreases

Explanation: In exothermic reactions, heat energy is released when the solute dissolves in a solution. Increasing temperature introduces more heat into the system. Following Le Chatelier’s Principle, the system will adjust to this excess heat energy by inhibiting the dissolution reaction. Increasing temperature, therefore, decreases the solubility of the solute. An example of a solute that decreases in solubility with increasing temperature is calcium hydroxide, which can be used to treat chemical burns and as an antacid.

Q97. The rate law equation for reaction is given as dx/dt = K[FeCl3][KI]2 the reaction is:

• A. First order
• B. Second order
• C. Third order✓
• D. Pseudo first order

Explanation: The order of a reaction can be determined by adding the powers of the reactant concentration from the rate equation; if 1+2=3, the reaction is third order.

Q98. Which statement correctly describes a nucleon?

• A. Any atomic nucleus
• B. A radioactive atomic nucleus
• C. A neutron or a proton✓
• D. A neutron proton or an electron

Explanation: A nucleon is either a proton or a neutron, considered in its role as a component of an atomic nucleus.

Q99. The van der waals equation of state for no-ideal gases differs from the ideal gas law in that it accounts for: I) The mass of each molecule of the gas. II) The volume of each molecule of the gas. III) The attractive forces between molecules of the gas

• A. I , II and III
• B. I and II only
• C. I and III only✓
• D. II and III only

Explanation: More significantly, the Van der Waals equation takes into consideration the molecular size and molecular interaction forces (attractive and repulsive forces). Sometimes, it is also referred as the Van der Waals equation of state.

Q100. The statement that heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder to a hotter body is a result of:

• A. Henry‘s law
• B. The first law of thermodynamics
• C. The second law of thermodynamics✓
• D. The third law of thermodynamics

Explanation: 2nd law of thermodynamics expresses a fundamental and simple truth about the universe, it states that heat cannot flow from colder body to hotter body.

Q101. Ruther ford‘s scattering experiment demonstrates:

• A. The existance of X-rays
• B. The existence of negative particles
• C. The mass to charge ratio of electron
• D. The nuclear model of the atom✓

Explanation: Rutherford's gold foil experiment demonstrated that almost all of the mass of an atom is in a tiny volume in the center of the atom which Rutherford called the nucleus. This positively charged mass was responsible for deflecting alpha particles propelled through the gold foil.

Q102. Which is an incorrect statement?

• A. The ionic bonds are non-directional in character
• B. The crystals of covalent compounds are made up of molecules
• C. The covalent bonds are rigid and non-directional✓
• D. Ionic compounds have high melting point and boiling point

Explanation: The meaning of covalent bonds being directional is that atoms bonded covalently prefer specific orientations in space relative to one another. As a result, molecules in which atoms are bonded covalently have definite shapes.

Q103. The heat of combustion of hydrocarbon is very useful source of heat and power, considering the combustion reaction given below. CH4(g) +O2(g) →CO2(o) + 2H2O △H for the reaction is.

• A. △H = 213 kcal/mole✓
• B. △H= 231 kcal/mole
• C. △H= 426 kcal/mole
• D. △H= 312 kcal/mole

Explanation: Enthalpy of combustion of methane is -890KJ/mol.1KJ = 0.239Kcal890KJ= 212.715Kcal

Q104. Vinyl acetate monomer is prepared by the reaction of acetaldehyde and acetic-anhydride. The catalyst employed is:

• A. FeCI3✓
• B. AL2O3
• C. V2O5
• D. Cr2O3

Explanation: The catalyst used in this reaction is FeCl3. This has to be memorised.

Q105. The atomic number of scandium is 21. What is its ground state electronic configuration?

• A. 1s22N22p63N23p63d3
• B. 1s22s22p63s23p63d14s2✓
• C. 1s22N22p63N23p63d34s2
• D. 1s22N22p63N23p63d34p1

Explanation: The ground state configuration is the most stable arrangement with the lowest energy.The filling of electrons is according to the Aufbau Principle which states that the lowest energy orbitals are filled first.So the ground state electronic configuration of scandium is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

Q106. Shown below are portion of orbital diagrams representing the ground state electronic configuration of certain elements. Which of them obeys the Pauli‘s exclusion principle and Hund‘s rules?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Both option B and C are correct✓

Explanation: Options A and D are incorrect because two electrons with the same spin are not added to the same orbitals.

Q107. The osmotic pressure of dilute solution is given below by relationship:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The correct relationship for the osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is: π = RCT/M In this equation, π represents the osmotic pressure, R is the ideal gas constant, T is the temperature in Kelvin, C is the molar concentration of the solute, and M is the molar mass of the solute. The equation relates the osmotic pressure of a dilute solution to the temperature, concentration, and molar mass of the solute.

