Pk Mdcat Mock 4 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Should I wear my joggers or my _?

• A. Cardigan
• B. Shorts
• C. Scarves
• D. Trainers✓

Explanation: Since joggers were referred to earlier, it is made clear that footwear is being spoken about in the sentence, making 'trainers' the appropriate choice.

Q2. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgments. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves-such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury-have always seemed to me contemptible. Which of the following is contemptible for the author?

• A. Truth, goodness and beauty
• B. Property, outward success, luxury✓
• C. art and scientific research
• D. sense of fellowship with men of like mind
• E. preoccupation with the objective

Explanation: The writer mentions property, outward success, and luxury contemptible in lines 9 and 10(last two lines).

Q3. Pick the correct option:

• A. Seven students results are still awaited.
• B. Seven student’s results are still awaited.
• C. Seven students’ results are still awaited.✓
• D. Seven student results are still awaited.

Explanation: Plural nouns that end with 's' only, follow this rule;For example: The two cats' nails have grown long. On other hand:The thieves snatched the two women's bags.

Q4. Identify the errors and choose the correct option: Gulliver travel was written by Swift.

• A. Guliver travels was written to Swift.
• B. Guliver travels was written at Swift.
• C. Guliver’s Travels was written by Swift.✓
• D. Gulivers’ Travel was written by Swift.

Explanation: Option A and Option B are incorrect since the apostrophe + ‘s’ (‘s) is absent which is needed after the noun “Gulliver” to indicate the possessive nature of the travels (i.e. to indicates that the travels were of Gulliver). Since Gulliver had more than one travel in the story, the word should be “Travels” and not “Travel”. Hence, Option D is incorrect, and Option C is correct.

Q5. Choose the correct option:

• A. “Well no, perhaps not sir”
• B. “Well, no, perhaps not sir”✓
• C. “Well, no perhaps not sir”
• D. “Well no perhaps, not sir”

Explanation: Commas should be used at these places to lay emphasis. The key to solving this question is to read the sentence in your head and then decide at which places a pause should be incorporated.

Q6. Read the passage and answer the following question: In earlier times, when every substance was believed to have its own qualities, there was no difficulty in believing that some substances were endowed with life, others not. Wood was wood, and water was water, and though transformations did occur, as in the disappearance of wood in the fire, they were not surprising in a world where the most miraculous changes were taking place under everyone’s every day. There was nothing but ‘doth suffer a sea-change into something rich and strange’. A seed put into the ground became in a short time a plant with leaves and flowers: the white and yolk of an egg turned into the flesh and bones and feathers of a chicken, which, no sooner was the shell cracked, jumped out and started running about. There was nothing but ‘Doth suffer a sea-change into something rich and strange’ means:

• A. The transformation of seed into a tree
• B. In everyday life natural things change drastically
• C. The suffering of change are always enormous
• D. Nature does not support any change
• E. Both A and B✓

Explanation: The term sea change is therefore often used to mean a marked change or metamorphosis or alteration, like a seed turning into a tree or yolk and white turning into a chick. Hence there are two answers to this question one by example(A) and the other by meaning(B).

Q7. The chess master promised to _ havoc upon his opponent’s pawn for taking his bishop.

• A. Endow
• B. Placate
• C. Ensue
• D. Warrant
• E. Wreak✓

Explanation: Wreak will be the best word here as it refers to causing a large amount of damage or harm. Endow means to give something to an individual. Placate means to make someone less angry or hostile. Ensue means something to happen or occur afterwards or as a result. Warrants refers to a justification as to why a specific task was done.

Q8. How can this sentence be improved using punctuations? She hoped to find a new job. One that would let her earn money during the school year.

• A. job. One that
• B. job. The kind that
• C. job, one that✓
• D. job, so that it

Explanation: Since both the sentences are related to each other, a comma could be added. A comma marks a slight break between different parts of a sentence.

Q9. Read the passage and answer the question given at the end of the passage: Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn fetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. However, genetic misinformation can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the fetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been leveled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area is seen in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the U.S.A, UK and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the phrase ' 'holding out" as used in the passage?

• A. Catching
• B. Expounding✓
• C. Sustaining
• D. Restraining

Explanation: Expounding can be defined as to explain by setting forth an argument. Although this doesn’t entirely fit into the given context, the remaining options can be readily eliminated.

