Free National Mdcat Mock — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the sentence with correct punctuation:

• A. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board.✓
• B. However it didn't take long for others to jump on board.
• C. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board?
• D. However. It didn't take long for others to jump on board.

Explanation: The correct option is: "However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board." A comma is necessary after the introductory word "However" to create a pause and connect it properly to the main clause.

Q2. Demonstrate the correct use of subject-verb agreement:Your hands and feet _ nearly half the bones in your body.

• A. Contained
• B. Contains
• C. Contain✓
• D. Containing

Explanation: This is because "hands and feet" is a plural subject, and therefore requires the plural verb "contain."

Q3. Select the most suitable synonym for the given word:APPALLING

• A. Terrible✓
• B. Appealing
• C. Waning
• D. Snowballing

Explanation: Appalling is something causing immense horror or dismay and is thus synonymous with terrible.

Q4. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.I have no _ motive in offering this advice; I seek no personal advantage or honor.

• A. Nominal
• B. Altruistic
• C. Ulterior✓
• D. Disinterested

Explanation: The sentence suggests that the speaker has no hidden or secret motive (ulterior motive) in offering advice, implying that their intention is genuine and not driven by personal gain or self-interest.

Q5. Find the error of punctuationThe road runs through a beautiful wooded valley, the railway line follows it.

• A. Runs
• B. Through
• C. Valley✓
• D. Follows it

Explanation: The correct answer is valley because the error is in the punctuation between the two independent clauses. There is a comma splice after "valley." Two complete sentences are incorrectly joined with a comma. It should be replaced with a period or semicolon.

Q6. Find the error in following sentence.In each question in the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the answer sheet.

• A. We have a motto: live life to the full.✓
• B. We have a motto, live life to the full.
• C. We have a motto; live life to the full.
• D. We have a motto live life to the full

Explanation: This sentence correctly uses a colon to introduce a quotation or a statement that explains or illustrates the preceding clause. The phrase "live life to the full" serves as an explanation of the motto mentioned. Colons are often used to introduce a list, a quote, an explanation, or an example.Correct Answer: A) We have a motto: live life to the full.The colon correctly introduces the explanatory statement "live life to the full," making this the best and grammatically correct option.

Q7. Convert into Passive Voice;"James Watt discovered the energy of steam."

• A. The energy of steam has been discovered James Watt.
• B. The energy of steam was discovered by James Watt.✓
• C. James Watt was discovered by the energy of steam.
• D. James Watt had discovered energy by the steam.

Explanation: - The original sentence "James Watt discovered the energy of steam" is in active voice, where the subject "James Watt" performs the action of discovering.- To convert it to passive voice, we need to make the energy of steam the subject, and the action (discovering) is performed on it. Hence, the correct passive voice construction is "The energy of steam was discovered by James Watt".

Q8. Use of electronic mail (e-mail) has been widespread for more than a decade. E-mail simplifies the flow of ideas, connects people from distant offices, eliminates the need for meetings, and often boosts productivity. However, e-mail should be carefully managed to avoid unclear and inappropriate communication. E-mail messages should be concise and limited to one topic. When complex issues need to be addressed, phone calls are still best.Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

• A. Appropriate use of e-mail✓
• B. E-mail's popularity
• C. E-mail: The ideal form of communication
• D. Why phone calls are better than e-mail

Explanation: The passage discusses the advantages of e-mail, including its ability to simplify communication and boost productivity, while also emphasizing the need for careful management to avoid unclear or inappropriate messages.

Q9. Choose the correct option.

• A. A man, he, I have never seen before, was asking about you.
• B. A man, whoever I have never seen before, was asking about you.
• C. A man, who have never seen before, was asking about you.
• D. A man, whom I have never seen before, was asking about you.✓

Explanation: This option is correct. "Whom" is the correct object pronoun to use in this context. It correctly serves as the object of the verb "have seen" in the clause "whom I have never seen before."

Q10. The hormone which controls the uptake of Sodium ions in kidney and its maintenance in blood plasma is:

• A. Somatotrophic Hormone
• B. Aldosterone Hormone✓
• C. Gonadotrophic Hormone
• D. Thyroxine Hormone

Explanation: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone. Its main role is to regulate salt and water in the body, thus having an effect on blood pressure.Growth hormone (GH), also called somatotropin or human growth hormone, is a peptide hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It stimulates the growth of essentially all tissues of the body, including bone.Gonadotropins: Luteinizing and Follicle Stimulating Hormones. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are called gonadotropins because they stimulate the gonads - in males, the testes, and in females, the ovaries.Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the thyroid gland. It plays vital roles in digestion, heart and muscle function, brain development and maintenance of bones.

Q11. _ is sometimes given by injection as an emergency treatment in cardiac arrest.

• A. Acetylcholine
• B. Dopamine
• C. Serotonin
• D. Epinephrine✓

Explanation: When CPR does not generate coronary perfusion of more than 15-20 mmHg, return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) rarely or never occurs. After more than a few minutes of cardiac arrest, arterial tone collapses, and epinephrine or another vasoconstrictor is essential for restoration of cardiac activity.

Q12. _ hormone is released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

• A. Adrenaline
• B. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
• C. FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone)
• D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)✓

Explanation: The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces two hormones, vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin. Adrenaline is released from the adrenal glands and its major action, together with noradrenaline, is to prepare the body for 'fight or flight'. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, also known as TSH, is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the anterior pituitary. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Q13. Thyroid gland requires high amount of:

• A. Phosphate
• B. Calcium
• C. Iodine✓
• D. Sodium

Explanation: Iodine is essential to maintain a healthy thyroid. Iodine is the critical 'ingredient' for the production of thyroid hormones.

Q14. Which of the following is the function of adrenaline?

• A. To increase the rate of breathing
• B. To increase the heart rate
• C. To increase the level of calcium in blood
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Adrenaline is released in a fight or flight situation. In flight or fight conditions, both the breathing rate and the heart rate increase in order to increase alertness.

Q15. Deficient production of hormones by adrenal glands results in:

• A. Cushing's syndrome
• B. Addison's disease✓
• C. Diabetes Mellitus
• D. Goiter
• E. Epilepsy

Explanation: Addison's disease is the result of insufficient production of hormones from the adrenal glands, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. This condition leads to symptoms such as fatigue, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. Cushing's syndrome, in contrast, is caused by excessive cortisol. Diabetes Mellitus involves insulin issues and not adrenal hormones. Goiter relates to thyroid gland issues, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder, both unrelated to adrenal insufficiency.

Q16. The gland known as the" gland of emergency" is the

• A. Pituitary
• B. Adrenal gland✓
• C. Thyroid
• D. Parathyroid
• E. Pancreas

Explanation: The adrenal glands are often referred to as the "glands of emergency" because they play a crucial role in the body's stress response. These glands produce hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol, which prepare the body to respond to stressful situations by increasing heart rate, raising blood pressure, and mobilizing energy resources.

Q17. Which of the following neurotransmitters function, both as neurotransmitter and hormones, decreasing our perception of pain?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Serotonin
• C. Dopamine
• D. Endorphins✓

Explanation: All the options are both, a hormone as well neurotransmitters. Epinephrine, commonly referred to as Adrenaline, relaxes the airway muscles, making it easier for the person to breathe. At the same time, it constricts blood vessels, helping to improve blood pressure. It also increases the heart rate. However, it does not decrease the response to pain.Serotonin, is used by the body to send messages between nerve cells. It appears to play a role in mood, emotions, appetite, and digestion. As the precursor for melatonin, it helps regulate sleep-wake cycles and the body clock. However, it plays no role in decreasing pain response.Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in how we feel pleasure. It's a big part of our unique human ability to think and plan. However, it plays no role in the pain response.Endorphins are substances produced by the nervous system to cope with pain or stress. They are often called “feel-good” chemicals because they can act as pain relievers and happiness boosters. Hence, Option D is correct.

Q18. Which hormone is chemically a steroid?

• A. ADH
• B. Thyroxin
• C. Cortisone✓
• D. Insulin

Explanation: Steroid hormones are fat-soluble molecules made from cholesterol. Among these are the three major sex hormone groups: estrogens, androgens, and progesterones. Males and females make all three, just in different amounts. The steroids that are made almost exclusively in the adrenal glands are cortisol, 11-deoxycortisol, aldosterone, corticosterone, and 11-deoxycorticosterone. Most other steroid hormones, including estrogens, are made by the adrenal glands and the gonads.

Q19. Due to the deficiency of _ hormone, synthesis of glycogen gets depressed, glucose level increases in blood and leads to a condition called Diabetes mellitus.

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Parathormone
• C. Glucagon
• D. Insulin✓
• E. Cortisol

Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by high levels of glucose in the blood due to the inability of the body to produce or respond to the hormone insulin. Insulin is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas and is responsible for glucose uptake from the blood into the cells, where it can be used as energy or stored as glycogen. When insulin is deficient, as in the case of diabetes, glycogen synthesis gets depressed, and glucose levels increase in the blood.

Q20. On receiving the news of the sudden demise of a close friend; which is the most probable hormone that is secreted at that time?

• A. Prostaglandin
• B. Growth inhibitors
• C. Estrogen
• D. Adrenaline✓
• E. Thyroxin

Explanation: When a close person dies, this can cause the adrenal glands to pour adrenaline hormones into the bloodstream due to anxiety that subsides the emotional stress.

Q21. One of these processes does not happen as a result of a negative feedback mechanism in humans?

• A. Secretion of insulin by the pancreas in response to increased blood glucose concentration
• B. Secretion of oxytocin in response to dilation of the cervix during childbirth✓
• C. Secretion of glucagon by pancreas in response to decreased blood glucose concentration
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Options A and C are examples of negative feedback. In option A, when blood sugar rises, receptors in the body sense a change. In turn, the control center (pancreas) secretes insulin into the blood, effectively lowering blood sugar levels. In option C, if the blood glucose level is too low, the pancreas releases the hormone glucagon. This travels to the liver in the blood and causes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. The glucose enters the bloodstream, and glucose levels increase back to normal. Option B is an example of positive feedback. Positive feedback amplifies or magnifies the change or output. The stimulus for oxytocin secretion is dilation of the uterine cervix, which signals the brain to release oxytocin from nerve endings in the posterior pituitary gland. The uterine contractions are further enhanced due to the oxytocin, which results in greater dilation of the cervix, which strengthens the signal for oxytocin release, and so on until the infant is expelled from the uterine cavity.

Q22. Which disease is represented by excess MSH secretion?

• A. Addison's✓
• B. Alzheimer's
• C. Parkinson's
• D. Crohn's

Explanation: In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones (including cortisol). As a consequence, the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release more adrenocorticotropic hormone to try and stimulate the adrenal glands to produce more cortisol. The ADTH hormone can cause the excess secretion of MSH.

Q23. Adrenaline is _ in nature.

• A. Polypeptide
• B. Amino acid✓
• C. None of the above
• D. Steroid

Explanation: Adrenaline and norepinephrine are thought to be amino acid-based and derived in nature. Testosterone and estrogen are steroid-based hormones, whereas Anti-diuretic hormone and oxytocin are short polypeptide chain hormones.

Q24. Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone?

• A. Glycogen to Glucose✓
• B. Glucose to Glycogen
• C. Glucose to Lipids
• D. Glucose to Proteins

Explanation: Glucagon is a hormone released by the pancreas, which helps maintain blood sugar levels. It does this by converting glycogen into glucose, thus increasing blood sugar.

Q25. The gonadotropic hormones of the anterior lobe of the pituitary include:

• A. Prolactin, Thyroid Stimulating Hormone, Somatotropin Hormone
• B. Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Luteinizing Hormone, Prolactin✓
• C. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone, Luteinizing Hormone, Follicle Stimulating Hormone
• D. Luteinizing Hormone, Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

Explanation: Gonadotropins are glycoprotein hormones secreted by gonadotropic cells of the anterior pituitary gland. Luteinizing Hormone (LH), Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), and prolactin are the three hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Q26. The deficiency of calcitonin results in ?