Q108. Choose the one which is not the assumption of collision theory of reaction rate:

• A. For chemical reaction to occur molecule/ particles must colloids✓
• B. For reacting molecules/ Particles must possess a certain minimum amount of energy, the activation of energy
• C. Every collision is not productive
• D. For hydrogen molecule formation from atoms require specific orientation

Explanation: The assumption that For chemical reaction to occur molecule/ particles must colloids is not correct. The collision theory of reaction rate assumes that for a chemical reaction to occur, the reacting particles must collide with sufficient energy and with the proper orientation. The term "colloids" refers to a type of suspension of particles in a liquid, and it is not necessary for the reacting particles to be in a colloid in order for a reaction to occur. The correct assumptions of the collision theory of reaction rate are: The reacting particles must collide with sufficient energy. This energy is called the activation energy. The reacting particles must collide with the proper orientation. This means that the atoms or molecules must be in a position where they can react with each other. Not every collision is productive. This means that even if the reacting particles collide with sufficient energy and with the proper orientation, the reaction may not still occur. This is because there is a chance that the collision will not be energetic enough to break the bonds in the molecules, or that the molecules will not be able to rearrange themselves in the correct way to form the products.

Q109. A neutron with K.E equal to 0.04ev is called?

• A. Slow neutron✓
• B. Thermal neutron
• C. Fast neutron
• D. Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: Slow neutron, neutron whose kinetic energy is below about 1 electron volt (eV), which is equal to 1.60217646 10−19 joules. Hence the correct answer is A.

Q110. Radiation damages living organism is primarily due to:

• A. Excitation phenomena
• B. Ionization
• C. Photo electric effect
• D. Heating
• E. All of them✓

Explanation: The answer is All of them. Radiation can damage living organisms by causing a variety of effects, including: Excitation: This is when radiation knocks electrons out of their atoms, leaving them in an excited state. The electrons can then fall back to their ground state, releasing energy in the form of heat or light. Ionization: This is when radiation removes electrons from atoms, leaving them as ions. Ions are unstable and can react with other molecules, causing damage. Photoelectric effect: This is when radiation knocks electrons out of atoms, freeing them to move around. This can disrupt the function of proteins and other molecules. Heating: Radiation can also cause heating, which can damage cells and tissues. All of these effects can damage living organisms, and the severity of the damage depends on the type of radiation, the dose, and the sensitivity of the organism. For example, high-energy radiation, such as gamma rays, can cause ionization and excitation, which can lead to cell death. Low-energy radiation, such as ultraviolet light, can cause the photoelectric effect, which can damage proteins and DNA. The effects of radiation on living organisms can be acute, meaning that they occur immediately after exposure, or they can be chronic, meaning that they occur over time. Acute effects of radiation can include burns, nausea, vomiting, and hair loss. Chronic effects of radiation can include cancer, genetic damage, and premature aging. It is important to note that not all radiation is harmful. Some types of radiation, such as X-rays, are used in medicine to diagnose and treat diseases. However, it is important to be aware of the risks of radiation exposure and to take steps to minimize your exposure.

Q111. Pka values of some acids are given below: Choose the weaker acid?

• A. HClO4 (–10)
• B. HBr (–9)
• C. H2SO4 (–3)✓
• D. HCl (–7)

Explanation: The relationship between Ka, pKa, and acid strength is as follows: the lower the Ka value, the higher the pKa value, and the weaker the acid. If Ka is high (and pKa is low), the acid is largely dissociated and therefore powerful. Strong acids have a pKa less than or equal to -2. When Ka is low (and pKa is high), there has been little dissociation, hence the acid is weak. Weak acids have a pKa in water that ranges from -2 to 12. Hence the correct answer is C.

Q112. Choose the correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides?

• A. R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F✓
• B. R – Br > R – I > R – F > R – Cl
• C. R – F > R – Cl> R – Br > R – l
• D. R – Cl> R – l > R – Br > R – l

Explanation: The strength of the C-X bond decreases down the group from fluorine to iodine. This can be explained based on their bond energies which are given in the below table. The table shows that Iodo compounds are the most reactive while fluoro compounds are the least reactive. Therefore, the reactivity of alkyl halides increases from fluorine to iodine and the reactivity order is R – 1 > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F.

Q113. Semi-conductor materials have:

• A. Ionic bond
• B. Covalent bond✓
• C. Mutual bond
• D. Metallic bond

Explanation: A covalent bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electrons to form electron pairs between atoms. These electron pairs are known as shared pairs or bonding pairs. The stable balance of attractive and repulsive forces between atoms, when they share electrons, is known as covalent bonding. Semiconductor materials have covalent bonding between atoms (FACT). They are only able to conduct electricity due to delocalized electrons.

Q114. Select the ligand which is bidentate and can form chelates:

• A. CH3 NH2
• B. PH3
• C. H2O
• D. CH2(NH2)CH2(NH2)✓

Explanation: D is ethylene diamine, a bidentate ligand as it has two Nitrogens, each containing a lone pair of electrons that they can donate to form two dative bonds with one central metal atom. A, B, and C all have only one lone pair of electrons thus they are monodentate ligands.

Q115. The proton acceptor is:

• A. NH3✓
• B. BF3
• C. HCl
• D. H+

Explanation: Weak Bronsted bases which are proton acceptors, usually consist of molecules or ions. They react with water, remove a proton from it, and generate OH- ions. Take the examples of NH3: NH3(aq) + H2O(aq) ---> NH4+(aq) + OH- (aq)

Q116. Choose the correct Statement:

• A. The most direct and accurate method for determining atomic masses uses mass spectroscopy.
• B. The indirect but accurate method for determining molecular masses uses mass spectroscopy.
• C. Collision between the electrons and the atoms produces negative ions by absorption of electrons by atoms or moecules.✓
• D. The first application of the mass spectroscopy was the demonstration to detect various isotopes of Argon.

