Balochistan Mdcat Mock Paper 5 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. In the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. Select the nearest correct meaning of the word given. INVIDIOUS:

• A. Unbreakable
• B. Interesting
• C. Unpleasant✓
• D. Fair

Explanation: "Invidious" means likely to arouse resentment or anger in others, often due to unfairness or injustice. It implies something that is unpleasant, likely to cause ill will or dissatisfaction.

Q2. Choose the correct option: Knowledge and wisdom _ no time for connection.

• A. Has
• B. Have✓
• C. Had
• D. Are

Explanation: The context of the sentence firstly requires a verb that satisfies the need to indicate the possession of "no time for connection" by "Knowledge and wisdom." Therefore the verb forms "is/am/are" which indicate "being" are not suitable here - eliminating Option D. Moreover, since the need for "no time" is being stated as a universal statement (everlasting) i.e. started in the past and continues to be true in the present, the tense should be present perfect. Hence, the verb form should include the helping verb "Have" as indicated by Option B.

Q3. Identify the errors and choose the correct option:

• A. Guliver travels was written to Swift.
• B. Guliver travels was written at Swift.
• C. Guliver’s Travels was written by Swift.✓
• D. Gulivers’ Travel was written by Swift.

Explanation: Option A and Option B are incorrect since the apostrophe + ‘s’ (‘s) is absent which is needed after the noun “Gulliver” to indicate the possessive nature of the travels (i.e. to indicates that the travels were of Gulliver). Since Gulliver had more than one travel in the story, the word should be “Travels” and not “Travel”. Hence, Option D is incorrect, and Option C is correct.

Q4. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required. _ umbrella is of no avail against a thunderstorm.

• A. The
• B. A
• C. An✓
• D. No article required

Explanation: Umbrella referred here is non-specific hence the article “the” will not be used here rather a/an should. 'An' is used because the first letter of the word is vowel.

Q5. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: The robber broke into the house and _ (tie) the lone occupant with ropes.

• A. Tied✓
• B. Ties
• C. Tie
• D. Tying

Explanation: 'Broke' implies past tense so the past tense of tie is 'tied'.

Q6. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: The dog sprang _ him.

• A. On
• B. Upon✓
• C. In
• D. Over

Explanation: 'Upon' is a preposition. up and on; upward so as to get or be on: He climbed upon his horse and rode off. It means the same as on/onto as is usually interchangeable.

Q7. Find an error in the following sentence: Everyone who was injured in the accident were taken to the hospital.

• A. Everyone who was injured
• B. In the accident
• C. Were taken✓
• D. To the hospital

Explanation: 'Everyone' is a singular term, so 'was' will be used with it.

Q8. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: Everyone _ done his or her homework.

• A. Has✓
• B. Have
• C. Had
• D. Non

Explanation: The indefinite pronouns anyone, everyone, someone, no one, nobody are always singular and, therefore, require 'singular verbs'. Everyone has done his or her homework.

Q9. None of them _ able to solve this question.

• A. Is✓
• B. Were
• C. Will
• D. Would

Explanation: Option A: None carry singular verbs so here "is" is the right option. Option B : "Were" is incorrect because it is used for plural subjects or in the past tense. Option C : "Will" is incorrect because it refers to the future tense, which does not apply to this sentence. Option D : "Would" is also incorrect because it is a conditional verb form, and it does not fit the sentence's context.

Q10. Find an error in the following sentence: If I had been thirsty, I would have drank the lemonade without waiting for you.

• A. If I had been thirsty
• B. I would have
• C. Drank the lemonade✓
• D. Without waiting for you.
• E. There is nothing wrong in the sentence

Explanation: Option A : As explained above this answer is incorrect.Option B : As explained above this answer is incorrect.Option C: "Drunk" is the past participle of "drink". The phrase "drunk the lemonade" would be the correct alternative to C.Option D : As explained above this answer is incorrect.Option E : As explained above this answer is incorrect.

Q11. Choose the correct type of tense: "We will visit the museum."

• A. Present
• B. Past
• C. Future✓
• D. None of these options is correct

Explanation: Whenever a sentence indicates that you "will" be doing something, that refers to an action being done in the future. Hence the correct answer is Option C.

Q12. "What are you doing here?" " I _ TV."

• A. Watching
• B. Am watching✓
• C. Is watching
• D. Watches

Explanation: To represent an ongoing action, we use present continuous tense, that uses is/am/are + ‘ing’ form of the verb

Q13. Find the error in the following options:

• A. They talked through the entire movie.
• B. The plants in this garden does not require much water.✓
• C. She always brings turkey sandwiches for lunch.
• D. None of these options are incorrect

Explanation: Here, we have to find out the sentence that has an error in it.

Q14. Either my father or my brothers _ going to sell the car.

• A. Is
• B. Are✓
• C. Were
• D. Was

Explanation: If a sentence has two subjects connected by or/nor, either/or, or neither/nor, the verb must agree with the later subject (which is, in this case, ‘brothers’). As the subject is plural, the verb must also be plural

Q15. Identify the word similar in meaning to: 'permissive'

• A. Relaxed
• B. Lenient✓
• C. Ungrudging
• D. Immoral

Explanation: Permissive is defined as allowing or characterized by great or excessive freedom of behavior. ‘Lenient’ is the most accurate synonym.

Q16. Which of the following sentences is correct?

• A. Last year I go to India
• B. Last year I went to India✓
• C. Last year I am going to India
• D. Last year I will go to India

Explanation: To identify the answer, we first need to identify the keyword which is ‘Last year’. This indicates that the speaker performed the action in the past, hence past tense should be used.

Q17. Demonstrate the correct use of subject-verb agreement:He was _ in the rain then.

• A. Enjoys
• B. Enjoying✓
• C. Enjoy
• D. Will enjoy

Explanation: To choose the correct answer, first identify the keyword which is the auxiliary verb ‘was’. Helping verbs/auxiliary verbs are used when indicating a progressive or continuous tense. Hence option B is correct.

Q18. Demonstrate the correct use of articles and prepositions: They had been waiting at the departure lounge for almost three hours when they finally got _ the train.

• A. On✓
• B. In
• C. Up
• D. To

Explanation: A preposition is the part of speech used to define the position of the noun. ‘Pre’ means it is used before the noun and ‘position’ tells us the location of the noun. As the train is a platform, the general preposition used is ‘on’, so option A will be the correct option.

Q19. The region where the impulse moves from one neuron to another is called _.

• A. Axon
• B. Dendrites
• C. Synapse✓
• D. Thalamus
• E. Cerebellum

Explanation: Synapse, also called neuronal junction, the site of transmission of electric nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector).

Q20. What are the functions of the inter, motor and sensory neurons in a reflex response?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: To relay nerve impulses from within the CNS, interneurons are used.To conduct the nerve impulses from the CNS to the effector, motor neurons are used. To conduct the nerve impulses from the receptors to the CNS, sensory neurons are used.

Q21. Four events in the transmission of nerve impulses across synapses are: I. depolarisation of the presynaptic membrane II. propagation of postsynaptic action potential III. reabsorption of the transmitter substance IV. release of transmitter substance into the synaptic cleft In which sequence do these events occur? FIRST -> LAST

• A. I, III, II, and IV
• B. I, IV, II and III✓
• C. IV, I, III and II
• D. IV, III, I and II
• E. II, I, IV and III

Explanation: The sequence of transmission of nerve impulses is as follows: 1. Depolarisation occurs at the presynaptic terminal. 2. This leads to the release of the transmitter substance to the cleft. 3. This leads to the depolarization at the postsynaptic membrane. 4. Then the transmitter substance is reabsorbed back to the presynaptic membrane. So, from the above summary, it shows that the sequence in the transmission of nerve impulses across synapses is 1, 4, 2, and then 3.

Q22. How many meninges cover the human brain?

• A. 5
• B. 4
• C. 3✓
• D. 2
• E. 1

Explanation: There are three layers of meninges around the brain and spinal cord. The outer layer, the dura mater, is tough, white fibrous connective tissue. The middle layer of meninges is the arachnoid, a thin layer resembling a cobweb with numerous threadlike strands attaching it to the innermost layer

Q23. In an experiment, the production of hormone secretin was blocked. As a result, levels of all of the following enzymes were affected EXCEPT:

• A. Trypsin
• B. Pepsin✓
• C. Chymotrypsin
• D. Amylase
• E. Lipase

Explanation: Secretin is involved in triggering the release of all the enzymes listed above except pepsin. Pepsin is not directly regulated by secretin, so its levels would not be affected when secretin production is blocked.

Q24. Which one of the following types of cell are found in secondary xylem of angiosperms?

• A. Tracheids parenchyma fibres collenchyma but no vessels
• B. Vessels tracheids parenchyma collenchyma but no fibres
• C. Vessels tracheids fibres collenchyma but no parenchyma
• D. Vessels tracheids fibres parenchyma but no collenchyma✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. Secondary xylem of angiosperms have vessels, tracheids, fibres, parenchyma, but no collenchyma. Conceptual and fact.

Q25. Identify the bones in which the connecting joints are freely movable joints?

• A. Ankle
• B. Wrist
• C. Vertebrae
• D. Elbow
• E. All of the above✓

Explanation: There are six types of freely movable joints. Namely; ball and socket joint, hinge joint, pivot joint, condyloid joint, saddle joint, and gliding joint. The ankle joint is a hinge type of joint The wrist is a condyloid joint Joints of the vertebrae are cartilaginous joints which allow gliding Elbow joint is a hinge joint Thus all the options are examples of freely movable joints

Q26. Poliomyelitis normally affects the:

• A. Legs
• B. Brain
• C. Spinal cord✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Option A Legs cannot be the answer as the person's nerve from spinal cord which supplies leg is affected Option B Poliomyelitis does not affect brain It affects spinal cord Option C Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a disabling and life-threatening disease caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads from person to person and can infect a person's spinal cord, causing paralysis (can't move parts of the body) Option D Cannot be the answer

Q27. Scapula is the bone of the:

• A. Skull
• B. Pelvic girdle
• C. Pectoral girdle✓
• D. Vertebral column

Explanation: The shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle is the set of bones in the appendicular skeleton which connects to the arm on each side. In humans it consists of the clavicle and scapula. Refer to the image below:

Q28. Phragmoplast is formed during:

• A. Metaphase
• B. Anaphase
• C. Telophase
• D. Cytokinesis✓

Explanation: Phragmoplast is formed during cytokinesis. This complex assembly of microtubules, actin filaments and associated molecules act as a framework for cell plate assembly and subsequent formation of the future cell wall, separating the two daughter cells.

Q29. In the pancreas, lipase production is regulated by:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Secretin✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Lipids

Explanation: Hepatic and Pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called secretin, which is produced by the intestinal mucosa on the entry of acidic food from stomach. The acidity stimulates secretin production in duodenum and secretin is carried by blood to pancreas which is stimulated to produce pancreatic juice. Secretin also inhibits gastric secretion

Q30. In the juxtamedullary nephron, a network of blood capillaries parallel to the loop of Henle is called:

• A. Netted capillaries
• B. Afferent capillaries
• C. Peritubular capillaries
• D. Vasa recta✓

Explanation: The network of capillaries parallel to the loop of henle is called vasa recta. Peritubular capillaries are the blood capillaries that surround the PCT and DCT of the cortical nephrons. Afferent capillaries supply the blood to be filtered to glomerulus. The correct answer is therefore, D.

