Free Punjab Mdcat Mock — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. International rules _ the number of foreign entrants.

• A. Hoodwink
• B. Stipulate✓
• C. Fabricate
• D. Traverse

Explanation: Stipulate means to set conditions. Demand or specify a requirement. Hoodwink means deceiving; traverse means to cross or travel through; and fabricate means to falsify.Option B is the correct option.

Q2. A book's a book, ------ there's nothing in it.

• A. Although
• B. And✓
• C. So
• D. None of these

Explanation: (B) And (Correct Answer) – Correct. "And" correctly joins two independent clauses that are closely related in meaning.

Q3. I waited for my friend ------ he came

• A. Until✓
• B. During
• C. While
• D. Since

Explanation: (A) Until (Correct Answer) – Correct. "Until" correctly expresses that the action continued up to a certain point in time.

Q4. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:STALWART

• A. Loyal✓
• B. Lazy
• C. Lacking strength
• D. High

Explanation: “Stalwart” is used as an adjective to indicate someone who is reliable and loyal; hence, A is the correct answer.

Q5. She is intelligent enough to _ things to serve her own purpose.

• A. Pick
• B. Maneuver✓
• C. Give
• D. Take

Explanation: "Maneuver" is a verb, which means to perform a movement in order to secure an advantage. This is the actual context in which this vocabulary word is used here.

Q6. Select the wrong segment in the following sentence:She looked at him, and he seemed almost as younger as their eldest son.

• A. Looked at
• B. Seemed
• C. Almost as younger✓
• D. Their eldest

Explanation: "She looked at him, and he seemed almost as young as their eldest son." will be the correct statement.

Q7. I don't like doing _ especially mopping the floor.

• A. Homework
• B. House chores✓
• C. House job
• D. Job

Explanation: Mopping the floor would count as a house chores. The other options are not applicable.

Q8. The earth _ to be moving.

• A. Seem
• B. Seemed
• C. Seeming
• D. Seems✓

Explanation: Seem means 'appear in a particular way'. We can use it as a linking verb (like be) or with a to-infinitive. Seems is used for singular nouns i.e. earth. We do not normally use seem in the continuous form: She seems very young to be a teacher.

Q9. Spot the error. The latter continued: “You see how is it- Ralston filled the place up with young men.”

• A. Latter
• B. How is it✓
• C. Up
• D. With

Explanation: The correct phrasing should be 'You see how it is - Ralston filled the place up with young men.'The error lies in the phrase 'how is it,' which disrupts the expected structure of the sentence. The correct form, 'how it is,' maintains proper syntax and clarity.Option A, 'latter,' is not the error since it correctly indicates the second person being discussed. Option C, 'up,' is used correctly and does not contain an error, as does Option D, 'with.' Both are valid phrases in this context.

Q10. Elastic fibres are absent in the walls of _.

• A. Aorta
• B. Arteries
• C. Veins✓
• D. Both options A and B

Explanation: The elastic fibres are essential in the recoil and the stretch of the blood vessel in order to survive high blood pressure. In veins, however, due to the lack of significant blood pressure, elastic fibres are not needed.

Q11. A type of blood cell that produces heparin is _.

• A. Basophil✓
• B. Neutrophil
• C. Eosinophil
• D. Monocyte

Explanation: Basophils release heparin to prevent blood clots and histamine which causes inflammation.

Q12. Give the general formula of monosaccharides and polysaccharides.

• A. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)2n
• B. (CH2O)2n and Cn(H2O)n
• C. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)n-1✓
• D. (CH2O)n-1 and Cn(H2O)n+1

Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple sugars.They have the general formula (CH2O)n, where "n" is the whole number from three to many thousands.Polysaccharides are formed by monosaccharide units bound together by glycosidic linkage.The general formula for polysaccharides is Cn(H2O)n-1.

Q13. Lock and Key model was explained by:

• A. Koshland
• B. Emil Fischer✓
• C. De Duve
• D. Golgi

Explanation: The lock and Key model was given by Emil Fischer in 1890.According to this model, the active site is a rigid structure. As one specific key can open only a single lock, in the same way, a specific enzyme can transform a specific substrate into the product(s).Example: Urease is the enzyme that follows this model. This model explains the specificity of enzyme action.

Q14. Which of the following was the first virus to be isolated and studied under the electron microscope:

• A. HIV
• B. Rabies Virus
• C. Pox Viruses
• D. TMV✓

Explanation: The first virus to be isolated and studied under the electron microscope was the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV). In 1939, Wendell Meredith Stanley and his colleagues achieved the crystallization of TMV, and this work was significant in advancing the understanding of viruses. The electron microscope, which was developed in the early 20th century, played a crucial role in visualizing structures at the nanoscale, including viruses. The use of the electron microscope allowed researchers to directly observe the morphology and structure of viruses, providing valuable insights into their nature and behavior. The study of TMV under the electron microscope was a landmark achievement that paved the way for further research on viruses and contributed to the establishment of virology as a distinct scientific discipline.

Q15. The HIV genetic information flows from viral _, and used to form viral _.

• A. RNA to DNA: RNA and protein✓
• B. DNA to RNA: DNA and protein
• C. DNA to RNA : RNA and protein
• D. RNA to protein : RNA and protein

Explanation: After the HIV binds to the CD4 receptor on the host cell it releases its RNA into the host cell and the following process begins.1) Reverse Transcription- The single-stranded HIV RNA is transcribed to double-stranded DNA.2) Integration- This newly formed double-stranded HIV DNA enters the host cell nucleus. The HIV enzyme integrase binds the HIV DNA to the host DNA and this integrated HIV DNA is now called provirus.3) Transcription- When the host cell receives an activation signal the provirus uses host enzyme RNA polymerase to create new copies of the HIV genomic material and short strands of RNA called messenger RNA.4) Assembly- HIV enzyme protease cleaves the long chains of HIV proteins into smaller individual proteins that combine with copies of HIV RNA genetic material and a new virus particle is assembled.

Q16. The quantitative study of energy relationship in a biological system is called?

• A. Bioenergetics✓
• B. Biochemistry
• C. Biotechnology
• D. Biophysics

Explanation: The quantitative study of energy relationships in a biological system is called bioenergetics. Bioenergetics encompasses the study of how living organisms acquire, transform, and utilize energy. It includes the processes involved in the conversion of energy, such as photosynthesis in plants and cellular respiration in both plant and animal cells. The study of bioenergetics helps scientists understand the flow of energy in biological systems and the mechanisms by which living organisms generate and use energy for various physiological processes.

Q17. Which of the following chemical activity is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde during anaerobic respiration?

• A. Reduction
• B. Decarboxylation✓
• C. Oxidation
• D. Phosphorylation

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration, specifically in a process called alcoholic fermentation, decarboxylation is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde. This process occurs in certain microorganisms, such as yeast, under anaerobic conditions.Decarboxylation: Pyruvate loses a carbon dioxide (CO2) molecule, resulting in the formation of acetaldehyde. This step is catalyzed by the enzyme pyruvate decarboxylase. Pyruvate→Acetaldehyde+CO2

Q18. Glucose and Ribose form ring structures when:

• A. React with an appropriate enzyme
• B. Dissolved in water✓
• C. Immersed in oil
• D. They are in crystalline state.

Explanation: When dissolved in water the first carbon atom (C1), which is an aldehyde group (-CHO), creates a hemiacetal with the fifth carbon atom (C5) to make a 6-membered-ring (termed a pyranose). The atoms in this cyclic molecule then arrange themselves in space (in a ring) to minimize the amount of strain on each of the covalent bonds.

Q19. Poxviruses are:

• A. Double stranded DNA virus✓
• B. Single stranded RNA virus
• C. Single stranded DNA virus
• D. Protein virus

Explanation: Poxiviruses are linear double stranded DNA viruses. They are large, enveloped viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm and encode proteins for DNA replication and gene expression.

Q20. To reduce one molecule of O2 _ _ _ electron(s) must be passed through the electron transport chain and _ _ _ molecule(s) of NADH ls(are) oxidized.

• A. 1:1
• B. 4:4
• C. 1:2
• D. 4:2✓

Explanation: For every 2 electrons carried by respiratory electron chain, one molecule of NADH is oxidized. This gives a ratio of 2:1. Here, four electrons will pass through the chain. So, 2 molecules of NADH will be oxidized which makes option D correct.

Q21. The tertiary structure of protein indicates its:

• A. Chemical function
• B. Biological function✓
• C. Physical appereance
• D. Characterstics

Explanation: The tertiary structure is the structure at which polypeptide chains become functional. At this level, every protein has a specific three-dimensional shape and presents functional groups on its outer surface, allowing it to interact with other molecules, and giving it its unique function.

Q22. Only one compound is neutral, the others are reactive. Point the one

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. HCl
• C. Urine
• D. Pure water✓

Explanation: Cytoplasm includes many reactive enzymes and molecules, hence it is not neutral. HCl is a strong acid and reacts strongly with alkalis and metals, so also not neutral. Urine has urea, another reactive compound. Only pure water is neutral.

Q23. Golgl complex was discovered by which scientist?

• A. Robert Brown
• B. Camillo Golgi✓
• C. De Duve
• D. Robert Hooke

Explanation: A Golgi body, also known as a Golgi apparatus, is a cell organelle that helps process and package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell. Golgi apparatus was discovered by Camillo Golgi.