Explanation: Electron Collision. Often, electron collisions with gas molecules result in electron attachment to the molecule, which forms a negative ion.

Q117. The partition coefficients of Iodine distribution between two immiscible liquids, water and carbon (tetrachloride) is given below: Choose the correct statement about the system:

• A. Iodine is extracted from CCl4 layer by water
• B. Iodine is extracted from aqueous layer by CCl4✓
• C. Iodine is more soluble in water than CCl4
• D. The value of K depends on the amount of Iodine added

Explanation: Iodine vastly prefers to dissolve in CCl4 , thus it migrates from the aqueous (H2O) phase into the non-aqueous (CCl4) phase , thus we say that CCl4 extracts the iodine from the aqueous phase.

Q118. During a experiment, one measured the mass of a mosquito and found it to be 1.20 × 10–5 Kg. The numbers of significant figures in this case are:

• A. Five
• B. One
• C. Two
• D. Three✓

Explanation: All non zero digits are significant figures and in this case there are 3 significant or non zero digits hence option D is the right choice.

Q119. The vectors A and B are such that |A + B| = |A – B|, then the angle between the two vectors is:

• A. 0o
• B. 90o✓
• C. 60o
• D. 180o

Explanation: Solution is as follows :-

Q120. Why is the boiling point of n-Pentane about 28‘C higher than that of its 2,2-Dimethylpropane isomer?

• A. The area of contact between 2,2-Dimethylpropane is small which results in weak forces of attraction.✓
• B. 2,2-dimehlprpane molecules repel each other
• C. N-pentane molecules cannot come into closer contact with each other
• D. Shapes of molecules have not effect on boiling point

Explanation: The more branched an isomer is, the smaller the area of contact and thus weaker intermolecular forces of attractions.Therefore the answer is A.

Q121. Which one of the following will not undergo dehydrogenation?

• A. COCH3✓
• B. (CH 3)2 CHOH
• C. (CH3)3COH
• D. CH3CH2OH

Explanation: To undergo dehydrogenation, the compound must have OH group. Only compound in option A is not an alcohol thus, it is the correct answer.

Q122. Which one is a polymer substance?

• A. Glass
• B. Iron
• C. Plastic✓
• D. copper

Explanation: A polymer is a substance made of many repeating units called monomers. Plastics are formed by many identical repeating monomers thus are polymers.

Q123. Chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is expressed as delta (δ) or tan (t) scale. Choose the correct relationship between δ and t:

• A. δ = 10 – t✓
• B. δ = 10 + t
• C. t = δ – 10
• D. t = 10 – δ

Explanation: The correct relationship between chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy, expressed as δ (delta), and tan (t) scale is: δ = 10 - t

Q124. Choose the correct statement: DDT an insecticide is considered as:

• A. Very unstable molecule having half-life 1⁄2 to 1 year
• B. Unstable molecule having half-life 2 to 5 years
• C. Stable molecule having half-life 5 to 8 years
• D. Very stable molecule having half-life 10 to 15 years✓

Explanation: Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (hereinafter referred to as DDT) is one of the most widely used and well-studied pesticides ever synthesized. DDT is highly environmentally stable with a reported half-life of between 2 and 15 years. Hence the most suitable answer is D.

Q125. Waxes are the esters of fatty acids with high molecular weight.

• A. Monohydroxy alcohols✓
• B. Dihydroxy alcohol
• C. Trihydroxy alcohol
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Waxes are esters of fatty acids with long-chain monohydric alcohols. Monohydroxy alcohol contains one hydroxyl group in the molecule. Example: Isopropyl alcohol is a three-carbon monohydroxy alcohol.

Q126. Excess of ethanol is heated with conc: sulphuric acid keeping the temperature 140°C. The product formed is

• A. C2H5OC2H5 + H2O✓
• B. C2 H4
• C. C2 H5 OH
• D. C2 H6

Explanation: At 140°C in the presence of sulfuric acid two molecules of ethanol are dehydrated (lose a molecule of water) to form ether. The sulphuric acid is regenerated and reused. Above about 160°C (320°F) ethene is produced instead, by loss of water from just one molecule of ethanol. The reaction is the following:C2H5OH + H2SO4 —> C2H5-O-C2H5 + H2O

Q127. Which one of the following acids has a strong conjugate base?

• A. CH3COOH✓
• B. HCl
• C. HNO3
• D. H2SO4

Explanation: Weak acid have strong conjugate bases and strong acid have weak conjugate bases. As CH3COOH is a weak acid its conjugate base will be strong.

Q128. In P type substances, the charge carriers in minorities are:

• A. Holes
• B. Electrons✓
• C. Protons
• D. Positive ions

Explanation: Minority charge carriers are those charge-carrying units in a substance that are very few in quantity. In p-type semiconductors, a very small number of free electrons is present. Hence, electrons are the minority charge carriers in the p-type semiconductor. In P-type semiconductors, holes are the majority charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.