Q31. A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red green colour blind, married a red green colour blind man. What is the probability of her born child being red green colour blind?

• A. 1.0
• B. 0.75
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.25

Explanation: Males have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome, and females have 2 X chromosomes. The genes that can give you red-green colour blindness are passed down on the X chromosome.The woman’s father is red-green colour blind. Since the woman got one of her X chromosomes from her father this means that she is a carrier. As it can be seen from the table the probability of having a colourblind child is 0.5%

Q32. Chlorosis refers to the lack of:

• A. Growth
• B. Chlorophyll✓
• C. Yellowing of leaf margin
• D. Width of leaf

Explanation: By definition, chlorosis is a condition in which leaves become pale or yellow due to lack of chlorophyll so option B is correct, making the rest of the options incorrect.

Q33. A psychological condition usually seen in girls and young women, with loss of appetite is:

• A. Obesity
• B. Malnutrition
• C. Anorexia Nervosa✓
• D. Dyspepsia
• E. Peptic ulcer

Explanation: An eating disorder characterized by markedly reduced appetite or total aversion to food. Anorexia is a serious psychological disorder. It is a condition that goes well beyond out-of-control dieting. The person with anorexia, most often a girl or young woman, initially begins dieting to lose weight.

Q34. Amniocentesis is performed between the:

• A. 16th and 18th week of gestation✓
• B. 1st and 2nd week of gestation
• C. 30th and 32nd week of gestation
• D. 37th and 38th week of gestation
• E. After the delivery of the baby

Explanation: Amniocentesis is performed between the 16th and 18th week of gestation.

Q35. The diagram shows the four types of human tooth. Which teeth are used for cutting rather than grinding food?

• A. 1 and 2✓
• B. 2 and 3
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 4 and 1

Explanation: >Incisor and canine are used to cut and chew.->Premolar and Molar are used for grinding the food

Q36. Male and female sea urchins release their sperm and eggs Into the water where fertilization takes place. How can their reproduction be described?

• A. asexual reproduction which results in genetically dissimilar offspring
• B. asexual reproductlon whlch results In genetically identical offspring
• C. Sexual reproduction which results in genetically dissimilar offspring✓
• D. Sexual reproduction which results in genetically identical offspring

Explanation: In a type of reproduction in which gametes join to form a new offspring, this type of reproduction is called sexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction involves the mixing of two genetic materials resulting in genetically dissimilar offspring.

Q37. Which of the following conditions is due to a nutritional deficiency?

• A. Hepatitis
• B. Cholera
• C. Malaria
• D. Beriberi✓
• E. Alzheimer's Disease

Explanation: Beriberi is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin-B1, which is a thiamine. All other diseases mentioned do not apply.

Q38. Optimum pH for action of pepsin and salivary amylase is

• A. 3.5 and 7.7 respectively
• B. 1.8 and 6.8 respectively✓
• C. 6.8 and 7.4 respectively
• D. 1.8 and 7.4 respectively

Explanation: The stomach has a pH between 1.5 and 3.5 generally and this is due to the cells in the stomach releasing hydrochloric acid, this is where pepsin is present, so It has a low optimum pH of around 2, so options A and C are incorrect. Saliva has a pH normal range of 6.2-7.6 with 6.7 being the average pH, which means salivary Amylase should have an optimum pH around the same range. Amylase has an optimal pH between 6.4 and 7.0

Q39. The diagram shows some of the organs of the human body. In which organs does the digestion of carbohydrates take place?

• A. P and Q
• B. P and R✓
• C. Q and R
• D. Q and S

Explanation: Digestion of carbohydrates takes place in the mouth (P) with the help of salivary amylase which converts starch to maltose. It also occurs in the intestine(R) with the help of pancreatic amylase, which yields disaccharides from starch by digesting the glycosidic bonds. The disaccharides produced (maltose, maltotriose, and α-dextrins) are all converted to glucose by brush border enzymes. Q is the stomach where protein digestion starts. S is the liver where digestion does not take place, although it does aid in digestion by producing bile and enzymes. So option B is correct (P & R)(Mouth and small intestine).

Q40. Five words are shown below: Labium Maxillae Labrum Mandibles Antennae These words can be used in the spaces P, Q, R, S and T to complete the sentence below. Cockroaches are omnivorous and can eat any kind of organic matter. They search their food by their ..P.. Their digestive system is tubular, having a straight slightly coiled digestive tube opening at both the ends. Hence, the digestive system is complete. The mouth lies at the base of the pre - oral cavity which is bounded by the mouth parts, ..Q.. (upper lip), ..R.. (lower lip), mandibles and maxillae. The ..S.. pick up and bring food to the ..T.. for mastication.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Roaches use their antennae to locate food and estimate the distance and height of any obstacles in front of them. The labrum is also known as the upper lip. It consists of a flattened cuticle and helps to hold the food in the correct position when the cockroach feeds. The labium is often called an insect's lower lip. The labium is positioned towards the back of the head and helps hold food in place when the insect feeds. Maxillae are used to hold and manipulate food so that it can be chewed or sliced by the mandibles. The function of mandibles is to grasp, crush, or cut the food (mastrication means to grind or crush (food) with or as if with the teeth). Using this information the only correct option is option B.

Q41. Dietary fiber passes through to several structures after leaving the stomach. In which order does the dietary fiber pass through the structures?

• A. Duodenum -> jejunum -> ileum -> rectum -> colon
• B. ileum -> duodenum -> colon -> jejunum -> rectum
• C. ileum -> duodenum -> jejunum -> rectum -> colon
• D. Colon -> duodenum -> ileum -> rectum -> jejunum
• E. duodenum -> jejunum -> ileum -> colon -> rectum✓

Explanation: After leaving the stomach the food enters the small intestine through a pyloric sphincter. The first region of the small intestine is the duodenum, the second is the jejunum and the third is the ileum. The junction between the ileum and the large intestine is called the ileocecal junction. The caecum is the proximal end of the small intestine with a vermiform appendix attached to it. Then comes the colon which has four parts and then the rectum. The last part of the large intestine is the anus. Thus the order given in option E is correct

Q42. In peas, the gene for yellow color (C) is dominant over the gene for green color (c). To determine the genotype of an unknown yellow pea, what kind of pea should you cross with it?

• A. Another unknown green pea
• B. Any genotype
• C. Homozygous dominant
• D. Homozygous recessive (cc) or known heterozygous (Cc)✓

Explanation: d) Homozygous recessive (cc) or known heterozygous (Cc) Explanation: This option is correct. To determine the genotype of an unknown yellow pea, the best choice is to cross it with either a homozygous recessive green pea (cc) or a known heterozygous yellow pea (Cc). If the unknown yellow pea is heterozygous (Cc), the cross with a homozygous recessive green pea (cc) will produce all yellow offspring. If the unknown yellow pea is homozygous dominant (CC), the cross with a known heterozygous yellow pea (Cc) will produce both yellow and green offspring, with a 1:1 phenotypic ratio.

Q43. An embryo of a turtle, mouse, and human show?

• A. Comparative embroyology✓
• B. Distinct differences
• C. Vestigial organs
• D. Analogous structures

Explanation: Comparative embryology is the study of the similarities and differences in the embryos of different species.

Q44. Neo-Darwinism was developed in?

• A. Early 1940s✓
• B. Early 1950s
• C. Early 1930s
• D. Early 1960s

Explanation: Neo-Darwinism was introduced by the physiologist Georges Romanes in 1883 and was developed into the Modern Synthesis in 1942 as a gene-centered view of evolution.

Q45. The enzyme which plays an important role in HIV pathogenesis is:

• A. RNA polymerase I
• B. DNA polymerase II
• C. Reverse Transcriptase I
• D. Reverse Transcriptase✓

Explanation: When HIV RNA enters the cell it must be "reverse transcribed" into proviral DNA before it can be integrated into the DNA of the host cell. HIV uses its reverse transcriptase enzyme to convert RNA into proviral DNA inside the cell.

Q46. They are organelles of symbiotic origin:

• A. Nucleolus & Mitochondria
• B. Golgi complex & ER
• C. Chloroplast & Mitochondria✓
• D. Mitochondria & ER

Explanation: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both originated from bacterial endosymbionts and therefore, are organelles of symbiotic origins.

Q47. Which of the following hormones of the pituitary gland regulates the menstrual cycle?

• A. Follicle Stimulating hormone and Estrogen
• B. Luteinizing hormone and Estrogen
• C. Follicle Stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone✓
• D. Estrogen and Progesterone

Explanation: Four hormones are primarily active in the menstrual cycle namely; FSH: Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. In women, FSH helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries. LH: Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. It also triggers the release of an egg from the ovary in the process known as 'ovulation'. (Option C is therefore correct since both; FSH and LH are produced by the pituitary gland)Estrogen: The ovaries, which produce the eggs, are the main source of estrogen from your body. In females, it helps to develop and maintain both the reproductive system and female characteristics, such as the breasts and pubic hair. Estrogen causes the uterine lining to grow and thicken to prepare the uterus for pregnancy. Progesterone: The corpus luteum in the ovaries, and the placenta, after the embedding of the zygote in the uterus lining, tend to release progesterone. The hormone prepares the endometrium lining to receive and nourish a fertilized egg. If pregnancy does not occur, estrogen and progesterone levels decrease. The decrease in progesterone triggers menstruation or shedding of the lining. Once the lining is completely shed, a new menstrual cycle begins.

Q48. A pollen tube serves to:

• A. Produce sperms
• B. Store food for the developing embryo
• C. Transfer sperms from the stigma to the ovary✓
• D. Produce female gametophytes

Explanation: A pollen tube is a tubular structure produced by the male gametophyte of seed plants when it germinates. Pollen tube elongation is an integral stage in the plant life cycle. The pollen tube acts as a conduit to transport the male gamete cells from the pollen grain—either from the stigma (in flowering plants) to the ovules

Q49. Alcoholic fermentation is the sole mean of respiration in:

• A. Saccharomyces✓
• B. Armillaria
• C. Trichonympha
• D. Balanitidium

Explanation: Alcoholic fermentation occurs in yeast and plants. Alcoholic fermentation is the sole mean of respiration in Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast). Saccharomyces can ferment carbohydrates, breaking down glucose to form ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q50. The edible part of Morchella esculanta is:

• A. Ascocarp✓
• B. Basidiocarp
• C. Zygocarp
• D. Pseudocarp

Explanation: The fruiting body of ascomycetes is called ascocarp. As Morchella esculenta is an edible fungus from class Ascomycota, its ascocarp part is edible.

Q51. Which of the following is not a fern?