Q24. Size of virus ranges in:

• A. 20 to 250 nm✓
• B. 25 to 250 nm
• C. 25 to 300 nm
• D. 20 to 300 nm

Explanation: Viruses are so small that they can't be seen with the naked eye and they can pass through porcelain fibers while most bacteria cannot pass through them. So their range should also be very small in nm.

Q25. The reflexes such as vomiting, coughing, and sneezing are controlled by which of the following

• A. Pons
• B. Cerebrum
• C. Cerebellum
• D. Medulla oblongata✓

Explanation: The medulla oblongata is responsible for regulating several basic functions of the autonomic nervous system, including respiration, cardiac function, vasodilation, and reflexes like vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing.

Q26. The disorder in which one or more muscle groups face the full loss of function is called?

• A. Cirrhosis
• B. Angina
• C. Epilepsy
• D. Paralysis✓

Explanation: Total muscle function loss, or paralysis, affects your entire body. It is often seen in people with severe spinal cord injuries..

Q27. The photosensitive cells present in the retina that are sensitive to dim light are called?

• A. Optic disc
• B. Rods✓
• C. Cones
• D. Ligaments

Explanation: Rods are a type of photoreceptor cell in the retina. They are sensitive to light levels and help give us good vision in low light. They are concentrated in the outer areas of the retina and give us peripheral vision. Rods are 500 to 1,000 times more sensitive to light than cones.

Q28. Which of these is the right combination of molecules which make up the secondary cell wall in plant cells?

• A. Cellulose, lignin and xylem
• B. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin✓
• C. Cellulose only
• D. Cellulose hemicellulose and pectin

Explanation: The composition of the secondary wall includes Inorganic salts, silica waxes, lignin, cutting, hemicellulose, cellulose. •Composition of primary wall and middle lamella is as followsPrimary wall:Cellulose, pectin, and hemicelluloseMiddle lamella:It is formed of sticky gel-like magnesium and calcium salts and pectin.

Q29. When a neuron's membrane potentials is between - 70 mV and - 90 mV, it is said to be In a state of:

• A. Depolarization
• B. Hyperpolarization✓
• C. Repolarization
• D. No polarization

Explanation: Hyperpolarization is when the membrane potential becomes more negative at a particular spot on the neuron’s membrane, while depolarization is when the membrane potential becomes less negative (more positive).

Q30. Which of the following nutrient is mainly provided by insects feeding to carnivorous plants?

• A. Magnesium
• B. Nitrogen✓
• C. Carbon
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Carnivorous Plants- These plants have evolved the ability to trap and digest insects, which are an excellent source of nitrogen as they contain around 10% nitrogen by mass. Carnivorous plants often grow in nutrient-poor environments such as bogs and other wetlands. They have evolved to supplement their nutrient intake, particularly nitrogen, by capturing and digesting insects. Insects are a good source of nitrogen, which is essential for various biological processes in plants.

Q31. Optimum pH for salivary amylase is:

• A. 2
• B. 6.8✓
• C. 7.6
• D. 9

Explanation: Salivary amylase is a major component of human saliva that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. This process continues in the small intestine, where amylase produced by the pancreas performs the final steps of carbohydrate digestion. The optimal pH for salivary amylase enzymatic activity ranges from 6 to 7. Over and below this level, the response rate decreases as the enzymes become denatured. The salivary amylase enzyme is most active at pH 6.8.

Q32. The origin of new species from already existing species over a period of time is called:

• A. Adaptation
• B. Evolution✓
• C. Neo-Darwinsm
• D. Special creation

Explanation: Evolution is the change in the characteristics of a species over several generations and relies on the process of natural selection. The evolutionary process by which a new species comes into being is called speciation.Evolution is the process of change in the heritable traits of biological populations over successive generations, leading to the diversity of life on Earth. It occurs through mechanisms like natural selection, where individuals with traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing those advantageous genes to their offspring. Other processes include genetic mutations and variations that introduce new traits into a population.

Q33. Evolution is the process that demostrates:

• A. How characters are passed from one generation to the next
• B. How organisms perform their activities in different environment
• C. How new species originate from existing species✓
• D. How new species are formed specially and specifically by the nature

Explanation: Evolution is a process of descent with modification. Darwin indicated that species could form by the evolution of one species splitting into two, or via a population diverging from its extant ancestor to the point it was a new species.

Q34. Incomplete or Imperfect digestion Is called:

• A. Anorexia
• B. Botulism
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Dyspepsia✓

Explanation: Dyspepsia is another word for indigestion. People with chronic indigestion often report feelings of stomach pain, over-fullness and bloating during and after eating. Other common symptoms include acid reflux, heartburn and excessive burping.

Q35. The osmotic pressure of blood Is maintained by:

• A. Membrane proteins
• B. Fibrous proteins
• C. Plasma proteins✓
• D. Myosln

Explanation: Serum albumin, protein found in blood plasma that helps maintain the osmotic pressure between the blood vessels and tissues. Serum albumin accounts for 55 percent of the total protein in blood plasma.

Q36. _ is the structure in female reproductive system in which fertilization takes place:

• A. Ovaries
• B. Uterus
• C. Cervix
• D. Oviduct✓

Explanation: The zygote is formed in the oviduct and moves towards the uterus where it could be embedded.

Q37. Among the following, identify the agranulocytes:

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Basophils
• C. Monocytes✓
• D. Both Neutrophils and Basophils

Explanation: Lymphocytes and monocytes are the two types of agranulocytes or nongranular leukocytes.These white blood cells have no obvious granules. Agranulocytes typically have a largernucleus due to the lack of noticeable cytoplasmic granules.Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are granular leukocytes.

Q38. Which is incorrect for cardiac muscles?

• A. Show involuntary control
• B. Branched cells
• C. Have no striations✓
• D. Have intercalated disc

Explanation: Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle because both have actin and myosin filaments arranged in repeating units called sarcomeres. This organized structure gives cardiac muscle its striated (striped) appearance and allows it to contract in a strong and coordinated way

Q39. When puberty is achieved in girls, which one of the following occurs in them but not in boys?

• A. Excessive growth of hairs on skin
• B. Pubic hair growth
• C. Menarche✓
• D. Heaviness of voice

Explanation: Menarche is the first occurrence of menstruation as soon as puberty is achieved, and it does not occur in males.

Q40. Protein factories In prokaryotlc cell are:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Ribosomes✓
• C. Plasmids
• D. Nucleotide

Explanation: 70S ribosomes are present in prokaryotic cells. These are one of the few organelles present in prokaryotes. They are the key synthetic factories of proteins in them.

Q41. Which one of the following occurs at puberty in boys?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Pubic hair growth✓
• C. Hips broaden
• D. Menarche

Explanation: Options A, C, and D are the signs of puberty only in females. Option B 'Pubic hair growth' occurs in both males and females so it is the most valid option.

Q42. Which of the following is the separation point between two sarcomere?

• A. H-zone
• B. A-band
• C. Z-line✓
• D. M-line

Explanation: The Z line is in a zig-zag manner, which is a separation point between two sarcomeres. Actin filaments extend from this region and are joined together by several complex protein structures.

Q43. The walls of atria and the walls of ventricles are relaxed during:

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole✓
• C. Atrial systole
• D. Ventricular systole

Explanation: Diastole is the phase of relaxation in the cardiac cycle. During diastole, the heart chambers relax and fill with blood.

Q44. _ is the exact position of a gene on the chromosome.

• A. Trait
• B. Centromere
• C. Genotype
• D. Locus✓

Explanation: The correct answer is locus. A locus is the precise, fixed location on a chromosome where a particular gene or genetic marker is situated. This term is specific to genetics and is used to identify the position of genes.In contrast, a trait is a characteristic of an organism, not a location on a chromosome. The centromere is a region of the chromosome that connects sister chromatids, and genotype refers to the overall genetic makeup of an organism, not the position of individual genes.

Q45. Many sarcomere placed end to end and form a:

• A. Muscle
• B. Fiber
• C. Myofibril✓
• D. Muscle fiber

Explanation: Sarcomeres are the smallest functional contractile unit of muscle, and myofibrils are striated muscle organelles that are comprised of sarcomeres that are strictly aligned in series.

Q46. The appearance of an organism regardless of its genes is called:

• A. Genotype
• B. Phenotype✓
• C. Allele
• D. Genomic imprinting

Explanation: Phenotype is the observable physical or physiological traits of an organism, determined by its genes and environment.

Q47. The alternative form of a given gene is called:

• A. Trait
• B. Phenotype
• C. Allele✓
• D. Genotype

Explanation: The alternative form of a gene is called an allele. An individual inherits two alleles one from each parent. For any given genomic location where such variations occur., if two alleles are the same then the person is homozygous, and if different alleles are present then the person is heterozygous.

Q48. A man receives his X chromosome from:

• A. His mother only✓
• B. Part from his father and part from his mother
• C. His father only
• D. Either his mother or his father, It depends upon luck

Explanation: Biologically male people always inherit their X chromosome from their mother, and Y chromosome from their father.