Q10. Read the passage to answer the question: What is life? A little scum of no importance on the surface of an unimportant globe circling round a second-rate star? An accidental conglomeration of atoms which have come together by an odd chance, the result of an exceedingly improbable happening? That is what some astronomers would have us think. Looking out into the depth of space, they have discovered a universe of unthinkable dimensions. A billion suns in our own galaxy, beyond it perhaps a billion galaxies, only revealed to us as tiny smudges on a photographic plate. No wonder they are impressed by the enormous disparity between the scaffolding and the result. Life seemed to be, as Jeans said, ‘an utterly unimportant by-product’ in a universe which was clearly not designed for life, and which, to all appearances, is either totally indifferent or definitely hostile to it’. It seemed ‘incredible that the universe can have been designed primarily to produce life like our own; had it been so, surely we have might expected to find a a better proportion between the magnitude of the mechanism and the amount of the product. According to the author if the universe had been designed primarily to produce life like our own then:

• A. there would have been a smaller proportion for us
• B. there would have been a better proportion for us✓
• C. there would have been more luxuries in the universe
• D. there would have be many galaxies containing many creatures
• E. there would have been many new stars and earths

Explanation: The author demeans the idea that the universe is primarily designed to produce life, supporting it by the fact that there is so little life in-universe as mentioned in lines below: “It seemed ‘incredible that the universe can have been designed primarily to produce life-like our own; had it been so, surely we have might be expected to find a better proportion”

Q11. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters. ENFEEBLED:

• A. Distanced
• B. Dominant
• C. Mistaken
• D. Powerful✓

Explanation: Feeble means something lacking physical strength and being weak.

Q12. Identify errors in sentences:

• A. Neither the men who are listed as administrators nor the woman who is also listed has been appointed to the board.✓
• B. Neither the men who are listed as administrators nor the woman who is also listed have been appointed to the board.
• C. Neither the men who are listed as administrators nor the women who are also listed has been appointed to the board.
• D. Neither the men who is listed as administrators nor has the woman who is also listed been appointed to the board.

Explanation: When the subjects joined by or, nor, either ........ or, neither .........nor are of different persons, the verb agrees with the nearer.

Q13. Television is typical of many new scientific words which are deliberately invented from old Greek and Latin words. In this case, the prefix ‘tele’ is Greek and means ‘far’ (of telephone, telegram), while the root ‘vision’ is derived from the Latin verb meaning ‘to see’. The word “Television” is invented from:

• A. English and Spanish
• B. French and Arabic
• C. Dutch and German
• D. Greek and Latin✓

Explanation: It can be directly inferred from the passage that television is invented from old Greek and Latin words. This is clearly mentioned in Lines 1 and 2.

Q14. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. It is my birthday in june I would like a book by Charles Dickens.
• B. It is my birthday in June. I would like a book by Charles Dickens.✓
• C. It is my birthday in June; I would like a book by Charles Dickens.
• D. It is my birthday in June. I would like a book by Charles Dickens!

Explanation: Option B displays correct use of capitalization and punctuation.

Q15. Select the word or phrase which is closest in meaning to the underlined words. Due to his continuous mischievous activities, he has become a rogue person.

• A. Thief
• B. Honest
• C. Dishonest✓
• D. Sharp

Explanation: Rogue is a person who is dishonest and unreliable. Thief is a person who steals from other people. Honest is the one who is not disposed to cheat. Dishonest is the one who is a fraud and unreliable. Sharp is the one who is smart and clever. So, dishonest is the suitable answer.

Q16. The word opposite in meaning to capacious is:

• A. Voluminous
• B. Commodious
• C. Large
• D. Restricted✓

Explanation: -Capacious means large. -Voluminous means big. -Commodious means roomy. -Restricted means limited Hence, restricted is the closest antonym.

Q17. Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below: It is quite _ for poor people to be happier than rich people.

• A. possible✓
• B. risky
• C. potential
• D. liable
• E. different

Explanation: The most appropriate word here is “possible”. It is not risky for poor people to be happy. Words in option C to E don’t make any sense with respect to the context given.

Q18. In the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. Select the nearest correct meaning of the word given. NEOLOGISM

• A. A new word✓
• B. Pleasant remark
• C. Brief summary
• D. Archaic expression

Explanation: NEOLOGISM means a newly coined word or expression.

Q19. _ alleles both have an effect on the phenotype of a heterozygous organism:

• A. Dominant
• B. Recessive
• C. Co-dominant✓
• D. Multiple

Explanation: In a Co-dominant scenario, the two different alleles of the gene contributing to a particular characteristic would express themselves in a collaborative manner, producing a phenotype that is a combination of the two different phenotypes coded by the respective alleles.

Q20. Which of the following organelles are present in all the bacteria?

