Balochistan Mdcat 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. We are about _ at the place where we can set up our tents.

• A. To arrive✓
• B. Arriving
• C. Be arriving
• D. To have arriving

Explanation: The phrase "about to" is correctly followed by the base form of the verb, as in "arrive." This construction is grammatically accurate and commonly used in English to indicate an imminent future action.

Q2. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to REIGN;

• A. Damp
• B. Tussle
• C. Rule✓
• D. Prime

Explanation: "Reign" means the period of rule of a monarch, and "rule" is a synonym that conveys the act of governing. Hence, it is the most suitable option.

Q3. It is common knowledge to anyone who studies science, that the earth _ on its own axis once every 24 hours.

• A. Revolves✓
• B. Revolve
• C. Has revolved
• D. Has had revolved

Explanation: "Revolves" is the correct verb to describe the Earth's motion around its axis, and it matches the subject "the Earth" in the present simple tense.

Q4. "To abscond" means:

• A. To create a secret hiding place
• B. To do something without telling anyone
• C. To go away secretly and hide✓
• D. To do something ahead of deadline

Explanation: Absconding means to leave a place secretly, often to avoid capture or legal consequences. Terefore, "to go away secretly and hide" best defines it.

Q5. There was a surprising story in the newspaper about the man _ car was stolen.

• A. Man which his
• B. Man whose his
• C. Man that his
• D. Man whose✓

Explanation: It is correct because "whose" is a possessive relative pronoun that correctly connects "man" with "car" (indicating possession).

Q6. When I _ him, Rauf _ cricket.

• A. Was, playing
• B. Saw, is playing
• C. Saw, was playing✓
• D. Saw, played

Explanation: The correct structure for an action happening when another action occurred is past simple + past continuous.

Q7. Identify the correct option for this sentenceMany modern architects insist on _ materials native to the region that will blend into the surrounding landscape.

• A. Use
• B. To use
• C. The use
• D. Using✓

Explanation: "Insist on" is always followed by a gerund.

Q8. We are committed to providing excellent customer service, _ ensuring a positive experience for all our clients.

• A. Thereby✓
• B. Therefore
• C. Because
• D. Since

Explanation: "Thereby" means "as a result of that," correctly linking the ideas.

Q9. Read the following passage to answer the given question:As adults, we may be able to convey our mood by a mere twist of the lips, but the infant throws much more into the battle. When smiling at full intensity, it also kicks and waves its arms about, stretches its hands out towards the stimulus and moves them about, produces babbling voices, tilts back its head, protrudes its chin, leans its trunk forward or rolls it to one side.Which statement is true?

• A. Babies rarely smile and often it is difficult to judge their smiles
• B. A baby's smile is more vigorous than an adult's✓
• C. In comparison to adults, a baby smiles more quietly
• D. Babies make babbling noises before they smile

Explanation: The passage describes how babies engage their whole body when smiling, making their smile more intense than an adult's.

Q10. Use an appropriate article:Danube is _ Austria's longest river.

• A. A
• B. An
• C. The
• D. No Article✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'No Article' because 'Danube' is a specific river name that does not require an article when combined with the superlative 'longest.' In English, we typically do not use an article before a proper noun like a specific river. Moreover, we don’t use an article before “Austria’s,” but it is more appropriate to use “the” before “Danube".

Q11. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.He isn't good _ French.

• A. At✓
• B. In
• C. To
• D. Of

Explanation: “Good at” is correct because the preposition “at” is used to indicate skill or ability in a particular subject or activity. Saying “good at French” means he has proficiency or competence in the French language.

Q12. Romans _ a unique system of the Roman alphabet.

• A. Improved
• B. Developed✓
• C. Persuaded
• D. Exchanged

Explanation: "Developed" means they created and refined the system.

Q13. Read the following passage to answer the given question:All walked in from a world of darkness and left in the fullness of light - blind or partially blind patients who received the gift of sight through cornea transplants of eyes.Who are being referred to?

• A. People from dark regions
• B. Those interested in gifts
• C. People with healthy eyesight
• D. Those who sought eye transplants✓

Explanation: The passage refers to blind or partially blind individuals receiving cornea transplants.

Q14. Identiy the correct option for this sentence Unless a student _ with the university regulations, he can be removed from the university.

• A. Complies✓
• B. Complied
• C. Had complied
• D. Will comply

Explanation: "Unless" is followed by the present simple in conditional sentences.

Q15. Antonym of HEGEMONY is:

• A. Lack of energy
• B. Lack of precision
• C. Lack of authority✓
• D. Lack of confidence

Explanation: "Hegemony" refers to dominance or authority, so its opposite would be a "lack of authority".

Q16. What is the opposite of CHAOTIC:

• A. Immersive
• B. Orderly✓
• C. Hectic
• D. Steady

Explanation: The correct answer is orderly."Chaotic" means disorganized, and "orderly" is its opposite.

Q17. Under ethical guidelines recently adopted by the National Institutes of Health, human genes are to be manipulated only to correct diseases for which _ treatments are unsatisfactory.

• A. Similar
• B. Most
• C. Dangerous
• D. Alternative✓

Explanation: The sentence refers to cases where current treatments (alternatives) are not satisfactory.

Q18. Identify the correct option for this sentence If _ the match, I will go to Lahore to meet the sports board chairman.

• A. I win✓
• B. I will win
• C. I shall win
• D. I wins

Explanation: It is the correct sentence because it is the first conditional structure : "If + present simple, will + base verb."

Q19. The soluble shield of macromolecules which surrounds bacteria is called

• A. Pili
• B. Slime✓
• C. Capsule
• D. Flagella

Explanation: Slime is a loosely attached, easily removable layer that provides some protection but does not form a well-defined structure around the bacterium.

Q20. The following form of circular double stranded, self-replicating DNA molecules present in many bacteria in addition to the chromosomes are not essential for bacterial growth and metabolism:

• A. Nucleoid
• B. Plasmids✓
• C. Mesosomes
• D. Nuclear region

Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that exist independently of the chromosome and carry non-essential but often beneficial genes, such as antibiotic resistance.

Q21. Most fungi are

• A. Autotrophs
• B. Heterotrophs✓
• C. Photosynthetic
• D. All of the given options

Explanation: Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that absorb nutrients from decomposing matter or living hosts.

Q22. The life cycle during alternation of generation has the following feature:

• A. Zygote undergoes meiosis
• B. Zygote develops into gametophyte
• C. Sporophyte generation produces haploid spores✓
• D. Gametophyte generation produces diploid gametes

Explanation: Alternation of generations is a life cycle in plants, algae, and some fungi where a multicellular haploid gametophyte stage alternates with a multicellular diploid sporophyte stage. The gametophyte produces gametes, which fuse to form a zygote that grows into the sporophyte. The sporophyte then produces spores through meiosis, which develop into new gametophytes, completing the cycle.

Q23. During high temperatures plants usually remain cool by the loss of water from their bodies by:

• A. Guttation
• B. Transpiration✓
• C. Photosynthesis
• D. Osmosis

Explanation: Transpiration is the process of water evaporation from plant surfaces, especially leaves, which cools the plant.

Q24. What is/are the element(s) of the nervous system that help in nervous coordination?

• A. Neurons
• B. Receptors
• C. Effectors
• D. All of the given options✓

Explanation: Nervous coordination requires neurons (for signal transmission), receptors (for detecting stimuli), and effectors (for responding to signals).

Q25. The _ system aids in defending the human body against foreign invaders

• A. Reproductive
• B. Digestive
• C. Lymphatic✓
• D. All of the given options

Explanation: The lymphatic system plays a direct role in immune defence by housing white blood cells and filtering pathogens.

Q26. Which of the following is / are the characteristics of the enzymes?

• A. All enzymes are globular proteins
• B. They lower the activation energy of reactions
• C. They are sensitive to minor changes in substrate concentration
• D. All of the given options✓

Explanation: All the above statements collectively describe enzyme characteristics.