Q49. Proliferative phase is also termed as:

• A. Secretory phase
• B. Menstruations phase
• C. Follicular or preoculatory phase✓
• D. Secondary phase

Explanation: The four phases of the menstrual cycle are menstruation, the follicular phase, ovulation and the luteal phase. The menstrual cycle is a series of natural changes in hormone production and the structures of the uterus and ovaries of the female reproductive system that makes pregnancy possible

Q50. Which of these is a type of arthritis that Is primarily due to aging?

• A. Septic arthritis
• B. Rheumatoid arthritis
• C. Osteoarthritis✓
• D. Rheumatoid and oesteoarthritis

Explanation: Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common form of arthritis. Some people call it degenerative joint disease or “wear and tear” arthritis. It occurs most frequently in the hands, hips, and knees. it occurs primarily due to aging.

Q51. What is the meaning of articulation?

• A. Connections between Joints
• B. Connections between cartilages
• C. Connections between bones✓
• D. Connections between muscles

Explanation: A joint, also known as an articulation, is a location where two or more bones meet. Most joints contain a single articulation. There are three structural classifications of joints: fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial.

Q52. Mendel’s idea that pair of characters separate during gamete formation is called:

• A. Law of particulate inheritance
• B. Law of segregation✓
• C. Law of dominance
• D. Law of independant assortment

Explanation: According to the law of segregation, only one of the two gene copies present in an organism is distributed to each gamete.

Q53. Which of the following number of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of Drosophila?

• A. 4
• B. 8✓
• C. 16
• D. 2

Explanation: It has 8 chromosomes in its somatic cells. The number of linkage group in an organism corresponds to its haploid number of chromosomes. Somatic cells are diploid. Therefore, the number of linkage groups in Drosophila melanogaster is 4.

Q54. One map unit is supposed to be equal to:

• A. 1% recombination frequency✓
• B. 5% recombination frequency
• C. 10% recombination frequency
• D. 15% recombination frequency

Explanation: One map unit represents the distance between two linked gene pairs where 1% of the products of meiosis are recombinant. Thus, it represents 1% recombination frequency.

Q55. The antibody molecule consists of _ polypeptide chains.

• A. Eight
• B. Four✓
• C. Six
• D. Two

Explanation: An Antibody molecule is made up of 4 polypeptide chains i.e. two heavy chains and two light chains. (PTB page:326)

Q56. Two counter-current systems

• A. Henle's loop and PCT
• B. Henle's loop and DCT
• C. Henle's loop and Collecting duct
• D. Henle's loop and Vasa rectae✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Henle's loop and Vasa rectae. The Loop of Henle and the Vasa Rectae work together as a counter-current multiplier and exchanger, respectively, maintaining the osmotic gradient necessary for water reabsorption in the kidneys. The other options involve structures that do not participate in counter-current exchange mechanisms. The PCT and DCT are involved in different reabsorption processes, and while the Collecting Duct helps concentrate urine, it does not form a counter-current system with the Loop of Henle.

Q57. Which of the following is the most suitable term for the genotype AaBb?

• A. Homozygous recessive
• B. Homozygous dominant
• C. Heterozygous✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: It will be heterozygous since the alleles are of 2 types.

Q58. A diseased man marries a normal woman.They have five daughters and three sons.All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is:

• A. X linked dominant✓
• B. X-linked recessive
• C. Autosomal recessive
• D. Autosomal dominant

Explanation: Father transmits his "X-chromosome" to the daughter while the sons receive "Y-chromosome" from the father. Since only the daughter and none of the sons are affected, the trait is X-linked. Daughters get the second copy of X-chromosomes from the mother who is normal and hence does not carry the affected allele of the trait. The trait is expressed in daughters under heterozygous conditions, hence it is an X-linked dominant trait. The correct option is A.

Q59. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait. A woman with albino father marries an albino man. What Is the probability of albinism in her children?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: It is an Autosomal recessive inheritance. This means a child has to get 2 copies of the gene that causes albinism (1 from each parent) to have the condition. Thus, the correct answer of the given mcq is 50%.

Q60. Phenotype represents:

• A. Physical appereance of the trait✓
• B. Genetic makeup of the trait
• C. Normal trait
• D. Mutant trait

Explanation: The observable characteristics of an organism are termed as its phenotype. The term covers the organism's morphology, its developmental processes, its biochemical and physiological properties, its behavior, and the products of behavior.

Q61. A large vein that collects deoxygenated blood from the upper parts of the body:

• A. Aorta
• B. Pulmonary trunk
• C. Superior vena cava✓
• D. Inferior vena cava

Explanation: Superior vena cava is the largest vein in the body that collects deoxygenated blood from the upper part of the body like head, neck, chest and arms to the heart.

Q62. Coronary arteries supply the blood to the:

• A. Liver
• B. Spleen
• C. Heart✓
• D. Gut

Explanation: Coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle itself. The heart, like any other organ, requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly. The coronary arteries are responsible for delivering oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle (myocardium), ensuring its continuous nourishment and providing the necessary resources for the heart to pump blood throughout the rest of the body. There are two main coronary arteries: the right coronary artery and the left coronary artery. These arteries branch out into smaller vessels, covering the heart's surface and penetrating into its muscle tissue, supplying blood to every part of the heart to keep it healthy and functioning optimally.

Q63. Aorta gives many small branches to the chest wall and then passes down to the abdominal region; Here it gives branches, which supply blood to:

• A. Different parts of alimentary canal
• B. Kidneys
• C. Lower abdomen
• D. Different parts of alimentary canal, kidneys and Lower abdomen✓

Explanation: After arching towards left behind the heart aorta covers the chest area through bronchial arteries and then enters into the abdominal areas to cover the alimentary canal, kidneys and lower abdomen through renal arteries and mesenteric arteries.

Q64. The semilunar valves are located at the base of:

• A. Pulmonary artery & aorta✓
• B. Vena cava
• C. Pulmonary vein
• D. Coronary artery

Explanation: These valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles during diastole.

Q65. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

• A. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
• B. Neutrophils and monocytes✓
• C. Neutrophils and eosinophils
• D. Lymphocytes and macrophages

Explanation: Neutrophils and monocytes are the most active phagocytic white blood cells in the human body. Phagocytosis is the process of engulfing and destroying foreign particles, such as bacteria and viruses. Neutrophils and monocytes are both professional phagocytes, meaning that they are specialized in this process. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell in the blood. They are the first line of defense against infection, and they are quickly recruited to the site of infection. Neutrophils can engulf and destroy bacteria within minutes of entering the bloodstream.Monocytes are larger than neutrophils and have a longer lifespan. They circulate in the blood for a few days before migrating to tissues, where they become macrophages. Macrophages are long-lived cells that are able to phagocytose large amounts of material. They are important for clearing up debris and dead cells after an infection.

Q66. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal opening?

• A. Starch hydrolysis
• B. Guard cell photosynthesis
• C. Transpiration
• D. Potassium influx and efflux✓

Explanation: Modern research shows stomatal opening is driven by ion movements in guard cells. Potassium ions enter guard cells, lowering water potential and causing water uptake. This increases turgor in guard cells, opening the stomata.

Q67. Globular blood proteins that are produced by B-lymphocytes and that bind specifically to foreign antigenic materials in the body and destroy them are called:

• A. Antigens
• B. Immunogens
• C. Antibodies✓
• D. Antibiotics

Explanation: An antibody (Ab), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large Y-shaped protein produced mainly by plasma cells that is used by the immune system to identify and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. The antibody recognizes a unique molecule of the harmful agent, called antigen, via variable region.

Q68. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as:

• A. Insecticide✓
• B. Agent for production of dairy products
• C. Source of industrial enzyme
• D. Indicator of water pollution

Explanation: Soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis produces proteins that kill certain insects like lepidopterans (tobacco budworm, armyworm), coleopterans (beetles), and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). B. thuringiensis forms some protein crystals which contain a toxic insecticidal protein. This toxin does not kill the Bacillus (bacterium) because it exists as inactive protoxins in them. But, once an insect ingests it, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the alimentary canal. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause swelling and lysis and finally cause the death of the insect.

Q69. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) has been used in the development of plants resistant to:

• A. Nematodes✓
• B. Fungi
• C. Viruses
• D. Insects

Explanation: Many nematodes live in plants and animals including human beings. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infests the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infection that was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene by the synthesis of RNA molecules complementary to the mRNA. The normal (in vivo synthesized) mRNA of a gene is said to be “sense” because it carries the codons that are “read” during translation. Normally, the complement to the mRNA “sense” strand will not contain a sequence of codons that can be translated to produce a functional protein; thus, this complementary strand is called “anti-­sense RNA”. The anti­-sense RNA and mRNA molecules will anneal to form duplex RNA molecules (or double-stranded RNA) and the duplex RNA molecules can not be translated. Thus, the presence of anti­sense RNA will block translation of the mRNA of the affected gene.

Q70. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

• A. Stem
• B. Root✓
• C. Flower
• D. Leaf

Explanation: Meloidogyne incognita, commonly referred to as the root-knot nematode, infects the roots of the tobacco plant. The nematode is so named because it causes the formation of galls or knots on the roots, disrupting the plant's ability to absorb water and nutrients efficiently. This results in stunted growth and can significantly diminish crop yield. While the stem, leaves, and flowers may show signs of stress due to root damage, they are not directly infected by the nematode. Thus, the root is the primary site of infection.