Q129. All of the following are micronutrients except:

• A. Iron
• B. Copper
• C. Zinc
• D. Magnesium✓

Explanation: Magnesium (Mg2+) is an essential macronutrient of living cells and is the second most prevalent free divalent cation in plants. Mg2+ plays a role in several physiological processes that support plant growth and development.

Q130. What is true about modern methods used in the determination of the structure of compounds?

• A. Accurate but more time consuming
• B. Accurate, rapid but chemicals are used in large amounts
• C. Accurate, rapid but sophisticated and complicated
• D. Accurate, simple and less time consuming✓

Explanation: The modern methods used by scientists to identify and differentiate between cell structures are efficient, accurate, simple, and less time-consuming in comparison to the methods used in the past. Examples are IR spectroscopy, mass spectroscopy, NMR, etc.

Q131. Which is the correct statement?

• A. The average kinetic energy of the molecules depends on the volume in which the gas is enclosed
• B. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the gaseous state is proportional to the pressure.
• C. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the gaseous state is proportional to the temperature.✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Kinetic energy is the energy a substance has because of its molecules being in motion, as a substance absorbs heat its molecules move faster, thereby increasing the substance's kinetic energy.

Q132. Hydrogen bonding do not exist in the molecule of:

• A. Hydrogen✓
• B. Proteins
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Ammonia

Explanation: 2 H bonded together contain only London dipole forces of attraction as Hydrogen bonding only occurs with strong electronegative atoms like Fluorine, Oxygen and Nitrogen (NOF rule)

Q133. Which statement is incorrect about ionization energy?

• A. Ionization energy depends upon the magnitude of nuclear charge
• B. Ionization energy depends upon the atomic radius
• C. Ionization energy depends upon the shielding effect
• D. Ionization energy does not depend upon the penetration effect of the inner orbital✓

Explanation: Option D is incorrect because the penetration effect refers to the ability of inner orbital electrons to occupy the same space as outer electrons, leading to increased electron-electron repulsion and higher ionization energy.

Q134. Select the incorrect statement:

• A. Molecule may gain electron to form molecular anion.
• B. Molecule may lose electron to form molecular cation
• C. Molecular cations are less abundant than molecular anions✓
• D. These molecular ions can be formed by passing high energy electron beam through a gas.

Explanation: Abundance of cationic molecular ions is due to the ability to stabilize unpaired electrons which makes the formation of cationic molecular ions energetically less demanding. That's why cationic molecular ions are more abundant than anionic ones.

Q135. Which type of isomerism is being exhibited by FCH = CHF?

• A. Chain isomerism
• B. Structural isomerism
• C. Geometrical isomerism✓
• D. Position isomerism

Explanation: Geometric isomers possess the same structural formula containing a double bond and differ only in respect of the arrangements about the double bond, hence the answer will be C.

Q136. Which is the correct product formed when monohydric alcohol reacts with sodium metal?

• A. Alkene
• B. Sodum alkoxide✓
• C. Alkane
• D. Ether

Explanation: When alcohols react with metals a salt is formed,the reaction when a monohydric alcohol reacts with sodium metal results in the production of sodium alkoxide and hydrogen gas, hence the answer is B.

Q137. Coal, natural gas and petroleum are generally called:

• A. Fossil fuels✓
• B. Renewable sources
• C. Infiinite sources
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Coal, natural gas and petroleum are all generally called fossil fuels and are nonrenewable sources of energy.

Q138. Benzene reacts with acetyl chloride in the presence of lewis acid forming:

• A. Chlorobenzene
• B. Acetophenone✓
• C. Benzoic acid
• D. Benzophenone

Explanation: The reaction between benzene and acetyl chloride in the presence of lewis acid results in the formation of an aryl ketone , methyl phenyl ketone also known as acetophenone, hence the answer is B.

Q139. When 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane undergoes unimolecular elimination reaction, the product obtained will be:

• A. 2-Methyl propane✓
• B. 2-Methyl propene
• C. 2-Methyl-1 propanol
• D. 2-pentanol

Explanation: Bromine is eliminated and the product obtained is 2-Methyl propane hence option A is correct.

Q140. Can we see magnetic flux lines?

• A. Yes
• B. No✓
• C. Depends on strength of field
• D. Only when the field is large

Explanation: Magnetic flux lines are imaginary lines drawn solely for a better understanding of magnetic flux.

Q141. Spectral lines is like a _ of absorbed or emission energy in a spectrum

• A. charged pattern
• B. fingerprint pattern✓
• C. discharged pattern
• D. None of these

Explanation: Fingerprints are patterns specific to each person, therefore they can be used to identify individuals. Similarly, spectral lines act as fingerprints that allow us to identify and distinguish the matter within galaxies and heavenly bodies. By studying the light emitted from certain celestial bodies, spectral lines tell us about the presence of certain atoms and elements present within that body.

Q142. Which among the following phenomenon shows particle nature of light?