• A. Pteris
• B. Tmesipeteris✓
• C. Dryopteris
• D. Pteridium

Explanation: Tmesipteris is actually a genus of ferns belonging to the class Psilotopsida within the sub-division Psilophytina. Tmesipteris is a small genus of ferns that belongs to the class Psilotopsida. Psilotopsida is a class within the division Psilophyta, and this division includes ferns that are often considered primitive vascular plants. The class Psilotopsida includes not only Tmesipteris but also other genera like Psilotum. These ferns are unique because they lack true leaves and roots. Instead, they have small, scale-like appendages on their stems. Tmesipteris, like other members of Psilotopsida, exhibits simple vascular tissues and has a relatively simple overall structure compared to more advanced ferns.

Q52. How many sperms are produced from fifty secondary spermatocyte?

• A. 200
• B. 100✓
• C. 50
• D. 150

Explanation: The secondary spermatocyte continues into meiosis II and each spermatocyte forms two sperm. So, 2x50=100.

Q53. Which one of the following is a shrub?

• A. Parmelia✓
• B. Aster
• C. Rhus
• D. Banana

Explanation: Rhus are shrubs.

Q54. Over eating psychological disorder is called:

• A. Dyspepsia
• B. Septecemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Bulimia✓

Explanation: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a person may eat a lot of food at once and then try to get rid of the food by vomiting, using laxatives, or sometimes over-exercising.

Q55. The first successful surgery of heart was performed by Dr. Ludwig by repairing a wound on which part:

• A. Right auricle
• B. Right ventricle✓
• C. Left auricle
• D. Left ventricle

Explanation: The first successful surgery of the heart was performed by Dr. Ludwig by repairing a wound on the Right ventricle.

Q56. The following statement is true for the absorption spectra of photosynthesis:

• A. Chlorophyll a and b have same absorption spectra.
• B. Chlorophyll a and b have different absorption spectra.✓
• C. Chlorophyll a and carotenoids have same absorption spectra.
• D. Carotenoids and chlorophyll b have same absorption spectra.

Explanation: Yes, chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b, the two main types of chlorophyll found in photosynthetic organisms, have slightly different absorption spectra. Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b absorb light most efficiently in the blue and red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, but they have different absorption peaks. While chlorophyll-a is directly involved in the conversion of light energy to chemical energy in the photosystems, chlorophyll-b expands the range of light that can be captured and utilized for photosynthesis.

Q57. The study of fishes is:

• A. Ornithology
• B. Ichthyology✓
• C. Herpetology
• D. Serpetology

Explanation: The study of fishes is called Ichthyology.

Q58. Which of the following is absent in C4 Plants:

• A. Calvin Cycle
• B. Bundle Sheath cells
• C. Pepco
• D. CO2 Fixation in Mesophyll✓

Explanation: CO2 fixation does occur in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants, but it follows a different pathway compared to C3 plants. C4 plants have evolved a specialized mechanism to minimize photorespiration and increase their efficiency in photosynthesis, especially under conditions of high temperature and intense sunlight. In C4 plants, the initial fixation of CO2 takes place in mesophyll cells, and the primary fixation product is a four-carbon compound called oxaloacetate (OAA). This process is catalyzed by an enzyme called phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEP carboxylase). OAA is then converted into malate or aspartate, which are transported to bundle sheath cells surrounding the vascular bundles.

Q59. Closed vascular system is the characteristic of:

• A. Lycopsida
• B. Sphenopsida
• C. Dicot
• D. Monocot✓

Explanation: Monocots (monocotyledons) typically have a scattered vascular bundle and they are collateral and closed. The vascular bundles in monocots are distributed throughout the stem without a clearly defined ring pattern. This is in contrast to dicots, which often have a ring-shaped arrangement of vascular bundles in their stems.

Q60. The main difference between catalysts and enzymes is:

• A. Enzymes are sharp in action than catalyst
• B. Catalysts used in large amount than enzymes
• C. Catalysts are inorganic while enzymes are organic in nature✓
• D. Enzymes need pH while catalysts do not

Explanation: Enzymes are organic chemical substances while catalysts are inorganic. Catalysts are substances that increase or decrease the rate of a chemical reaction but remain unchanged. Enzymes are proteins that increase the rate of chemical reactions converting substrate into product.

Q61. Referring to sexual reproduction, humans are:

• A. Hermaphrodites
• B. Vivaparous✓
• C. Oviparous
• D. Self-fertilized

Explanation: The main difference between oviparous and viviparous animals is that oviparous animals do not undergo any embryonic development inside the mother whereas viviparous animals develop into young animals inside the mother. This means oviparous animals lay eggs. These eggs develop and hatch into young individuals.A hermaphrodite is an organism with both male and female genitalia. In sexually reproducing organisms, males have organs that produce male gametes, usually sperm. Sometimes the genders pair off equally, one male for one female. Other times, one male or female will breed with a large group of the other gender.

Q62. Match the hormones listed under column I with their functions listed under the column. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the II columns.

• A. A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q✓
• B. A = t, B = p, C = s, D = r
• C. A = s, B = q, C = r, D = t
• D. A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s

Explanation: One of the functions of oxytocin is to stimulate uterine contractions in labor and childbirth, so the correct letter is S for A (A=S), so options B and D are incorrect. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth, so the correct letter is R for B (B=R), so option C is also incorrect. LH triggers the release of an egg from the ovary i.e. ovulation. Progesterone helps to prepare the body for pregnancy by stimulating glandular development and the development of new blood vessels. This provides a good environment for implantation by a fertilized egg, so it aids in implantation. So option A is correct.

Q63. Which one of the following represents the changes that occur in the ovary and the uterus approximately every 28 days involving ovulation with the breakdown and loss of the lining of the uterus?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Menstrual cycle✓
• C. Uterine cycle
• D. Embryo formation

Explanation: Changes that occur in females in ovary and uterus every 28 days is collectively referred to as menstrual cycle.

Q64. Testes are structures that produce:

• A. Spores
• B. Sperms✓
• C. Seeds
• D. Ova

Explanation: The testes (or testicles) are a pair of sperm-producing organs that maintain the health of the male reproductive system. The testes are known as gonads. Their female counterparts are the ovaries.

Q65. The hormone labelled X in the diagram is often used in over-the-counter diagnostic tests to determine when ovulation has occurred. This hormone is:

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. FSH
• D. LH✓
• E. Testosterone

Explanation: LH is the hormone that rises to the day of ovulation which causes the formation of corpus luteum,releasing oocytes outside.

Q66. Based on the peak levels of hormone X, on what day of the cycle is ovulation most likely to occur?

• A. Day 21
• B. Day 14✓
• C. Day 12
• D. Day 25
• E. Day 28

Explanation: Peak of LH hormone occurs at 14th day so the ovulation occurs at 14th day.

Q67. Hydra reproduces asexually by:

• A. Binary fission
• B. Multiple fission
• C. Budding✓
• D. Regeneration

Explanation: Hydra reproduce asexually by budding. The buds form from the body wall, grow into miniature adults and break away when mature. When a hydra is well fed, a new bud can form every two days. Refer to the diagram below:

Q68. Give the general formula of monosaccharides and polysaccharides.

• A. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)2n
• B. (CH2O)2n and Cn(H2O)n
• C. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)n-1✓
• D. (CH2O)n-1 and Cn(H2O)n+1

Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple sugars. They have the general formula (CH2O)n, where "n" is the whole number from three to many thousands. Polysaccharides are formed by monosaccharide units bound together by glycosidic linkage. The general formula for polysaccharides is Cn(H2O)n-1.

Q69. The stage of plasmodium life cycle not related to human body is:

• A. Merozoite
• B. Ookinetes
• C. Trophozoites
• D. Gametozoites✓

Explanation: The stage of the plasmodium life cycle not related to the human body is Gametozoite. This can be explained below diagram.

Q70. In protein synthesis the initiator tRNA carrying amino acid methionine land on which site of ribosome:

• A. E site
• B. P site✓
• C. A site
• D. C site

Explanation: In protein synthesis, the initiator tRNA molecule carrying chemically modified initial amino acid, methionine (known as N-formyl methionine) binds to a small ribosomal subunit at P-site (peptidyl site) where a peptide bond will form. This binding is controlled by an enzyme called initiation factors (IF1 and IF2).

Q71. Goblets cells are:

• A. Unicellular exocrine gland✓
• B. Unicellular endocrine glands
• C. Multicellular exocrine gland
• D. Multicellular endocrine glands

Explanation: The most common unicellular exocrine glands are the goblet cells (mucus secreting cells) found in the epithelium of the trachea and the digestive tube.

Q72. For defense against virus attack, body produces:

• A. Antibodies
• B. Histamines
• C. Antigens
• D. Interferons✓

Explanation: Interferons are a group of natural proteins that are produced by human cells, they can interfere with viruses that are replicating. Interferon makes antiviral proteins, which block virus reproduction.

Q73. Short life cycle is a plant adaptation to survive in:

• A. High temperature
• B. Low temperature✓
• C. High soil 𝑝H
• D. Low soil 𝑝H

Explanation: Plants growing in low temperatures may suffer from ill effects. To manage low temperatures, they possess well-developed bark for protection and short life cycles. Such plants bring changes in the composition of solutes in the cell to prevent ice crystal formation. The leaves and stems are hard to withstand low temperatures. Most of them possess scale leaves and the rate of transpiration is low to retard cooling.

Q74. Baroceptors are the sensors in body responsible for determination of:

• A. Blood Glucose
• B. Blood Ammonia
• C. Blood 𝑝H
• D. Blood flow✓

Explanation: Baroreceptors are mechanoreceptors located in blood vessels near the heart that provide the brain with information about blood volume and pressure, by detecting the level of stretch on vascular walls.

Q75. Three words are shown below: Isomorphic sporophyte gametophyte These words can be used in the spaces P, Q, and R to complete the sentence below. Thallus in Ulva is of two types. The one with 26 chromosomes is called ..P… and the other with 13 chromosomes is called ..Q..Morphologically both gametophyte and sporophyte are exactly alike hence called ..R..

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Sporophyte is diploid(2n), gametophyte is haploid(n). Since in the sentence above, P corresponds to 26 chromosomes which is a diploid number, considering the chromosome number mentioned later in the sentence. P is thus sporophyte and Q is gametophyte. Only option B has this P and Q place under these correct heading, hence are our answers. As the name suggests “isomorphic” means the same morphology.

Q76. The primary oocyte in mammals has which of the following structures around it:

• A. Zona Pellucida✓
• B. Zona Vasculosa
• C. Zona radiata
• D. None of them

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q77. Among the following, which acid is an unsaturated acid:

• A. Butyric Acid
• B. Oleic Acid✓
• C. Palmitic Acid
• D. Both Oleic Acid and Palmitic Acid

Explanation: •A saturated fatty acid is one that lacks double bonds. Animal fat is commonly composed of saturated fatty acids. They are solid at room temperature. •Unsaturated fatty acid is one that has one or more double bonds in them. They are commonly found in plants and exist in liquid form at room temperature. Oleic acid has a double bond between C9 and C10, making it unsaturated.

Q78. Backbone of amino acids comprises of

• A. R group
• B. Amino group
• C. Carboxylic group
• D. Amino group, carboxylic group, hydrogen atom and R group.✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Amino acids are molecules that combine to form proteins. Each amino acid contains an amino group,a carboxylic group,an r group and a hydrogen atom which is attached to the central alpha carbon. All of them form the basic skeleton of amino acids.