Q71. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four­ year­ girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency?

• A. Gene therapy✓
• B. Chemotherapy
• C. Immunotherapy
• D. Radiation therapy

Explanation: Gene therapy is a technique of genetic engineering which involves the replacement of a faulty/disease-causing gene by a normal healthy functional gene. The first clinical ex-vivo gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4­-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency. This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function and the deficiency of this enzyme can lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).

Q72. For preparation of recombinant DNA, the plasmid is cut with the same enzyme which was used for:

• A. Isolation of the gene of interest✓
• B. Cutting all such plasmids
• C. Cutting any piece of DNA
• D. Cutting extrachromosomal DNA

Explanation: The same restriction enzyme is used to cut both the plasmid and the gene of interest to create compatible onds for ligation.

Q73. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of :

• A. Insulin
• B. Interferons
• C. Vaccines✓
• D. Edible proteins

Explanation: Animal cell culture is widely used today to mass-produce vaccines for diseases like polio, hepatitis, and COVID-19.

Q74. Which of the following is generally used for induced mutagenesis in crop plants?

• A. X-rays
• B. UV (260 nm)
• C. Gamma rays (from cobalt-60)✓
• D. Alpha particles

Explanation: Gamma rays are produced when an unstable atomic nucleus like cobalt­-60 releases energy to gain stability. Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma are the two important varieties of wheat that are responsible for the green revolution in India. These are produced by gamma rays treatment of Sonora­-64 and Lerma Rojo­-64 which are Mexican dwarf wheat varieties.

Q75. The part of the nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is:

• A. Distal convoluted tubule
• B. Ascending loop of Henle✓
• C. Bowman’s capsule
• D. Descending limb of Henle’s loop

Explanation: The correct answer is the ascending loop of Henle, which is crucial for the active reabsorption of sodium ions from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. This segment utilizes active transport mechanisms to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient, which is essential for maintaining osmotic balance and blood pressure.The distal convoluted tubule causes gradual osmotic outlow of water from the iltrate back to kidney as it passes downward in the descending loop of Henle. Bowman's capsule serves a different function by filtering blood but does not participate in sodium reabsorption. Finally, the descending limb of Henle's loop is primarily involved in the passive reabsorption of water, making it ineffective for sodium reabsorption.

Q76. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of:

• A. Atrial natriuretic factor✓
• B. Aldosterone
• C. ADH
• D. Renin

Explanation: The correct answer is Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF). ANF is secreted by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure, not a decrease. It works to reduce blood volume and pressure by promoting sodium excretion and decreasing the release of aldosterone. On the other hand, Aldosterone, ADH, and Renin are all released in response to a decrease in blood pressure or volume. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, ADH reduces water excretion, and renin triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to increase blood pressure.

Q77. If the loop of Henle were absent from the mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?

• A. There will be no urine formation.
• B. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
• C. The urine will be more concentrated
• D. The urine will be more dilute✓

Explanation: Reabsorption is a process by which useful constituents of the glomerular filtrate are returned into the bloodstream. It occurs in convoluted tubules (proximal convoluted tubule) as well as the loop of Henle. Basically loop of Henle, in association with the vasa recta, plays an important role in the countercurrent mechanism (the process which makes urine hypertonic, i.e., more concentrated). Therefore, if Henle’s loop was absent from the mammalian nephron, the urine would be more dilute.

Q78. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?

• A. Increase in Aldosterone levels✓
• B. Increase in Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) levels
• C. Decrease in aldosterone levels
• D. Decrease in Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) levels

Explanation: Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating sodium and potassium balance in the body. It enhances sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron by increasing the number of sodium channels and sodium-potassium pumps. This process helps retain sodium in the body, contributing to increased blood pressure and reduced urine volume. In contrast, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily focuses on water reabsorption, and changes in its levels do not directly affect sodium reabsorption. Therefore, the correct answer is an increase in aldosterone levels, which specifically targets sodium reabsorption.

Q79. Lymphocyte B and T have been named due to their:

• A. Relationship with bursa of Fabricius and thymus gland respectively✓
• B. Origin from bursa Fabricius and thymus, respectively
• C. Storage in bursa of Fabricius and thymus
• D. Destruction in bursa of Fabricius

Explanation: B cells were first discovered in the bursa of Fabricius (birds), and T cells mature in thymus.

Q80. The floor of the chest is called:

• A. Alveoli
• B. Trachea
• C. Bronchi
• D. None of these✓

Explanation: The diaphragm is a muscle that helps you inhale and exhale (breathe in and out). This thin, dome-shaped muscle sits below your lungs and heart. It's attached to your sternum (a bone in the middle of your chest), the bottom of your rib cage and your spine.

Q81. Large dust particles are trapped by the hair and mucus in the:

• A. Nostrils✓
• B. Pharynx
• C. Nasal cavities
• D. Nose

Explanation: Nose has two openings called nostrils. Nostrils have fine hair to trap dust particles present in the air and stops them from entering our respiratory system.

Q82. An enzyme that is involved in dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin is called:

• A. Carboxylase
• B. Oxygenase
• C. Anhydrase
• D. Deoxygenase✓

Explanation: The process of oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin is not primarily enzymatic; it is governed by the partial pressure of oxygen and the affinity changes in hemoglobin. 'Deoxygenase' is not a standard term used in this context but conceptually represents removing oxygen. Carbonic anhydrase plays a vital role in carbon dioxide transport and pH balance but does not directly facilitate oxygen release from hemoglobin. Carboxylase and oxygenase enzymes serve different metabolic functions unrelated to the direct release of oxygen from hemoglobin.

Q83. Hemoglobin readily combines with oxygen to form:

• A. Bright red oxyhemoglobin✓
• B. Purple red oxyhemoglobin
• C. Bright red hemoglobin
• D. Purple red hemoglobin

Explanation: Hemoglobin readily combines with oxygen to form "oxyhemoglobin." Oxyhemoglobin is the complex that is formed when oxygen molecules bind to the iron atoms in the heme groups of the hemoglobin molecules present in red blood cells. This binding of oxygen to hemoglobin enables the transportation of oxygen from the lungs, where there's a higher partial pressure of oxygen, to the body's tissues, where oxygen is needed for cellular respiration. The formation of oxyhemoglobin is reversible, allowing oxygen to be released from hemoglobin and delivered to tissues that require it.

Q84. When muscles of diaphragm contract it becomes:

• A. More dome like
• B. Less dome like✓
• C. Less flat
• D. Convex

Explanation: When the muscles of the diaphragm contract, it becomes less domed and more flattened. The diaphragm is the primary muscle involved in the process of breathing. When it contracts, it moves downward and flattens out. This action increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, creating a decrease in pressure within the chest. As a result, air flows into the lungs to equalize the pressure and fill the expanded space. This is an inhalation or inspiration.

Q85. Glottis is lined with:

• A. Plasma membrane
• B. Mucous membrane✓
• C. Meninges
• D. Epithelial membrane

Explanation: The medial surface has a mucosal lining that forms the lateral aspect of the respiratory part of the glottis. The apex of the arytenoid cartilage is pointed and articulates with the corniculate cartilage.The glottis, located in the larynx, is the opening between the vocal cords. It is lined with a mucous membrane, which plays an essential role in keeping the airway moist, protecting tissues from irritants, and allowing smooth vocal cord movement for phonation.

Q86. How many compounds of tar in tobacco smoke are included in causing cancer?

• A. More than 2
• B. More than 5
• C. More than 8
• D. More than 10✓

Explanation: The correct answer is "D". Tobacco smoke is made up of thousands of chemicals, including at least 70 known to cause cancer. This option suggests that more than ten compounds of tar in tobacco smoke are included in causing cancer. This option is the closest to the truth. The exact number of carcinogenic compounds in tobacco smoke is complex and can vary depending on the type of tobacco and smoking conditions. However, it is well-established that tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens, and the actual number is indeed more than ten.

Q87. Loss of lung tissue is caused by:

• A. Emphysema✓
• B. Asthma
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Bronchitis

Explanation: Emphysema destroys alveolar walls, reducing the surface area and causing permanent lung tissue loss.

Q88. Cancer expands systematically by:

• A. Locally
• B. Systemic
• C. Metastasis✓
• D. Invasion

Explanation: Cancer spreads to distant sites through a process known as metastasis. During metastasis, cancer cells break away from the primary tumor, travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system, and form new tumors in other organs or tissues. This is distinct from local growth (invasion) and is not accurately described by the term 'systemic' as it specifically involves movement to distant sites.

Q89. Site of gaseous exchange in humans is:

• A. Trachea
• B. Bronchus
• C. Alveoli✓
• D. Nose

Explanation: Air sac is the functional unit of the lungs. Air sac consists of several microscopic single layered structures called alveoli. Gaseous exchange occurs at alveoli

Q90. Cartilage rings present in the trachea, which prevent it from collapsing and keep the air passage way open, are:

• A. "O" shaped
• B. "C" shaped✓
• C. "D" Shaped
• D. "G" shaped

Explanation: C-shaped cartilaginous rings reinforces the anterior and lateral sides of the trachea to protect and maintain the airway open. (The cartilaginous rings are incomplete because this allows the trachea to collapse slightly to allow food to pass down the esophagus.)