• A. Photoelectric effect✓
• B. Interference
• C. Polarization
• D. Matter waves

Explanation: Photoelectric Effect: The phenomenon in which an incident ray of light is ejected from the surface of a metal when light is incident on it, is called the Photoelectric Effect. In photoelectric effect, the light causes electrons to be released on the surface of a metal. When light energy strikes the metal surface, it does so in the form of energy packets. This proves the particle nature of light. Interference: When two waves from different coherent sources interfere with one another such that the phenomenon of superposition ensues and the resultant wave is formed either with a higher, lower, or the same amplitude, we call it interference of light. Interference is a phenomenon caused by the wave nature of light. Polarization: When light waves are transformed from an unpolarized state (where the direction of vibration is in many planes) to a polarized state (where the direction of vibrations for all waves is in the same plane), we call it polarization. Polarization explains the wave nature of light. Matter Waves: The exhibition of wave behavior by elementary particles or atoms results in a matter wave.

Q143. For ideal step up transformer Ps_Pp.

• A. equal to✓
• B. greater than
• C. less than
• D. none of these

Explanation: power remain same.

Q144. The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero ( 0 K) is

• A. Almost zero✓
• B. Almost infinite
• C. No prediction at all
• D. May increase or decrease

Explanation: At absolute zero i.e, 0K which is also the minimum temperature, the Resistance of the conductor becomes minimum but not exactly zero.

Q145. If system changes from a state Pl Vl to P2V2 by two paths then quantity which remains unchanged is

• A. dQ
• B. dW
• C. dQ-dW✓
• D. dQ+dW

Explanation: In a thermodynamic process, the internal energy (ΔU = ΔQ - ΔW) is a state function, therefore it depends only on the initial and the final points of the system, thus remaining unchanged.

Q146. The radiations all around us are called _ radiations

• A. natural
• B. artificial
• C. both a or b✓
• D. no radiation is around us

Explanation: Humans come into contact with radiation on a daily basis. These radiations are both natural, such as the rays from the sun, and artificial, such as those from our TV screens or kitchen stoves. This radiation that we experience on a daily basis is known as background radiation

Q147. Verbal Reasoning: Statements: (I) He have got cavity in his tooth (II) He eats too much chocolates

• A. statement 1 is the cause and 2 is its effect
• B. statement 2 is the cause and 1 is its effect✓
• C. both statements are independent causes
• D. both statements are of common cause

Explanation: eating chocolate leads to Bacteria in the mouth turns sugar into acids, which eat away at the surface of teeth. This causes tooth decay and cavities.

Q148. An electron has charge-e- and mass m. A proton has charge e and mass 1840m. A "Proton volt" is equal to:

• A. 1 eV✓
• B. 1840 eV
• C. (1/1840) eV
• D. √1840 eV

Explanation: 1pV= 1eV

Q149. The rotational inertia of a disk about its axis is 0.70 Kg. m2. When a 2.0-kg weight is added to itsrim, 0.40m from the axis, the rotational inertia becomes:

• A. 0.38 Kg – m2
• B. 0.54 kg – m2
• C. 0.86 kg – m2
• D. 1.0 kg – m2✓

Explanation: The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis O is IO=0.7kgm2 The moment of inertia of the mass is Im=mr2=2⋅0.42=0.32kgm2 The total moment of inertia is I=IO+Im=0.7+0.32=1.02kgm2

Q150. Which of the following is closest to a yard:

• A. 0.01 m
• B. 0.1 m
• C. 1 m✓
• D. 100 m

Explanation: A yard is one such unit to measure length. One yard is equal to 0.9144 meters. 1m is closest to 0.9 so option C is correct Yard= 0.914m=1m

Q151. A wheel starts from rest and has an angular acceleration of 4.0 rad/s2. When it has made 10 rev its angular velocity is:

• A. 16 rad/s
• B. 22 rad/s✓
• C. 32 rad/s
• D. 250 rad/s

Explanation: a = 4 rad/s2 S = 10 rev = 62.83 rad Where is the final angular velocity, the initial angular velocity, a is the angular acceleration and S the radians. We get: = 22.41rad/s

Q152. In a vibrating cord the point where the particles are stationary is called:

• A. Node✓
• B. Anti-node
• C. Crest
• D. Trough

Explanation: Nodes are points of zero amplitude, therefore the answer will be A.

Q153. When lead, 81Pb214, emits a ß- particle, the resultant nucleus will be:

• A. 83Bi214
• B. 84Po214
• C. 82Pb214✓
• D. 41TI214

Explanation: In Beta- particle emission the mass number remains constant while the atomic number +1.

Q154. Three equivalent resistors connected in parallel have equivalent resistance R/3. When they are connected in series then the equivalent resistance is:

• A. 3R✓
• B. R/3
• C. R
• D. 2R

Explanation: When three equivalent resistors (each with resistance R) are connected in parallel, the equivalent reaistance is given 1/ Req = 1/R +1/R + 1/R = 3/R So, Req = 3/RWhen the same resistors are connected in series, the equivalent reaistance is the sum of the individual resistances: Req = R + R + R = 3RTherefore, the equivalent reaistance when the three equivalent resistors are connected in series is 3R.

Q155. Ohm‘s law is valid only for

• A. Thermistor
• B. Bulb filament
• C. Metals✓
• D. Semiconductors

Explanation: Ohms law is valid for metallic conductors, hence the answer will be C.