• A. Bone formation
• B. Kidney stone✓
• C. Hyperthyroidism
• D. Hypothyroidism

Explanation: A diet low in calcium actually increases one’s risk of developing kidney stones. A lack of calcitonin in the blood may increase a person’s risk of bone degradation and osteopenia.

Q27. The first hormone to be discovered was:

• A. Secretin✓
• B. Testosterone
• C. Insulin
• D. Thyroxin

Explanation: Wm. M. Bayliss and Ernest H. Starling discovered secretin, the first hormone, in 1902. They discovered this hormone when they were studying pancreatic secretion. Secretin hormone stimulates the pancreas to secrete digestive fluid.

Q28. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is:

• A. Corpus cardiacum
• B. Corpus luteum✓
• C. Corpus allatum
• D. Pineal gland

Explanation: The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland in human females. It is formed after the follicle ruptures and LH transforms this ruptured follicle into a yellow glandular mass called the corpus luteum. It secretes progesterone, which stimulates the uterine glands to produce an increased amount of watery mucus and is also essential for the maintenance of the endometrium lining. In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to menstruation. Hence, it is considered a temporary gland because it secretes hormones for some time and then degenerates.

Q29. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because :

• A. It is provided with a duct
• B. It only stores and releases hormones✓
• C. It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
• D. It secretes enzymes

Explanation: The posterior pituitary is not a true endocrine gland because it does not produce its own hormones. Instead, it functions as a storage area for hormones, specifically antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, which are synthesized in the hypothalamus. These hormones are transported down nerve fibers from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary, where they are then released into the bloodstream when stimulated.

Q30. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:

• A. Oxytocin - posterior pituitary - growth and maintenance of mammary glands
• B. Melatonin - ­pineal gland - regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.✓
• C. Progesterone - corpus luteum-stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs
• D. Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall - increases the blood pressure.

Explanation: Option C is correct. Melatonin is a hormone produced by the brain's pineal gland that primarily regulates circadian rhythms, the body's 24-hour internal clock, to promote sleep and wake cycles. Beyond sleep, it functions as an antioxidant and anti-inflammatory agent, protecting cells and DNA from damage. Melatonin also supports the immune system and can influence reproductive functions and brain health by protecting against neurodegeneration. Oxytocin is produced by the hypothalamus and generally secreted by the posterior pituitary. It stimulates the secretion of milk from mammary glands; causes contraction of the uterus at the time of childbirth. Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum. It stimulates the uterus for pregnancy, implantation, formation of the placenta, and development of the mammary glands. The atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by the atrial wall in response to an increased return of the venous blood. This hormone regulates the blood volume through increased excretion of ions and water.

Q31. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, a low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:

• A. Cancer of the thyroid gland
• B. Oversecretion of pars distalis
• C. Deficiency of iodine in diet✓
• D. Low secretion of growth hormone

Explanation: Iodine is needed for the synthesis of T3 and T4. Iodine binds to the tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin, which is then hydrolysed into iodotyrosines that combine to form tri-iodothyronine (T3 ) or thyroxine (tetraiodothyronine or T4 ). Therefore, deficiency of iodine in the diet of a pregnant female will lead to the improper synthesis of thyroid hormones in the newly borne infant.

Q32. Chemically, hormones are _

• A. Biogenic amines only
• B. Proteins, steroids and biogenic amines✓
• C. Proteins only
• D. Steroids only

Explanation: Hormones are chemical messengers produced by the ductless glands (sometimes by neurons) and transported in the circulation to target cells. They regulate metabolic processes. Chemically, hormones are of different natures like biogenic amines (like thyroxine, adrenaline, etc), proteinaceous or polypeptides (like hypothalamic hormones, etc.), and steroids (like sex hormones and adrenocorticoids).

Q33. Movement of the hip joint is which type of synovial joint?

• A. Gliding joint
• B. Ball and socket joint✓
• C. Pivot joint
• D. Hinge joint

Explanation: The hip joint allows movement in all directions, including rotation. This wide range of motion is characteristic of a ball and socket synovial joint.

Q34. Which vertebrae together are called pelvic vertebrae?

• A. Coccygeal and lumbar
• B. Sacral and lumbar
• C. Sacral and coccygeal✓
• D. Sacral and thoracic

Explanation: The single sacrum is formed by the fusion of five sacral vertebrae. Similarly, the coccyx or tail bone results from the fusion of four small coccygeal vertebrae. The pelvic skeleton is formed in the area of the back, by the sacrum and the coccyx, and anteriorly, and to the left and right sides, by a pair of hip bones. The two hip bones connect the spine with the lower limbs.

Q35. Bones of the skull are joined by:

• A. Fibrous joints✓
• B. Sliding joints
• C. Pivot joints
• D. Hinge joints
• E. Gliding joints

Explanation: Fibrous joints are characterized by being immovable and are primarily found in the skull, where they are known as sutures. These joints provide stability and protection for the brain by holding the skull bones firmly together. Other joint types, such as sliding, pivot, hinge, and gliding joints, allow varying degrees of movement and are not suitable for the protective function required by the skull.

Q36. When a physician elicits the knee-jerk reflex by tapping deep tendons in the knee, the normal response is for the lower leg to swing forward. When this happens:

• A. Muscles in the front of the thigh are contracting, and muscles in the back of the thigh are relaxing✓
• B. Muscles in the front of the lower leg are contracting, and muscles in the back of the lower leg are relaxing
• C. Muscles in the back of the thigh are contracting, and muscles in the front of the thigh are relaxing
• D. Muscles in the back of the lower leg are contracting and muscles in the front of the lower leg are relaxing
• E. None of the above

Explanation: In the knee-jerk reflex, tapping the patellar tendon causes the quadriceps, located at the front of the thigh, to contract. This contraction results in the extension of the lower leg, moving it forward. Simultaneously, the hamstrings at the back of the thigh relax to facilitate this movement. This reflex is an example of a monosynaptic reflex arc, where sensory neurons are directly connected to motor neurons in the spinal cord, allowing for a rapid response. The incorrect options involve muscles of the lower leg or the opposite muscle action, which do not contribute to the observed reflex action.

Q37. Joints found at the vertebrae are:

• A. Gliding joints✓
• B. Sliding joints
• C. Partially moveable joints
• D. Fixed joints
• E. Pivot joints

Explanation: Gliding joints are present between vertebrates.

Q38. Which one of the following is a “myogenic” type of muscle?

• A. Glandular muscles
• B. Cardiac muscles✓
• C. Skeletal muscles
• D. Smooth muscles

Explanation: The term 'myogenic' refers to muscle contractions that originate from the muscle tissue itself without external stimuli from the nervous system. Cardiac muscles are 'myogenic' because they can initiate contractions autonomously due to the intrinsic pacemaker cells of the heart. This distinguishes them from skeletal muscles, which are 'neurogenic,' as they require neural input to contract. Although some smooth muscle types are 'myogenic,' the question specifies a singular type of 'myogenic' muscle, making cardiac muscle the most precise answer.

Q39. The diagram shows some of the muscles and bones of the human arm.

• A. The tricep contracts to bend the elbow and the bicep relaxes.
• B. The bicep contracts to straighten the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• C. The tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes.✓
• D. The bicep contracts to bend the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• E. Both A and C are correct.

Explanation: The correct answer is that the tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes. In the human arm, the tricep and bicep are antagonistic muscles, meaning they work in opposition to each other to create movement. When the tricep contracts, it exerts force on the bones of the arm, causing the elbow to extend or straighten. During this action, the bicep must relax to allow the movement to occur smoothly. Option A is incorrect because the tricep does not bend the elbow; the bicep is responsible for bending the elbow by contracting. Option B is incorrect because the bicep does not straighten the elbow; that is the function of the tricep. Option D describes the action of bending the elbow, which is not the focus of the question about straightening the elbow. Option E is incorrect because it includes Option A, which is not correct.

Q40. The process of cartilage formation is known as:

• A. Chondrioblasts
• B. Chondriocutosis
• C. Chondrogenesis✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Chondrification (also known as chondrogenesis) is the process by which cartilage is formed from condensed mesenchyme tissue. Chondroblasts are an immature type of cell that secretes the extracellular matrix of cartilage. Chondromatosis is a rare, benign (noncancerous) condition that involves the synovium.

Q41. Myofibrils, within the muscle fibers, contain thick and thin filaments made up of _ and _ respectively:

• A. Myosin and Actin✓
• B. Globulin and Albumin
• C. Troponin and Tropomyosin
• D. Fibrin and Fibrinogen

Explanation: The myofibrils are made up of thick and thin myofilaments, which help give the muscle its striated appearance. The thick filaments are composed of "myosin", and the thin filaments are predominantly "actin".

Q42. In presence of muscle contraction, _ is brought closer, _ shortens and _ disappears.

• A. Z-line, H-zone, I-band
• B. I-band, Z-line, H-zone
• C. Z-line, I-band, H-zone✓
• D. H-zone, I-band, Z-line

Explanation: The mechanism of contraction is the binding of myosin to actin, forming cross-bridges that generate filament movement. When a sarcomere contracts, the Z lines move closer together and the I band gets smaller, and the H-zone disappears. The H-zone refers to a region within the sarcomere where only thick filaments (myosin) are present. It is located in the center of the sarcomere, between the thin filaments (actin) of adjacent sarcomeres. During muscle contraction, the H-zone narrows as the thin filaments slide inward and overlap with the thick filaments.

Q43. Which of the following are present in the internal organs, like the stomach, intestine, etc.?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Both A and B
• E. Both A and C

Explanation: Smooth muscles are present in the walls of internal organs such as the stomach, intestine, bladder, etc. They are non-striated muscles that are not under voluntary control. Cardiac muscle, represented by option B, is found only in the heart and is also striated like skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscles, represented by option C, are attached to the bones and are under voluntary control. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.

Q44. All of the following are true about skeletal muscles except:

• A. Striated
• B. Are multinucleated
• C. Are involuntary✓
• D. Help in movement

Explanation: Skeletal muscles are striated, multinucleated, and voluntary. They help in movement by contracting and relaxing. The only option that is not true about skeletal muscles is are involuntary. Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles, meaning that they are under conscious control. This means that we can consciously control the contraction and relaxation of our skeletal muscles.

Q45. Skeletal muscles are also called striped or striated muscle because they show alternate light and dark bands, for example:

• A. Intestinal muscles
• B. Triceps
• C. Biceps
• D. Triceps and biceps✓

Explanation: The striated appearance of skeletal muscle tissue is a result of repeating bands of the proteins actin and myosin that are present along the length of myofibrils. Dark A bands and light I bands repeat along myofibrils, and the alignment of myofibrils in the cell causes the entire cell to appear striated or banded. Examples of skeletal muscles are the biceps and triceps. The muscles of the intestine are smooth.

Q46. In the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, which option correctly describes the function of ATP?

• A. ATP is responsible for detaching the myosin head from the actin filament after a power stroke.✓
• B. ATP provides the energy needed for the myosin head to detach from the actin filament.
• C. ATP moves tropomyosin off the actin binding sites, allowing contraction to occur.
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Energy from ATP is required for the myosin head to release from the actin filament—otherwise the myosin heads would remain in the same place, and the muscle would not contract. Even though the filaments are moving, the filaments themselves never actually get shorter or longer.

Q47. Cross bridges are found on:

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin✓
• C. Troponin
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: Cross-bridges are formed by the myosin heads, which extend from the thick filaments (myosin) and interact with the thin filaments (actin) during muscle contraction. These cross-bridges are crucial for the sliding filament mechanism, where the myosin heads attach to binding sites on actin, undergo a power stroke, and pull the actin filaments closer together.

Q48. Which cells secrete flexible, elastic, non-living matrix collagen that surrounds the cartilage?