Q27. The first step of central dogma is the transfer of information from:

• A. DNA to Protein
• B. DNA to mRNA✓
• C. RNA to Protein
• D. DNA to tRNA

Explanation: Transcription is the first step, where DNA is used to synthesize messenger RNA (mRNA).

Q28. _ is a type of connective tissue

• A. Nail
• B. Hair
• C. Ligament✓
• D. Jaw bone

Explanation: Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bones to each other, providing stability.

Q29. The detachable _ is called as an activator, if it is an inorganic ion

• A. Substrate
• B. Product
• C. Co-factor✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: A co-factor is an inorganic ion that helps enzymes function by stabilizing the enzyme-substrate complex.

Q30. Highly condensed proteins of chromatin are called:

• A. Homochromatin
• B. Heterochromatin✓
• C. Semi-heterochromatin
• D. Semi-homochromatin

Explanation: Heterochromatin is the tightly packed form of DNA, making it less transcriptionally active.

Q31. Hemoglobin has the following characteristics, except:

• A. Gives red color to blood
• B. Can carry molecular oxygen
• C. Is an iron-containing protein
• D. Important component of bile pigment✓

Explanation: Hemoglobin is broken down into bilirubin, which contributes to bile pigment, but hemoglobin itself is not a direct component of bile.

Q32. The hereditary material is:

• A. DNA✓
• B. Protein
• C. Both DNA and Protein
• D. Neither DNA nor Protein

Explanation: DNA carries genetic information and is responsible for inheritance.

Q33. In artificial selection, we develop desired characteristics in _ offspring to create from variants:

• A. New males
• B. New females
• C. New breeds✓
• D. New organs

Explanation: Correct. Artificial selection leads to the development of new breeds of plants and animals with improved or specialized characteristics, such as higher milk production in cows or drought resistance in crops.

Q34. There are types of reduction used for treating bone fractures.

• A. Two
• B. Three✓
• C. Four
• D. Five

Explanation: The three main types are closed reduction, open reduction, and traction.

Q35. The conversion of lysogenic cycle to lytic cycle is called:

• A. Conduction
• B. Production
• C. Induction✓
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Induction occurs when a dormant virus (prophage) in the lysogenic cycle is activated due to stress factors like UV light or chemicals, leading to its replication and eventual destruction of the host cell.

Q36. Movement can be lost in the ------ due to Sciatica

• A. Neck
• B. Hand toes
• C. Hand-arm
• D. Foot-ankle✓

Explanation: Sciatica affects the lower back, legs, and feet, leading to loss of movement in the foot and ankle.

Q37. Endomycorrhizae may enter the outer cells of the plant root and cause

• A. Swelling
• B. Minute branchin
• C. Both Swelling and Minute Branching✓
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Endomycorrhizae cause both swelling and branching within the root cells, aiding in better nutrient absorption.izal colonization.

Q38. Water contributes % of total mammalian cell weight

• A. 40
• B. 50
• C. 60
• D. 70✓

Explanation: Water makes up roughly 70% of a mammalian cell’s weight, and that high proportion is essential for how the cell works. It provides the medium in which most metabolic reactions take place, helps dissolve and transport substances, and allows enzymes to function properly. Because of this, the cell’s chemistry depends heavily on water being present in large amounts.

Q39. Which of the following is not true regarding the phenomenon of aging?

• A. Cells undergo mitosis as a part of growth of the body
• B. After a number of cell divisions, cells become differentiated
• C. After maximum metabolic activity, cells in the body start deteriorating
• D. The resistance to negative environmental factors remains the same throughout life✓

Explanation: Resistance to infections, oxidative stress, and environmental toxins declines with age due to weakened immune and cellular repair mechanisms.

Q40. Symptoms of Hepatitis are:

• A. Loss of immunity
• B. Loss of T helper cells
• C. Blood cancer
• D. None of the given options✓

Explanation: Hepatitis mainly leads to inflammation of the liver, and this can show up as jaundice, tiredness, and a general feeling of being unwell. These symptoms come from the liver not working as efficiently while it’s inflamed.

Q41. Hemichordata belongs to:

• A. Deuterostomes✓
• B. Protostomes
• C. Both (a) and (b)
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Hemichordates, such as acorn worms, are deuterostomes, meaning their embryonic development follows the pattern where the anus forms before the mouth, similar to chordates.

Q42. Which one of the following is not an enzyme?

• A. Pepsin
• B. Insulin✓
• C. Sucrase
• D. Catalase

Explanation: Insulin is a hormone, not an enzyme, and regulates blood sugar levels.

Q43. Which of the following is not true regarding the Dihybrid cross breeding as observed in experiments on plants

• A. Some new plants which are different from parental plants are produced
• B. Genes for different traits like color and shape of seed always stay together✓
• C. Dihybrid cross follows the law of independent assortment
• D. Dominant traits of color and shape of seed appeared in the F1 generation

Explanation: According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, genes for different traits segregate independently unless they are linked.

Q44. In binomial nomenclature, the first name refers to the:

• A. Species
• B. Genus✓
• C. Family
• D. Order

Explanation: The first word in a scientific name refers to the genus, which groups together closely related species.

Q45. The vital function of the colon is:

• A. Storage of fecal matter
• B. Absorption of water and salts✓
• C. Synthesis of vitamins
• D. Breakdown of cellulose in herbivores

Explanation: The colon absorbs water and salts from the remaining liquid waste, which solidifies it into faeces. This process is primarily driven by the active transport of sodium and chloride ions, which creates an osmotic gradient that pulls water into the intestinal cells, a process that occurs through specialised channels called aquaporins.

Q46. Poliomyelitis mostly occurs in:

• A. Childhood✓
• B. Adulthood
• C. In old age
• D. Difficult to say

Explanation: Polio is most commonly observed in children under five years old, although adults can also be affected.

Q47. If the sequence of bases in DNA is TAGG, the sequence of bases in RNA will be:

• A. ATCG
• B. AUCC✓
• C. TAGC
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The complementary RNA strand would be AUCC. If the DNA sequence is TAGG, the corresponding RNA sequence will be AUCC. RNA pairs A→U and T→A, while G pairs with C.

Q48. A disadvantage of animal cloning is:

• A. Rapid growth
• B. Rapid aging✓
• C. Identical offspring
• D. Absence of mitosis

Explanation: Cloned animals tend to age faster due to shortened telomeres, inherited from the donor cell.

Q49. Which of following is true about Triploblastic animals?

• A. Their body consists of two layers
• B. They have non-cellular mesoglea present
• C. They have a great degree of specialization in cells✓
• D. They have radial symmetry

Explanation: Triploblastic animals have three germ layers, allowing for organ specialization.

Q50. In humans, the ability of regeneration is restricted to the following organ

• A. Bones
• B. Skin✓
• C. Nerve tissue
• D. Muscles

Explanation: The skin has a high regenerative capacity, constantly replacing old cells and healing wounds efficiently.

Q51. Ribose is an example of sugar:

• A. Pentose✓
• B. Hexose
• C. Heptose
• D. Tetrose

Explanation: Ribose is a five-carbon sugar, and it’s a key part of both RNA and ATP. Its pentose structure helps form the backbone of RNA and also fits into the energy-carrying structure of ATP.

Q52. The Psychological disorder in which a patient stops eating due to fear of being obese is called

• A. Dyspepsia
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Anorexia nervosa, often referred to simply as anorexia, is an eating disorder characterised by food restriction, body image disturbance, fear of gaining weight, and an overpowering desire to be thin.

Q53. Permit exchange of materials with the tissue:

• A. Veins
• B. Arteries
• C. Capillaries✓
• D. All of the given options

Explanation: Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels and allow nutrient, gas, and waste exchange between blood and tissues.

Q54. Persons can bleed to death from small cuts or bruises in:

• A. Typhoid
• B. Dysentery
• C. Hemophilia✓
• D. Color blindness

Explanation: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder where blood fails to clot properly.