Q156. Which of the given formulae would be used to calculate the wavelength of an electron? Given its velocity(v), its mass (m) and constant h:

• A. v = f.λ
• B. λ = h / mv✓
• C. s = d/t
• D. p = λ x h

Explanation: De broglies’ wave equation is used to calculate the wavelength =h / mv hence option B is correct.

Q157. The energy stored in a charged capacltor is given by:

• A. 1/2 CV2
• B. 1/2 QV
• C. 1/2 m v2
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Since E = 1/2 QV, we can write E as 1/2CV2 OR E=Q2/2C thus option D is correct

Q158. The potential difference between a pair of similar and parallel conducting plates is known. What additional information is needed in order to find the electric field strength between the plates?

• A. Separation of the plates✓
• B. Separation and area of the plates
• C. Permittivity of the medium; separation of the plates
• D. Permittivity of the medium; separation and area of the plates

Explanation: The strength of an electric field is calculated viaE = V/d, where V is the potential difference and d is the distance between the plates, hence the answer will be A.

Q159. A capacitor which has a capacitance of 1 farad will:

• A. Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 ampere
• B. Store 1 coulomb of charge at a potential difference of 1 volt.✓
• C. Gain 1 joule of energy when 1 coulomb of charge is stored on it.
• D. Discharge in 1 second when connected aoross a resistor of resistance 1 ohm

Explanation: A capacitor with a capacitance of one farad will store one coloumb of charge when one volt of potential difference is applied across it.

Q160. The internal energy of a fixed case of an ideal gas depends on:

• A. Pressure, but not volume or temperature
• B. Temperature, but not pressure or volume✓
• C. Volume, but not pressure or temperature
• D. Pressure and temperature, but not volume

Explanation: In an ideal gas the inter-molecular collisions are assumed to be absent and the collisions are perfectly elastic, thus, the gas only possesses kinetic energy and hence the internal energy of the ideal gas only depends on temperature,hence the answer will be B.

Q161. Radioactive activity is affected by:

• A. Temperature
• B. Pressure
• C. Humidity level
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: Radioactivity is a spontaneous emission and does not depend on nor affected by external conditions such as temperature, air pressure etc. hence the correct answer will be D.

Q162. The change in enthalpy at constant pressure, △H is equal to:

• A. △H = q + P△V✓
• B. △H = △E- P△V
• C. △H = △E + P△V
• D. △H = q - P△V

Explanation: The change in enthalpy, ∆H, at constant pressure is equal to the sum of the heat absorbed or released, q, and the pressure-volume work, P∆V, done on or by the system during the process. This is because enthapy, H, is defined as the sum of internal energy, U, and the product of pressure and volume, PV, and at constant pressure, the change in enthalpy is equal to the heat transferred plus the Workdone. ∆H = q + P∆V

Q163. An organ pipe of length T has one end closed but the other end open. What is the wavelength of the fundamental node emitted?

• A. Slightly smaller than 41✓
• B. Slightly larger than 41
• C. Roughly equal to 3/2.
• D. Slightly larger than 21

Explanation: Fundamental wavelength 4xT

Q164. During adiabatic expansion internal energy decreases by 2J, then work done in this process is

• A. 2J✓
• B. 1J
• C. -1J
• D. -2J

Explanation: In an adiabatic process, the net of a system remains 0. The equation for heat is given by;Q = ΔU + WAs the heat energy is 0;0 = ΔU + WTherefore, W = -ΔUThere is a 2J decrease in the internal heat U, which can be written as -2J, with the negative signrepresenting the decrease. Thus, by the equation, work done is +2J.

Q165. Michelson interferometer can be used to measure:

• A. speed of sound
• B. wavelength of sound
• C. speed of light
• D. wavelength of light✓

Explanation: Michelson's Interferometer uses the phenomena of interference to measure the wavelength of light from a source.

Q166. Statements and Actions: Statement The Management of School M has decided to give free breakfast from next academic year to all the students in its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant. Courses of Action (I) The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year. (II) The canteen facilities and utensils have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it properly. (Ill) Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.

• A. Only II and Ill follows✓
• B. Only Ill and I follow
• C. Only I and II follow
• D. Only I follows

Explanation: Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. So, only II and III follow.

Q167. Statements and Actions: Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased. I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality. II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.

• A. Both of them follows
• B. None of them follows✓
• C. Only I follows
• D. Only II follows

Explanation: The ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.

Q168. You stand on a spring scale on the floor of an elevator. Of the following, the scale shows the highest reading when the elevator:

• A. Moves upward with increasing speed✓
• B. Moves upward with decreasing speed
• C. Remains stationary
• D. Moves downward with increasing speed

Explanation: The scale shows the highest reading when the elevator moves upward with increasing speed. This is because the spring scale measures the normal force that is exerted on you by the floor of the elevator. When the elevator is moving upward with increasing speed, the normal force is greater than when the elevator is moving upward with decreasing speed, or when it is moving downward with increasing speed, or when it is stationary. The reason for this is that when the elevator is moving upward with increasing speed, you are accelerating upwards. This means that there is a net force acting on you in the upwards direction. The normal force from the floor of the elevator is what counteracts this net force and keeps you from accelerating upwards indefinitely. The greater the acceleration, the greater the normal force must be. In contrast, when the elevator is moving upward with decreasing speed, or when it is moving downward with increasing speed, or when it is stationary, there is no net force acting on you. This means that the normal force from the floor of the elevator is equal to your weight. So, the scale shows the highest reading when the elevator moves upward with increasing speed because the normal force is greatest in this case.