• A. Osteocytes
• B. Osteoclasts
• C. Chondrocytes✓
• D. Osteoblasts

Explanation: 'Chondrocytes' are the first chondroblast cells that produce the collagen extracellular matrix (ECM) and then get caught in the matrix. Options A, B, and D are wrong because all three cells are related to bone, whereas option C is related to cartilage.

Q49. Which of the following is the name of the modified endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle cells?

• A. T-tubule
• B. Sarcomere
• C. Myoplasmic reticulum
• D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum✓

Explanation: The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a membrane-bound structure found within muscle cells that is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in other cells. The main function of the SR is to store calcium ions (Ca2+).

Q50. Which of the following joints would allow no movements?

• A. Synovial joint
• B. Ball and Socket joint
• C. Fibrous joint✓
• D. Cartilaginous joint

Explanation: Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmosis, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull. An example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle. Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.

Q51. Glenoid cavity articulates:

• A. Clavicle with scapula
• B. Humerus with scapula✓
• C. Clavicle with acromion
• D. Scapula with acromion

Explanation: The glenoid cavity, a part of the scapula, articulates specifically with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint, which allows for a wide range of motion. The other options mention joints that do not involve the glenoid cavity. For instance, the clavicle connects to the scapula at the acromion process, not the glenoid cavity.

Q52. What will happen if ligaments are torn?

• A. Bones will move freely at joint and no pain
• B. Bone less movable at joint and pain✓
• C. Bone will become unfixed
• D. Bone will become fixed

Explanation: Ligaments join a bone with another bone in movable/synovial joints. Torn ligaments make movement at joints very painful and restricted. The correct answer is Option B: Bone less movable at joint and pain. When ligaments are torn, the stability of the joint is compromised, leading to reduced mobility and potential pain. The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the consequences of torn ligaments.

Q53. What is the joint between atlas and axis is called?

• A. Hinge joint
• B. Pivot joint✓
• C. Gliding joint
• D. Saddle joint

Explanation: The atlas (C1) and axis (C2) form a pivot joint, allowing rotation of the head.

Q54. Intercostal muscles occur in?

• A. Abdomen
• B. Thigh
• C. Ribs✓
• D. Diaphragm

Explanation: The correct answer is Ribs. Intercostal muscles are situated between the ribs, and they are crucial for the movement of the rib cage during breathing, aiding in the expansion and contraction of the chest cavity. This function is essential for effective respiration. The other options are incorrect: the abdomen, thigh, and diaphragm do not contain intercostal muscles, as these muscles are specifically associated with the ribs.

Q55. All of the following are true about collagen except:

• A. Inelastic
• B. Flexible
• C. Living✓
• D. Protein

Explanation: Collagen is the most abundant protein in your body. It is the major component of connective tissues that makeup several body parts, including tendons, ligaments, skin, and muscles. It is non living protein.

Q56. Which organ(s) in the male reproductive system produce gametes?

• A. Vas deferens
• B. Malpighian tubule system
• C. Seminiferous tubules✓
• D. Ejaculatory duct
• E. Testicular Duct System

Explanation: Opion A: Vas deferens is a long, muscular tube that transports sperm cells from the testes to the ejaculatory duct. It is about 18 inches long and is located in the scrotum. Option B: Malpighian tubular system is a network of tubules that are found in the kidneys. They are responsible for filtering blood and removing waste products. They do not play a role in the production of gametes. Option C: Seminiferous tubule is a network of tiny tubes found within the testes. They are where sperm cells are produced through a process called spermatogenesis. The seminiferous tubules are lined with cells that divide and differentiate into sperm cells. Option D: Ejaculatory duct is a short, muscular tube that carries sperm cells from the vas deferens to the urethra. It is about 1.5 inches long and is located in the prostate gland. Option E: Testicular duct system is a network of tubules that transports sperm cells from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis. It is also known as the rete testis.

Q57. All of the following are sexually transmitted diseases except:

• A. Syphilis
• B. Gonorrhea
• C. Alzheimer's disease✓
• D. Genital herpes
• E. AIDS

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder unrelated to sexual activity, primarily influenced by genetic and age-related factors. In contrast, syphilis, gonorrhea, genital herpes, and HIV/AIDS are all conditions that are transmitted through sexual contact. Identifying Alzheimer's disease as the exception is key to answering this question correctly.

Q58. Which of the following hormones of the pituitary gland regulates the menstrual cycle?

• A. Follicle Stimulating hormone and Estrogen
• B. Luteinizing hormone and Estrogen
• C. Follicle Stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone✓
• D. Estrogen and Progesterone

Explanation: Four hormones are primarily active in the menstrual cycle namely; FSH: Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. In women, FSH helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries. LH: Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. It also triggers the release of an egg from the ovary in the process known as 'ovulation'. (Option C is therefore correct since both; FSH and LH are produced by the pituitary gland)Estrogen: The ovaries, which produce the eggs, are the main source of estrogen from your body. In females, it helps to develop and maintain both the reproductive system and female characteristics, such as the breasts and pubic hair. Estrogen causes the uterine lining to grow and thicken to prepare the uterus for pregnancy. Progesterone: The corpus luteum in the ovaries, and the placenta, after the embedding of the zygote in the uterus lining, tend to release progesterone. The hormone prepares the endometrium lining to receive and nourish a fertilized egg. If pregnancy does not occur, estrogen and progesterone levels decrease. The decrease in progesterone triggers menstruation or shedding of the lining. Once the lining is completely shed, a new menstrual cycle begins.

Q59. The hormone labeled X in the diagram is often used in over-the-counter diagnostic tests to determine when ovulation has occurred. This hormone is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. FSH
• D. LH✓

Explanation: The correct answer is LH, as it is the hormone whose surge triggers ovulation and is detected by ovulation prediction kits. Estrogen and progesterone play roles in preparing and maintaining the uterine lining, not in the detection of ovulation. FSH is involved in follicle development but not directly in ovulation prediction. Testosterone is a predominantly male hormone and irrelevant to this context.

Q60. The primary oocyte in mammals has which of the following structures around it?

• A. Zona Pellucida✓
• B. Zona Vasculosa
• C. Zona radiata
• D. None of them

Explanation: Among the given options, the correct structure that surrounds the primary oocyte in mammals is the Zona Pellucida.Zona Pellucida: The Zona Pellucida is a thick glycoprotein-rich layer that surrounds the mammalian oocyte. It is formed by the secretions of the oocyte itself and the surrounding follicle cells. The Zona Pellucida plays a crucial role in fertilization by mediating the interaction between sperm and oocyte and preventing polyspermy (fertilization by more than one sperm).Zona Vasculosa: The term "Zona Vasculosa" typically refers to the vascular zone found in the embryonic chick blastoderm, which is different from the structures surrounding the primary oocyte in mammals. It is responsible for supplying nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo.Zona Radiata: The term "Zona Radiata" is often used to describe the outermost layer of the mammalian ovarian follicle. It consists of several layers of follicular cells that surround the Zona Pellucida. The Zona Radiata provides structural support and aids in the maturation and release of the oocyte during ovulation.In summary, the correct structure that surrounds the primary oocyte in mammals is the Zona Pellucida. The Zona Vasculosa refers to a vascular zone in the embryonic chick blastoderm, and the Zona Radiata describes the outermost layer of the ovarian follicle in mammals.

Q61. In which of the following options is mitotic division involved?

• A. Oogonium to primary oocyte✓
• B. Primary oocyte to secondary oocyte
• C. Secondary oocyte to egg
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: In oogenesis, diploid oogonium goes through mitosis until one develops into a primary oocyte, which will begin the first meiotic division, but then arrest; it will finish this division as it develops in the follicle, giving rise to a haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller polar body. Thus, "Option A" is the correct answer.

Q62. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by:

• A. Leyding cells
• B. Hensen's node cells
• C. Sertoli cells✓
• D. Interstitial cells

Explanation: Inhibin hormone is produced by Sertoli cells in human males. Inhibin inhibits the secretion of FSH from the pituitary gland, helping to regulate sperm production.

Q63. Luteinizing hormone, which is produced by the pituitary gland, promotes ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Estrogen and progesterone
• C. Progesterone✓
• D. Oxytocin
• E. Prolactin

Explanation: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that triggers ovulation in females. After ovulation, the cells left behind in the ovary form the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone that prepares the uterus for the implantation of a fertilized egg and helps maintain pregnancy.

Q64. In humans, ovaries after birth contain:

• A. Oogonia
• B. Primary oocyte✓
• C. Secondary oocyte
• D. Ova

Explanation: Option A: Oogonia are the immature egg cells that are present in the ovaries before birth. They start to develop into primary oocytes during fetal development, but they do not mature until puberty. Option B: Primary oocytes are surrounded by a layer of cells called the granulosa cells. The granulosa cells provide nutrients and support for the primary oocyte. When a girl reaches puberty, one or two primary oocytes mature each month and are released from the ovaries during ovulation. The released primary oocyte is then called a secondary oocyte. So, the ovaries after birth contains primary oocytes. Option C: Secondary oocytes can be fertilized by sperm. If fertilization occurs, the secondary oocyte will develop into an embryo. Option D: Ova are fertilized eggs. They are not produced in the ovaries. Ova are produced when a secondary oocyte is fertilized by sperm.

Q65. Which of the following is an ovoviviparous animal?

• A. Basking shark
• B. Humans
• C. Blue shark✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Blue sharks are ovoviviparous. In ovoviviparity, the eggs develop and hatch inside the mother's body, and the offspring are born live. However, the mother provides little or no nourishment to the developing embryos, as they rely on the egg yolk for sustenance.

Q66. During birth, central nervous system of infants can be damaged by:

• A. Syphilis
• B. Genital herpes✓
• C. Gonorrhoa
• D. HPV

Explanation: Genital herpes transmits during birth to infants damaging the eyes and CNS of infants.

Q67. During spermatogenesis, the _, which are haploid cells eventually mature into spermatozoa/mature sperms.

• A. Spermatogonia
• B. Primary spermatocytes
• C. Spermatids✓
• D. Secondary spermatocytes

Explanation: During spermatogenesis, the spermatids, which are haploid cells, eventually mature into spermatozoa or mature sperm. Spermatogenesis is the process by which male germ cells (spermatogonia) undergo a series of divisions and differentiations to ultimately form functional sperm cells.

Q68. The scrotum is responsible for which of the following in male reproductive system?

• A. Synthesis of sperm
• B. Lubrication
• C. Nourishment of sperm
• D. Temperature regulation✓

Explanation: Thie option D is correct because sperm can survive at the temperature of 34°C, that is why they are outside the body. The scrotum regulates the temperature of the testis. Scrotum contracts in cold, exercise temperature while expands in high temperature.

Q69. Which of the following is not a true characteristic of spermatogonia?

• A. They develop into primary spermatocytes through mitosis
• B. They are undifferentiated
• C. They are germ line cells
• D. They are haploid✓

Explanation: Spermatogonia are diploid germ cells. They undergo mitosis to maintain the germ cell pool and differentiate into primary spermatocytes, which then undergo meiosis to produce haploid spermatids.

Q70. In male reproductive system, which gland neutralizes the pH value?

• A. Prostate gland
• B. Ejaculatory gland
• C. Pituitary gland
• D. Bulbourethral gland✓

Explanation: The bulbourethral gland, also known as Cowper's gland, is an exocrine gland located beneath the prostate gland at the junction of the ejaculatory duct and the urethra. One of its functions is to produce alkaline secretions into the seminal fluid in order to neutralize the acidity from the remaining urine in the urethra.