Q55. The part of small intestine which connects with large intestine is known as

• A. Ileum✓
• B. Jejunum
• C. Duodenum
• D. Appendix

Explanation: The last part of the small intestine. It connects to the cecum (first part of the large intestine). The ileum helps to further digest food coming from the stomach and other parts of the small intestine.

Q56. In lichens, protects its symbiotic partner from desiccation.

• A. Fungi✓
• B. Algae
• C. Bacteria
• D. Viruses

Explanation: The fungal component of lichens provides structural support and prevents water loss.

Q57. Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are important type of following carbohydrates in living organisms:

• A. Monosaccharides
• B. Disaccharides✓
• C. Triaccharides
• D. Polysaccharides

Explanation: Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are made of two linked sugar units, which is why they’re classified as disaccharides.

Q58. Viruses can be classified on the basis of:

• A. Shape
• B. Nucleic acid
• C. Envelope
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Viruses are grouped by their overall shape, the type of genetic material they carry, and whether or not they have an outer envelope. These features help distinguish one group of viruses from another and hint at how they replicate and spread.

Q59. In diploid parthenogenesis, the eggs produced by female developed into:

• A. Males
• B. Females✓
• C. Hermaphrodite
• D. None of the above

Explanation: In diploid parthenogenesis, females develop from unfertilized diploid eggs.

Q60. Parazoa are:

• A. Multicellular✓
• B. Radially symmetrical
• C. Bilaterally symmetrical
• D. Asymmetrical

Explanation: Parazoa is a subkingdom of animals that includes sponges (phylum Porifera) and lacks specialized tissues and organs, unlike other animals. These organisms have a cellular level of organization, meaning their cells specialize but do not form true tissues or organs, a characteristic that has made them successful in various marine environments.

Q61. A tetrad is also known as

• A. Bivalent✓
• B. Duplicated chromosome
• C. Paired homologous chromosome
• D. Homologous and thickened chromosome

Explanation: A tetrad, formed during meiosis, consists of homologous chromosomes paired together.

Q62. Developing seeds are a rich source of:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Cytokinins
• C. Auxins
• D. Both Cytokinins and Auxins✓

Explanation: Developing seeds contain both cytokinins and auxins, playing vital roles in plant growth. Cytokinins are a class of plant hormones that promote cell division and growth, particularly in the root and shoot meristems while Auxin is a group of plant hormones that regulate cell growth and development, including cell elongation

Q63. The following does not present in the cytoplasm of the cell

• A. Nucleolus✓
• B. Glycolysis
• C. Presence of organelles
• D. Storage of vital chemicals

Explanation: The nucleolus is located inside the nucleus, not in the cytoplasm. It is involved in ribosome production.

Q64. Change in rate of base substitution in DNA cause:

• A. Osmotic pressure
• B. Hydrolic pressure
• C. Air pressure
• D. Mutation pressure.✓

Explanation: Mutation pressure refers to changes in the genetic code due to base substitutions, influencing evolution.

Q65. Which organism uses pseudopods for the purpose of locomotion?

• A. Amoeba✓
• B. Euglena
• C. Plasmodium
• D. Paramecium

Explanation: Correct. Amoeba moves using pseudopods, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane.

Q66. Which one is Monera?

• A. Nostoc
• B. Both 'E. coli' and 'Nostoc'✓
• C. None of the given options
• D. E. coli – Incorrect. While E. coli is Monera

Explanation: Monera includes all prokaryotic organisms, such as bacteria and cyanobacteria, making both Nostoc and E. coli members of this kingdom.

Q67. Some genetic diseases are caused due to abnormal number of

• A. Nucleotides
• B. Genes
• C. Chromosomes✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Conditions like Down syndrome and Turner syndrome result from an abnormal chromosome count.

Q68. Dinoflagellates are known to change the colour of water to:

• A. Yellow
• B. Green
• C. Brown
• D. All of the given options✓

Explanation: Different species of dinoflagellates can cause water to appear yellow, green, or brown

Q69. Archaebacteria are mostly likely to occur in

• A. Soil
• B. Ice caps
• C. Freshwater
• D. Hydrothermal vents✓

Explanation: Archaebacteria, such as thermophiles, thrive in extreme environments like deep-sea hydrothermal vents.

Q70. Photosynthesis is

• A. Reduction process
• B. Oxidation process
• C. Redox process✓
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Photosynthesis consists of oxidation (water losing electrons) and reduction (carbon dioxide gaining electrons).

Q71. RNA is associated with:

• A. Lysosome
• B. Centrosome
• C. Ribosomes✓
• D. Golgi bodies

Explanation: Ribosomes carry out protein synthesis, and they do this with the help of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which forms a major part of their structure and function.

Q72. Which of the following kingdoms, the eukaryotic multicellular autotrophs are classified?

• A. Plantae✓
• B. Animalia
• C. Monera
• D. Protista

Explanation: Plants are made up of many cells, and each of these cells has a true nucleus, which puts them in the eukaryotic group. They’re also autotrophic, meaning they can make their own food using sunlight through photosynthesis. As a group, all these features place them in the kingdom Plantae.Members of this kingdom usually have cell walls made of cellulose, contain chlorophyll for capturing light energy, and show a clear pattern of growth and development. They range from tiny mosses to huge trees, but they all share the same basic characteristics that define them as plants.

Q73. Typical protozoa include the following except:

• A. Euglena
• B. Paramecium
• C. Proterospongia✓
• D. Amoeba

Explanation: Proterospongia is a colonial flagellate, not a true protozoan.

Q74. Following are the products of photosynthesis:

• A. Glucose and water
• B. Oxygen and glucose✓
• C. Oxygen, glucose, and water
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen through a chemical processwhere palnts use sunlight,water,carbon dioxide. Sunlight energy is converted into chemical energy, stored in glucose and oxygen as a byproduct.

Q75. Examples of Psilopsida are:

• A. Psilotum✓
• B. Lycopodium
• C. Both Psilotum and Lycopodium
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Psilotum belongs to Psilopsida. Psilotum belongs to Psilopsida. Psilotum is a genus of fern-like vascular plants. It is one of two genera in the family Psilotaceae commonly known as whisk ferns. They are generally referred to as whisk ferns, due to their resemblance to whiskbrooms. Whisk ferns are unique in that they lack true roots but instead possess underground stems known as rhizomes, which possess rhizoids for anchorage.

Q76. What is the other name for resting membrane potential in the neural membrane?

• A. Polarized state✓
• B. Depolarized state
• C. Hyperpolarized state
• D. All of the above

Explanation: A neuron is in a polarized state when it is at its resting potential, meaning the inside of the cell is negatively charged relative to the outside.

Q77. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is without:

• A. RNA
• B. DNA
• C. Membrane✓
• D. Cell membrane

Explanation: In prokaryotes, the genetic material is not enclosed by any membrane. Unlike eukaryotes, which have a true nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane, prokaryotes have a nucleoid region where the DNA lies freely suspended in the cytoplasm. There is no nuclear envelope, no membrane-bound nucleus, and no membrane around the DNA, which makes this the correct answer.

Q78. Followings are the visible parts of Angiosperm .

• A. Spores
• B. Capsule
• C. Gametophyte
• D. None of these✓

Explanation: The visible part of angiosperms is the sporophyte, but none of the given options fit. A sporophyte is the diploid (2n), spore-producing multicellular stage in the life cycle of a plant or alga that exhibits alternation of generations

Q79. Which one of the following is a derivative of indole acetic acid or its variant?

• A. Auxins✓
• B. Cytokinins
• C. Cytochrome
• D. Abscisic acid

Explanation: Auxins, like indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), promote plant growth. Auxin is a group of plant hormones that regulate cell growth and development, including cell elongation. It is produced in the tips of shoots and roots and plays a crucial role in plant responses to environmental stimuli like light (phototropism) and gravity (gravitropism)

Q80. In most animals, the principal effectors are the muscles and:

• A. Nodules
• B. Tubules
• C. Glands✓
• D. Ganglia

Explanation: Glands secrete hormones as effectors. An organ that makes one or more substances, such as hormones, digestive juices, sweat, tears, saliva, or milk. Endocrine glands release the substances directly into the bloodstream. Exocrine glands release the substances into a duct or opening to the inside or outside of the body.