Q169. Which thermodynamic temperature is equivalent to 501.850C?

• A. 775.00 K✓
• B. 774.85 K
• C. 228.85 K
• D. 228.70 K

Explanation: To convert from Celsius (C) to thermodynamic temperature, also known as Kelvin (K), you can use the formula:Kelvin (K) = Celsius (C) + 273.15So, to find the thermodynamic temperature equivalent to 501.85°C, you can do the following calculation:Kelvin (K) = 501.85 + 273.15Kelvin (K) = 775.00 KTherefore, 501.85°C is equivalent to 775.00 K.

Q170. The rate of change of momentum of a body falling freely under gravity is equal to its:

• A. Impulse
• B. Kinetic energy
• C. Power
• D. Weight✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The rate of change of momentum of a body falling freely under gravity is equal to its weight. This is because the force of gravity is the only force acting on the body, and the force of gravity is equal to the weight of the body. The rate of change of momentum is given by the following formula: Force = Rate of Change of Momentum where: Force acting on the object Rate of Change of Momentum is the rate at which the momentum of the object is changing The weight of an object is given by the following formula: Weight = Mass * Gravity where: Weight is the force of gravity acting on the object Mass is the mass of the object Gravity is the acceleration due to gravity Substituting the force of gravity into the formula for the rate of change of momentum, we get: Mass * Gravity = Rate of Change of Momentum This means that the rate of change of momentum of a body falling freely under gravity is equal to its weight.

Q171. Drops X and Y, of the same oil, remained stationary in air in the same electric field. After the field was switched off, X fell more quickly than Y. which deduction can be made?

• A. X had a greater charge than Y✓
• B. Y ha a greater chrge than X
• C. Parallel but opposite
• D. Parallel, opposite and folded spirally.

Explanation: The drag force on the drops is proportional to the square of droplets radii but the weight of the droplets is proportional to its cube, therefore the larger the droplet the heavier it is and will fall faster after the field is removed, in order to keep the droplet in equilibrium when the field is applied, X must have a larger charge than Y, hence the answer will be A.

Q172. What are the units of the ratio: specific latent heat of vaporization of water/ specific heat capacity of water

• A. K✓
• B. 1/K
• C. K^2
• D. no unit

Explanation: Explanation

Q173. The deuterium atom has _ quarks

• A. 3
• B. 6✓
• C. 9
• D. 12

Explanation: It is a Fact.

Q174. The phase angle between two points in a medium is 4pi/5. What is the separation between these two points if the wavelength of the wave is 5m.

• A. 5/4 m
• B. 4pi m
• C. 2 m✓
• D. 10 m

Explanation: Explanation will be added shortly

Q175. A particle, held by a string whose other end is attached to a fixed point C, moves in a circle on a horizontal frictionless surface. If the string is cut, the angular momentum of the particle about the point: C.

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases
• C. Does not change✓
• D. Changes direction but not magnitude

Explanation: The angular momentum of the particle about the point C will not change if the string is cut. This is because the angular momentum of a particle is conserved if there is no external torque acting on the particle. When the string is cut, there is no external torque acting on the particle, so the angular momentum of the particle is conserved. The angular momentum of a particle is defined as the product of the particle's momentum and its distance from the axis of rotation. In this case, the axis of rotation is the point C. When the string is cut, the particle will continue to move in a circle, but the radius of the circle will increase. This will cause the particle's momentum to decrease, but the product of the particle's momentum and its distance from the axis of rotation will remain the same. So, the angular momentum of the particle will not change.

Q176. Which of the following furnaces is used for the production of wrought iron?

• A. Open hearth furnace✓
• B. Reverberatory furnace
• C. Bessemer converter
• D. Blast furnace

Explanation: A puddling furnace is used which is a type of an open hearth furnace, it is constructed to pull hot air over the iron without the fuel coming in direct contact with the iron. Therefore the correct answer will be A.

Q177. A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it:

• A. Is zero
• B. Is constant but not zero✓
• C. Increases uniformly with respect to time
• D. Is proportional to the displacement of the mass from a fixed point

Explanation: A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is constant but not zero, if the mass accelerates uniformly, then the net force acting upon the object is inversely proportional to the mass, hence the answer will be B.

Q178. Moon is revolving around the earth, work done by the earth on the moon is

• A. positive
• B. zero✓
• C. negative
• D. none of these

Explanation: B. The formula for work done on a body is; W = F × d cos θWhere,F = the force of gravitation applied by the earth.d = displacement between the two bodiesθ = the angle between F and dWhen the moon revolves around the earth, there is a 90° angle between the displacement of the moon and the gravitational force exerted by the earth.Putting θ = 90° in the equation,W = F × d cos But, Cos 90° = 0So, W = 0

Q179. The differences in energy between different states of bond vibrations in a molecule correspond to which electromagnetic region?