Q71. The endometrial lining is vascularized by:

• A. Luteinizing hormone
• B. Follicle stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen✓
• D. Oxytocin

Explanation: Estrogen, a hormone produced mainly by the ovaries, does influence the menstrual cycle and the endometrial lining in several ways. During the menstrual cycle, rising levels of estrogen stimulate the growth and proliferation of the endometrial cells, causing the endometrium to thicken. This is part of the preparation for a potential pregnancy. Estrogen also contributes to the development of a rich network of blood vessels within the endometrium. The increased vascularity is important for supplying nutrients and oxygen to the growing endometrial tissue. However, while estrogen supports the conditions that are favorable for vascularization, it is not the direct cause of the blood vessel formation itself.

Q72. Days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle are termed as:

• A. Bleeding phase
• B. Secretory phase✓
• C. Pre-ovulatory phase
• D. Proliferative phase

Explanation: The secretory phase is part of the menstrual cycle and occurs after ovulation. This phase is characterized by the activity of the corpus luteum, which forms from the ruptured follicle after releasing an egg during ovulation. The secretory phase typically spans approximately days 15-28 of a 28-day menstrual cycle.

Q73. Which characteristic is not of identical twins?

• A. Produced by separation of two blastomeres
• B. Produced asexually
• C. Produced when embryo is at two cell stage
• D. Have different genetic makeup✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as the genetic material of identical twins is always same not different.

Q74. The event happens in the menstrual cycle when the level of progesterone declines is?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Beginning of menses✓
• C. Corpus luteum formation
• D. Maturation of ovarian follicle

Explanation: Progesterone is the primary hormone in the maintenance of the endometrium lining. If the egg is not fertilised, progesterone level declines, the uterine wall starts breaking down and the menses start.

Q75. Which of the following glands contribute to the production of semen?

• A. Seminal vesicles
• B. Bulbourethral glands
• C. Prostate gland
• D. All of these options are correct✓

Explanation: The glands that contribute to the production of semen in males are the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands). These glands secrete various fluids that, when combined, make up semen.

Q76. In the male reproductive tract, sperm cells follow a specific path. Which of the following structures do sperm cells enter after traveling through the epididymis?

• A. Urethra
• B. Seminiferous tubules
• C. Ejaculatory duct
• D. Vas deferens✓

Explanation: After traveling through the epididymis, sperm cells enter the vas deferens. The vas deferens, also known as the ductus deferens, is a muscular tube that extends from the epididymis through the inguinal canal into the pelvic cavity. It serves as a conduit for the transport of sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.

Q77. When a female ovulates, in which phase of the division is the oocyte?

• A. Anaphase I
• B. Prophase I
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Metaphase II✓

Explanation: After ovulation, the oocyte is arrested in metaphase of meiosis II until fertilization.

Q78. The alveolar epithelium in the lung is:

• A. Nonciliated columnar
• B. Non-ciliated squamous✓
• C. Ciliated columnar
• D. Ciliated squamous

Explanation: The alveoli in the lungs are lined with thin, nonciliated squamous epithelial cells. This thin layer allows efficient diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the surrounding capillaries.

Q79. In heavy smokers the alveoli become enlarged and damaged which reduces the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases.This condition is called:

• A. Lung cancer
• B. Emphysema✓
• C. Asthma
• D. Bronchitis

Explanation: Emphysema is a chronic respiratory condition often caused by smoking, where the alveoli in the lungs are destroyed and enlarged. This damage leads to a reduction in the surface area available for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, resulting in breathing difficulties. Unlike emphysema, lung cancer involves the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in lung tissues, asthma involves airway inflammation and narrowing, and bronchitis involves inflammation of the bronchial tubes, none of which primarily involve the destruction of alveoli.

Q80. A muscuarly controlled hinge, like action and serves as a lid which automatically covers the opening of the larynx is called:

• A. Epiglottis✓
• B. Esophegeal sphineter
• C. Uvula
• D. Respiratory valve

Explanation: The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that acts like a lid over the opening of the larynx. Its hinge-like action, controlled by muscles, automatically closes during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the respiratory tract.

Q81. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:

• A. Carry blood away from the heart✓
• B. Break up into capillaries, then form veins
• C. Carry blood between visceral organs
• D. Always supply oxygenated blood

Explanation: Arteries are defined by their direction of flow—always carrying blood away from the heart, irrespective of oxygenation.

Q82. A large vein that collects deoxygenated blood from the upper parts of the body:

• A. Aorta
• B. Pulmonary trunk
• C. Superior vena cava✓
• D. Inferior vena cava

Explanation: Superior vena cava is the largest vein in the body that collects deoxygenated blood from the upper part of the body like head, neck, chest and arms to the heart.

Q83. Oxygenated blood is supplied to all body parts from:

• A. Right atrium
• B. Left atrium
• C. Right ventricle
• D. Left ventricle✓

Explanation: The left ventricle is the main pumping chamber of the heart, responsible for distributing oxygenated blood to the body. It receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it through the aorta. The other options are incorrect because the right atrium and right ventricle handle deoxygenated blood, while the left atrium only transfers oxygenated blood to the left ventricle without directly supplying it to the body.

Q84. The single stranded but complementary ends of the two DNA molecules are called “sticky ends” because:

• A. They cannot bind
• B. They can bind by complementary base pairing✓
• C. They can bind by non-complementary base pairing
• D. They cannot bind due to noncomplementary base pairing

Explanation: Due to base pairing affinity sticky ends can stick together, whenever brought closer to each other.

Q85. Which of the following organelles is related with genetic engineering?

• A. Mitochondria
• B. Plasmids✓
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Lysosomes

Explanation: Plasmids are an extrachromosomal genetic element found in many bacteria and in a few eukaryotic cells. Plasmids are closed circles of double­ stranded DNA, ranging in size from one to 200 kilobases. They frequently carry genes conferring antibiotic resistance. Plasmids are becoming important tools for genetic engineering since they have the ability to replicate and migrate to daughter cells. Plasmids are widely used as carriers of cloned genes, as for example the E.coli plasmid pBR322. When plasmids are used as cloning vectors and carry a novel DNA sequence they are referred to as chimeric plasmids.

Q86. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?

• A. Baculovirus
• B. Salmonella typhimurium
• C. Rhizopus nigricans
• D. Retrovirus✓

Explanation: Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells. We have transformed these pathogens into useful vectors for delivering genes of interest to humans. Retroviruses have been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable retroviral vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal host (where it multiplies).

Q87. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?

• A. Colon
• B. Coelom
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Coli✓

Explanation: The enzyme restriction endonuclease EcoRI is found in the colon bacteria E.coli. So, here ‘co’ stands for coli. According to the nomenclature of restriction enzymes, the first letter used for the enzyme is the first letter of the genus name (in italics) of the bacterium, then comes the first two letters of its species (also in italics), next is the strain of the organism. At last is a Roman numeral signifying the order of discovery. Here, the enzyme EcoRI was isolated from the bacterium Escherichia coli (co), strain RY13(R) and it was the first endonuclease (I) isolated from E.coli.

Q88. Cells of immune system which respond to foreign substances sometimes secrete antibodies called:

• A. Lymphocytes✓
• B. Monocytes
• C. Erythrocytes
• D. Macrophages

Explanation: Lymphocytes are critical components of the immune system, working together to defend the body against infections and diseases. They are produced in the bone marrow and can be found in lymphoid tissues throughout the body, such as the lymph nodes and spleen. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune system. There are two main types of lymphocytes: B cells and T cells.

Q89. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:

• A. Less amino acids in his urine
• B. More glucose in his blood
• C. Less urea in his urine✓
• D. More sodium in his urine.

Explanation: During starvation, the body must rely on body proteins for the amino acids. On high protein diets the carbon skeletons of the amino acids are oxidized for energy or stored as fat and glycogen, but the amino nitrogen must be excreted. To facilitate this process, enzymes of the urea cycle are controlled at the gene level. When dietary proteins increase significantly, enzyme concentrations rise. On return to a balanced diet, enzyme levels decline. Under conditions of starvation, enzyme levels rise as proteins are degraded and amino acid carbon skeletons are used to provide energy, thus increasing the quantity of nitrogen that must be excreted in the form of urea.

Q90. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of:

• A. Earthworm
• B. Cockroach✓
• C. Frog
• D. Man

Explanation: Cockroach shows uricotelism. Excretion of uric acid is known as uricotelism and the animals which excrete uric acid are called uricotelic. Animals which live in dry conditions have to conserve water in their bodies.Therefore, they synthesize crystals of uric acid from ammonia.Uric acid crystals are nontoxic and almost insoluble in water. Hence, these can be retained in the body for a considerable time. Uricotelic animals include most insects,(e.g., cockroach), land reptiles (e.g. lizards and snakes) and birds.

Q91. Melting and boiling points depend on_?

• A. Number of electrons✓
• B. Number of neutrons
• C. Number of paired electrons
• D. Number of protons

Explanation: Melting and boiling points generally increase with the number of electrons, because more electrons lead to stronger London dispersion (van der Waals) forces, resulting in higher melting/boiling points.

Q92. Which one of the following alkali metals forms only normal oxide when it reacts with O2?

• A. Lithium✓
• B. Sodium
• C. Potassium
• D. Rubidium

Explanation: Only Lithium forms a normal oxide Li2O when it reacts with oxygen. This is because Lithium is less reactive compared to Sodium, Potassium, and Rubidium, which form both normal oxide and peroxide when they react with oxygen. Therefore, the correct answer is Lithium.

Q93. lonization energy depends on which of the following factors?

• A. Size of atoms
• B. Nuclear Charge
• C. Number of shells
• D. All of these options are correct✓

Explanation: Option D is correct since all of the options mention the correct reasons for the ionization energy trend and all three reasons have to be looked at to set up a trend of ionization energy. Option A is insufficient since only the size of atoms is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is an increase in ionization energy as the size of the atoms decreases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy. Option B is insufficient since the only nuclear charge is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is an increase in ionization energy as the nuclear charge increases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy. Option C is insufficient since only the number of shells is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is a decrease in ionization energy as the number of shells increases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy.

Q94. S-S bond is present in which of the ion pairs?

• A. S2O72-, S2O32-
• B. S4O62-, S2O72-
• C. S2O72-, S2O82-
• D. S4O62-, S2O32-✓

Explanation: The image below shows the Lewis structures of each of the ions. Only the ions in Option D both contain an S-S bond.

Q95. The nature of an aqueous solution of ammonia (NH3) is:

• A. Amphoteric
• B. Neutral
• C. Acidic
• D. Basic✓

Explanation: The nature of an aqueous solution of ammonia (NH3) is basic. This is because ammonia can accept a proton from water, forming ammonium (NH4+) and hydroxide ions (OH-). The presence of hydroxide ions increases the pH, making the solution basic. Option A, Amphoteric, is incorrect because ammonia does not act as both an acid and a base in this context. Option B, Neutral, is incorrect because the solution's pH is not neutral. Option C, Acidic, is incorrect because ammonia does not donate protons to decrease the pH.

Q96. Ionic radius decreases along the period due to:

• A. Addition of a new shell
• B. Increase in nuclear charge✓
• C. High Ionization Energy
• D. Decrease in nuclear charge

Explanation: Across a period, effective nuclear charge increases as electron shielding remains constant. A higher effective nuclear charge causes greater attraction to the electrons, pulling the electron cloud closer to the nucleus which results in a smaller atomic radius.

Q97. In alkali metals the highest shielding effect is exhibited by:

• A. Li
• B. Na
• C. K
• D. Rb✓

Explanation: Rb has the most number of electronic shell inner to the valence shell, therefore it exhibits the most amount of shielding effect.

Q98. Which one of the following is more soluble in water?

• A. Be(OH)2
• B. Ca(OH)2
• C. Mg(OH)2
• D. Ba(OH)2✓

Explanation: Group II metal hydroxides become more soluble in water as you go down the column(group). This trend can be explained by the decrease in the lattice energy of the hydroxide salt and by the increase in the coordination number of the metal ion as you go down the column.

Q99. The most dense element is

• A. Li
• B. K
• C. Ca
• D. Ba✓
• E. Rb

Explanation: Down the group, the density of the elements increases, and Group II elements have a higher density than Group I elements because of their higher mass and lesser volumes. Ba is the only group II in all the options above.