Q91. What is the mass in grams of 1.69 moles of phosphoric acid?

• A. 148 g
• B. 138 g
• C. 157 g
• D. 166 g✓

Explanation: Phosphoric acid is H3PO4. Its molar mass is 97.9 g/mol. To find the mass we use the formula;mass = moles × molar massmass = 1.69×97.994=166g

Q92. The mass of an electron is _ times smaller than that of a proton.

• A. 1836✓
• B. 1839
• C. 1837
• D. 1834

Explanation: The mass of an electron is indeed significantly smaller than the mass of a proton. The electron has a mass of approximately 9.10938356 × 10-31 kilograms (kg), while the proton has a mass of approximately 1.6726219 × 10-27 kg. The ratio of the mass of an electron to the mass of a proton is approximately 1/1836. The mass of an electron is 1836 times smaller as compared to a proton. (This line is mentioned in PTB as well as Federal.)

Q93. Which subshells are present in M shell?

• A. s
• B. s, p
• C. s, p, d✓
• D. s, p, d, f

Explanation: c) s, p, dThis option is correct. The M shell includes the s, p, and d subshells. The s subshell can hold 2 electrons, the p subshell can hold 6 electrons, and the d subshell can hold 10 electrons.

Q94. Which of the following postulate of kinetic molecular theory does not hold at low temperature and high pressure?

• A. Gases are considered to be composed of minute discrete particles called molecules.
• B. The molecules move in straight line.
• C. The pressure of gas is produced due to the collision of molecules with the wall of container.
• D. The volume occupied by the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the the total volume of the gas.✓

Explanation: This is because when you increase the pressure, the particles are closer together. At high pressure, they are so close together that the volume of the particles makes up a significant portion of the volume of the gas. When gases are at low pressure, they are spread far apart enough that the volume of the individual molecules is so small in comparison to the volume of the gas that you can disregard the individual volumes.

Q95. Which one of the following is calculated from balanced equation during the determination of limiting reactant?

• A. Amount of reactants present
• B. Amount of limiting reactant that produces the product
• C. Amount of product expected to form from each reactant✓
• D. Amount of excess reactant

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Amount of product expected to form from each reactant. This option highlights the ability to predict how much product can be generated based on the initial amounts of reactants, which is a key concept in stoichiometry. The balanced equation tells us the ratio in which reactants convert into products, thereby allowing us to identify the limiting reactant based on the amount of product that can be formed.Option A is incorrect because it refers to the actual amounts of reactants present, which are not provided by the balanced equation. Option B is also misleading, as it focuses on the limiting reactant's role without directly relating it to the product amounts calculable from the balanced equation. Option D is incorrect because it discusses excess reactants, which are not determined by the balanced equation itself, but rather by comparing the calculated amounts of product from each reactant.

Q96. A compound of boron and hydrogen contains 18.9% hydrogen and 81.1% boron. The empirical formula of the compound is:

• A. BeH2
• B. Be2H
• C. B4H
• D. B2H5✓

Explanation: For the Empirical Formula; 1. Express the percentage composition in terms of Mass in grams.Hydrogen: Boron= 18.9% 81.1%= 18.9g: 81.1g2. Find the number of moles 'n'by substituting values in the formula;n Mass/Molar Mass= 18.9g/1g: 81.1g/10.8g= 18.9 mol: 7.5 mol3. Divide the number of moles by the least number of moles. = 18.9/7.5: 7.5/7.5 = 2.5:14. Multiply both results by a whole number to get a whole number. =2.5 x 2:1x2 = 5:2 H=5B=2Resulting formula = B₂H5

Q97. The maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in all orbital for which I=3 is:

• A. 6
• B. 14✓
• C. 10
• D. 18

Explanation: The number of orbitals for 1=3is (21+1)=(2x3+1)=7.Now, each orbit can accomodate 2 electrons.So, number of electrons =2(21+1)=2(2x3+1)=2x7=14.

Q98. In NO3- the oxidation number of N is:

• A. 5+✓
• B. 2+
• C. 3+
• D. 3-

Explanation: NO3N = xO = - 2x + (-2) × 3 = - 1x + (- 6) = - 1x – 6 = - 1x = - 1 + 6x = 5

Q99. Which of the following solid has indefinite heat of fusion?

• A. Crystalline solids
• B. Pure solids
• C. True solids
• D. Amorphous solids✓

Explanation: Crystalline solids have definite heat of fusion, whereas amorphous solids have indefinite heat of fusion. Anisotropy for crystalline solids is anisotropic, and for amorphous, it is isotropic.

Q100. Which solids are also called as atomic solids?

• A. Ionic solids
• B. Covalent solids✓
• C. Molecular solids
• D. Metallic solids

Explanation: Covalent solids (also called atomic) solids—Made up of atoms connected by covalent bonds; the intermolecular forces are covalent bonds as well. Characterized as being very hard with very high melting points and being poor conductors. Examples of this type of solid are diamond and graphite, and the fullerenes.

Q101. Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon:

• A. Pressure
• B. Concentration
• C. Temperature✓
• D. Volume

Explanation: The solubility product is a kind of equilibrium constant and its value depends on temperature. Ksp usually increases with an increase in temperature due to increased solubility.

Q102. What is the unit of slope obtained from Arrhenius equation?(slope=-Ea/2.303R)

• A. K¯
• B. J/mol K
• C. K✓
• D. Mol/K

Explanation: The slope is given by -Ea/2.303R. The units for activation energy or Ea are Jmol−1 and those for R are JK−1mol−1. By dividing Ea by R, K is obtained which is the unit of the slope.

Q103. The shape of s-orbital is _ and the shape of p-orbital is _.

• A. Spherical, dumb-bell✓
• B. Dumb-bell, spherical
• C. Spherical, double dumb-bell
• D. Spherical, spherical

Explanation: The s-orbital is spherical and the p-orbital is dumb-bell shaped.Hence, the correct option is A

Q104. For a particular reversible reaction If [Products]/[Reactants]>Kc It means that:

• A. More products are needed to attain equillbrium
• B. There are more reactants in the system
• C. More Reactants are needed to attain equillbrium✓
• D. The reaction will move forward to attain equilibrium

Explanation: If [Products]/[Reactants]>Kc then it means there are more products than needed for the equilibrium value, hence more Reactants are needed to attain equillbrium

Q105. The reaction in which rate depends only on one reactant concentrations, although more than one reactants are present in the reaction mixture is known as:

• A. 1st order reaction
• B. 2nd order reaction
• C. Pseudo first order reaction✓
• D. Third order reaction

Explanation: A reaction which is not first-order reaction naturally but made first order by increasing or decreasing the concentration of one or the other reactant is known as Pseudo first order reaction. Pseudo means ‘fake’.In pseudo-first order reactions, we are basically isolating a reactant by increasing the concentration of the other reactants. When the other reactants are in excess, change in their concentrations does not affect the reaction much, Therefore, now the reaction only depends on the concentration of the isolated reactant. Thus, the order of reaction becomes one.

Q106. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because:

• A. Oxides of nitrogen are unstable
• B. Catalyst is required for the reaction
• C. The reaction is endothermic✓
• D. N2 and O2 do not react with each other

Explanation: The reaction between N2 and O2 is endothermic and requires high temperature hence it does not take place naturally in air.

Q107. Fe is precipitated out when Mg strip is dipped in

• A. FeSO4 solution✓
• B. CuSO4 Solution
• C. MgSO4 Solution
• D. H2SO4 solution

Explanation: According to the reactivity series, magnesium is more reactive than iron hence it will displace the iron in iron sulphate and form magnesium sulphate, percipitating iron.

Q108. Oxidation number of a substance in elemental form is:

• A. 0✓
• B. Positive
• C. Negative
• D. Fractional

Explanation: The oxidation number for an element in its elemental form is 0 (holds true for isolated atoms and elemental substances which bond identical atoms: e.g. Cl2, etc) The oxidation number of a monoatomic ion is the same as its charge (e.g. oxidation number of Na+ = +1, and that of S2- is -2)

Q109. Pi (π) bond between two atoms is

• A. Formed by axial overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
• B. Formed by parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
• C. Formed by axial overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.
• D. Formed by parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.✓

Explanation: Pi (π) bonds are formed by the parallel overlap of atomic orbitals that have electron density above and below the bond axis. Pi bonds are generally weaker than sigma bonds, which are formed by the head-on overlap of atomic orbitals. Covalent bond which is formed by parallel overlapping of the half-filled atomic orbitals of atoms is called pi bond. It is weaker than a sigma bond.

Q110. The amount of energy required to break one mole of a particular type of bond is equal to its:

• A. Activation energy
• B. Ionization energy
• C. Bond Energy✓
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: Bond energy is the amount of energy required to break one mole of a particular type of bond in a molecule or compound. It is the correct answer to this question. Bond energy is typically expressed in units of kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol) or calories per mole (cal/mol).

Q111. Number of molecules possessing Ea (Activation Energy) can be increased by

• A. Adding a catalyst
• B. Increasing the volume
• C. Increasing temperature✓
• D. Increasing temperature of Moles of Reactants

Explanation: Increasing temperature is correct because increasing the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules, which can increase the number of molecules possessing the necessary activation energy.

Q112. Which of the following is the correct demonstration of the first law of thermodynamics?