Q79. What is the subunit of DNA

• A. Phosphoric Acid
• B. Base
• C. Nucleotide✓
• D. Sugar

Explanation: A nucleotide is the basic building block of nucleic acids(DNA and RNA). •It is composed of pentose sugar,phosphate and a nitrogenous base. •The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are Adenine,Guanine,Cytosine and Thymine. Options A,B and D are incorrect because all of them are subunits of the nucleotide itself,not DNA.

Q80. The type of bonding in 𝛼-Helix;

• A. 1,2 Glycosidic Linkage
• B. Ionic Bond
• C. Disulfide Bond
• D. Hydrogen Bond✓

Explanation: The alpha helix is basically found in secondary protein structures. •It is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen of one amino acid to the amino group of the second amino acid. •Ionic bonds are formed when a positively charged ion forms a bond with a negatively charged ion,one atom transfers the electron to the other one. For Example:Bond between sodium and chlorine. •A disulphide bond is a covalent bond between 2 sulfur atoms (-S-S-). Example:Cysteine,one of the 20 amino acids contains this kind of linkage. •Hydrogen bond is formed when a hydrogen atom forms a bond with a highly electronegative atom (N,O,F). For Example:Bonding between H2O molecules,HF etc. •1,2-Glycosidic linkage is found in sucrose which is a carbohydrate,but alpha helix is included in proteins.

Q81. Enzymes have what effect on the end-product?

• A. They alter the product
• B. The nature of the product is completely changed
• C. No effect✓
• D. The end product is not obtained

Explanation: Enzymes are biocatalysts that speed up chemical reactions by lowering activation energy. Due to this, the products are formed at a faster rate.But enzymes only affect the rate of reaction without being used up, they can't alter the structure of the final product.Options A, B, and C are incorrect because enzymes function as a catalyst only in biochemical reactions.

Q82. Which one of the following is not a draught animal?

• A. Buffalo
• B. Mule
• C. Elephant✓
• D. Yak

Explanation: Draught animals are used for agricultural tasks like carrying heavy weighted objects or loads. So, the elephant is not used for such agricultural activities.

Q83. Which of the following is not isotonic to sea water?

• A. Myxine
• B. Skates
• C. Sharks
• D. Teleost✓

Explanation: Marine teleosts are hypoosmotic to seawater, so they face osmotic loss of water and diffusional gain of NaCl across the gill.

Q84. Which of the following is not the part of first line of defense?

• A. Sebum
• B. Perspiration
• C. Interferon✓
• D. Epidermis

Explanation: The first line of defense is formed by external barriers, such as skin and mucous membranes. The second line of defense is provided by phagocytes, natural killer cells, antimicrobial proteins, and inflammatory response. Important antimicrobial proteins include lysozyme, complement proteins, and interferons. Interferons are small proteins, secreted by virally infected cell lymphocytes. They create anti-viral resistance in healthy uninfected body cells. The adaptive immune system forms the third line of defense of the body. It depends on two types of lymphocytes called B-cells and T-cells.

Q85. Which one of the following is not an insect?

• A. Ticks✓
• B. Honey bee
• C. Beetle
• D. Wasp

Explanation: Ticks are not insects because they are arachnids.

Q86. Blood group A negative can be donated to:

• A. O negative
• B. O positive
• C. A positive✓
• D. B positive

Explanation: If you have A negative blood you can donate to anyone with a blood type of A or AB regardless of the positive or negative. So only option C is consistent with this statement.

Q87. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) contains 40.92% carbon, 4.58% hydrogen and 54.5 % of oxygen by mass. What is the empirical formula of ascorbic acid?

• A. C3H4O3✓
• B. C3H4O6
• C. CH4O3
• D. C6H4O3
• E. C2H5O3

Explanation: The empirical formula is the ratio between the number of atoms of different elements which is present in the molecule of the given compound. Empirical formulas usually give the proportion of the elements present in the molecule of the given compound but not the actual number of the atoms or how the atoms are arranged. Complete step by step answer: If the mass of the compound is given then the empirical formula is calculated by changing the mass of every element to moles and then by dividing every mole value by the lowest value of mole computed and then the value of mole is rounded off to the closest whole number. Given in the question: 100% of vitamin C contains 40.92% carbon by mass, 4.58% hydrogen, and 54.50% oxygen Or we can say that 100 g of vitamin C contains 40.92 g carbon by mass, 4.58 g hydrogen, and 54.50 g oxygen. The atomic mass of carbon = 12 g/mol The atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 g/mol The atomic mass of oxygen = 16 g/mol The number of moles is calculated by the ratio of the given mass to the molar mass. Number of moles of carbon = 40.92\12 = 3.4 mole Number of moles of hydrogen = 4.58\1 = 4.58 mole Number of moles of oxygen = 54.50\16= 3.40 mole The molar ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen is: C:H:O 3.4:4.58:3.4 =3:4:3 C3H4O3 So, the correct answer is “Option A”. Note: If the molecular formula of a compound is given then to calculate the empirical formula from the molecular formula we have to divide all the subscripts in the empirical formula by the simplest whole number. The molecular formula is the actual whole number ratio of the elements present in the molecule of the compound.

Q88. Given the reaction: C3H6 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O At STP, how many litres of O2 are needed to completely burn 5.0 litres of C3H6?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 10.5
• D. 15
• E. 25✓

Explanation: Consider that no. of moles of reactants = the volume of the reactants. As the molar ratio between C3H6 and O2 is 1:5, the volume ratio is also the same. For 1L of C3H6 we need 5L of O2. Since the volume of C3H6 is 5L now, to burn this, we require 25L of O2. All other options are incorrect because they do not follow the exact mole-volume relationship required in this case.

Q89. 2 grams of H2 molecules contain _ molecules.

• A. 12.04 x 1023
• B. 6.02 x 1023✓
• C. 3.01 x 1023
• D. 1.008
• E. 2

Explanation: 1 mole of hydrogen contains = 2×1 = 2g2g of H2 contain = 2/2 × avogadro number = 1 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules.

Q90. If we take 2.2 grams of CO2, 6.02 x 1021 atoms of nitrogen and 0.03-gram atoms of sulfur, then the molar ratio of CO2, N and S atoms will be:

• A. 1:2:5
• B. 5:1:2
• C. 2:5:3
• D. 5:1:3✓

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q91. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is:

• A. ½
• B. 8/9✓
• C. 1/9
• D. 16/17

Explanation: The question can be solved using Dalton's law of partial pressure.

Q92. Solid CO2 dry ice has a structure just like:

• A. Diamond
• B. NaCl
• C. Graphite
• D. None of the above✓

Explanation: Molecular crystals are substances that have relatively weak intermolecular binding, such as dry ice (solidified carbon dioxide), solid forms of noble gases (e.g., argon, krypton, and xenon), and crystals of numerous organic compounds.

Q93. Choose the correct statement:

• A. Ultraviolet radiation from sun causes a reaction that produces ozone✓
• B. Ozone hole is depletion in total amount of O
• C. A single chlorine free radical can destroy 10000 ozone molecules
• D. AII of above

Explanation: Ultraviolet radiations cause photochemical splitting of oxygen molecules in the stratosphere. The nascent oxygen combines with molecular oxygen to form ozone. In troposphere nascent oxygen comes from nitrogen dioxide. Option B is incorrect because ozone depletion does not reduce the amount of oxygen atoms, however it reduces the amount of ozone (O3) by converting it to oxygen gas O2. Option C is incorrect because a single chloride free radical can destroy upto 100,000 ozone molecules.

Q94. The compression factor (compressibility factor) for one mole of a Van der Waals gas at 00 C and 100 atmosphere pressure is found to be 0.5. Assuming that the volume of gas molecule is negligible, calculate the Van der Waals constant 'a'.

• A. 1.254✓
• B. 2.87
• C. 3.76
• D. 1.34

Explanation: This is the following solution.

Q95. The relative abundance of isotopes of elements are measured by?

• A. Atomic Spectroscopy
• B. Ionic Spectroscopy
• C. Mass Spectroscopy
• D. Mass Spectrometry✓

Explanation: Atomic spectroscopy is a technique used to study the interaction of electromagnetic radiation with atoms. There is no such thing as "ionic spectroscopy" as a distinct technique or field of study. Mass spectroscopy isn't a term The relative abundance of isotopes is measured by using mass spectrometry. Mass spectrometry is a technique used to determine the molecular weight and elemental composition of a sample by measuring the mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) of ions in the sample

Q96. Limiting reactant controls the amount of _ ?

• A. reactant
• B. products✓
• C. both A & B
• D. none of these

Explanation: The limiting reactant, also known as the limiting reagent, is the reactant that is completely consumed or exhausted first in a chemical reaction. It determines the maximum amount of product that can be formed in the reaction. The limiting reactant controls the amount of products that can be produced because once it is consumed, the reaction cannot proceed further. The other reactants may still be present, but they cannot participate in the reaction without the limiting reactant.

Q97. A sample of 0.7 moles of metal 'M' reacts completely with an excess of fluorine to form 45 g of MF2. How many moles of F are present in it?

• A. 1.4 moles✓
• B. 2.4 moles
• C. 2 moles
• D. 1.2 moles

Explanation: 1 mole of metal formed one mole of MF2 molecule ∴ 0.7 mole of metal formed = 0.7 mole MF2 molecule ∵ Each molecule of MF2 contains = 2 F atoms ∴ 0.7 mole of MF2 molecule contains = 2 x 0.7 moles of F atom = 1.4 mole of F atom Hence, 45 g of MF2 molecule contains 1.4 moles 'F' atom.

Q98. The total number of neutrons in 5g of H2O are: 1 NA = 6.023 x 1023

• A. 25 NA
• B. 1.1 NA
• C. 2.5 NA✓
• D. 0.5 NA

Explanation: The Protium (hydrogen isotope) does not have any neutrons. We assume a deuterium isotope that has one neutron. Molar mass of H2O (deuterium) = 2× 2 + 16 = 20 Number of neutrons in 1 H2O (deuterium) molecule = 1×2+8 = 10No. of moles of deuterium in 5g = 5/20 = ¼ NA No. of neutrons in 5g = 1/4 NA ×10 = 2.5 NAThis is numerical so it can only have one answer so option C is correct

Q99. If 9.8 g of sulfuric acid is dissolved in excess quantity of water, it will yield _ moles of hydrogen ion (H+) and _ moles of sulphate ions (SO42-).

• A. 0.1, 0.2
• B. 0.1, 0.3
• C. 0.2, 0.4
• D. 0.2, 0.1✓

Explanation: Mr (H2SO4) = 2(1) + 32 + 4 (16) = 98g.mol-1 n(H2SO4)= 9.8/98= 0.1 n(H+ ) = 2 x0.1 = 0.2 n(SO4) = 0.1 x 1= 0.1

Q100. Which of the following is the electronic configuration of Potassium(K) Atomic number= 19K?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3s2, 3d1
• C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d5
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1✓
• E. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d10

Explanation: Option D is the correct option because this is the only option that has 19 electrons by adding manually.