Q100. Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity (from highest to lowest)?

• A. F, O, N, C✓
• B. N, F, O, C
• C. C, F, N, O
• D. C, F, O, N

Explanation: Electronegativity is a measure of an atom's ability to attract and hold onto electrons. It generally increases across a period from left to right on the periodic table due to higher nuclear charge attracting electrons more strongly. Therefore, in the second period, Fluorine has the highest electronegativity, followed by Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Carbon. The correct order is F > O > N > C. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow this established trend of increasing electronegativity.

Q101. The flame colour of Ca in flame test is:

• A. Orange red✓
• B. Golden yellow
• C. Red
• D. Pink

Explanation: The flame of Ca is orange-red so, A is the correct option. A yellow flame is of Sodium (Na), Red flame is of Lithium (Li), and Pink flame is of Potassium (K) thus B, C, and D are incorrect.

Q102. Which alkaline earth metal form peroxides?

• A. Ba✓
• B. Be
• C. Mg
• D. Ca

Explanation: The alkaline earth metals burn in oxygen to produce oxides or in the case of barium, peroxide. It is the most reactive among the other members of group II. When barium is heated in air or oxygen at 500-600°C, its peroxide is formed according to the equation:Ba (s) + O2 (g) —----------------> BaO2 (s)Therefore the correct answer is option A. The rest of the elements form normal oxides, therefore B,C and D are incorrect, as per the following equations:Be + O2 —-------------> BeO (occurs at about 800°C since Be is the least reactive)Mg + O2 —-------------> MgO (this MgO coats the surface and prevents further corrosion)Ca + O2 —--------------> CaO

Q103. The halogen acid with the highest reducing power is:

• A. HF
• B. HI✓
• C. HBr
• D. HCl

Explanation: Reducing power refers to the ability of a substance to reduce another substance by donating electrons. The halogen acids, HF, HCl, HBr, and HI, can all act as reducing agents, but the strength of their reducing power increases as we move down the group. Hence, HI is the halogen acid with the highest reducing power.

Q104. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling point?

• A. H2O
• B. H2S✓
• C. H2Se
• D. H2Te

Explanation: Boiling points depend on intermolecular forces. H₂O has strong hydrogen bonding, giving it the highest boiling point. H₂S, H₂Se, and H₂Te have only van der Waals forces, which increase with molecular mass. Since H₂S is the lightest and has the weakest van der Waals forces, it has the lowest boiling point.

Q105. Which of the following is only acidic in nature?

• A. Be(OH)2
• B. Mg(OH)2
• C. B(OH)3✓
• D. Al(OH)3

Explanation: Boric acid, B(OH)₃, is a weak Lewis acid, accepting an OH⁻ ion from water rather than donating a proton. Beryllium and aluminium hydroxides are amphoteric, while magnesium hydroxide is basic.

Q106. Which of the following will remain constant along the period?

• A. Atomic size
• B. Atomic number
• C. Number of shells✓
• D. Ionization energy

Explanation: The correct answer is that the number of shells remains constant along a period in the periodic table. While atomic size, atomic number, and ionization energy change along a period due to increasing atomic number and nuclear charge, the number of shells does not change. This is because the number of shells only changes down a group. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.

Q107. The radii of H, H+ and H- are in the order of

• A. H+>H>H-
• B. H>H->H+
• C. H->H>H+✓
• D. H>H+>H

Explanation: Cationic radius > Atomic radius > Anionic radius. The correct answer is C) H- > H > H+. The correct order of radii is H- > H > H+. The hydride ion (H-) has the largest radius, followed by the hydrogen atom (H), and the hydrogen ion (H+) has the smallest radius.

Q108. The color of transition metal complexes is due to transition of electrons between:

• A. p to d orbitals
• B. d to d orbitals✓
• C. p to p orbitals
• D. d to p orbitals

Explanation: The color of transition metal complexes is due to the transition of electrons between different energy levels within the d orbitals of the metal ion. The d orbitals have different energy levels and can accommodate a varying number of electrons. When a transition metal ion forms a complex with ligands (atoms, ions, or molecules that surround the metal ion), the d orbitals split into different energy levels due to the influence of the ligands. This splitting is known as crystal field splitting. The energy difference between these split d orbitals corresponds to the energy of visible light. When white light passes through a colored solution containing transition metal complexes, certain wavelengths of light are absorbed by the electrons in the d orbitals, causing them to transition from a lower energy level to a higher energy level. The absorbed wavelengths are subtracted from the white light, resulting in the complementary color being observed. The specific color observed depends on the energy difference between the split d orbitals, which is influenced by factors such as the nature of the ligands and the oxidation state of the metal ion. Different ligands can induce different degrees of splitting, leading to variations in color. For example, complexes with ligands that create larger energy differences between the d orbitals tend to absorb longer wavelengths (lower energy) of light and appear yellow or red. Conversely, complexes with ligands that create smaller energy differences tend to absorb shorter wavelengths (higher energy) of light and appear blue or green. Overall, the absorption of specific wavelengths of light by transition metal complexes due to electron transitions within the d orbitals is responsible for their characteristic colors. When transition metals form complex ions or compounds, the d orbitals split into two energy levels. Electrons from the lower energy level absorb light of wavelength corresponding to the visible region in the EM spectrum and get excited to a higher energy level. The remaining unabsorbed wavelength is reflected and that gives the characteristic colour to the complex. As the energy difference between the high and lower energy levels of electrons varies for different complexes, the colour also varies. As discussed, the splitting occurs in d-orbital and transition of electrons between the two energy levels (d-d transition) is responsible for imparting different colours. Therefore option B is correct. (Source: PCTB book 2, page 102)

Q109. Which is the correct electronic configuration of Chromium (24Cr)?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 3s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d4
• C. 1s1, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5✓

Explanation: The atomic number of chromium = 24. Cr (Z = 24) = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

Q110. Identify from the following the example in which the complex is an anion:

• A. [Co(en)3](NO3)3
• B. [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
• C. K3[Co(NO2)6]✓
• D. [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]

Explanation: Only option that has complex ion attached to cation is K3[Co(NO2)6], giving a definite evidence of it being anion. Hence it is the answer.

Q111. The octahedral geometry of the complex [Co(NH3)6]2+ has hybridization:

• A. sp3d
• B. spd6
• C. sp3d2✓
• D. sp2d3

Explanation: The octahedral geometry of the complex [Co(NH3)6]2+ is associated with the hybridization of the central cobalt (Co) atom. In an octahedral complex, the central metal atom is surrounded by six ligands arranged in an octahedral fashion, resulting in a geometry with six bonding pairs and no lone pairs.To determine the hybridization of the central cobalt atom, we can use the concept of hybridization theory, which describes the mixing of atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals. In an octahedral complex, the central atom typically undergoes d2sp3 hybridization.Here's how the hybridization of [Co(NH3)6]2+ can be explained:1.Start with the electron configuration of the central cobalt atom (Co): [Ar] 3d7 4s2.2.In the octahedral complex, the six ammonia (NH3) ligands donate their electron pairs to the cobalt atom, resulting in the formation of six bonds. Each ammonia ligand contributes a lone pair of electrons.3.The cobalt atom promotes one of its 4s electrons to the empty 3d orbital, resulting in the following electron configuration: [Ar] 3d6 4s1.4. The six bonding pairs and one unpaired electron in the 3d orbital undergo hybridization to form a set of seven hybrid orbitals. These seven orbitals consist of six equivalent sp3d2 hybrid orbitals and one unhybridized 4s orbital.5. The six sp3d2 hybrid orbitals of cobalt overlap with the nitrogen (N) orbitals from the ammonia ligands to form six sigma (σ) bonds.In summary, the hybridization of the central cobalt atom in [Co(NH3)6]2+ is d2sp3.In this complex, cobalt is bonded to six ligands, NH3. The structure of the complex is given below: other words, the central atom is bonded to six other atoms (and no lone pairs). This corresponds to a hybridisation of sp3d2, which can be confirmed from the table below: option C is the correct answer.

Q112. The chemical name of K2[Zn(OH)4] is:

• A. Potassium tetrahydroxyzinc (II)
• B. Potassium tetrahydroxozincate (II)✓
• C. Potassium tetrahydroxyzincate (VI)
• D. Potassium hydroxyzinc (II)

Explanation: The chemical name of K2[Zn(OH)4] is derived by naming the cation first, which is Potassium. The complex ion is named by first identifying the central metal, Zinc, which has an oxidation state of +2, indicated in Roman numerals as (II). The presence of four hydroxide ions is denoted by 'tetrahydroxo'. Therefore, the correct name for the compound is Potassium tetrahydroxozincate (II), reflecting both the coordination number and the oxidation state of zinc. Other options are incorrect because they either misrepresent the oxidation state or the number of hydroxide ions in the compound.

Q113. Which of the following is typical transition element?

• A. Zn
• B. Cd
• C. Cu✓
• D. Hg

Explanation: A typical transition element cation must have a partially filled 3d subshell. This is true for Cu as Cu2+ has 3d9 configuration. Also typical transition elements are the transition elements that belong to group 1B, 4B, 5B, 6B, 7B, and 8B. Zn belongs to group 2B, so it is a non-typical transition element. Hence, this option is incorrect. Cd belongs to group 2B , so it is a non-typical transition element. Hence, this option is incorrect. Hg belongs to group 2B , so it is a non- typical transition element. Hence, this option is incorrect. Cu belongs to group 1B, so it is a typical transition element, and hence, C option is the correct option.

Q114. With which metals does iron make steel alloy?

• A. Cr, Ag, Al
• B. Ag, Mn, Ni
• C. Cr, Mn, Ni✓
• D. Cu, Au, Mn

Explanation: Alloy steel is made up of many elements such as iron, carbon, vanadium, silicon, nickel, manganese, copper and chromium.

Q115. Why do transition metals have strong metallic bonding?

• A. Because of high melting point
• B. Because d-electrons of the outer shell take part in bonding
• C. Because s-electrons of the outer shell take part in bonding
• D. Both s and d electrons take part in bonding✓

Explanation: Metallic bonding is a type of chemical bonding that arises from electrostatic attractive forces between conduction electrons in the form of an electron cloud of delocalized electrons. The reason for metallic bonding in transition metals is that they can involve the 3d electrons in the delocalization as well as the 4s. The more electrons you can involve, the stronger the attractions tend to be.

Q116. An element becomes paramagnetic if it has _?

• A. Electric field
• B. Paired valence electrons
• C. Magnetic moment✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: This option is correct because the magnetic moment is the magnetic strength and orientation of a magnet object that produces a magnetic field. Thus magnetic field is produced when a paramagnetic substance can easily be attracted by an external field.

Q117. When FeCl3 reacts with K3[Fe(CN)6] no blue colour is observed. K3[Fe(CN)6] is used as an indicator in the estimation of Fe2+ by Cr2O7 2– ion in an acidic medium. End point will be when:

• A. Solution of iron salt does not give blue colour with indicator.✓
• B. Solution of iron salt gives blue colour with indicator.
• C. No colour before and after with indicator.
• D. Always blue colour before and after

Explanation: At the end point, there is no Fe2+. All iron in Fe3+ hence no blue colour with K3[Fe(CN)6] hence (A).

Q118. Which one possesses maximum number of unpaired electrons:

• A. Mn2+
• B. Fe3+
• C. Cu3+
• D. Both A. and B.✓

Explanation: Explanation is given below.