Q81. If the cell does not enter the G0 -phase then there is / are _ phase(s) between anaphase and G2 -phase?

• A. 1✓
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. None of these

Explanation: The phase between anaphase and G2 is telophase.

Q82. Which one of the following is part of the digestive system?

• A. Lungs
• B. Pharynx
• C. Esophagus
• D. Both (b) and (c)✓

Explanation: Both the pharynx and oesophagus are part of digestion. The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx (throat) to the stomach, transporting food and liquid through the body. The pharynx, or throat, is a funnel-shaped tube behind the nasal cavity and mouth that serves as a passageway for both air and food.

Q83. Vernalisation serves the following purpose(s):

• A. Discourages cross-pollination
• B. Ensures reproduction at suitable times✓
• C. Ensures that all species flower at the same time
• D. Both (b) and (c)

Explanation: It ensures flowering occurs during favorable seasons.Vernalisation ensures that flowering and seed production happen only when environmental conditions are favorable, usually in spring. In some plants, flowering requires a prolonged exposure to cold during winter before they can bloom. This helps prevent the plant from flowering too early (in autumn or early winter) when survival of flowers and seeds would be poor.

Q84. An enzyme and its substrate react with each other through a _ of enzyme.

• A. Active site✓
• B. Uncharged site
• C. Both Active site and Uncharged site
• D. Definitive charge-bearing site

Explanation: The active site binds to the substrate.

Q85. The condition in which babies are born with a small skull is called:

• A. Malaria
• B. Microcephaly✓
• C. Turner’s syndrome
• D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Explanation: A condition where the brain and skull do not develop properly.

Q86. The change in allelic frequency of small population, purely by chance is called:

• A. Genetic drift✓
• B. Continental drift
• C. Mutation
• D. Gene pool

Explanation: Random changes in allele frequency occur due to genetic drift.Genetic drift is the change in the frequency of gene variants (alleles) in a population over time due to random chance. This random process can cause alleles to become more or less common, leading to a loss of genetic variation, and its effects are most pronounced in small populations. Unlike natural selection, genetic drift is not driven by an allele's fitness advantage; it's simply the result of chance events like random sampling error in reproduction.

Q87. Which of the following food product has lower energy per gram?

• A. Milk✓
• B. Ghee
• C. Butter
• D. Glucose

Explanation: Correct. Milk has a lower fat content compared to ghee and butter, and a lower carbohydrate content compared to glucose, resulting in lower energy per gram.

Q88. The sign of heat "q" is positive for a system when:

• A. The temperature of system drops
• B. Heat flows from surrounding to system:✓
• C. Heat flows from system to surrounding.
• D. No flow of heat between system to surrounding

Explanation: This is the definition of an endothermic process. The system absorbs heat, so q is positive.

Q89. Which of the following is used for galvanizing iron sheet?

• A. Tin
• B. Zinc✓
• C. Aluminum
• D. Copper

Explanation: Zinc is used to galvanize iron sheets because it provides cathodic protection.

Q90. Water is:

• A. Weak electrolyte✓
• B. Strong electrolyte
• C. Very strong electrolyte
• D. Moderate electrolyte

Explanation: Water only slightly ionizes into H+ and OH- ions, resulting in a low concentration of ions in solution. This limited ionization is the defining characteristic of a weak electrolyte.

Q91. Which of the following elements react rapidly with water at room temperature?

• A. Cu (Copper)
• B. Na (Sodium)✓
• C. Fe (Iron)
• D. Al (Aluminum)

Explanation: Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal. It reacts vigorously with water, producing hydrogen gas and heat.

Q92. Natural gas consists mainly of:

• A. Butane
• B. Propane
• C. Methane✓
• D. Ethane

Explanation: Methane is the most abundant component of natural gas.

Q93. The IUPAC name for formaldehyde is:

• A. Ethanal
• B. Methanal✓
• C. Butanal
• D. Proponal

Explanation: Methanal is the correct IUPAC name for formaldehyde, as it has one carbon atom and an aldehyde functional group.

Q94. What change in oxidation number of Cu takes place in the following reaction: Cu+4HNO3​→Cu(NO3​)2​+2NO2​+2H2​O

• A. 0 to -1
• B. 0 to +1
• C. 0 to -2
• D. 0 to +2✓

Explanation: Elemental copper (Cu) has an oxidation number of 0. In Cu(NO3)2, copper has an oxidation number of +2.

Q95. Suppose the following system has reached equilibrium at a certain temperature: N2​O4​(g)→2NO2​(g) Adding N2​O4​ to the system will:

• A. Start forward reaction✓
• B. Start reverse reaction
• C. Not disturb equilibrium
• D. Raise the temperature of system

Explanation: Adding a reactant (N2O4) will shift the equilibrium to the product side (forward reaction) to consume the added reactant.

Q96. 5 calories are equivalent to _ Joule.

• A. 4.184
• B. 10.26
• C. 20.92✓
• D. 25.65

Explanation: 5 calories * 4.184 Joules/calorie = 20.92 Joules.

Q97. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

• A. Formaldehyde is a gas at room temperature
• B. Formaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature✓
• C. Oxidation of methyl alcohol can produce formaldehyde
• D. Dry distillation of calcium formate can produce formaldehyde:

Explanation: This is incorrect. Formaldehyde is a gas at room temperature.

Q98. Select the correct one:

• A. Only electrons of atoms get shuffled during chemical reaction✓
• B. All the sub-atomic particles of an atom take part in chemical reaction
• C. Protons of an atom spearhead chemical reaction
• D. Protons and neutrons of an atom collectively make chemical reactions possible

Explanation: This is correct. Chemical reactions involve the formation and breaking of bonds, which are due to the interaction of electrons.

Q99. Le Chatelier's principle does NOT give information about the effect of the following on equilibrium

• A. Time✓
• B. Pressure
• C. Temperature
• D. Concentration

Explanation: This is correct. Le Chatelier's principle predicts the direction of a shift in equilibrium, but not the rate at which the new equilibrium is reached.

Q100. Conversion of Fahrenheit to Celsius scale by:

• A. ∘C=5/9(∘F+32)
• B. ∘C=9/5(∘F−32)
• C. ∘C=5/9(∘F−32)✓
• D. ∘C=9/5(∘F+32)

Explanation: This is correct. It is the standard formula for converting Fahrenheit to Celsius.

Q101. Having knowledge of the bond energies of alkyl halides; the most reactive one is the

• A. Iodo-compound✓
• B. Bromo-compound
• C. Chloro-compound
• D. Fluoro-compound

Explanation: This is correct. The carbon-iodine bond is the weakest among the carbon-halogen bonds, making it the easiest to break, and thus the most reactive.

Q102. Amino acids, which are not synthesized by the human body are:

• A. Non-essential amino acids
• B. Essential amino acids✓
• C. Dietary amino acids
• D. Synthetic amino acids

Explanation: This is correct. Essential amino acids must be obtained from the diet because the body cannot synthesize them.

Q103. Transition metal compounds containing unpaired electrons are:

• A. Always diamagnetic
• B. Attracted by the magnet✓
• C. Not attracted by the magnet
• D. Repelled by the magnet

Explanation: This is correct. Unpaired electrons give rise to paramagnetism, causing the substance to be attracted by a magnet.

Q104. Which of the following is NOT the state of matter:

• A. Plasma
• B. Liquids
• C. Gases
• D. Ether✓

Explanation: This is correct. Ether is a class of organic compounds, not a state of matter.

Q105. In organic chemistry, a nucleus liking agent, rich in electrons, is defined as:

• A. A nucleotide
• B. A nucleophile✓
• C. An electrophile
• D. Electron affluent

Explanation: While this describes a nucleophile, the correct term used in organic chemistry is nucleophile.