• A. Microwave
• B. Infrared✓
• C. Visible
• D. X-rays

Explanation: The difference in energy between two vibrational states is equal to the energy associated with the wavelength of radiation that was absorbed, it lies in the infrared region, therefore the answer is B.

Q180. A wire of resistance 4Ω is bent in the form of a circle. The resistance between the ends of any diameter is:

• A. 1 Ω✓
• B. 2 Ω
• C. 4 Ω
• D. 8 Ω

Explanation: In forming a ring and measuring the resistance across the diameter, we divided the length of the wire in half. If the whole wire before we bent it is 4 ohms, then each half considered by itself is 2 ohms. What this then means is that we’ve reduced this to two 2-ohm resistances in parallel. According to the formula for resistances in parallel: 1/R AB = 1/R1 + 1/R2 = 2/2R = 1/R Or RAB = 1 ohm is our answer.

Q181. Photons of energy 10.25 eV fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 5.0 eV. What is the stopping voltage required for these electrons?

• A. 10V
• B. 8V
• C. 5V✓
• D. 4V

Explanation: The required equation is given as:Stopping voltage = Kmax/e.Kmax/e=5.0eV/eKmax/e = 5.0 VTherefore, the stopping potential = 5 V.

Q182. Blackbody shows a _ spectra:

• A. Continuous✓
• B. Discrete
• C. Band
• D. Line

Explanation: A black body is an idealized object that absorbs all electromagnetic radiation it comes in contact with. It then emits thermal radiation in a continuous spectrum according to its temperature.

Q183. Which radiation passes through black body:

• A. Alpha
• B. Gamma
• C. Beta
• D. All✓

Explanation: A black body is an idealized object that absorbs all electromagnetic radiation so technically they all pass.

Q184. The electromagnetic radiation which moves with high frequency will have _ wavelength:

• A. Short✓
• B. Long
• C. Unchanged
• D. Variable

Explanation: In electromagnetic wave spectrum frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional.

Q185. When electron absorbs a photon and jumps to higher states it is called:

• A. De-excitation
• B. Excitation✓
• C. Emission
• D. Conversion

Explanation: When an electron absorbs energy, it jumps to a higher orbital. This is called an excited state. An electron in an excited state can release energy and 'fall' to a lower state.

Q186. 1 kilowatt =_ Watts.

• A. 2000 watts
• B. 1000 watts✓
• C. 300 watts
• D. 100 Watts

Explanation: 1 kW is equal to 1x103 W or 1000 W.

Q187. A block moves in uniform circular motion because a cord tied to the block is anchored at the centre of a circle. Then the power of the force exerted on the block by the cord is:

• A. Positive
• B. Negative
• C. Zero✓
• D. Infinite

Explanation: Correct option is C. F and v are perpendicular.Power = Force x v = FVcos90 = Zero

Q188. In case of half wave rectification the resistance of diode during negative half of A.C is:

• A. Very high✓
• B. Very low
• C. A few ohms
• D. Negative

Explanation: A half-wave rectifier converts an AC signal to DC by passing either the negative or positive half-cycle of the waveform and blocking the other. Half-wave rectifiers can be easily constructed using only one diode, but are less efficient than full-wave rectifiers. During negative half of half wave rectifier, the diode is reverse biased i.e the current of few ohms and hence very high resistance.

Q189. Newton first law of motion is also known as:

• A. Law of inertia✓
• B. Law of electromagnetism
• C. Law of universal gravity
• D. Law of conservation of momentum

Explanation: The property of a body to remain at rest or to remain in motion with constant velocity is called inertia. Newton's first law is often called the law of inertia.

Q190. 12,32,72,152 _

• A. 312✓
• B. 325
• C. 515
• D. 613

Explanation: 12+20=32 32+40=72 72+80=152 so 160 should be added in 152 152+160=312

Q191. Complete the sequence: 2, 15, 41, 80, _

• A. 111
• B. 120
• C. 121
• D. 132✓

Explanation: Multiples of 13 are being added + 13 +26 +39 so now you'll add 52

Q192. 8, 10, 14, 18, _ , 34, 50 , 66:

• A. 24
• B. 25
• C. 26✓
• D. 27

Explanation: The increasing order is +2,+4, +4, +8, +16, +16 8 + 2= 10 10 + 4= 14 14 + 4 = 8 18 + 8= 26

Q193. What letter comes next in the following series? B D G K P

• A. C
• B. E
• C. B
• D. V✓
• E. Q

Explanation: B c D D e f G G h i j K K l m n o P P q r s t u V

Q194. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.Blueberries cost less than raspberries.Raspberries cost mre than strawberries and blueberries.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True✓
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: Explanation Because the first two statements are true, raspberries are the most expensive of the three.

Q195. The Emporium Mall has more stores than the Pakages Mall.The Amanah Mall has fewer stores than the Pakages Mall.The Emporium Mall has more stores than the Amanah Mall.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

• A. True✓
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: Explanation From the first two statements, you know that the Emporium mall has the most stores, so the Emporium Mall would have more stores than the packages Mall.