Q119. The element which gains electronic configuration of a noble gas at +3 oxidation state

• A. V
• B. Ti
• C. Sc✓
• D. Cr

Explanation: 21Sc =18[Ar] 4s2 3d121Sc+3 = 18[Ar] 4s° 3d°Scandium in +3 state has same electronic configuration as 18Ar.Ar = 1s22s22p63s23p6

Q120. The basic functional unit of human kidney is

• A. Nephridia
• B. Loop of Henle
• C. Pyramid
• D. Nephron✓

Explanation: A nephron is a unit of structure and function in a kidney. A kidney contains about a million nephrons, each approximately 3 cm long. A nephron is a long tubule differentiated into four regions having different anatomical features and physiological role : Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The latter opens into one of the collecting ducts. Nephridia are the excretory organs of annelids.

Q121. All are enzymes involved in fermentation process except one:

• A. Zymase
• B. Invertase
• C. Lipase✓
• D. Diastase

Explanation: Fermentation mainly involves enzymes that break down carbohydrates, such as zymasa, invertase, and diastase. Lipase acts on fats, not sugars. Therefore, lipase is not typically involved in the fermentation process.

Q122. Which of the following is an addition polymer?

• A. Nylon-6,6
• B. Polyethylene✓
• C. Dacron (polyester)
• D. Bakelite

Explanation: Polyethylene is formed by the addition polymerization of ethylene monomers (C₂H₄). In this process, the double bonds of the monomers break and they add to each other in a chain reaction without the loss of any atoms.

Q123. _ is a macromolecule found in blood.

• A. Hemoglobin✓
• B. Plasma
• C. Creatinine
• D. Plasmids

Explanation: Option A: Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that helps blood carry oxygen throughout the body. (Hemoglobin contains iron, which gives blood its red colour.) The haemoglobin count is an indirect measurement of the number of red blood cells in your body.Option B: Plasma, is not a macromolecule but rather the liquid component of blood that contains various dissolved substances, including electrolytes, proteins, and hormones.Option C: Creatinine, is a small molecule produced by the breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscle tissue and is excreted by the kidneys. It is not a macromolecule found in the blood.Option D: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules found in some bacteria that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome. They are not found in the blood.

Q124. Non-protein part of conjugated protein is called _.

• A. Coenzyme
• B. Co-factor
• C. Prosthetic group✓
• D. None

Explanation: Option A: Coenzymes are small organic molecules that assist enzymes in carrying out specific reactions. They often act as carriers of chemical groups or electrons during enzymatic reactions. While coenzymes are important for enzyme function, they are not considered the non-protein part of a conjugated protein. Option B: A Co-factor is a non-protein molecule or ion that is required for the proper functioning of an enzyme. Co-factors can be either inorganic ions, such as metal ions, or organic molecules. They help enzymes catalyze reactions by providing additional chemical groups or facilitating certain steps of the reaction. However, co-factors are not typically part of conjugated proteins. Option C: The prosthetic group refers to the non-protein component of a conjugated protein. It is a tightly bound molecule that is essential for the protein’s structure and function. Prosthetic groups can be various types of molecules, such as metal ions or organic molecules like heme in hemoglobin. They play a crucial role in the protein’s overall function and often participate directly in the protein’s catalytic activity or ligand binding. Option D: This option indicates that none of the provided options is the correct answer. However, in this case, the correct answer is indeed option C, prosthetic group.

Q125. Enzymes that bring about exchange of functional group is called _?

• A. Oxidoreductase
• B. Hydrolases
• C. Ligases
• D. Transferases✓

Explanation: Enzymes that bring about exchange of functional group are called Transferases.Transferases are a class of enzymes that catalyze the transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another. The functional group can be an atom, a group of atoms, or a molecule.Some examples of transferases include:Kinases: These enzymes transfer a phosphate group from ATP to another molecule.Glycosidases: These enzymes transfer a sugar group from one molecule to another.Aminotransferases: These enzymes transfer an amino group from one molecule to another.Transferases play an important role in many biological processes, including metabolism, cell signaling, and DNA repair.

Q126. Enzymes are _ in nature?

• A. Proteins✓
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Lipids
• D. Nucleic acid

Explanation: The enzyme is a complex organic substance, which altered the rate of an already initiated biological reaction without itself being altered permanently during the reaction.Most of the enzymes are protein in nature and show all the properties of proteins.Hence, A is the correct option

Q127. The most abundant protein in animals, forming 25%–35% of body protein, is which type of protein?

• A. Simple proteins✓
• B. Conjugated proteins
• C. Derived proteins
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: 'Simple proteins' are those that are made of amino acid units only, joined by peptide bonds. Upon hydrolysis, they yield a mixture of amino acids and nothing else. 'Conjugated proteins' are composed of simple proteins combined with a non-proteinous substance. The non-proteinous substance is called the 'prosthetic' group or cofactor. 'Derived proteins' are not naturally occurring proteins and are obtained from simple proteins by the action of enzymes and chemical agents. Since both conjugated and derived types arise from simple proteins, the amount of simple proteins in the body has to be the greatest. Moreover, the functionality of simple proteins is so vast that the quantity required for them is large.

Q128. NAD contains which vitamin as cofactor.

• A. B1
• B. B2
• C. C
• D. B3✓

Explanation: NAD contains vitamin B3 as a cofactor. A cofactor is a non-protein chemical compound or metallic ion that is required for an enzyme's role as a catalyst.Niacin or vitamin B3 is a water-soluble vitamin.

Q129. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme present in the yeast:

• A. Urease
• B. Zymase✓
• C. Invertase
• D. Sucrase

Explanation: Zymase is an enzyme complex generally formed in yeast. It catalyzes the conversion of glucose to form ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q130. Which one of the following is an alpha amino acid?

• A. Glycine✓
• B. Serine
• C. Glutamine
• D. Lysine

Explanation: The amino acids having amino and carboxyl group attached to the same carbon, i.e, alpha-carbon atom is called alpha-amino acids.

Q131. Chlorophyll, a naturally occurring macromolecule, contains:

• A. Mg2+✓
• B. Al3+
• C. Fe2+
• D. B3+

Explanation: The chlorophyll molecule consists of a central magnesium atom surrounded by a nitrogen-containing structure called a porphyrin ring. Attached to the ring is a long carbon–hydrogen side chain, known as a phytol chain.

Q132. Which is not present in an α-helix?

• A. H-Bonds
• B. Disulphide linkages✓
• C. Covalent bonds
• D. Amino acids

Explanation: Disulfide linkages (or bridges) are covalent bonds formed between the side chains of two cysteine residues. These bonds are involved in stabilizing the tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins, not the secondary structures like the a-helix.

Q133. The activator for cytochrome oxidase is?

• A. Fe+2✓
• B. Zn+2
• C. Mg+2
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option A is correct.The activator for cytochrome oxidase is Fe2+. Cytochrome oxidase is an enzyme that is found in the electron transport chain of mitochondria. It is the final enzyme in the electron transport chain, and it catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. The cofactor for cytochrome oxidase is heme a3, which is a metal-containing molecule. The iron atom in heme a3 is in the Fe2+ state. This iron atom is the site of oxygen reduction. The Fe2+ state is the most active state of iron for oxygen reduction. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, it is less active for oxygen reduction. The Fe2+ cofactor is essential for the activity of cytochrome oxidase. Without the Fe2+ cofactor, cytochrome oxidase would not be able to reduce oxygen to water.

Q134. Which of the following is the weakest acid?

• A. CH3COOH✓
• B. CICH2COOH
• C. Cl2CHC00H
• D. Cl3CCOOH

Explanation: Option A is correct.The weakest acid among the given options is CH3COOH or acetic acid. Acetic acid has a pKa value of 4.76, which is the lowest among the given acids. The pKa value is a measure of the acidity of a molecule. A lower pKa value means that the molecule is more acidic. The other acids have the following pKa values: CICH2COOH: pKa = 2.86 Cl2CHCOOH: pKa = 2.78 Cl3CCOOH: pKa = 2.67 As you can see, the pKa values of the other acids are lower than the pKa value of acetic acid. This means that the other acids are more acidic than acetic acid. Acetic acid is a weak acid because it does not ionize completely in water. Only about 1% of the acetic acid molecules in a solution will ionize. The rest of the acetic acid molecules will remain in the form of molecules.

Q135. On heating, egg albumin is_?

• A. Solubilized
• B. Decomposed
• C. Over cooked
• D. Coagulated✓

Explanation: Coagulation is the process where proteins change structure and solidify upon heating, which is exactly what happens to egg albumin.

Q136. A positive point charge is placed at P in front of an earthed metal sheet S. Q & R are two points between P & S as shown in the figure. If the electric field strength at Q & R is respectively EQ & ER and potential at Q & R is respectively VQ & VR , then:

• A. EQ = ER
• B. EQ < ER
• C. VQ > VR✓
• D. VQ < VR

Explanation: Option C is correct because the electric potential at a point is inversely related to the distance from a positive charge. Since Q is closer to the positive point charge P than R, VQ is greater than VR. The earthed metal sheet influences the electric field distribution, but the potential is directly affected by proximity to the charge.Option A is incorrect because the electric field varies based on distance from the charge and the induced effects of the earthed sheet, making EQ ≠ ER.Option B is incorrect as EQ is generally greater than ER due to Q's closer proximity to P, unless the sheet significantly alters the field.Option D is incorrect because it contradicts the principle that potential decreases with distance from a positive charge.

Q137. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30º to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole experiences:

• A. A torque as well as a translational force✓
• B. A torque only
• C. A translational force only in the direction of the field
• D. A translational force only in the direction normal to the direction of the field

Explanation: The correct answer is that the dipole experiences both a torque and a translational force. When a dipole is placed at an angle in a non-uniform electric field, the electric field exerts forces on the separated charges of the dipole, leading to the generation of a torque that attempts to align the dipole with the field. Simultaneously, the non-uniform nature of the field causes a translational force on the dipole, moving it towards regions of stronger field intensity. This is due to the field's gradient, which causes a net force on the dipole.Option B is incorrect because it ignores the translational force. Option C is incorrect because it suggests that only a translational force is present, ignoring torque. Option D is incorrect because it mischaracterizes the direction of the translational force and also ignores torque.

Q138. A table tennis ball which has been covered with conducting paint is suspended by a silk thread so that it hangs between two plates, out of which one is earthed and the other is connected to a high voltage generator. This ball:

• A. Is attracted towards high voltage plate and stays there
• B. Hangs without moving
• C. Swings backward and forward hitting each plate in turn✓
• D. Is attracted to earthed plate and stays there

Explanation: The correct answer is that the ball swings backward and forward hitting each plate in turn. When the ball, covered in conducting paint, is placed between a high voltage plate and an earthed plate, electrostatic induction causes the ball to be attracted to one plate. Upon touching the plate, charges are transferred, causing repulsion. This repulsion pushes the ball towards the opposite plate. The ball continues to swing back and forth as this process repeats. The other options are incorrect because the ball cannot stay on any one plate due to the continuous transfer and repulsion of charges.

Q139. What is the initial current while charging a capacitor?

• A. High✓
• B. Low
• C. Zero
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: The initial current is high when charging a capacitor because it initially behaves as a short circuit with minimal resistance. This allows the maximum possible current to flow from the voltage source. As the capacitor charges, the voltage across it increases, reducing the current over time. The other options are incorrect because they do not account for the initial short-circuit behavior of the capacitor.

Q140. A positive charge is moved against an electric field. Its P.E will :

• A. Increases✓
• B. Remains the same
• C. Decreases
• D. May increase or decrease depending on the magnitude of the charge

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: Increases. When a positive charge is moved against the direction of an electric field, work is done on the charge to overcome the field's force, increasing its potential energy. Option B is incorrect because stationary charges do not change their potential energy. Option C is incorrect because moving in the same direction as the field decreases potential energy. Option D is incorrect because the change in potential energy is determined by the direction of movement, not the magnitude of the charge.

Q141. An electric field can deflect _ .

• A. Neutrons
• B. X-rays
• C. Y-rays (Gamma rays)
• D. None✓

Explanation: An electric field exerts force on charged particles, causing them to move. Neutrons, X-rays, and gamma rays are all uncharged, and therefore, they are not influenced by electric fields. Neutrons are subatomic particles that lack charge, while X-rays and gamma rays are forms of electromagnetic radiation that also carry no charge. Hence, none of these can be deflected by an electric field.