Q101. The difference between soft and hard X-rays is of:

• A. Velocity
• B. Intensity
• C. Frequency✓
• D. Polarization

Explanation: The penetrating power of X− rays depends upon their wavelength, which depends upon frequency. The frequency of the longer wavelength X− rays are lower and so their energy is smaller. Hence, their penetrating power is weaker and they are called soft X− rays. While the penetrating power of the shorter wavelength X− rays is stronger and they are called hard or highly penetrating X− rays.

Q102. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate is/are:

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2✓
• D. 3
• E. 4

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in a single orbital is two. The maximum number of electrons an orbital can accommodate is 2. As in an orbital two electrons can never have the same values of all 4 quantum no.s according to Pauli’s exclusion principle. So to follow this rule, an orbital can accommodate 2 electrons only.

Q103. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. Faraday's experiment proved the existence of electrons
• B. Crookes tube experiment shows the presence of electrons and protons in the atoms
• C. Radioactivity confirms the presence of electrons and protons
• D. Chadwick experiment shows the presence of neutrons✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Chadwick bombarded a sample of beryllium with alpha particles and observed a new form of radiation that was not affected by electric fields. He concluded that this radiation consisted of neutral particles, which he named neutrons. Neutrons have no electric charge but have a mass similar to protons.

Q104. "In an atom no two electrons can have the same set of four Quantum numbers" is stated by:

• A. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
• B. Aufbau Principle
• C. Pauli's Exclusion principle✓
• D. Hund's Rule
• E. (n+1) Rule

Explanation: The set of numbers used to describe the position and energy of the electron in an atom are called quantum numbers. There are four quantum numbers namely, principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin quantum numbers. Pauli's exclusion principle states that in an atom no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers. Let us take example of electrons in Helium, both have all quantum numbers same except spin quantum number, one is clockwise and other is anti-clockwise.

Q105. The electronic configuration of iron is:

• A. 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d5 , 4s2
• B. 1s2, 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d5, 4s1
• C. 1s2 , 2s2, 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d6 , 4s2✓
• D. 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d3 , 4s2
• E. 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d2, 4s2

Explanation: Number of electrons in iron are 26,so the electronic configuration will be: 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6, 3s2 , 3p6 , 3d6 , 4s2.

Q106. Which of the following gas is more ideal at STP?

• A. SO2
• B. NH3
• C. H2✓
• D. H2S

Explanation: In order to understand the answer to this question, we first need to address the definition of an ideal gas:Hydrogen is the closest to ideal gases because it has the least amount of excluded volume (thereby bringing its molar volume close to that of an ideal gas), and the weakest intermolecular attractions. (Refer to bullet points 1 and 2 above)Bear in mind that the smaller the atomic number, the weaker the London dispersion forces, and by extension the intermolecular interactions.H2 has the smallest molecular mass amongst the options given.

Q107. Which one is not related to evaporation?

• A. Continuous
• B. Endothermic
• C. Exothermic✓
• D. Spontaneous

Explanation: The molecules are absorbing heat, evaporation is called endothermic. Remember, endo means “to enter” while thermic means “heat.”So automatically, you choose the opposite of endothermic i.e. Exothermic.

Q108. How many balloons of capacity 0.25dm3 at 1atm pressure can be filled from a hydrogen gas cylinder of 5dm3 capacity at 10 atm?

• A. 50
• B. 90
• C. 180
• D. 200✓

Explanation: We will use Boyle's law for the relationship between volume and pressure. PV = k Where : P = Pressure V = Volume k = Constant Lets get PV for each : Balloon : 0.25 × 1 = 0.25...... k₁ Gas cylinder : 5 × 10 = 50......... k₂ To get the number n of the balloons the cylinder can supply we get : k₂ / k₁ = n 50 / 0.25 = 200 The answer is 200 balloons.

Q109. A crystal system having all sides (a, b and c) unequal and angles α = β = γ = 90 is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Rhombohedral
• C. Orthorhombic✓
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: This is the following solution.

Q110. Half atmospheric pressure is:

• A. 400 torr
• B. 50622 Pa✓
• C. 101.3 Pa
• D. 8.5 pounds

Explanation: Atmospheric pressure on sea level is 101,325 Pa/760 torr/14.7 pounds per inch. Half atmospheric pressure will be 50622 Pa/380 torr/7.35 pounds per inch. The closest to these values is option B, which is the correct option.

Q111. The value of S.T.P for 1 mole of any ideal gas is:

• A. 273.16 K and 1 atm✓
• B. 0oC & 1 mm Hg
• C. 273.16oC & 1 atm
• D. 0 K & 1 atm

Explanation: The standard temperature and pressure are 273.16K (0oC) and 1 atm. All the remaining options are incorrect.

Q112. The expression PV = nRT represents the:

• A. Dalton’s Law
• B. Avogadro’s Law
• C. General gas equation✓
• D. Van der Waals equation

Explanation: PV=nRT is a General gas equation for an ideal gas equation. Avagadro’s law is V1n2=V2n1, Dalton’s law is Ptotal=P1+P2+P3…, Van der Waal equation is (P+V2an2)(V−nb)=nRT.

Q113. The maximum possible number of electrons a shell 'n' can accommodate is given by:

• A. n
• B. n2
• C. 2n2✓
• D. n3
• E. 3n2

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons that can be in a shell is 2n2.

Q114. The radii of the second orbit of the hydrogen atom calculated from Bohr's model is:

• A. 0.529 Å
• B. 4.8 Å
• C. 2.116 Å✓
• D. 3.4 Å
• E. 1 Å

Explanation: R = 0.529 0.529 x n2/z 0.529 x 4Å 2.116 Å

Q115. The amount of energy released by absorbing an electron in the valence shell is:

• A. Ionization Energy
• B. Electron Affinity✓
• C. Electronegativity
• D. Atomic Radius
• E. Atomisation Energy

Explanation: Electron affinity is defined as the amount of energy released when an electron is added to the valence shell of a gaseous, neutral, and isolated atom.

Q116. For a multi-electron atom, the highest energy level among the following is:

• A. n = 5, l = 0, m = 0 , s = + ½
• B. n= 4 , l = 0 , m = 0 , s = - ½
• C. n= 3 , l = 1, m = 1 , s = - ½
• D. n= 5 , l = 1 , m = 0 , s = + ½✓

Explanation: Higher the n + l value higher is the energy. If the n+ l value is same then for higher energy is corresponds to the greater n value orbital.

Q117. The thermal energy at constant pressure is called:

• A. Enthalpy✓
• B. Internal Energy
• C. Heat capacity
• D. Work done

Explanation: Chemical reactions are generally carried out at constant pressure (atmospheric pressure) and the heat of reaction at constant pressure is called Enthalpy (H) as shown by the equation: H = U + PV where H is the Enthalpy, U is the internal energy of the system, P is the Pressure which is to be held constant, and V is the volume.

Q118. Born Haber cycle is used to determine:

• A. Electron affinity
• B. Lattice energy
• C. Crystal energy
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: As we know that the electron affinity can be calculated by using Born Haber cycle.Lattice energy can be calculated by using Born Haber cycle.Crystal energy can be calculated by using Born Haber cycle.Born Haber cycle is used to determine the electron affinity, lattice energy and crystal energy.According to the above discussion, we conclude Born Haber cycle is used to determine the electron affinity, lattice energy and crystal energy.Hence, the option D is the correct answer. Because all the options match with the question.

Q119. CH3Cl + Cl2 ----> CH2Cl2 + HCl is an example of ?

• A. Oxidation reduction
• B. Addition reaction
• C. Substitution reaction✓
• D. Autoxidation reaction
• E. Reduction reaction

Explanation: The above reaction is an example of chlorination. Chlorination is the substitution of hydrogen atoms by chlorine.atom.The conditions used in this process are U.V light or diffused light or 400C.

Q120. In the reaction 2Fe+Cl2 <-> 2FeCl3

• A. Fe is reduced
• B. Fe is oxidized✓
• C. Cl2 oxidized
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The Oxidation state of iron(Fe) is changed from "0" to "+3". Hence it is oxidised.

Q121. The process in which electric current is used to carry out a non-spontaneous redox reaction is called:

• A. Electrolyte
• B. Electrolysis✓
• C. Metallic conductor
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Electrolysis is a process by which an electric current is passed through a substance to effect a chemical change. A chemical change is one in which the substance loses or gains an electron (oxidation or reduction).

Q122. If we move down the electrochemical series:

• A. Reduction potential will increase✓
• B. Reduction potential will decrease
• C. Oxidizing ability increase
• D. None of them

Explanation: Moving down the electrochemical series, the reduction potential will increase. The electrochemical series, also known as the activity series, is a list of elements or compounds arranged in order of their reduction potentials. Reduction potential is a measure of the tendency of a species to gain electrons and undergo reduction in a redox reaction. In the electrochemical series, elements or compounds higher up in the series have more negative reduction potentials, indicating a lower tendency to gain electrons and be reduced. Conversely, elements or compounds lower down in the series have more positive reduction potentials, indicating a greater tendency to gain electrons and be reduced. As you move down the electrochemical series, the reduction potential increase because the species are mire likely to accept electrons and be reduced. This is due to factors such as increasing atomic size, decreasing electronegativity, and decreasing ionization energy as you move down the series. In summary, as you move down the electrochemical series, the reduction potential increase, indicating an increasing tendency to undergo reduction.

Q123. The overall positive reduction potential value predicts that process is:

• A. Not feasible
• B. Feasible✓
• C. Impossible
• D. No indication

Explanation: The more positive the potential, the greater the species' affinity for electrons, or the more the species tends to be reduced.

Q124. When fused PbBr2 is electrolyzed:

• A. Bromine appears at the cathode
• B. Lead is deposited at the cathode✓
• C. Lead appears at the anode
• D. None of the given options

Explanation: Fused lead bromide undergoes electrolysis which means splitting of ions using electrical energy and movement to ions to respective electrodes. During the electrolysis process, Pb2+ ions gain electrons at the cathode and become Pb atoms.

Q125. The breakdown of a substance with current is:

• A. Thermolysis
• B. Catalysis
• C. Electrolysis✓
• D. Photolysis

Explanation: 'Electrolysis' is the breakdown of a substance with the use of electricity. 'Thermolysis' is the breakdown of a substance using heat energy. 'Photolysis' is the breakdown of a substance using light energy. 'Catalysis' is, however, a misnomer; it is not the term used for the breakdown of a substance rather it implies the speeding up of the reaction rate.

Q126. The number of bond(s) between carbon and nitrogen atoms in a Nitrile is:

• A. One sigma and one pi
• B. Two sigma and one pi
• C. Only sigma
• D. One sigma and two pi✓

Explanation: Both the carbon and the nitrogen are sp hydridized which leaves them both with two p orbitals which overlap to form the two π bond in the triple bond. The bond angle in nitrile is 180° which give a nitrile functional group a linear shape.

Q127. Which of the following reaction has greater Kp than Kc?