Q106. The term 'Transition Temperature' is used for the temperature:

• A. at which one crystalline form of a substance changes into another✓
• B. at which liquid crystals are formed in a liquid
• C. within which the habit of a crystal remains the same
• D. showing a sharp change in the anisotropic properties of a crystal

Explanation: This is correct. Transition temperature refers to the specific temperature at which a substance changes its crystalline structure (polymorphism).

Q107. The non-protein part of an enzyme is called:

• A. Activator
• B. Co-enzyme✓
• C. Substrate
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: This is correct. A co-enzyme is a non-protein organic molecule that assists enzymes in catalyzing reactions.

Q108. The concentration of rectified spirit is:

• A. 85%
• B. 90%
• C. 95%✓
• D. 100%

Explanation: This is correct. Rectified spirit is approximately 95% ethanol.

Q109. Alkyl halides can yield ethers when heated in the presence of the metallic compound:

• A. AgO✓
• B. CuO
• C. Cu2​O2
• D. FeO

Explanation: This is correct. Silver oxide (AgO) is used in the Williamson ether synthesis, which involves reacting alkyl halides with alkoxides.

Q110. The lipids which have a tetracyclic compound are called Steroids. The tetracyclic compound is:

• A. Benzene
• B. Tetracyclic
• C. Cyclopentane
• D. Phenanthrene✓

Explanation: This is correct. Steroids have a structure based on the phenanthrene ring system, fused with a cyclopentane ring.

Q111. The equilibrium constant has no units if the number of moles of products are:

• A. Less than reactants
• B. More than reactants
• C. Equal to reactants✓
• D. Half of reactants

Explanation: This is correct. If the number of moles of products and reactants are equal, the units cancel out, resulting in a dimensionless equilibrium constant.

Q112. Which statement is NOT correct for cathode rays?

• A. Have consist of moving material particles
• B. Have definite mass
• C. Have definite velocity
• D. Travel with the velocity of light✓

Explanation: This is incorrect. Cathode rays travel at a fraction of the speed of light.

Q113. Sodium nitrate (NaNO3​), on heating, decomposes forming:

• A. Na2​O and NO2​
• B. NaNO2​ and O2​✓
• C. Na, NO2​ and O2
• D. Na2​O, NO2​ and O1

Explanation: This is correct. Sodium nitrate decomposes into sodium nitrite and oxygen gas.

Q114. A molecule of ethane has _ bonds.

• A. four
• B. five
• C. six
• D. seven✓

Explanation: Ethane (C2H6) has one C-C single bond and six C-H single bonds, totaling seven bonds.

Q115. The only group of lines occurring in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum is labeled as the

• A. Paschen series
• B. Pfund series
• C. Balmer series✓
• D. Lyman series

Explanation: The Balmer series involves electron transitions to the n=2 level, resulting in visible light emissions.

Q116. Electric current in solutions is carried by:

• A. Ions✓
• B. Canal rays
• C. Free protons
• D. Free electrons

Explanation: Correct. In solutions, ions (positive and negative) carry the electrical charge.

Q117. In alkane series, all the linkages between carbon atoms is / are _ bond(s).

• A. single✓
• B. double
• C. triple
• D. quadruple

Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with only single bonds between carbon atoms.

Q118. In a chemical reaction, a limiting reactant is that:

• A. Which is present in excess
• B. Which is not in excess✓
• C. Which acts as catalyst
• D. Which is not taking part in the reaction but its presence is helpful in completion of the reaction

Explanation: The limiting reactant is the reactant that is completely consumed first, limiting the amount of product formed.

Q119. Units of change in enthalpy of a system are

• A. cc
• B. ∘C
• C. J✓
• D. Pa

Explanation: Enthalpy is a form of energy, so its units are Joules (J).

Q120. Electrically diamond is a:

• A. Good conductor
• B. Non-conductor✓
• C. Semi-conductor
• D. None of these

Explanation: Diamond has a strong network of covalent bonds, with no free electrons.

Q121. Which of the following food product has lower energy per gram?

• A. Milk✓
• B. Ghee
• C. Butter
• D. Glucose

Explanation: Milk has a lower fat content compared to ghee and butter, and a lower carbohydrate content compared to glucose, resulting in lower energy per gram.

Q122. Which of the following is used for galvanizing iron sheet?

• A. Tin
• B. Zinc✓
• C. Aluminum
• D. Copper

Explanation: Zinc is used to galvanize iron sheets because it provides cathodic protection.

Q123. On heating acetic acid in the presence of P2​O5​, dehydration occurs with the formation of

• A. Acetamide
• B. Octyl acetate
• C. Methyl acetate
• D. Acetic anhydride✓

Explanation: P2O5 is a strong dehydrating agent, and it removes water from acetic acid, forming acetic anhydride.

Q124. One picometer (pm) = ?

• A. 10−6m
• B. 10−8m
• C. 10−10m
• D. 10−12m✓

Explanation: This is the definition of a picometer (pm).

Q125. Isotopes differ from each other on the basis of:

• A. Number of electrons
• B. Mass number✓
• C. Electronic configuration
• D. Crystal lattice

Explanation: Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, leading to different mass numbers.

Q126. Carbon atom is used to measure relative:

• A. Atomic size
• B. Atomic number
• C. Atomic mass✓
• D. Atomic volume

Explanation: Carbon-12 is the standard used to define the atomic mass unit.

Q127. _ is regarded as the simplest and the parent member of aromatic class of compounds.

• A. Methanol
• B. Acetylene
• C. Benzene✓
• D. Acetic acid

Explanation: Benzene is the simplest and parent aromatic hydrocarbon.

Q128. The procedure for the preparation of ethers in which an alcohol is first allowed to react with metallic sodium is called:

• A. Tollen's synthesis
• B. Fehling's Synthesis
• C. Willamson's synthesis✓
• D. Grignard's synthesis

Explanation: This is the reaction of an alkoxide with an alkyl halide to form an ether.

Q129. Inter molecular repulsive forces in gases are due to

• A. Ionic bonding
• B. Vander Waal's forces✓
• C. Dipoles
• D. Covalent bonding

Explanation: These are weak intermolecular forces that include repulsive and attractive forces.

Q130. The polymer formed from a single type of monomer is called:

• A. Terpolymer
• B. Copolymer
• C. Homopolymer✓
• D. Thermosetting polymer

Explanation: Homopolymers are made from a single type of monomer.

Q131. When a hydrogen atom of an alkane is removed, the resulting group is called:

• A. Aryl
• B. Alkyl✓
• C. Alkenyl
• D. Phenyl

Explanation: Removing a hydrogen from an alkane forms an alkyl group.

Q132. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:CH₃–CH₂–C(Cl)(CH₃)–CH₂–CH₃

• A. Hexylchloride
• B. 3-chloromethylhexane
• C. 3-chloro-3-ethylbutane
• D. 3-chloro-3-methylpentane✓

Explanation: The longest chain is 5 carbons (pentane), and the substituents are at the 3rd carbon.

Q133. The early chemists never succeeded in synthesizing organic compounds and their failure led them to believe that organic compounds could be manufactured:

• A. with pure reagents
• B. by and within living things✓
• C. with pure organic solvents
• D. at very high temperature and pressure

Explanation: This was the vitalism theory.

Q134. Oxidation number of Mn in K2​MnO4​ is:

• A. +4
• B. +5
• C. +6✓
• D. +7

Explanation: 2(+1) + Mn + 4(-2) = 0. Mn = +6.

Q135. Which of the following compound is not an alcohol:

• A. C3​H7​OH
• B. C4​H9​OH
• C. C4​H8​CH3​OH
• D. None of the given options✓

Explanation: All options represent alcohols.

Q136. Benzene when reacts with chlorine, in presence of sunlight gives an additional product i.e

• A. HCl
• B. Chloroform
• C. Hexachlorobenzene✓
• D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

Explanation: In the presence of sunlight, benzene undergoes an addition reaction with chlorine to form hexachlorocyclohexane (hexachlorobenzene).