Q142. The space between the plates of a capacitor is filled by a electric constant K. The capacitance of the capacitor

• A. Increases by a factor of K✓
• B. Decreases by a factor of K
• C. Increases by a factor of K2
• D. Decreases by a factor of K2

Explanation: The capacitance of a capacitor is given by the formula C = ε₀KA/d, where ε₀ is the permittivity of free space, K is the dielectric constant, A is the area of the plates, and d is the distance between them. When the space between the plates is filled with a material of dielectric constant K, the capacitance increases by a factor of K. This is because the presence of a dielectric reduces the electric field, allowing the capacitor to store more charge for the same potential difference. Therefore, Option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the relationship between capacitance and the dielectric constant.

Q143. If the sheet of the backlite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will :

• A. Decrease
• B. Remains unchanged
• C. Increase✓
• D. Become Zero

Explanation: The capacitance of a capacitor is determined by the formula C = εA/d, where ε is the permittivity of the dielectric material, A is the area of the plates, and d is the distance between them. When a dielectric material like backlite is inserted between the plates, the permittivity ε increases because the dielectric constant of backlite is greater than that of air. As a result, the capacitance increases. Option A is incorrect because the capacitance does not decrease; Option B is incorrect because the capacitance does not remain unchanged; Option D is incorrect because the capacitance does not become zero. Option C is correct because the capacitance increases.

Q144. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C. If the distance between the plates halves, the capacitance will be?

• A. 0.5 C
• B. 4 C
• C. 0.25 C
• D. 2 C✓

Explanation: The capacitance is inversely proportional to distance between the plates. Halving the distance would double the capacitance giving us 2C.

Q145. Which statement describes the electric potential difference between two points in the electric field of charge Q?

• A. The difference of electric field between the points per unit charge.
• B. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the mass of charge.
• C. The work done in moving a test charge between points divided by the magnitude of the test charge.✓
• D. The force required to move a unit positive charge between the points per unit charge.

Explanation: This question is simply revising how the electric potential is defined as it is work done per unit charge in moving that charge from one place to the other in the electric field.All other options are not the definitions of electric potential.

Q146. What is true about the electric field and electric force?

• A. Electric field lines are towards negative and electron flow in same direction
• B. Electric field lines are towards positive and electron flow in opposite direction
• C. Electric field lines are towards the negative and electrons flow in the opposite direction.✓
• D. Electric field lines are positive and electrons flow in the same direction.

Explanation: Electric field lines always point away from a positive charge and towards a negative point. In fact, electric fields originate at a positive charge and terminate at a negative charge.This shows that OPTION B and D ARE INCORRECT. Electrons flow from lower potential terminal to higher potential terminal being negatively charged particles it flows from negative to positive poles hence it is the opposite direction as the electric field.So,OPTION C is incorrect.

Q147. An electron is situated midway between two parallel plates 0.5 cm apart. One of the plates is maintained at a potential of 60 volts above the other. The force on the electron is: (e = -1.6x10-19C)

• A. 1.82x10-15 N
• B. 3.00x10-16 N
• C. 1.92x10-15 N✓
• D. 3.00x10-15 N
• E. 5.00x10-15 N

Explanation: To solve this problem, we first calculate the electric field (E) between the parallel plates using the formula E = V/d, where V is the potential difference and d is the distance between the plates. Here, V = 60V and d = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m. Thus, E = 60V/0.005m = 12,000 V/m.Next, we apply the formula for the force on a charge in an electric field: F = eE. The charge of an electron is e = -1.6x10-19 C. Therefore, F = (1.6x10-19 C)(12,000 V/m) = 1.92x10-15 N.Option A is incorrect due to a possible miscalculation of E. Option B underestimates the force, likely from an error in applying the formula. Option D overestimates the force, possibly by using incorrect values. Option E significantly overestimates the force, indicating a misunderstanding of the relationship between V, d, and the resulting force.

Q148. A 10 nanofarad (10 x 10-9 F) parallel plate capacitor holds a charge of magnitude 50 µC on each plate.If the plates are separated by a distance of 0.885mm, what is the area of each plate?

• A. 1.0 m2✓
• B. 3.0 m2
• C. 5.5 m2
• D. 7.5 m2

Explanation: To find the area of each plate, we use the formula for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor: C = ε0 * (A/d), where C is the capacitance, ε0 is the permittivity of free space (approximately 8.85 x 10-12 F/m), A is the area of the plates, and d is the distance between the plates. Given C = 10 x 10-9 F and d = 0.885 x 10-3 m, we rearrange the formula to solve for A: A = (C * d) / ε0. Plugging in the values gives A = (10 x 10-9 F * 0.885 x 10-3 m) / 8.85 x 10-12 F/m = 1.0 m2. Thus, Option A is correct. The other options provide areas that are either too large or too small when calculated properly with the given values.

Q149. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across points A and B is equal to :

• A. 22.5 Ω
• B. 25 Ω✓
• C. 37.5 Ω
• D. 75 Ω

Explanation: To find the equivalent resistance across points A and B, one must correctly identify which resistors are in series and which are in parallel. In this circuit, there is a combination of both series and parallel resistors. Start by resolving the parallel resistors using the formula 1/R_equiv = 1/R1 + 1/R2, and then add any series resistors directly. The correct total equivalent resistance turns out to be 37.5 Ω, as calculated by correctly applying these rules.Other options represent common errors such as ignoring parallel combinations or miscalculating the values of resistors in series.

Q150. In the given circuit, the galvanometer G will show zero deflection if :

• A. R1R2 = R3R4
• B. R1R3 = R2R4
• C. R1R4 = R2R3✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The given circuit resembles a Wheatstone bridge, which is a configuration used to measure unknown resistances or to create a balanced circuit condition. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, the galvanometer GG shows zero deflection when the ratio of the two pairs of resistors is equal, i.e.,R1/R2 = R3/R4Multiplying both sides gives:R1R4 = R2R3So, this is the correct condition for zero deflection in the galvanometer.

Q151. Two heaters A and B are connected in parallel across the supply voltage. Heater A produces 500 kJ in 20 minutes and B produces 1000 kJ in 10 minutes. The resistance of A is 100 Ω . If the same heaters are connected in series across the same voltage, the heat produced in 5 minutes will be:

• A. 200 kJ
• B. 100 kJ✓
• C. 50 kJ
• D. 10 kJ

Explanation: To solve this problem, we start by calculating the power of each heater in parallel. Heater A operates at 500 kJ in 20 minutes, which translates to a power of 500 kJ/1200 seconds = 416.67 W. Heater B operates at 1000 kJ in 10 minutes, translating to a power of 1000 kJ/600 seconds = 1666.67 W.Using P = V²/R, we determine the voltage across each heater. Since heater A's resistance is 100 Ω, its voltage is √(416.67 W * 100 Ω) = 204.12 V.When connected in series, the total resistance is the sum of the resistances of A and B. Assuming the same supply voltage, the current through both heaters is lower, reducing the total power and thus the heat produced. Using the formula H = I²Rt, with the new current and the total series resistance, we find the heat produced is 100 kJ in 5 minutes.Options 200 kJ, 50 kJ, and 10 kJ are incorrect because they miscalculate the effect of the series connection on the total resistance and current.

Q152. A plausible reason for the increase in resistivity of most of the conductors with temperature is:

• A. The mass of the electron changes with temperature
• B. The charge on each electron changes with temperature
• C. The electron density changes with temperature
• D. The time between collisions changes with temperature✓

Explanation: This option is plausible. In conductors, the resistivity is often influenced by the scattering of electrons as they move through the material. As temperature increases, the lattice vibrations (thermal motion of atoms) in the conductor also increase, leading to more frequent collisions between electrons and lattice ions. These collisions impede the flow of electrons, resulting in an increase in resistivity with temperature. Therefore, the time between collisions indeed changes with temperature, affecting the resistivity of the conductor.

Q153. A wire carries a current of 2.0 A. What is the charge that has flowed through its cross–section in 1.0 s. How many electrons does this correspond to?

• A. 3.0 C, 1.25 × 1019
• B. 2.0 C, 1.25 × 1019✓
• C. 4.0 C, 1.25 × 1019
• D. 2.0 C, 5.25 × 1019

Explanation: The current flowing through a wire is defined as the charge passing through a cross-section of the wire per unit time, given by the formula i = q/t. In this problem, we have i = 2.0 A and t = 1.0 s, so the charge q = it = (2.0 A)(1.0 s) = 2.0 C. To find the number of electrons, we use the formula q = ne, where e is the charge of one electron (approximately 1.6 × 10-19 C). Rearranging for n, we get n = q/e = 2.0 C / 1.6 × 10-19 C = 1.25 × 1019 electrons. Therefore, the correct option is B. Option A is incorrect due to the incorrect charge value, Option C is incorrect due to both incorrect charge and electron count, and Option D is incorrect due to an incorrect electron count.

Q154. When cells are arranged in parallel:

• A. The current capacity decreases
• B. The current capacity increases✓
• C. The e.m.f. increases
• D. The e.m.f. decreases

Explanation: When cells are connected in parallel, the current capacity increases. Connecting batteries in parallel increases total current capacity by decreasing total resistance, and it also increases overall amp-hour capacity.

Q155. Kirchhoff's first law is manifestation of:

• A. Law of conservation of momentum
• B. Law of conservation mass
• C. Law of conservation of energy
• D. Law of conservation of charge✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's first law states that the algebraic sum of current flowing into a junction is zero. This rule corresponds to conservation of charge which states that total charge in a closed system remains constant because current is the rate of flow of charge.

Q156. A wire of resistance R is bent in the form of a circle the resistance between two points on the circumference of the wire and at the end of the diameter of circle is

• A. R/4✓
• B. R/2
• C. R
• D. 2R

Explanation: Solution is given below

Q157. A battery whose emf is 40 V has an internal resistance of 5 Ohms. If this battery is connected to a 15 Ohms resistor ‘R’, what will be the voltage drop across ‘R’:

• A. 10 V
• B. 30 V✓
• C. 40 V
• D. 50 V
• E. 70 V

Explanation: 40 = I x (15+ 5) 40= I x 20 I = 40/20 I= 2 AVoltage drop across resistor R V= IR V= 2 x 15 V= 30 V (hence B is the correct option)

Q158. Steady current does not change with respect to?

• A. Conductor
• B. Source
• C. Time✓
• D. Potential difference

Explanation: Electric current:The rate of flow of charge through a given cross-section of a wire is called electric current. I = Q/tSteady currentAn electric current that does not change with time is known as a steady current.Hence, C is the correct option.

Q159. In hydrogen atom, an electron is revolving in the orbit of radius 0.53 A0 with 6.6 x 1015 rotations/second. The magnetic field produced at the center of the orbit is:

• A. 0.125 wb / m2
• B. 1.25 wb / m2
• C. 12.5 wb / m2✓
• D. 125 wb / m2

Explanation: B = μ0 / 4π * 2π(qv) / r= 10^-7 × 2 × 3.14 × (1.6 × 10^-19 × 6.6 × 10^15) / 0.53 × 10^-10= 12.5 Wb/m².

Q160. A cylindrical conductor has a uniform cross-section. The resistivity of its material Increases linearly from the left end to the right end. If a constant current is flowing through it and at a section of distance x from the left end, the magnitude of electric field intensity is E, which of the following graphs is correct?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: This shows a linear increase in E with x. This is consistent with the idea that as resistivity increases, the electric field must also increase linearly to maintain the current. Based on this analysis, Graph (a) is the correct representation of the relationship between electric field intensity E and distance x in the cylindrical conductor with linearly increasing resistivity.