• A. ΔH=qw
• B. ΔH=q-ΔPΔV
• C. ΔH=q+w
• D. Q= E+W✓

Explanation: Q= E+W Heat gained by the system = Change in internal energy+ Work done by the system

Q113. Which of the following orbitals has lower energy?

• A. Anti-bonding molecular orbital
• B. Anti-bonding atomic orbitals
• C. Bonding half-filled orbitals
• D. Bonding molecular orbital✓

Explanation: A bonding molecular orbital is formed when atomic orbitals combine in phase, creating a molecular orbital that is lower in energy than the original atomic orbitals. This is the correct answer as it has lower energy than the original atomic orbitals and any other anti-bonding orbitals.

Q114. In the gaseous phase, when ionization takes place _ are isolated and are free from all external influences:

• A. Atoms and molecule
• B. Atom and cation
• C. Atom and anion
• D. Atom and ion✓

Explanation: d) Atom and ion: This option is correctly encompasses both cations (positively charged ions) and anions (negatively charged ions) that are formed during ionization. It also includes the neutral atom that loses or gains electrons to become an ion. This option accurately describes the process of ionization.

Q115. Which of these has a bond length of _ 174 pm?

• A. C-C
• B. Cl-Cl
• C. Cl-H
• D. C-Cl✓

Explanation: This has to be memorised as C-CI has bond length of 174 pm.The bond length of 174 pm is typical for a carbon-halogen (C-X) single bond, where X is a halogen atom such as chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), or iodine (I).

Q116. Shielding effect in 3rd period of periodic table:

• A. Increases from left to right
• B. Decreases from left to right
• C. May increase or decrease
• D. Remain unchanged✓

Explanation: Shielding effect remains the same along the period because the number of inner orbital electrons remain the same, only the valence electron number increases which has nothing to do with shielding effect.

Q117. The transition element which shows fixed 2+ oxidation state in its compound is:

• A. Zn✓
• B. Fe
• C. Cu
• D. Mn

Explanation: Zn, with a filled 3d shell, has an oxidation state of +2 and does not exhibit multiple oxidation states as transition metal atoms do, even though it is classified as a transition metal.

Q118. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has the lowest boiling point at STP?

• A. Kerosene oil
• B. Lubricating oil
• C. Gasoline✓
• D. Heavy Oil

Explanation: Liquids that boil at low temperatures, such as gasoline, are volatile liquids so option C is correct. Out of the given fractions of petroleum: kerosene, Lubricating oil, gasoline, and heavy oil, the one having the lowest boiling point is Gasoline. Boiling point of Gasoline is 358 K, Kerosene is (423 - 573) K, Diesel oil is (453 - 633) K and that of Heavy oil is about 810 K. So, the lowest boiling point is of Gasoline.Please note that petroleum includes only the liquid fractions, thus "natural gas" cannot be the answer.

Q119. The C-C bond length in benzene is:

• A. 1.39 Angstrom✓
• B. 1.20 Angstrom
• C. 1.34 Angstrom
• D. 1.54 Angstrom

Explanation: C-C bond length is 154pm and C=C bond length is 134 pm .But in benzene all C-C bond lengths are equal to 1.39 Angstrom due to resonance.

Q120. Major product of the following reaction is: CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 + HBr

• A. CH2(Br)-CH2-CH2-CH3
• B. CH3-CH(Br)-CH2-CH3✓
• C. CH2=CH-CH(Br)-CH3
• D. CH2=CH-CH2-CH2(Br)

Explanation: Markovnikov rule will be applied here, H will be added to the carbon that has the most amount of H atoms.

Q121. Which of the following reactions is given by both alcohol and phenol?

• A. Esterfication✓
• B. Nitrosation
• C. Amide formation
• D. Lucas reaction

Explanation: Alcohols can readily undergo esterification reactions. In the presence of an acid catalyst (such as sulfuric acid or hydrochloric acid), alcohols react with carboxylic acids to form esters. The esterification of phenol can be achieved by reacting it with a carboxylic acid and an acid catalyst. The general reaction is as follows: PhOH + RCOOH = PhOCOR + H2O In this reaction, phenol (PhOH) reacts with a carboxylic acid (RCOOH), resulting in phenol (PhOCOR) and water (H2O). The acid catalyst, such as concentrated sulfuric acid or hydrochloric acid, helps facilitate the reaction by protonating the phenol and carboxylic acids, making them more reactive.

Q122. lodoform test is used to check the presence of:

• A. Amines
• B. Carbonyl compounds✓
• C. Carboxylic acid
• D. Alkyl halides

Explanation: Iodoform test is used to check the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure R-CO-CH3 or alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH3 in a given unknown substance. The reaction of iodine, a base and a methyl ketone gives a yellow precipitate along with an “antiseptic” smell.

Q123. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:

• A. More Steric hindrance offered by Its methyl groups✓
• B. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups
• C. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridized
• D. Oxygen of carbonyl group Is more electronegative than carbon atom

Explanation: Aldehydes are typically more reactive than ketones due to the following factors.Aldehydes are less hindered than ketones (a hydrogen atom is smaller than any other organic group). The carbonyl carbon in aldehydes generally has more partial positive charge than in ketones due to the electron-donating nature of alkyl groups. Aldehydes only have one e- donor group while ketones have two.

Q124. The increase in probability of hydroxides of alkaline metals increase down the group due to low:

• A. Ionic size
• B. Atomic size
• C. Decrease in lattice energy✓
• D. Hydration energy

Explanation: Due to their low ionization enthalpy, M-OH easily dissociates to produce metal cation and hydroxide ions when dissolve in water. As we move down the group, ionization energy decreases. So, the basic character of alkali metal hydroxide and alkaline earth metals increases down the group.

Q125. Which of the following products is formed by the reaction of aluminium with nitrogen?

• A. AlN3
• B. AlN✓
• C. Al2N2
• D. Al3N2

Explanation: The product formed by the reaction of aluminum with nitrogen is aluminum nitride (AIN), which is option B.

Q126. The breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure is called:

• A. Reforming
• B. Steam cracking
• C. Catalytic cracking
• D. Thermal cracking✓

Explanation: Thermal cracking is a process in which hydrocarbons present in crude oil are subject to high heat and temperature to break the molecular bonds and break down long-chained, higher-boiling hydrocarbons into shorter-chained, lower-boiling hydrocarbons.

Q127. Which of the following undergoes sulfonation the fastest?

• A. Benzene
• B. Chlorobenzene
• C. Nitrobenzene
• D. Toluene✓

Explanation: The methyl group in toluene is an activating group. It increases the electron density in ortho and para positions and hence, an electrophile readily attacks the position. The presence of an ortho para directing group increases the rate of reactionHence, sulfonation of toluene is fastest.Toluene- In toluene, methyl group is the substituent present on the ring. Methyl group shows a hyperconjugation effect and so, it is classified as an electron-donating group. Methyl group activates the ring and makes it easier to undergo ESR as compared to benzene.

Q128. The termination step in the halogenation of alkanes in the presence of sunlight involves the formation of:

• A. Free radicals
• B. Cations
• C. Anions
• D. Molecules✓

Explanation: In the termination step, 2 free radicals bond together to form a molecule that does not contain a free radical. In the presence of ultraviolet (UV) light or heat, the reaction of a halogen with an alkane results in the formation of a haloalkane (alkyl halide).

Q129. The carbanion attacks the molecule of another carbonyl compound to form:

• A. an alkoxide group
• B. aldol✓
• C. a carbanion
• D. a carbonium ion

Explanation: When a carbanion attacks a carbonyl compound, it can undergo an aldol reaction to form a β-hydroxy carbonyl compound. This reaction involves the nucleophilic addition of the carbanion to the carbonyl carbon of another carbonyl compound, followed by elimination of a leaving group to form a new carbon-carbon bond.

Q130. Unit of k in first order reaction is:

• A. s-1✓
• B. mol dm-3 s-1
• C. mol dm-3
• D. mol-1 dm3

Explanation: In a first-order reaction, the rate constant k is derived from the formula: k = rate / [A], where [A] is the concentration of a reactant. The unit for rate is mol L-1 s-1 and the unit for concentration is mol L-1. By dividing these units, the concentration units cancel out, leaving the unit for k as s-1. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.Option B is incorrect because it represents the unit of the reaction rate, not the rate constant for a first-order reaction. Option C is incorrect because it represents concentration. Option D is incorrect because it might be appropriate for a second-order reaction, but not for a first-order reaction.

Q131. Melting point of Na & Mg decreases down the group due to:

• A. Strong electronegativity
• B. Strong attractive forces
• C. Increment in size✓
• D. High Ionization Energy

Explanation: Generally the melting point of the metals decreases down the group. This is because as the metal ions get larger the distance between the bonding electrons and the positive nucleus gets larger and reduces the overall attraction between the two.

Q132. Identify the element that has maximum oxidation states:

• A. Zinc
• B. Chromium
• C. Vanadium
• D. Manganese✓

Explanation: Common oxidation states of manganese are +2, +3, +4, +6, and +7, although all oxidation states from −3 to +7 have been observed.