Q137. The sum of pH and pOH for pure water at 25∘C is

• A. 10
• B. 10−14
• C. 14✓
• D. 25

Explanation: pH + pOH = pKw = 14 at 25°C.

Q138. An electron in an atom is completely described by its _ quantum numbers.

• A. Eight
• B. Six
• C. Five
• D. Four✓

Explanation: Correct. The four quantum numbers are the principal (n), azimuthal (l), magnetic (ml), and spin (ms) quantum numbers.

Q139. Which of the following is not a result of capillary action?

• A. Rise of water from soil to plant
• B. Movement of blood in veins✓
• C. Absorption of water by the cotton
• D. Spreading of ink on blotting paper

Explanation: blood movement is primarily due to pressure from the heart and muscle contractions, not capillary action.

Q140. When potassium chromate is treated with an acid, it produces:

• A. Water
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Potassium sulfate
• D. Potassium dichromate✓

Explanation: Correct. The equilibrium between chromate and dichromate ions is pH-dependent.

Q141. Compounds attracted into a magnetic field are called:

• A. Paramagnetic✓
• B. Diamagnetic
• C. Polymagnetic
• D. Ferrimagnetic

Explanation: Correct. Paramagnetic substances have unpaired electrons and are attracted to a magnetic field.

Q142. The change in enthalpy for the reaction: NaOH(aq)​+HNO3(aq)​→NaNO3(aq)​+H2​O(l)​ is

• A. Heat of combustion
• B. Heat of neutralization✓
• C. Heat of decomposition
• D. Heat of formation

Explanation: This reaction involves the neutralization of an acid and a base.

Q143. Ohm's law states that the electric current through a conductor is proportional to the applied voltage provided:

• A. Electric current is constant
• B. Electric field is constant
• C. Resistance is constant✓
• D. Electric charge is constant

Explanation: Ohm's law is I = V/R.

Q144. The electric potential at a point in an electric field is the amount of work done to move:

• A. Any amount of charge from infinity to that point
• B. A unit positive charge from infinity to that point✓
• C. Any amount of charge from any position to that point
• D. A unit negative charge from infinity to that point

Explanation: This is the definition of electric potential.

Q145. When a gas is expanded at constant temperature then it

• A. Absorbs heat✓
• B. Releases heat
• C. Neither absorbs nor releases heat
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: For isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, work is done by the system, and to keep the temperature constant, heat must be absorbed.

Q146. A spherical liquid drop has a diameter of 2cm and is given a charge of 1mC. The potential at the surface of the drop is:

• A. 9 MV
• B. 900 MV✓
• C. 0.45 MV
• D. 4.5 MV

Explanation: The electric potential at the surface of a spherical charged object is given by the formula V = kQ/R, where:k (Coulomb's constant) = 9 × 109 N·m²/C²Q = 1 mC = 1 × 10-3 CR is the radius of the sphere, which is half the diameter, i.e., 1 cm = 0.01 mSubstituting these values into the formula, we get V = (9 × 109 N·m²/C²) × (1 × 10-3 C) / 0.01 m = 900 MV.Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they result from either incorrect conversion of units or wrong application of the formula.

Q147. Photoelectron emission depends upon the:

• A. Intensity of incident light
• B. Color of the body
• C. Frequency of incident light✓
• D. Shape of the body

Explanation: The frequency of light is directly related to the energy of photons, which determines if photoelectrons will be emitted.

Q148. The direction of induced EMF can be determined by:

• A. Faraday's law
• B. Lenz's law✓
• C. Galvanometer
• D. Fleming's right-hand rule

Explanation: Lenz's law states that the induced EMF opposes the change that created it, thus determining the direction.

Q149. Magnetic field lines set up in the surrounding of current carrying wire will be:

• A. Circular✓
• B. Radially outward
• C. Along the current
• D. Opposite to current

Explanation: The magnetic field lines form concentric circles around the wire.

Q150. Velocity V of an electron revolving around the nucleus is _ to the radius r of the orbit.

• A. Acute angle
• B. Obtuse angle
• C. Right angle✓
• D. Supplementary angle

Explanation: Correct. The velocity of the electron is tangential, and the radius is radial, making them perpendicular.

Q151. A stone is dropped from a cliff. The graph (Position or velocity versus time) which best represents motion when it falls:

• A. A curved graph with increasing slope (Position vs. Time)
• B. A straight-line graph with a positive slope (Velocity vs. Time)✓
• C. A straight-line graph with a constant slope (Position vs. Time)
• D. A curved graph with an increasing slope (Velocity vs. Time)

Explanation: This represents velocity increasing at a constant rate, which matches the equation v=gtv = g tv=gt.Since free-fall motion results in a linearly increasing velocity, this is correct for a velocity-time graph.

Q152. Let five resistors, each of 10 ohm, are connected in parallel and the combination is then connected with a battery of 50V. The current through each resistor will be:

• A. 5A✓
• B. 10A
• C. 25A
• D. 50A

Explanation: Voltage across each resistor: In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is the same as the source voltage. So, V = 50V.Current through each resistor: Using Ohm's law (I = V/R), the current through each resistor is: I = 50V / 10 ohms = 5A

Q153. Let two current carrying wires are placed near a conducting loop such that loop is midway between wires as shown below. If i1​ and i2​ are decreasing at the same rate, induced current in the loop will be:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Clockwise
• C. Anticlockwise
• D. Sometimes clockwise, sometimes anticlockwise

Explanation: Since the loop is symmetrically placed and both currents are decreasing at the same rate, their effects cancel out, resulting in no induced current.

Q154. Gravitational mass of a body is:

• A. F/a
• B. Fa
• C. W/g✓
• D. Wg

Explanation: This is the correct formula. Since W = mg, rearranging gives m = W/g, which is the gravitational mass.

Q155. Electrons of mass m and charge e are accelerated through a potential difference V and strike the target. The maximum speed of these electrons is:

• A. √(e²/m)
• B. eV/m
• C. eV²/m
• D. √(2eV/m)✓

Explanation: Work Done by the Electric Field: The work done (W) by the electric field on the electron is equal to the charge of the electron (e) multiplied by the potential difference (V): W = eVKinetic Energy of the Electron: The work done is converted into the kinetic energy (KE) of the electron. The kinetic energy is given by: KE = (1/2)mv²Equating Work and Kinetic Energy: According to the work-energy theorem, the work done is equal to the change in kinetic energy: eV = (1/2)mv²Solving for Velocity (v): Now, we solve for the velocity (v): 2eV = mv² v² = 2eV / m v = √(2eV / m)

Q156. The induced EMF in a 100 turns coil if change in flux through the coil is 2×104Wb in 0.02 sec:

• A. 1.0 V
• B. -1.0 V
• C. 10 V
• D. 1 X 10^8 V✓

Explanation: CalculationsGiven values:N = 100 turnsdΦ = 2 × 10⁴ Wbdt = 0.02 sApply Faraday's law:EMF = N(dΦ/dt)EMF = 100 * (2 × 10⁴ Wb / 0.02 s)EMF = 100 * (1 × 10⁶ V)EMF = 1 × 10⁸ V

Q157. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected, if they have the same:

• A. Charge
• B. Potential✓
• C. Capacity
• D. Density

Explanation: Potential difference drives current flow. If potentials are equal, there's no difference. No potential difference means no force to move charges.Thus, same potential means no current flow.

Q158. Which of the following is NOT a basic operation of Boolean variables:

• A. YES operation✓
• B. NOT operation
• C. AND operation
• D. OR operation

Explanation: "YES" operation is equivalent to having a direct input. It is usually implied rather then stated as an operation.It doesn't transform or combine inputs in a fundamental Boolean way like the others.Thus, "YES" is not a basic logical operation in the same category.