Q161. Two long, parallel conductors which are free to move are arranged 1.0 cm apart. A steady current of 20 A flows in each of the conductors in the same direction. The conductors:

• A. Remains stationary
• B. Move towards each other✓
• C. Move away from each other
• D. Move at right angles to each other

Explanation: When two parallel wires carry current in the same direction, they exert equal and opposite attractive forces on each other. This causes them to move towards one another.

Q162. The direction of the magnetic line of force depends upon:

• A. Nature of the material of the conducting wire
• B. Area of the conducting wire
• C. Amount of the current
• D. Direction of the current✓

Explanation: The direction of the magnetic force depends on the direction of the current and the direction of the magnetic field. Of these two, the direction of the current is in options so that will be the correct answer.

Q163. Why picture on a TV screen become distorted when a magnet is brought near the screen?

• A. Beam of electrons will be negative due to magnetic field.
• B. Beam of electrons will be zero due to magnetic field.
• C. Beam of electrons will be reflected due to magnetic field.
• D. Beam of electrons will be deflected due to magnetic field.✓

Explanation: TVs basically work by releasing beams of electrons on a screen giving us the picture. However, bringing a magnet near a TV would form a magnetic field which would influence the beam of electrons changing their direction of motion.

Q164. If a wire having current 10A has a 3T magnetic field, what will be the magnetic field at a point from the wire at double the distance?

• A. Reduces by factor 2✓
• B. Becomes double
• C. Reduces by factor 4
• D. Becomes triple

Explanation: Any current-carrying wire is surrounded by the magnetic field which is B = µ0I/2πr. It can be seen from the above equation that the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance and directly proportional to the current. When the distance from the wire becomes double, the magnetic field will reduce by a factor of two, which is 1.5 T.

Q165. Which of the following best describes the magnetic field lines created by a long, straight, current-carrying wire?

• A. Rays that emerge from the wire
• B. Circles centered on the wire✓
• C. Lines parallel to the wire
• D. Lines perpendicular to the wire
• E. Noncircular ellipses centered on the wire

Explanation: Whenever we have current flowing through a wire, we have concentric circles of magnetic field lines around the wire making it the central point of origin.

Q166. What is the flux density at a point 3 cm from the current carrying conductor, when there is a current of 25 A in a wire: (u0= 4𝜋 x10-7)

• A. 0.23x10-1T
• B. 1.67x 10-4T✓
• C. 2.99x10-6T
• D. 3.63x10-8T
• E. 999x10-7T

Explanation: The correct answer is 1.67x10-4T. To find the magnetic flux density (B) at a distance (r) from a long straight wire carrying current (I), you can use the formula:B = (μ0 * I) / (2 * π * r).Substituting in the values: μ0 = 4π x 10-7 T·m/A, I = 25 A, and r = 0.03 m (3 cm), we get:B = (4π x 10-7 * 25) / (2 * π * 0.03) = 1.67 x 10-4T.Other options are incorrect because:0.23x10-1T is too high, not matching the expected results.2.99x10-6T is too low compared to the calculations.3.63x10-8T is orders of magnitude smaller than expected.999x10-7T converts to an unreasonably high value of 0.0999 T.

Q167. What is not true regarding magnetic force and magnetic intensity?

• A. If an electron's movement is parallel to the magnetic field, it will experience no force.
• B. If an electron's movement is parallel to the magnetic field, it will rotate anticlockwise.✓
• C. If an electron enters perpendicular to the magnetic field, it will move in a circular path.
• D. If an electron enters perpendicular to the magnetic field, the force experienced will be maximum.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: If an electron enters perpendicular to the magnetic field, the force experienced will be maximum. This is because the magnetic force on a charged particle is given by the equation F = qvB sin(θ), where θ is the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector. The force is maximal when θ = 90 degrees, meaning the electron enters perpendicular to the field.Option A is incorrect because no force is exerted when the movement is parallel to the magnetic field. Option B is incorrect as there is no force to cause rotation in this orientation. Option C is incorrect because entering perpendicular doesn't make the path parallel to the plane; instead, it results in circular motion.

Q168. Faraday law states that the rate of change of magnetic flux is equal to:

• A. Electromotive force✓
• B. Induced current
• C. Induced flux
• D. Induced magnetic field

Explanation: Faraday's law of induction states that the rate of change of magnetic flux is equal to the induced electromotive force (EMF). The induced EMF is the voltage that is produced in a circuit by a changing magnetic field.The mathematical expression for Faraday's law is:ε = -dΦB/dt where:ε is the induced EMF in voltsΦB is the magnetic flux in webersd/dt is the rate of change with respect to timeThe negative sign in the equation means that the induced EMF is in the direction that opposes the change in magnetic flux.The induced EMF can cause an induced current to flow in the circuit. The magnitude of the induced current is proportional to the induced EMF.The induced magnetic field is the magnetic field that is produced by the induced current. The magnitude of the induced magnetic field is proportional to the induced current.So, the answer is electromotive force.

Q169. If magnetic field vector is B = (i + 5j + 2k ) and area vector is (6i - 2j +2k) then flux related to this is:

• A. 10 Wb
• B. 15 Wb
• C. 20 Wb
• D. 0 Wb✓

Explanation: Given:Magnetic field vector, B = i + 5j + 2kArea vector, A = 6i - 2j + 2kThe magnetic flux (Φ) is given by the dot product of the magnetic field vector and the area vector:Φ = B · AΦ = (i + 5j + 2k) · (6i - 2j + 2k)Now, calculate the dot product:Φ = (1 * 6) + (5 * (-2)) + (2 * 2)Φ = 6 - 10 + 4Φ = 0

Q170. For a step-down transformer, Ns _ Np.

• A. Equal to(=)
• B. Less than(<)✓
• C. Greater than(>)
• D. Not equal

Explanation: A step down transformer produces a smaller output voltage than the input voltage provided to it. In order to achieve less output voltage, Vs, in the secondary coil, the number of turns on the secondary coil, Ns, should be less than the number of turns on the primary coil, Np.

Q171. Electron charge in accelerating motion will produce _.

• A. Electric field
• B. Magnetic field
• C. EM waves✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Correct Option: CThis option is correct because accelerating charges produce changing electric fields and magnetic fields. Changing electric fields produces magnetic fields and changing magnetic fields produces electric fields. This interplay between the induced electric field and magnetic field leads to propagation of electromagnetic waves

Q172. In the following question, three statements are given followed by four Conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given Conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.Statements:a). In a consignment, all the boxes contain books.b). Some of these boxes have also note-books.c). Some other boxes have also scribbling pads.Conclusions: In this consignment,I. Some boxes contain only scribbling pads.II. All boxes contain notebooks.III. Some boxes contain notebook and books.IV. Some boxes contain notebooks, scribbling pads, and books.

• A. Only Conclusion III follows✓
• B. Only Conclusion II follows
• C. Only Conclusion I follows
• D. Only Conclusion IV follows
• E. All the conclusions follow

Explanation: To solve this question, analyze each statement and conclusion carefully:Statements:All boxes contain books.Some boxes contain notebooks.Some boxes contain scribbling pads.Conclusion Analysis:Conclusion I is incorrect because every box contains books, so no box can contain only scribbling pads.Conclusion II is incorrect as not all boxes contain notebooks, only some do.Conclusion III is correct as it directly aligns with statement (b) mentioning some boxes having both notebooks and books.Conclusion IV is incorrect as there is no indication that any box contains all three items: books, notebooks, and scribbling pads.Therefore, only Conclusion III can be definitively drawn from the statements provided, making Option A the correct choice.

Q173. If - means *, * means +, + means / and / means -, then 40 * 12 + 3 - 6 / 60 = ?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: First, substitute the symbols in the expression as follows:- means *, * means +, + means /, and / means -.This transforms the given expression 40 * 12 + 3 - 6 / 60 into 40 + 12 / 3 * 6 - 60.Now, follow the order of operations (BODMAS/BIDMAS):40 + 12 / 3 * 6 - 6040 + (12 / 3) * 6 - 6040 + 4 * 6 - 6040 + 24 - 6064 - 60= 4Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 4. Other options are incorrect as they do not match the calculated result.

Q174. Study the diagram given below and answer the following question.How many educated people are employed ?

• A. 9✓
• B. 18
• C. 20
• D. 15

Explanation: This is the correct count of educated people who are employed, derived from adding the two relevant segments in the diagram: 3 and 6.

Q175. Statements: I. Majority of people residing in the locality have decided to protest against the municipal authority's decision to allow the construction of a shopping mall in the locality. II. Many shopping malls have been opened all over the city in the recent times.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect✓
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Explanation: The recent proliferation of shopping malls (Statement II) could be the cause of "mall fatigue" or concerns about overdevelopment, leading the residents to protest the construction of yet another one in their locality (Statement I).

Q176. Statements:A. All artists are painters.B. All actors are gentle.C. All gentle are painters.Conclusions:I. No artist is actor.II. All painters are actors.III. Some gentle are not actorsIV. Some artist are not gentle.

• A. None follows✓
• B. Only I follows
• C. Only II follows
• D. Only III follows
• E. Only I and II follow

Explanation: None of the four conclusions is necessarily true. Hence "none follows" will be the answer.Let’s analyze the given statements and conclusions:Statement A: “All artists are painters.”Statement B: “All actors are gentle.”Statement C: “All gentle are painters.”Now, let’s evaluate the conclusions:I. “No artist is actor.” This conclusion is not valid based on the given statements. We don’t have any information about the relationship between artists and actors.II. “All painters are actors.” This conclusion is not valid either. The statements don’t provide any direct link between painters and actors.III. “Some gentle are not actors.” This conclusion is valid. Since all gentle are painters (according to Statement C), some gentle may not be actors.IV. “Some artist are not gentle.” This conclusion is also valid. If all artists are painters (Statement A), and all gentle are painters (Statement C), then some artists (who are not gentle) may exist.In summary:Conclusions III and IV are valid.Conclusions I and II are not supported by the given statements.

Q177. Pick the odd word out:

• A. Just
• B. Fair
• C. Equitable
• D. Biased✓

Explanation: The words "just," "fair," and "equitable" are all synonyms related to impartiality and justice. "Biased" is an antonym, meaning to show prejudice for or against something, making it the odd one out.

Q178. In the following question, various terms of an alphabet sequence are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term.AZ, CX, FU,?

• A. IR
• B. IV
• C. JQ✓
• D. KP

Explanation: The sequence is based on the positions of the letters in the alphabet. For the first letters, the pattern is +2, +3, +4: A (1), C (3), F (6), leading to J (10). For the second letters, the pattern is -2, -3, -4: Z (26), X (24), U (21), leading to Q (17). Thus, the missing term is JQ.Other options do not match the calculated positions for both sequences: IR and IV would result in incorrect positions, and KP results in incorrect positions for both sequences as well.

Q179. Number series: 3, 6, 9, 12,?

• A. 14
• B. 15✓
• C. 16
• D. 18

Explanation: The series follows a pattern where each number increases by 3. Starting from 3, the series progresses as 3, 6, 9, 12, and then 12 + 3 equals 15. Therefore, the correct answer is 15. Other options like 14, 16, and 18 do not fit the pattern of adding 3 to the previous number.

Q180. Statements: Some computers are machines. All machines are devices. Conclusions: I. Some computers are devices. II. All devices are machines. III. All machines are computers.

• A. Only I✓
• B. Only II
• C. None follow
• D. Only I and II

Explanation: To solve this logical deduction question, we need to evaluate each conclusion in the context of the given statements:Conclusion I: 'Some computers are devices.' This conclusion follows because if some computers are machines and all machines are devices, then it logically follows that some computers must indeed be devices.Conclusion II: 'All devices are machines.' This conclusion does not follow. The statement 'All machines are devices' does not imply that all devices are machines. There could be devices that are not machines.Conclusion III: 'All machines are computers.' This conclusion does not follow because the statements imply that only some computers are machines, not all machines are computers.Therefore, the correct answer is Only I.