Q133. Salts of carboxylic acids can be converted into corresponding carboxylic acid by treating with:

• A. Water
• B. Base
• C. Acid anhydrides
• D. Acid✓

Explanation: The appropriate ester on boiling with concentrated sodium hydroxide yields sodium salt of the acid.This resulting salt when treated with dilute HC1 gives the free carboxylic acid.(PTB Chapter 13: Carboxylic acids and their derivatives).

Q134. The properties which depends upon the direction are called:

• A. Isotropic properties
• B. Anisotropic properties✓
• C. Additive properties
• D. Colligative properties

Explanation: Anisotropy is the property which depends on the direction of measurement. Crystalline solids are anisotropic and they show different values of physical properties when measured along different directions.

Q135. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:

• A. Primary Alkyl Halides
• B. Secondary Alkyl Halides✓
• C. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
• D. Quarternary Alkyl Halides

Explanation: In 2- chlorobutane, the halogen group is bonded to that carbon atom which has only 1 hydrogen atom attached with it. So it is secondary alkyl halide.

Q136. The value of acceleration due to gravity:

• A. Is same on equator and poles
• B. Is least on poles
• C. Is least on equator✓
• D. Increases from pole to equator

Explanation: The value of g is inversely proportional to square of the radius of the earth as the relation says belowg = GM/r²Where,G is Universal gravitation constantM is mass of earthr is radius of earthAs we know earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid in shape, it's radius is greater at equator than it's value at the polesThe value of g at equator is about 9.78 m/s² and 9.83 m/s² at poles

Q137. Ali punches a mattress and then punches a wall with the same force. Why does Ali experience more pain while striking the wall?

• A. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is lower
• B. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is higher✓
• C. The wall does not move
• D. The mattress applies an equal and opposite force

Explanation: The rate of change in momentum when you hit the wall is more than when you hit a piece of sponge with an equal force.The rate of change in momentum is directly proportional to the force applied.Hitting a wall will hurt more than hitting the mattress. This can be explained as follows-Wall is hard, When you hit a wall, an equal reaction force acts on the hand and hurts it.When you hit the mattress, a part of the momentum of hand is transferred to the sponge. As a result, it gets deformed and the reaction is much less than the action.

Q138. Which of the following is true about newton's laws of motion?

• A. One of them is not related to forces
• B. Two of them are not related to forces
• C. All of them are related to forces✓
• D. One of them is related to forces

Explanation: Newton's laws of motion are all related to forces. The first law (Law of Inertia) describes how an object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by a force. The second law quantifies how the force applied to an object is proportional to its acceleration (F=ma). The third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, highlighting the interaction of forces between two bodies. Each law explains different aspects of the influence of forces on motion, making option C correct. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they mistakenly suggest that not all of the laws are related to forces.

Q139. When body moves in a circle _ always changes:

• A. Velocity✓
• B. Acceleration
• C. Mass
• D. Force

Explanation: As an object moves in a circle, it is constantly changing its direction. At all instances, the object is moving tangent to the circle. Since the direction of the velocity vector is the same as the direction of the object's motion, the velocity vector is directed tangent to the circle as well, hence the velocity keeps on changing.

Q140. The projectile motion covers the maximum range:

• A. Horizontally✓
• B. Vertically
• C. Tangentially
• D. Linearly

Explanation: Assuming a projectile is launched from the ground level, the range is defined as the distance between the launch point and the point where the projectile hits the ground, it is horizontal.

Q141. If the force of 20 N acts at an angle 60 degree along horizontal then its vertical and horizontal components are:

• A. 20 N, 0 N
• B. 15 N, 10 N
• C. 17.32 N, 10 N✓
• D. 10 N, 17.32 N

Explanation: Vertical component Fy= 20sin60= 17.32NHorizontal componentFx= 20cos60= 20 x 1/2 =10N

Q142. Minimum value of kinetic energy is:

• A. Infinite
• B. Zero✓
• C. Negative constant
• D. Minus infinite

Explanation: Kinetic energy must always be either zero or a positive value. While velocity can have a positive or negative value, velocity squared is always positive. Kinetic energy depends on the velocity of the object squared.

Q143. A body is undergoing non uniform circular motion, work done by radial force on the body:

• A. Positive
• B. Zero✓
• C. Negative
• D. Variable

Explanation: W= F x SThe radial force and displacement are perpendicular to each otherW = FsCos90Cos90 = 0W = 0

Q144. The velocity of sound in vacuum at 0 C:

• A. 332 m/s
• B. 344 m/s
• C. 330 m/s
• D. 0✓

Explanation: The speed of sound in a vacuum is zero metres per second, as there are no particles present in the vacuum. The sound waves travel in a medium when there are particles for the propagation of these sound waves.

Q145. The formula to estimate P.E is:

• A. F.d
• B. mgh✓
• C. kx
• D. mvr

Explanation: The formula for potential energy depends on the force acting on the two objects. For the gravitational force the formula is P.E. = mgh, where m is the mass in kilograms, g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m / s2 at the surface of the earth) and h is the height in meters.

Q146. An object travelling in a circle at 2 revolutions per second has an angular velocity of:

• A. 12.9 rad/s
• B. 13.3 rad/s
• C. 12.6 rad/s✓
• D. 14.6 rad/s

Explanation: As; 1 rev/s = 2π rad/s2 rev/s = 4π rad/s= 4 x 3.14= 12.6 rad/s

Q147. Earth rotation in 24 hours covers _ angle:

• A. 90
• B. 60
• C. 57.3
• D. 360✓

Explanation: The earth rotates 360∘ about its axis in about 24 hours.

Q148. Microwave is:

• A. An electromagnetic wave✓
• B. Sound wave
• C. Longitudinal wave
• D. Standing wave

Explanation: Microwaves are a form of "electromagnetic" radiation; that is, they are waves of electrical and magnetic energy moving together through space. Electromagnetic radiation spans a broad spectrum from very long radio waves to very short gamma rays.

Q149. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill sound is called:

• A. Pitch✓
• B. Intensity
• C. Beats
• D. Quality

Explanation: Pitch is the characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between a shrill and a grave sound. The faster the vibrations, the frequency and pitch will be higher and sound becomes shriller whereas if sound is grave that means frequency and pitch will be lower.

Q150. Water waves are:

• A. Longitudinal waves
• B. Complex waves✓
• C. Transverse waves
• D. Both longitudinal and transverse wave

Explanation: Water waves are a combination of longitudinal and transverse waves and are surface waves. The distortions propagate with the wave speed, while the water molecules remain at the same positions. Most of the ocean waves are produced by wind, and the waves towards the coast pass the energy from the wind offshore.So they are complex waves

Q151. Molar heat capacity at constant volume is given by:

• A. dQ/dN
• B. dQ/dP
• C. dU/dT✓
• D. dU/dV

Explanation: c) dU/dT: This expression represents the change in internal energy (U) per change in temperature (T) of a substance. Molar heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) is defined as the change in internal energy per change in temperature at constant volume. So, this option is correct.

Q152. What is the formula for Coulomb's law?

• A. F=Kq1q2/r2✓
• B. F=2Kq1q2/r3
• C. F=Kq1/r
• D. F=Kq1/q2

Explanation: Coulomb’s law states that electric force is directly proportional to the product of two point charges and inversely proportional to the square of separation. It should be notes that when the sign of proportionality is removed, we add a constant in the equation so that it becomes Force = Kq1q2 / r2

Q153. Pitch depends on:

• A. Frequency✓
• B. Timbre
• C. Loudness
• D. Amplitude

Explanation: Pitch depends on frequency of the sound waves. More the frequency, more the pitch is.

Q154. Unit of heat capacity is:

• A. J/K✓
• B. J/K.mole
• C. J/Kkg
• D. Joule

Explanation: The unit of heat capacity is joule per Kelvin or joule per degree Celsius.

Q155. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its center depends on:

• A. The radius of the sphere
• B. The surface area of the sphere
• C. The amount of charge inside the sphere✓
• D. The amount of charge outside the sphere

Explanation: As per Gauss's theorem in electrostatics, the electric flux through a surface depends only on the amount of charge enclosed by the surface. It does not depend on size and shape of the surface. Therefore, electric flux through the surface is the same for all figures.

Q156. Electric current may be defined as the?

• A. Rate of flow of charge✓
• B. Rate of flow of momentum
• C. Rate of flow of power
• D. None of these options is correct

Explanation: Electricity is the flow of electrons, also called charges which can be denoted by "Q". The formula for current is Q/t which translates to the "rate of flow of electrons or charge".

Q157. When a bar magnet is broken from the middle, the broken pieces will have:

• A. North pole only
• B. South pole only
• C. Both south and north poles✓
• D. Magnetism will be removed

Explanation: Even if a magnet is broken in half, each half has one north pole and one south pole.

Q158. Electrical potential energy between two charges at distance "r" is given by:

• A. (k*q1*q2)/r✓
• B. (k*q1*q2)/r2
• C. k*q1*q2
• D. k*q1*q2/2r

Explanation: Energy = force × distance The force between charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r is given by Coulomb's Law: F = kQ1Q2 / r2, where k is a constant. F is attractive if the signs of charge are opposite and it is repulsive if the signs of charge are the same.V=kq1q2/r^2 × r V=kq1q2/rWhere, V = electric potential energy. q = point charge. r = distance between any point around the charge to the point charge. k = Coulomb constant; k = 9.0 × 109 N. Hence, the correct option is A.