• A. 2NO + Cl2 <-> 2NOCl
• B. 2SO2 + O2 <-> 2SO3
• C. 2NOCl <-> 2NO + Cl2✓
• D. N2 + 3H2 <-> 2NH3

Explanation: When the volume of products is greater than the volume of reactants, then Kp> Kc. From the options above, only Option C has more volume of gases at the product side as compared to the reactant side. We concluded this from the mole ratio of the equation which is 3 on the product side against 2 on the reactant side.

Q128. The equation N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g) represents:

• A. Contact process
• B. Haber’s process✓
• C. Solvay process
• D. Avogadro’s Law

Explanation: The Haber process combines nitrogen from the air with hydrogen derived mainly from natural gas (methane) into ammonia. The reaction is reversible and the production of ammonia is exothermic. with ΔH=−92.4kJ/mol. Thus the equation in the question suits the above definition: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g)

Q129. One Calorie is equal to:

• A. 4.18 KJ
• B. 4.18 J✓
• C. 0.418 KJ mol-1
• D. 0.418 KJ

Explanation: 1 cal equals 4.18 J. It is very often confused with 1 Kcal which equals to 4.18 KJ

Q130. For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal:

• A. The values of Kp and Kc are different
• B. The value of Kp is greater than Kc
• C. The value of Kc is greater than Kp
• D. The values of Kp and Kc are the same✓

Explanation: If the difference in n is zero, the Kp = Kc.

Q131. Which of the following values of heat of formation indicates that the product is least stable?

• A. - 94 kcal
• B. + 21.4 kcal
• C. - 231 kcal
• D. + 64.8 kcal✓

Explanation: In the context of heat of formation (ΔH), a negative value indicates that the formation of the compound is exothermic, meaning the compound is more stable compared to its constituent elements in their standard states.So, the least stable compound among the options provided would have the most positive (ΔH) value and option d has the most positive value ,hence that is the correct option.

Q132. The enthalpy of certain reactions at 273 K is -20.75 kJ. The enthalpy of the same reaction at 373 K (if heat capacities of reactants and products are the same) will be:

• A. －20.75 kJ✓
• B. -2075 kJ
• C. Zero
• D. －20.75 x 373/273 kJ

Explanation: As it is provided in the given statement that heat capacities of reactants and products are the same, therefore there will be no energy change in the reaction. By Kirchoff's Rule; ∆Cp=∆H2-H1/T2-T1∆Cp(T2-T1)=∆H2-H1As, ∆Cp= 0 , ∆H2=H1 , therefore;H2= -20.75KJ

Q133. The given diagram shows the enthalpy changes during a chemical reaction.

• A. An endothermic reaction
• B. An exothermic reaction✓
• C. An isothermic process
• D. A non-spontaneous process

Explanation: This diagram shows a reaction in which the reactants are at a greater energy level than the products, indicating that energy is released during the reaction, i.e. change in enthalpy or (H2-H1) would be negative, indicating that it is an exothermic reaction so, option B is correct. Option A describes an endothermic reaction which would have a diagram depicting products, at a higher energy level than the reactants. Option C indicates a process in which the heat energy of the system does not change, but the diagram itself shows a change in enthalpy. Option D cannot be determined from a mere energy diagram as shown.

Q134. What is the measure of activation energy in an endothermic reaction?

• A. The energy of activation of backward reaction is less than that of forward reaction✓
• B. The energy of activation of backward reaction is more that that of forward reaction.
• C. The energy of activation of forward reaction is less than that of backward reaction.
• D. The energy of activation of forward - backward reaction is same.

Explanation: In an endothermic reaction, the activation energy of a forward reaction will always be greater than that of the reverse reaction as can be seen in the diagram given above so, the answer is A which is the activation energy of the reverse reaction being less than that of the forward reaction. Options B and C describe the conditions of an exothermic reaction. Option D would describe a reaction in which the products and reactants are at the same energy level.

Q135. Energy for the endothermic reaction is given a _ value?

• A. Positive✓
• B. Negative
• C. Zero
• D. Neither positive nor negative

Explanation: Endothermic reactions are described as reactions involving an increase in energy levels of the product. So, as the substrate transitions into a product, the energy level increases, and this addition in energy is denoted by a '+' sign.

Q136. Which ion will have a maximum value of the heat of hydration?

• A. Al+3✓
• B. Cs+
• C. Ba+
• D. Mg+2

Explanation: The heat of hydration depends upon the charge to size ratio of the ions. Since the charge of the 'Al ion' is the greatest, it has the maximum hydration energy

Q137. Which of the following condition is constant in Bomb calorimeter?

• A. Pressure
• B. Volume✓
• C. Temperature
• D. All of these

Explanation: A bomb calorimeter is a type of 'constant-volume calorimeter' used in measuring the heat of combustion of a particular reaction.

Q138. Formation of carbon dioxide hinders in calculating the heat of formation of:

• A. CCl4
• B. O3
• C. CO✓
• D. C

Explanation: Because of the formation of the side product, the heat of formation can not be calculated.

Q139. The change in concentration of reactant or product per unit time is called:

• A. Rate constant
• B. Rate of reaction✓
• C. Rate equation
• D. Rate law
• E. Both A & D

Explanation: The change in concentration of reactant or product per unit time is called the rate of reaction.The rate constant is the rate of reaction divided by the concentration of reactants. The Rate law is a mathematical relationship obtained by comparing reaction rates with reactant concentrations.

Q140. Why do electrons have opposite spins when they are in the same orbital?

• A. This condition reduces friction
• B. This condition creates more energy
• C. This condition results in zero magnetism and removes the charge of the electron
• D. This condition results in less repulsion and opposite magnetic fields✓

Explanation: When electrons have opposite spins, their magnetic fields align in opposite directions. This results in less repulsion between the electrons because their opposite spins create opposite magnetic fields, leading to a cancellation of magnetic interactions. As a result, option D is correct.

Q141. A body starts sliding on a rough horizontal surface with a speed of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, find the distance traveled by the body before coming to rest. (g = 10m/s)

• A. 15 m
• B. 25 m✓
• C. 35 m
• D. 40 m
• E. 55 m

Explanation: Given that: v = 10 and u = 0.2 and g = 10 Solution = Using F = μN then, = μmg (here N = mg) So from above (ma = μmg); we got a = μg Now a = 0.2×10 = 2 m/s2Now using equation of motion V2=u2+2as 0 = 10×10 +2×2×s In solving it, we got s = 100/4 = 25 m Hence we get the correct answer.

Q142. Assume that you have two balls of Identical volume, one weighing 2 Newtons and the other 10 Newtons. Both are falling freely after being released from the same point simultaneously. Which of the following will then be true: I. The 10 N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2 N ball II. At the end of the 4s of freefall, the 10 N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2 N ball III. At the end of the 4s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2 N ball IV. The 10 N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2 N ball

• A. I, Il and Ill only
• B. I and II only
• C. II and IV only✓
• D. IV only
• E. None of these

Explanation: Acceleration of free fall acts equally on all masses, this is why both objects despite having different masses have the same speed at any point in time. Statement II is correct because two objects have the same velocity but one having 5 times more mass than the other will have 5 times more momentum than the other object. Statement IV is also correct because inertia depends upon mass since a 10N ball has a higher mass it will have greater inertia. Statement III is wrong because objects have different masses so their kinetic energy can not be the same. Statement I is wrong because objects accelerate irrespective of their masses as mentioned before.

Q143. At the instant the traffic light turns green, an automobile starts with a constant acceleration a of 2.1 m/s2. At the same instant a truck, traveling with a constant speed of 9.2 m/s, overtakes and passes the automobile. How far beyond the traffic signal will the automobile overtake the truck?

• A. 40 m
• B. 30 m
• C. 90 m
• D. 120 m
• E. 80.6 m✓

Explanation: Correct option is 80.6 m i.e. option E.

Q144. A ball of mass m moving with a horizontal velocity v strikes the bob of a pendulum at rest. Mass of the bob of the pendulum is also m. During this collision the ball sticks with the bob of the pendulum. The height to which the combined mass rises:

• A. v2/g
• B. v2/2g
• C. v2/4g
• D. v2/8g✓
• E. v2/7g

Explanation: The explanation is given below;

Q145. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed V1 and the second half with a speed V2. Find the average speed during the whole journey:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: Average Velocity = 2V1V2/(V1+V2) Let the total distance be x. So time is taken to cover first half =(x/2)/v1=x/(2v1) Time taken to cover second half=(x/2)/v2=x/(2v2) Now average velocity=Total Distance/Total time = x/((x/2v1)+(x/2v2)) = 2v1v2/v1+v2

Q146. In an astronomical telescope, the lens called eyepiece forms an image of a distant object that is:

• A. Real and diminished
• B. Real and magnified
• C. Virtual and diminished
• D. Virtual and magnified✓

Explanation: An astronomical telescope is an optical instrument which is used to see the magnified image of distant heavenly bodies. The final image formed by an astronomical telescope is always virtual, inverted and magnified.

Q147. If the volume of a gas is fixed then on increasing its temperature, its pressure_

• A. Gets negligible
• B. Gets constant
• C. Rises✓
• D. Falls

Explanation: Gay-Lussac's Law. This law states that the pressure of a given amount of gas held at constant volume is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature. With an increase in temperature, the pressure will go up.

Q148. Which of the following is not a base unit in the SI system?

• A. Ampere
• B. Second
• C. Meter per second✓
• D. Candela

Explanation: Meter per second is not a base unit itself it comprises of two base units which are metres and seconds.

Q149. The force which will accelerate a 25 kg mass at 98 cm/s2 on a smooth horizontal plane is:

• A. 200 Newton
• B. 1950 Newton
• C. 19.6 Newton
• D. 24.5 Newton✓
• E. 1960 Newton

Explanation: F=maF=(25 kg)(98/100 m/s2)F=24.5 N

Q150. When photons are incident on a metal, electrons are emitted. The process is called:

• A. Photoelectric effect✓
• B. Pair production
• C. X-ray production
• D. Gamma ray production
• E. Radioactive capture

Explanation: Photoelectric effect, a phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

Q151. At every point of the trajectory of projectile, which of the following quantities is always zero?

• A. Horizontal velocity
• B. Total velocity
• C. Vertical accelaration
• D. Horizontal acceleration✓

Explanation: Projectile motion can be analyzed by breaking it down into horizontal and vertical components. In the absence of air resistance, the horizontal velocity of a projectile remains constant throughout its trajectory, and there is no horizontal acceleration. The vertical motion of a projectile is affected by gravity, so there is a constant vertical acceleration throughout the motion. However, at the highest point of the trajectory, the vertical velocity of the projectile becomes zero before changing direction and starting to move downward. Therefore, neither the vertical velocity nor the total velocity is always zero throughout the trajectory. Thus, the only quantity that is always zero throughout the projectile's trajectory is the horizontal acceleration.

Q152. At the highest point of trajectory, which of the following quantities is zero?