Q159. Let an electron beam be accelerated by adjustable potential V. If we decrease potential V, the wavelength of the matter wave associated with the electron will:

• A. increase✓
• B. decrease
• C. remain the same
• D. sometimes increase sometimes decrease

Explanation: Decreasing potential reduces the electron's kinetic energy and momentum.By De Broglie's equation (λ = h/p), lower momentum implies a longer wavelength. Thus, wavelength increases.

Q160. Which of the following methods can be used to vary induced EMF in a coil?

• A. Alternating magnetic field
• B. Moving the coil in the magnetic field
• C. Changing the shape of the coil
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: All the given methods manipulate magnetic flux linked with the coil.They create a changing flux, generating induced EMF.Thus, all of them vary induced EMF.

Q161. A dielectric for a capacitor can be: I. polar II. non-polar

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. both I and II✓
• D. neither I nor II

Explanation: Polar and non-polar dielectrics both improve capacitance.They reduce the electric field and increase charge storage capacity.Therefore this statement is correct.

Q162. A set of coordinate axes in which measurements are made is called

• A. Cartesian coordinates
• B. Rectangular coordinates
• C. Spherical coordinates:
• D. Frame of reference✓

Explanation: A frame of reference is the broader concept that defines the system in which measurements are made. It consists of coordinate axes and a reference point, allowing observers to measure positions, velocities, and other physical quantities. Since the question asks about the system where measurements are made, this is the correct answer.

Q163. Carnot cycle consists of

• A. Isothermal steps only
• B. Adiabatic steps only
• C. Both adiabatic and isothermal steps✓
• D. Neither adiabatic nor isothermal

Explanation: The Carnot cycle consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes.These steps are essential for its maximum efficiency.Therefore, this is the correct answer.

Q164. Which of the following set of frequencies can have constructive interference

• A. 20Hz and 21Hz✓
• B. 100Hz and 110Hz
• C. 1000Hz and 2000Hz
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Option A (20Hz and 21Hz) is correct because these frequencies are very close, producing a low beat frequency of 1 Hz. This low frequency allows for observable constructive interference as the waves periodically reinforce each other. Option B (100Hz and 110Hz) produces a higher beat frequency of 10 Hz, making it harder to observe sustained constructive interference. Option C (1000Hz and 2000Hz) has an even higher beat frequency of 1000 Hz, which is too rapid for observable constructive interference. Option D is incorrect because Option A provides a valid set of frequencies for constructive interference.

Q165. Mass number of an atom represents the number of

• A. Proton
• B. Neutron:
• C. Neutron plus proton:✓
• D. Proton plus electron:

Explanation: The mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. This is the definition of mass number.This is the correct answer.

Q166. The potential energy due to gravitational field near the surface of the Earth at a height h is given by

• A. 21​mg/h
• B. mgh✓
• C. mg/h
• D. gh/m:

Explanation: This is the standard formula for gravitational potential energy.It correctly relates mass, gravity, and height.This is the correct answer.

Q167. A slow neutron will cause fission in ?

• A. 234U
• B. 235U✓
• C. 236U
• D. 237U

Explanation: Uranium-235 is a fissile isotope, meaning it can undergo fission when struck by a slow neutron. It is the primary fuel used in nuclear reactors and atomic bombs.When a slow neutron is absorbed, 235U{}^{235}U235U becomes unstable and splits into two smaller nuclei, releasing a large amount of energy and more neutrons, continuing the chain reaction.

Q168. Sounds wave are not polarized in air because:

• A. They are longitudinal waves✓
• B. They are transverse waves
• C. They need media for its propagation
• D. They have shorter wave lengths

Explanation: Longitudinal waves' oscillations are parallel to their propagation, preventing the required transverse restriction for polarization.This is the fundamental reason sound waves can't be polarized.Therefore this is the correct answer.

Q169. Which of the following statements is correct: I. nuclear radiation with the least penetrating power has the most ionization power II. nuclear radiation with the most penetrating power has the least ionization power

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. Both I and II✓
• D. neither I nor II

Explanation: Alpha particles (low penetration) have high ionization, and gamma rays (high penetration) have low ionization.This demonstrates that both statements are accurate.This is the correct answer.

Q170. A battery has an emf of 6.0V and an internal resistance of 0.4 Ω. It is connected to a 2.6 Ω resistor through a switch. When the switch is open, the potential difference across the switch is:

• A. 0V
• B. 6.0 V✓
• C. 2.6 V
• D. 5.2 V

Explanation: With an open circuit, the potential difference across the switch is the same as the battery's emf.This is the correct answer.

Q171. Let T be the half-life of a certain radioactive element and N0​ be the number of atoms present in the sample at t=0. After time 3T, what percent of atoms present at t=0 will have decayed?

• A. 12.5%
• B. 50%
• C. 87.5%✓
• D. 100%

Explanation: After 3 half-lives, 1/8 of the original remains, meaning 7/8 (87.5%) has decayed.This is the correct answer.

Q172. If a force of one Newton acts on a body and displaces it through a distance of one meter in the direction of the force then the work done is one:

• A. Joule✓
• B. Dyne
• C. Erg
• D. Watt

Explanation: One joule is defined as one Newton-meter of work.This is the correct answer.

Q173. The distance between consecutive crest and trough of water waves is:

• A. λ
• B. λ/2✓
• C. λ/4
• D. none of these

Explanation: A crest to a trough is half a wavelength.This is the correct answer.

Q174. In the photo-electric effect, electrons are emitted on incidence of light upon certain material surfaces:

• A. Below a certain frequency
• B. Beyond a certain wavelength
• C. Above a certain frequency✓
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: The photon energy must exceed the work function for electron emission.This is the correct answer.

Q175. Electrical measuring instruments convert electrical energy into:

• A. Chemical
• B. Mechanical✓
• C. Nuclear
• D. Thermal

Explanation: Meters use electromagnetic forces to move pointers or displays.This is the correct answer.

Q176. Let an inductor be connected with a battery. If EMF induced in the inductor opposes the EMF of the battery, then the electric current through the circuit is:

• A. Decreasing✓
• B. Increasing
• C. Constant
• D. Alternating

Explanation: Back EMF opposes current change, so a decreasing current causes opposition.This is the correct answer.

Q177. A 40kg body starting from rest falls through a vertical distance of 125cm to the ground. The velocity of the body just before it hits the ground is:

• A. 250 m/s
• B. (250)½ m/s
• C. 25 m/s
• D. 5 m/s✓

Explanation: Convert 125 cm to meters: 125 cm = 1.25 mUse the kinematic equation: v² = u² + 2as, where:v = final velocity (what we want to find)u = initial velocity (0 m/s, since it starts from rest)a = acceleration (g = 9.8 m/s², acceleration due to gravity)s = displacement (1.25 m)v² = 0² + 2 * 9.8 m/s² * 1.25 mv² = 24.5 m²/s²v = √24.5 m²/s² ≈ 4.95 m/s, which is closest to 5 m/s.Therefore, this option is correct.

Q178. Which of the following believed in absolute time?

• A. Newton
• B. Galileo
• C. Both Newton and Galileo✓
• D. Neither Newton nor Galileo

Explanation: Since both Newton and Galileo adhered to classical mechanics, they both believed in absolute time.Therefore, this option is correct.

Q179. If a force of 1N acts upon a body as it moves through a displacement of 0.5 m, at an angle of 60∘ with the direction of force then the work done W is:

• A. 0.25 j✓
• B. 0.5 J
• C. 10 J
• D. 4 J

Explanation: Derivation:Work done (W) = Force (F) × Displacement (d) × cos(θ), where θ is the angle between force and displacement.W = 1 N × 0.5 m × cos(60°)W = 0.5 N·m × 0.5W = 0.25 J(a) 0.25 J:This is the correct calculation.Therefore, this option is correct.