Q159. Current is _ physical quantity

• A. Scalar quantity✓
• B. Vector quantity
• C. Variable quantity
• D. Constant quantity

Explanation: As a result, an electric current is indeed ascalar value despite having magnitude and direction. It reflects the positivecharge flow direction, but it is considered a scalarquantity since it currently uses scalar addition laws rather than vectoraddition laws.

Q160. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:

• A. Temperature
• B. Nature of a conductor
• C. Length✓
• D. Color

Explanation: The resistance of a conductor is determined by the formula: R = ρ(L/A), where R is resistance, ρ is resistivity, L is length, and A is cross-sectional area. Among the given options, Length is the only correct choice, as it directly affects resistance. Temperature influences resistance but is not a factor in the basic formula. The Nature of a conductor relates to resistivity but does not directly determine resistance in the context of this question. Finally, Color has no relevance to resistance, making it an incorrect option as well.

Q161. The self inductance of a coil does not depend upon:

• A. Length
• B. Current✓
• C. The number of turns
• D. The area of the coil

Explanation: Self-inductance depends on the cross-sectional area of the coil, the number of turns per unit length of the coil, length of solenoid and permeability of the core material that is on size, shape, and material of the coil, and also on medium. It does not depend upon current.

Q162. Transistors can be used as

• A. Half wave rectifier
• B. Full wave rectifier
• C. Both✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Transistors are versatile components in electronics, primarily used as switches and amplifiers. In this context, while they can be integrated into circuits for half wave and full wave rectification, the correct answer emphasizes their dual functionality. Options A and B incorrectly restrict the role of transistors to specific rectifier types without acknowledging their broader applications. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the valid roles that transistors play in rectification processes.

Q163. Among the following four spectral regions, which photon has the highest energy?

• A. Infrared
• B. Violet✓
• C. Blue
• D. Red

Explanation: E = hc/λEnergy is inversely proportional to wavelength. Since a photon in the violet region has the least wavelength, it implies, that photon has the highest energy.

Q164. X rays are also known as:

• A. Low energy invisible photons
• B. High energy visible photons
• C. High energy invisible photons✓
• D. Low energy visible photons

Explanation: X rays are high energy invisible photons. Hence all other options are incorrect.

Q165. What is the relationshlp between the half life of a radioactive isotope and its wavelength?

• A. They are equal in magnitude
• B. They are directly proportional
• C. They are inversely proportional✓
• D. No relation

Explanation: The time required for half of the original population of radioactive atoms to decay is called the half-life. The relationship between the half-life, T1/2, and the decay constant is given by T1/2 = 0.693/λwhere lambda denotes decay constant, not wavelength.

Q166. Transformer can convert:

• A. Low DC voltage
• B. High DC voltage
• C. Battery voltage
• D. AC voltage✓

Explanation: Transformers can only work with AC voltage.

Q167. In annihilation process particles move in:

• A. Same direction
• B. Opposite direction✓
• C. Perpendicular position
• D. Remain stationary

Explanation: Annihilation refers to a process in which a particle and its corresponding antiparticle come into contact and mutually annihilate, resulting in the production of other particles or energy.In annihilation, a particle and an antiparticle with opposite charges and other quantum numbers (such as lepton number or baryon number) can annihilate each other upon collision.

Q168. An ordinary TV screen made of cathode tube emits:

• A. Cathode rays
• B. Anode rays
• C. Gamma rays
• D. None of the above options✓

Explanation: A cathode-ray tube (CRT) is a vacuum tube containing one or more electron guns, which emit electron beams that are manipulated to display images on a phosphorescent screen.

Q169. Consider an isolated parallel plate capacitor. Both plates have charge +Q and -Q and filled with a dielectric with dielectric constant K. We pull out the dielectric material, if the charges on the plates do not change, how does the energy in the capacitor changes?

• A. It increases
• B. It decreases✓
• C. It remains constant
• D. Insufficient data

Explanation: When a di electric in inserted between two charge plates the strength of electric field is reduced. If the charge on the both plates is kept constant, then potential difference is reduced between the both plates. This is how the capacitance is increased between the both capacitors. Hence removing dielectric would reduce the the energy stored in capacitor.

Q170. Which of the following could not be the units of electric intensity?

• A. Joule per coulomb per meter
• B. Joule per coulomb✓
• C. Volt per meter
• D. Newton per coulomb

Explanation: A,C and D all are the units of electric intensity except b, because joule/coulomb will be the unit of potential difference.

Q171. If Cp = 20 J/mol.K then for 1 mole gas we get Cv= _. You can use Cp/Cv = 1.7.

• A. 10.6 J/Kmole
• B. 2.7 J/Kmole
• C. 13 J/Kmole
• D. 11.7 J/Kmole✓

Explanation: Cp/Cv=1.7 and Cp=20, then Cv =20/1.7=11.76 J/Kmole

Q172. Statement I: The local cooperative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect. Statement II: A large number of credit society members have withdrawn a major part of their deposits from the credit society.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II ls its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect✓
• C. Both the statements I and II are Independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are efects of some common cause

Explanation: Clearly, withdrawal of funds by society members is bound to reduce the lending power of the society.

Q173. Statement: Floods may create havoc In the country this year too. Courses of Action: I) The Government should be on the alert to evacuate flood-affected victims. II) People should not be afraid of floods.

• A. Only l follows✓
• B. Only II follows
• C. Either I or II follows
• D. Netther I nor II follows

Explanation: Only 1 follows because the government should make an effort to make people aware of these natural disasters. Moreover, these natural disasters could not control.

Q174. Choose the word which is always associated with Electrical Energy.

• A. Light✓
• B. Cars
• C. Power
• D. Water

Explanation: Electrical energy can be converted into light energy through various processes, such as incandescence, fluorescence, phosphorescence, and electroluminescence. These processes involve the excitation and emission of electrons in atoms or molecules, resulting in the production of light.

Q175. To approach this question, use a sentence: "A champion could not exist without _." Find the word that fits in.

• A. Running
• B. Swimming
• C. Courage✓
• D. Speaking

Explanation: In such questions we have to see that either they asked generally or specifically,As in this question they asked for champion thats a general term not the champion in martial arts, champion in wrestling , champion in swimming,etc.It's just champion .

Q176. Directions: In the following question, one term in the number sequence is wrong. Find out the wrong term.2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 34

• A. 21
• B. 25
• C. 29
• D. 34✓

Explanation: To solve this, examine the differences between consecutive numbers in the sequence: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 34.3 - 2 = 15 - 3 = 28 - 5 = 313 - 8 = 534 - 13 = 21The differences are 1, 2, 3, 5, and 21. The correct pattern should follow the Fibonacci sequence: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8. Therefore, the term 34 is incorrect because the difference should be 8, not 21, indicating that 21 is the wrong difference to continue the Fibonacci pattern.Thus, the correct sequence should have 21 as the last term instead of 34.The other options do not address the incorrect term in the original sequence.

Q177. In the following question, various terms of an alphabet sequence are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term.A, Y, W, U, S, Q. ?

• A. I
• B. K
• C. M
• D. O✓

Explanation: To solve the sequence A, Y, W, U, S, Q, ?, we need to examine the position of each letter in the alphabet: A (1), Y (25), W (23), U (21), S (19), Q (17). The pattern shows a decrease by 2 in the letter positions every two steps, starting from 25 (Y). Therefore, the next letter must correspond to the position 15, which is the letter O. Thus, the missing term is O. Other options such as I (9), K (11), and M (13) do not fit this pattern.

Q178. Find the next number: 2, 4, 8, 16,?

• A. 20
• B. 24
• C. 32✓
• D. 30

Explanation: The sequence is formed by multiplying each number by 2 to get the next number: 2 × 2 = 4, 4 × 2 = 8, 8 × 2 = 16. Therefore, the next number should be 16 × 2 = 32. Options A, B, and D do not follow this consistent pattern of doubling.

Q179. Statements: No tree is fruit. All fruits are sweet. Conclusions: I. No tree is sweet. II. Some sweet things are fruits

• A. Only II✓
• B. Both
• C. Only I
• D. None

Explanation: To solve this, examine the statements: 'No tree is fruit' and 'All fruits are sweet.' Conclusion I, 'No tree is sweet,' cannot be deduced because while trees are not fruits, the statements do not preclude trees from being sweet for other reasons. Conclusion II, 'Some sweet things are fruits,' is correct because all fruits, being sweet, naturally means some sweet things are fruits. Therefore, only conclusion II follows logically from the given statements.

Q180. Statements: No fish is a bird. All birds are animals. Conclusions: I. No fish is an animal. II. Some animals are not fish. III. Some animals are birds

• A. II and III✓
• B. Only III
• C. Only II
• D. None

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: II and III. Based on the statements, 'No fish is a bird' and 'All birds are animals,' we can deduce the following: Conclusion I: 'No fish is an animal' is incorrect because the statement does not provide information about the relationship between fish and all animals. Conclusion II: 'Some animals are not fish' is correct because all birds are animals, and no bird is a fish, indicating there are animals (birds) that are not fish. Conclusion III: 'Some animals are birds' is correct because all birds, being a subset of animals, means some animals are indeed birds. Thus, both Conclusions II and III follow logically, making Option A the correct choice.