• A. Horizontal velocity
• B. Total velocity
• C. Vertical velocity✓
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: The vertical velocity component of a projectile is 0 at a maximum height due to the action of acceleration due to gravity which acts in the direction opposite to that of the velocity and reduces its values constantly. Hence, C is the correct option

Q153. Which of the given motion is a type of 2D motion

• A. Circular
• B. Pendulum motion
• C. Projectile motion
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Option A : Circular motion is 2D motion . Option B : Motion of Pendulum is 2D motion . Option C : Projectile motion is 2D motion . All of the following are projectile motions. So , we will choose option D i.e all option are correct .Option : D All the given motions are 2D motions . Circular, pendulum as well as projectile motion are 2D motion . So , all of these are correct.

Q154. A projectile is launched with vertical kinetic energy, K at an angle of 8˚. Its variation with kinetic energy KO is?

• A. Parabolic✓
• B. Periodic
• C. Hyperbolic trajectory
• D. Linear

Explanation: Projectile motion is parabolic because the vertical position of the object is influenced only by a constant acceleration, and also because horizontal velocity is generally constant. Put simply, basic projectile motion is parabolic because of its related equation of motion.

Q155. The projectile motion of an object on earth is always _.

• A. Linear
• B. Parabolic✓
• C. Cubic
• D. Inverse

Explanation: A projectile’s motion is parabolic because it is affected by gravity. Gravity causes the projectile to fall in a curved path, rather than a straight line. The equation for projectile motion takes into account the force of gravity, which is why the path of a projectile is always a parabola.

Q156. When a source is moving towards a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency will be:

• A. Greater than the original frequency✓
• B. Remains the same as that of original frequency
• C. Smaller than the original frequency
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Option A: The apparent change in frequency will be greater than the original frequency when a source is moving towards a stationary observer. This is because the waves from the source are compressed as they approach the observer, which increases the frequency of the waves. The opposite is true when the source is moving away from the observer. In that case, the waves are stretched out, which decreases the frequency of the waves. This is known as the Doppler effect. It is a phenomenon that occurs when there is a relative motion between a source of waves and an observer. The Doppler effect can be observed with sound waves, light waves, and other waves. Option B: This is not possible. The frequency of the waves from the source will always change when there is a relative motion between the source and the observer. The only way that the frequency of the waves would remain the same is if the source and the observer were moving at the same speed in the same direction. Optio C: This is possible. When a source is moving away from a stationary observer, the waves from the source are stretched out as they move away from the observer, which decreases the frequency of the waves. This is known as the redshift. The redshift is a phenomenon that occurs when there is a relative motion between a source of waves and an observer, and the source is moving away from the observer. The redshift can be observed with light waves, and it is used to measure the expansion of the universe. Option D: This is not possible. The frequency of the waves from the source will always change when there is a relative motion between the source and the observer. The only way that the frequency of the waves would not change is if the source and the observer were not moving relative to each other.

Q157. If the waves interfere constructively, the amplitude of the resulting wave would be:

• A. Less than either of the individual waves
• B. Greater than either of the individual waves✓
• C. Equal to the shortest of the individual waves
• D. Equal to the greatest of the individual waves

Explanation: Constructive interference occurs when the maxima of two waves add together (the two waves are in phase), so that the amplitude of the resulting wave is equal to the sum of the individual amplitudes. Equivalently, the minima of the waves would be aligned.

Q158. If a compressible medium has bulk modulus denoted by B and density denoted by P, then a Newton's formula for the speed of sound in a medium is _.

• A. V = √ B / p✓
• B. V = √ B p
• C. V = B / p
• D. V = √ p / B

Explanation: This is factual recall v= √B/p

Q159. Laplace's correction to Newton’s formula is based on the fact that the compressions and rarefactions occur as _.

• A. Adiabatic process✓
• B. Isothermal process
• C. Isochoric process
• D. Isobaric process

Explanation: Newton assumed that the pressure–volume changes that occur when a sound wave travels through the gas are isothermal. Laplace was subsequently able to obtain agreement between theory and experiment by assuming that pressure–volume changes are adiabatic.

Q160. The object oscillates due to:

• A. a restoring force✓
• B. its weight
• C. centripetal force
• D. force of friction

Explanation: An object in such motion oscillates about an equilibrium position due to a restoring force or torque. Such force or torque tends to restore (return) the system toward its equilibrium position no matter in which direction the system is displaced.

Q161. If f1 and f2 are frequencies of two tuning forks, such that f1 < f2, then number of beats produced in one second are:

• A. f2 - f1✓
• B. f2 x f1
• C. f1 - f2
• D. f2 + f1

Explanation: If the two waves are in phase t=0, they will be in phase when the first wave has gone through exactly one more cycle than the second. This will happen at a time t=T, the period of the beat.Let n be the number of cycles of the first wave in time T, then the number of cycles of the second wave at the same time is (n-1). Hence, T = Nt1 = (n-1)T1.

Q162. A steel wire hangs vertically from a fixed point, supporting a weight of 80 N at its lower end. The diameter of the wire is 0.50 mm and its length from the fixed point to the weight is 1.5 m. If density of steel wire = 7.8 x 103 kg/m3, then what is the fundamental frequency emitted from the wire.

• A. 76 Hz✓
• B. 176 Hz
• C. 50 Hz
• D. 150 Hz

Explanation: Tension acting on the wire is T = 80 N, length of wire from the fixed point to the weight is L = 1.5 m. We know, density of steel is ρ = 7800 kg/m³, so the linear mass density of steel wire, μ = ρ A = 7800 kg/m³ × π(0.50 × 10⁻³ m)²/4 m² = 1.53 × 10⁻³ kg/m.

Q163. A wire has a spring constant of 5 x 104 N m-1. It is stretched by a force to extension of 1.4 mm. Calculate the strain energy stored in the wire.

• A. 4.9 x 10-5 J
• B. 4.9 x 10-2 J✓
• C. 4.9 J
• D. 4.9 x 10-3 J

Explanation: Strain energy = 1/2 x Spring constant Extension2Extension = 1.4 x 10-3mUsing the equation above strain energy can be calculated

Q164. When the length of simple pendulum is doubled, the ratio of its new time period to old time period is:

• A. 3√2
• B. 1√2
• C. 2√2
• D. √2✓

Explanation: Using this formula, we see that doubling length results in multiplying time period with √2.

Q165. In simple harmonic motion, acceleration will be maximum, when object is at:

• A. Maximum displacement from the mean position✓
• B. Center position
• C. Half of the maximum displacement from mean position
• D. Mean position

Explanation: When displacement is maximum, acceleration will be maximum. The displacement and acceleration are related by the equation, a= -w2x, where 'a' (acceleration) and 'x' (displacement) are propotional.

Q166. Simple Harmonic Motion of a body is described by which statements mentioned below: K : K.E is maximum when displacement x = 0 L : P.E is maximum when x = 0 M : P.E is maximum when x = ± x0

• A. K and L
• B. K and M✓
• C. K, L and M
• D. L and M

Explanation: At the mean position, the velocity of the particle in S.H.M. is maximum and displacement is minimum, that is, x=0. Therefore, P.E. =1/2 K x 2 = 0 and K.E. = 1/2 k(a2 – x2) = 1/2 k(a2 – o2) = 1/2 ka2. Thus, the total energy in simple harmonic motion is purely kinetic and KE is max at x=0At maximum displacement, the body has 0 velocity and hence it has max PE when x = ± x0.

Q167. If the time period of the oscillation is 20 micro-sec, then what will be the frequency of that oscillating body?

• A. 5000 Hz
• B. 50000 Hz✓
• C. 20000 Hz
• D. 1000 Hz

Explanation: T=1/F T=1/20×10-6 F = 50000 Hz.

Q168. In SHM the kinetic energy of the body is maximum when:

• A. The body is at mean position✓
• B. The body is at extreme position from the mean
• C. The body is exactly half way down between mean and extreme position
• D. The body is somewhere between mean and extreme position

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, there is a continuous interchange of kinetic energy and potential energy. At maximum displacement from the equilibrium point, potential energy is a maximum while kinetic energy is zero. At the equilibrium point (mean position) the potential energy is zero and the kinetic energy is a maximum.

Q169. A wave passes through a medium; each particle of the medium performs 100 complete vibrations in 5 seconds. What is the frequency of the wave?

• A. 2 Hz
• B. 20 Hz✓
• C. 4 Hz
• D. 40 Hz

Explanation: Vibrations = 100Time = 5 sFrequency = vibrations/time = 100/5 = 20 HzHence, option B is the correct option.

Q170. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration is

• A. =g✓
• B. =0
• C. =2g
• D. =g/2

Explanation: At the top of the trajectory, the velocity of the projectile is zero but the acceleration is still directed downward and is equal to the acceleration due to gravity that is 9.8 m/s2.

Q171. A body of mass 5 kg, projected at an angle of 45° from the ground covers a horizontal range of 45 m. The acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s^2. What is the velocity with which it was projected?

• A. 22.5 m/s
• B. 20 m/s
• C. 19.8 m/s
• D. 21.21 m/s✓

Explanation: Explanation is given below.

Q172. A plane with its engines off is moving with speed v at a height of h in the horizontal direction. The time taken to reach the ground is:

• A. √(2u/g)
• B. None of these
• C. √(2g/u)
• D. √(2h/g)✓

Explanation: The formula for calculating the time of the flight is: √(2h/g)

Q173. If a wave can be polarized, it means, it is:

• A. Longitudinal wave
• B. Stationary wave
• C. Superimposed wave
• D. Transverse wave✓

Explanation: Only transverse waves can be polarised. Longitudinal waves cannot be polarised. Transverse: vibrations perpendicular to the direction of travel of the wave. Longitudinal: vibrations parallel to the direction of travel of the wave. Sound waves are longitudinal so they cannot be polarised. Polarised: the wave vibrations occur in one plane only Unpolarised: the wave vibrations occur in all planes perpendicular to the direction of travel. The reason that only transverse waves can be polarised is that their vibrations can potentially occur in all directions perpendicular to the direction of travel. It is therefore possible to confine the vibrations to a single plane. Or put another way an unpolarised transverse wave is a 3D shape, it is therefore possible to confine it to a 2D shape (a plane). The vibrations of a longitudinal wave occur along a single line, it is therefore not possible to confine that to a plane, i.e. a 1D shape cannot be confined within a 2D shape. Similarly, Stationary waves and superimposed waves can not be polarised as they are along a single line. VIDEO EXPLANATION

Q174. What is true about the electric field and electric force?

• A. Electric field lines are towards negative and electron flow in same direction
• B. Electric field lines are towards positive and electron flow in opposite direction
• C. Electric field lines are towards the negative and electrons flow in the opposite direction.✓
• D. Electric field lines are positive and electrons flow in the same direction.

Explanation: Electric field lines always point away from a positive charge and towards a negative point. In fact, electric fields originate at a positive charge and terminate at a negative charge.This shows that OPTION B and D ARE INCORRECT. Electrons flow from lower potential terminal to higher potential terminal being negatively charged particles it flows from negative to positive poles hence it is the opposite direction as the electric field.So,OPTION C is incorrect.

Q175. If the amplitude is 200, the intensity is 300 When the amplitude is increased to 800 then what will be the intensity?