Q180. If heat equal to 0.1 J is provided to the gas contained in a cylinder and it expands through 0.1m3 at 1N/m2 then its internal energy:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases
• C. Remains the same✓
• D. Decreases by 0.1 J

Explanation: Since the heat added equals the work done, the internal energy does not change.Therefore, this option is correct. Use the first law of thermodynamics: ΔU = Q - W, where:ΔU = change in internal energyQ = heat added to the system (0.1 J)W = work done by the system (PΔV)W = PΔV = 1 N/m² × 0.1 m³ = 0.1 JΔU = 0.1 J - 0.1 J = 0 J since the change in internal energy is 0 so thats means it remains the same

Q181. Which of the following forces gives rise to ocean tides?

• A. Frictional force
• B. Gravitational force✓
• C. Earth's magnetic force
• D. Nuclear force

Explanation: The gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun are the primary cause of ocean tides.Therefore, this option is correct.

Q182. A body of mass m moving in a circle of radius r is executing a uniform circular motion. If the mass of the body is doubled then the centripetal force acting upon the body is:

• A. Reduced to half
• B. Remains same
• C. Doubled✓
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Derivation:Centripetal force (Fc) = mv²/r, where:m = mass of the bodyv = velocity of the bodyr = radius of the circleIf mass (m) is doubled to 2m, then:Fc' = (2m)v²/r = 2(mv²/r) = 2Fc

Q183. A person's life was saved in a car accident due to airbags system. During that car accident, airbags expanded in front of head of that person. If that car was not equipped with airbags then movement of head would be stopped by windshield in much faster time. Airbags saved life because it:

• A. Causes much greater force for longer time
• B. Causes much greater force for smaller time
• C. Causes much smaller force for longer time✓
• D. Causes much smaller force for smaller time

Explanation: Airbags increase the time it takes for the head to stop, reducing the force of impact. Force is inversely proportional to time (F = Δp/Δt).

Q184. The circuit required for change of AC voltage to DC voltage is called:

• A. Rectifier✓
• B. Amplifier
• C. Detector
• D. Emitter

Explanation: A rectifier converts AC to DC

Q185. When placed in light which of the following can generate an output voltage across its electrodes?

• A. P-N diode
• B. Light emitting diode
• C. Photo diode✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Correct. A photodiode converts light into voltage.

Q186. Which of the following isotope of hydrogen is unstable?

• A. H1
• B. D2
• C. T3✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Tritium is unstable and undergoes beta decay, transforming into helium-3 with a half-life of about 12.3 years, making this the correct answer.

Q187. A current-carrying conductor of length 'L' and current 'I' is lying at an angle of 90 degrees to the direction of a uniform magnetic field 'B'. If its length L is rotated clockwise through an angle of 90 degrees and current through it is reduced to two-thirds then magnetic force on it becomes:

• A. 2/3 times
• B. 1/3 times
• C. 4/3 times
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: Since the conductor is now parallel to the field, no magnetic force acts on it, making this the correct answer. Initial force (F1) = BIL sin(90°) = BILAfter rotation and current reduction:Current (I') = (2/3)IThe conductor is rotated 90 degrees, so it becomes parallel to the field, meaning θ=0∘.sin⁡0∘=0Final force (F2) = B(2/3)IL sin(0) =0

Q188. Which of the following statements is absolutely correct: I. Forces can stop or make objects move faster II. Forces can change the direction of movement

• A. I
• B. II
• C. Both I and II✓
• D. Neither I nor II

Explanation: These are fundamental properties of forces

Q189. Compression is that portion of the longitudinal wave where pressure is:

• A. High✓
• B. Low
• C. Zero
• D. All of these

Explanation: Compressions are regions of high pressure.

Q190. If the rate of change of current Ip​ in the primary coil is increased by one half then emf induced in the secondary coil becomes:

• A. Half
• B. Double
• C. 2/3 times
• D. 3/2 times✓

Explanation: Since the induced EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of current and the rate has increased by 3/2​ times, the EMF also increases by 3/2​ times, making this the correct answer.

Q191. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

• A. Electric Flux
• B. Work done
• C. Electric Potential Energy
• D. None of the given options✓

Explanation: Vector quantities are those that have both magnitude and direction. In this question, none of the options provided are vector quantities. Electric flux, work done, and electric potential energy are all scalar quantities because they possess only magnitude without a directional component. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of the given options'.

Q192. Which of the following condition must be true for transfer of energy from an object at temperature T1​ to another object at temperature T2​?

• A. T1​=T2
• B. T1<T2
• C. T1>T2✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Heat transfer occurs from the hotter object to the colder object, as described by the second law of thermodynamics.

Q193. Resistance is the measure of:

• A. Current
• B. Voltage
• C. Motion of charges
• D. Opposition to the motion of charges✓

Explanation: Correct. Resistance is defined as the opposition to the flow of electric charges in a conductor.

Q194. A particle is executing uniform circular motion in a circle of radius 100 mm. If its speed is 10 cm/s then its angular velocity is:

• A. 10 rad/s
• B. 0.1 rad/s
• C. 10 revolutions/s
• D. None of the given options✓

Explanation: The correct answer is not provided in the given choices. Using ω=v/r​, where v=10 cm/s and r=100 mm = 10 cm, we get: ω=10/10=1 rad/s

Q195. Statement. The vegetable traders feel that the prices of onion will again go up.Courses of Action:I. The Government should purchase and store sufficient quantity of onion in advance to control prices.II. The Government should make available network of fair price shops for the sale of onions during the period of shortage.

• A. Only I followS
• B. Only II follows
• C. Both I and II follow✓
• D. Neither I nor II follows

Explanation: The government should both store onions in advance and provide fair-price shops.

Q196. Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows:P and Q are connected by boat as well as by railS and R are connected by bus and by boatQ and T are connected only by airP and R are connected only by boatT and R are connected by rail and by busWhich mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q but without changing mode of transport?

• A. Boat✓
• B. Rail
• C. Bus
• D. Air

Explanation: The correct answer is Boat because the only direct route from Q to R is via boat, which can be taken from P. The connection is established as follows: Q can reach P by either boat or rail, and from P, it can reach R directly by boat. The other options are incorrect because:Rail: Q can reach P by rail, but there's no further rail connection to R.Bus: While there is a bus connection between S and R, it cannot be accessed directly from Q without a change in transport.Air: Q is connected to T by air, but there is no subsequent connection from T to R.Therefore, the only viable transport option to reach R from Q without changing is by Boat.

Q197. Statement 1: A is the brother of B Statement 2: B is the daughter of C.Based on these statements, how is A related to C?

• A. Brother
• B. Son✓
• C. Father
• D. Daughter

Explanation: A is B’s brother, and B is C’s daughter, meaning A is C’s son.

Q198. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:I. Maria runs faster than Amna. II. Lalba runs faster than Maria III. Amna runs faster than Laiba.

• A. True
• B. False✓
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: correct.Laiba is faster than Maria, and Maria is faster than Amna, so Lalba must be faster than Amna.

Q199. Statements:I. The university authority has instructed all the colleges under its jurisdiction to ban use of all phones inside the college premises. II. Majority of the teachers of the colleges signed a joint petition to the university complaining the disturbances caused by cell phone ring-tones inside the classrooms.Which of the following is correct?

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect✓
• C. Both statements are independent causes
• D. Both statements are effects of independent causes

Explanation: The complaints about cell phone disturbances led to the university enforcing a ban.

Q200. Statements:I. Kenya has surpassed the value of tea exports this year due to an increase in demand for quality tea in the Foreign market. II. There is an increase in demand of coffee in the local market during the last two years.Which of the following is correct?

• A. Option A:Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
• B. Option B:Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Option C:Both statements are independent causes
• D. Option D (CORRECT):Both statements are effects of independent causes✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D, as both statements describe trends that are not causally linked to each other. The first statement refers to an increase in demand for quality tea in the foreign market, while the second statement discusses local coffee demand. These trends may be influenced by different market dynamics and do not affect one another directly.Option A is incorrect because it incorrectly assigns causation between the two unrelated markets. Option B also misidentifies the relationship, suggesting that local coffee demand affects tea exports, which is not supported by the statements. Option C inaccurately posits both statements as independent causes, failing to recognize that they are effects stemming from distinct and unrelated causes.