• A. 1200
• B. 1400
• C. 1600
• D. 1800
• E. 4800✓

Explanation: We know that The intensity of a wave is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude Mathematically -> I x a2 Here I = intensity a = amplitude According to the question, we are asked to find the new intensity given that If the amplitude is 200, the intensity is 300. When the amplitude is increased to 800 Hence I = 300 a = 200 a' = 800 Increase in amplitude (A) -> A = a'/a Hence -> A = 800/200 On further simplification We get -> A = 4 Increase in amplitude (squared) -> A2 = 42 -> A2 = 16 Amplitude squared increases by a factor of 16 -> I' = I x A2 Here I' = new intensity I = initial intensity A² = squared amplitude factor If the amplitude is 200, the intensity is 300. When the amplitude is increased to 800.Hence I = 300 We found out that A² = 16 Substituting the values -> I' = 300 x 16 On further simplification -> I' = 4800 Hence New intensity = 4800 When the amplitude is increased to 800 then the intensity will be 4800.

Q176. If, the speed of waves is 10m/sec and its frequency is 5Hz. Find its wavelength.

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 4
• D. 6

Explanation: V=F λ λ = v/f λ =10/5 λ = 2m

Q177. The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:

• A. Heat energy into chemical energy
• B. Chemical energy Into electrical energy✓
• C. Solar energy into electrical energy
• D. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

Explanation: The chemical energy stored in the battery is converted to electrical energy that derives the flow of electrical charges in the circuit.

Q178. The deviation of I-V graph from straight line is due to:

• A. Decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance
• B. Increase in temperature and increase in resistance✓
• C. Decrease in temperature and increase in resistance
• D. Increase in temperature and decrease in resistance

Explanation: At a higher value of current, sufficient heat is produced which raises the temperature of the resistor and causes an increase in resistance.

Q179. A copper wire has resistances 10 ohms and 20 ohms at temperature 0 C and 10 C respectively. What is the temperature coefficient of the copper wire?

• A. 0.1 K-1✓
• B. 0.02 K-1
• C. 0.01 K-1
• D. 0.2 K-1

Explanation: You can solve the question using following solution:

Q180. Two capacitors C1 = 2μF and C2 = 4μF, are connected in series across a 100 V supply. Find the effective capacitance:

• A. ½ μF
• B. 3/2 μF
• C. 5/2 μF
• D. 4/3 μF✓
• E. 2 μF

Explanation: 1/C=1/C1+1/C2 1/C=½ +¼ 1/C=¾ C=4/3. The effective capacitance is therefore 4/3 μF

Q181. An electron is situated midway between two parallel plates 0.5 cm apart. One of the plates is maintained at a potential of 60 volts above the other. The force on the electron is: (e = -1.6x10-19C)

• A. 1.82x10-15 N
• B. 3.00x10-16 N
• C. 1.92x10-15 N✓
• D. 3.00x10-15 N
• E. 5.00x10-15 N

Explanation: This is the following solution for the above question: Given: d=0.5cm=0.005m V=0.6V e=-1.6x10-19C F=? Solution: As, E=v/d =60/0.005 =12,000 V/m So, E=12,000V/m Now, E=F/e F=eE F=(12,000V/m)(1.6x10-19C) So, F=1.92x10-15N

Q182. A current of 4.4 amperes is following in a write. How many electrons pass a given point in the wire in one second, if the charge on an electron is 1.6x10-19 Coulomb?

• A. 1.5 x 1019 electrons
• B. 2.75 x1019 electrons✓
• C. 3.25 x1019 electrons
• D. 2.75 x 1015 electrons
• E. 3.25 x 1017 electrons

Explanation: 4.4 Amperes means that 4.4 coulomb of charge passes through the conductor in one second.1e contains 1.6x10-19 C , so 4.4 C will contain 4.4/1.6x10-19= 2.75x1019 electrons.

Q183. The equation ΔU = ΔQ refers to:

• A. Isothermal process
• B. Adiabatic process
• C. Isochoric process✓
• D. Isobaric process
• E. Carnot cycle

Explanation: For equation ΔU = ΔQ + W to be ΔU = ΔQ, the work done should be equal to 0. Work done is equal to P*ΔV, so for work done to be zero, change in volume should be zero (there should be constant volume). Processes with constant volume are called isochoric processes.

Q184. Two capacitors C1 = 3 uF and C2 = 6 uF are in series across a 90 volts D.C. supply. The total capacitance is given by:

• A. 9 uF
• B. 2 uF✓
• C. 10 uF
• D. 90 uF
• E. 5 uF

Explanation: 1/C1 + 1/C2 = 1/C ⅓ + ⅙ = 1/C 2 + 1 /6 = 1/C 3/6 = 1/C ½ =1 /C C = 2 uF

Q185. The amount of heat provided to a system at constant pressure (qp) is equal to _.

• A. Change in internal energy (ΔE)
• B. Change in enthalpy (ΔH)✓
• C. Change in free energy (ΔG)
• D. Change ín temperature only (ΔT)
• E. Change in pressure only (ΔP)

Explanation: At constant pressure, the heat of reaction is equal to the enthalpy change of the system. Most chemical reactions occur at constant pressure, so enthalpy is more often used to measure heats of reaction than internal energy.

Q186. A special class of waves that does not need a material medium for their propagation are called

• A. Electric waves
• B. Magnetic waves
• C. Electromagnetic waves✓
• D. Sound waves
• E. Earthquake's shock waves

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves are types of waves that do not need a medium of travel unlike other waves mentioned.

Q187. A sound wave with a frequency of 343 Hz travels through the air. What is its wavelength? (speed of sound through air = 343 m/s)

• A. 1 m✓
• B. 2 m
• C. 3 m
• D. 4 m
• E. 5 m

Explanation: v=fλ343=343(λ)λ=1m wavelength.

Q188. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is equal to:

• A. λ / 8
• B. λ / 6
• C. λ / 4
• D. λ / 2✓

Explanation: The distance between two consecutive antinodes is λ / 2. An antinode is a point in a standing wave where the amplitude is maximum. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is half of the wavelength of the wave. This is because the wave travels from one antinode to the next, and then back to the first antinode, in half of a wavelength.

Q189. The entropy of the universe always:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains the same
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Since energy never flows spontaneously in the other direction, the total entropy of the universe is always increasing.

Q190. The efficiency of the carnot's Engine Working between 150°C and 50°C is:

• A. 22.3%
• B. 20.0%
• C. 23.6%✓
• D. 30.6%
• E. 33.6%

Explanation: n% = (1- T2/T1) ×100%T1= 273+150= 423KT2:273+50= 323Kn% = (1- 323/423)×100%n% = 0.236×100% = 23.6%

Q191. A force which is experienced in a magnetic field depends on:

• A. magnitude of charge
• B. speed of the moving charge V
• C. magnitude field of induction B
• D. all of these✓
• E. none of these

Explanation: Force on the charge in the magnetic field depends on the magnitude of the charge, the velocity of the charge, and the magnetic field of induction.

Q192. A coil of 600 turns is threaded by a flux of 8x10-5 webers if this flux is reduced to 3x10-5 webers in 0.015 seconds. The average induced e.m.f. is:

• A. -2.0 volts
• B. -3.0 volts
• C. +2.0 volts✓
• D. +2.5 volts
• E. +3.0 volts

Explanation: Emf = - N (dФ/dt)where number of turns are denoted by N, dФ is the change in flux and dt is the time interval.Change in flux = Final Flux - Initial FluxChange in flux = (3 × 10⁻⁵) - (8 × 10⁻⁵) WbChange in flux = - (5 × 10⁻⁵) Wbtime interval = 0.015 sectime interval = 15 × 10⁻³ secNumber of turns in coil = 600Putting all the values in formula.Emf = - 600 × (-(5 × 10⁻⁵)/15 × 10⁻³) VoltsEmf = 600 × (5 × 10⁻²/15 ) VoltsEmf = 600 × (10⁻²/3 ) VoltsEmf = 200 × 10⁻² VoltsEmf = 2 Volts

Q193. _ is a device which makes use of mutual induction for stepping up or down an alternating e.m.f.

• A. Sonometer
• B. Transformer✓
• C. Ammeter
• D. Voltmeter
• E. Potentiometer

Explanation: Attached below is the answer to the question above:

Q194. 12,32,72,152 _

• A. 312✓
• B. 325
• C. 515
• D. 613

Explanation: 12+20=32 32+40=72 72+80=152 so 160 should be added in 152 152+160=312

Q195. Sick is to Sack as Lick is to:

• A. Lack✓
• B. Luck
• C. Eat
• D. Meat
• E. Lock

Explanation: Rhyming words I was replaced by A

Q196. Statements:All apples are bananas.No banana is a mango.Some mangoes are oranges.Conclusions:(I) All oranges can never be bananas.(II)Some mangoes are apples.

• A. Only conclusion (I) follows✓
• B. Only conclusion (II) follows
• C. Both conclusions follow
• D. Both of them do not follow

Explanation: Conclusion I is correct since it is stated that some mangoes are oranges and no mango can be a banana thus oranges cannot be bananas.Conclusion II is incorrect since mangoes cannot be bananas and only bananas can be apples.Let's analyze the statements and conclusions:Statements:1. All apples are bananas. (This statement is false, as apples and bananas are different fruits.)2. No banana is a mango. (This statement is true, as bananas and mangoes are different fruits.)3. Some mangoes are oranges. (This statement is false, as mangoes and oranges are different fruits.)Conclusions:(I) All oranges can never be bananas.This conclusion is true, based on the statements. Since no banana is a mango (statement 2), and some mangoes are oranges (statement 3), we can infer that oranges and bananas are distinct and do not overlap.(II) Some mangoes are apples.This conclusion is false, based on the statements. Statement 1 says all apples are bananas, but it does not imply that mangoes are apples. In fact, statement 2 explicitly states that no banana is a mango, suggesting that mangoes and apples are not equivalent.So, conclusion (I) is true, and conclusion (II) is false.

Q197. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.Blueberries cost less than raspberries.Raspberries cost mre than strawberries and blueberries.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True✓
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: Explanation Because the first two statements are true, raspberries are the most expensive of the three.

Q198. Fact 1: A boy has four cars.Fact 2: Two of the cars are red.Fact 3: He has one sports car. If the above three statements are facts then which of the following statement will also be a fact? I. The boy has a red sports car.II. He has 2 corollas.III. His favorite color is red.

• A. Only statements I and II are correct
• B. Only statement II is correct
• C. Only statement III is correct
• D. None of the statements is a fact✓

Explanation: There is not enough information to support any of the statements. The boy has a sports car but it is not known which of his vehicles is red. The brands of the cars are not given hence there is no way to prove that two of his cars are corollas. There is no way to know if the boy's favorite color is red just because he has two red cars.

Q199. " I. There has been opposition by the protestors over the government's decision of removal of subsidy on fertilizers. II. The government has decided to remove subsidy on some of the items to bring a reform to the economy.

• A. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• B. Both statements I and II are the effects of independent cause.
• C. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.✓
• D. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Explanation: As the government decided to remove the subsidy, the farmers protested over it. This analogy clearly indicates that Statement II is cause and Statement I is the effect.