• A. Mesosome✓
• B. Golgi bodies
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Bacteria are prokaryotes. They are made up single cell. They do not have well defined nucleus, instead they posses nucleoid as genetic material. They also lack membrane bound cell organelles like mitochondria, golgi bodies, chloroplast, etc. However, they do contains ribosomes and mesosomes in the cytoplasm. Thus, the correct answer is 'Mesosome.'

Q21. The following flowchart depicts the steps of the Calvin Cycle. Which option, according to you, fits in as the correct answer of the missing step?

• A. Pyruvate
• B. Hydrogenase
• C. Ribulose bisphosphate✓
• D. Oxaloacetate

Explanation: The first step involves the fixing of carbon (derived from CO2) into molecules of Ribulose Bisphosphate (RuBP) via the action of the enzyme 'rubisco', resulting in the formation of 3-phosphoglycerate. This is further processed into 1,3-BPG and eventually, G-3-P, before the cycle starts again. The chart above only has RuBP missing.

Q22. Female rabbits are:

• A. Induced ovulators✓
• B. Spontaneous ovulators
• C. Seasonal ovulators
• D. Indifferent ovulators

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q23. Which of the following strategies of enzymatic inhibition is used by noncompetitive inhibitors?

• A. Bind to substrate so that it cannot bind to the active site
• B. Target the enzyme for destruction using a protease
• C. Bind to the active site and prevent substrate from binding
• D. Bind to allosteric site to cause a conformational shift in the enzyme✓

Explanation: As summed up by the diagram, the binding of noncompetitive inhibitor causes alteration in the bonding of active site, as a result substrate can no longer bind to the ative site. Inhibition occurs as product not made.

Q24. Estimating relative CO2 consumption or O2 release during photosynthesis at different wavelengths of light, is termed as:

• A. Action spectrum✓
• B. Absorption spectrum
• C. Dark reaction
• D. Light reaction

Explanation: Action spectra show the effectiveness of different colors of light for carrying out photosynthesis measured by CO2 consumption or O2 release. Absorption Spectrum, on the other hand, is a graphical representation of the amount of light of different wavelengths absorbed by a pigment.

Q25. Identify the wrong statements. (a) The substrate binds to active site of enzyme and does not fit into active site (b) The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape (c) Chemical bonds of substrate break down not to form new enzyme-product complex (d) The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and runs through catalytic cycle once again

• A. A, C✓
• B. B, D
• C. B, C
• D. A, D

Explanation: The given statements explain the catalytic cycle of an enzyme action. 1. The first statement is wrong as the substrate binds to the active site of enzyme and fits into it. This is because the shape of the substrate is complementary to the shape of enzyme active site and thus enzymes are substrate specific. 2. Then the binding of the substrate induces a conformational change in the shape of enzyme to tightly fit the substrate. Thus the second statement is correct. 3. The active site of enzyme now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme substrate complex is formed. Thus, the statement 3 is wrong. 4. Finally the enzyme releases the products of reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again. Thus, the correct answer is option A.

Q26. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmeds or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. If one of Ali's daughters marries a normal man,what is the probability that one of their children will display symptoms of hemophilia:

• A. 0%✓
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Ali and Ahmed are normal males because they receive a Y chromosome from their father and Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder. Ali marries a normal female and will therefore have a normal daughter. If this normal daughter marries a normal male, the probability that they will have haemophiliac children is 0%.

Q27. The stomata are closed at which of the following temperature? (In centigrade)

• A. 45✓
• B. 35
• C. 15
• D. 25

Explanation: The stomata would close at higher temperatures to prevent excess evaporation of water and since the highest temperature in the options is 45 that is the correct answer.

Q28. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system.

• A. Muscular Dystrophy – Age Related Shortening of Muscles
• B. Osteoporosis – Decrease In Bone Mass and Higher Chances of Fractures with Advancing Age✓
• C. Myasthenia Gravis – Autoimmune Disorder which Inhibits Sliding of Myosin Filaments
• D. Gout – Inflammation of Joints due to Extra Deposition of Calcium

Explanation: Muscular dystrophy is characterised by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins and the death of muscle cells and tissue. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease in which muscle becomes weak, which is caused by circulating antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction inhibiting the excitatory effects of the acetylcholine. Gout is inflammation of joints which is caused by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood which crystallises and the crystals are deposited in joints, tendons and surrounding tissues.

Q29. Which of the following is correct for the given structure?

• A. These are small structures which work like oars
• B. It is covered with plasma membrane
• C. It's core is called axoneme
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane. Cilia are small structures working like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid. Flagella, in comparison, is longer and is responsible for cell movement. Both cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Their core, called axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis. So, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.

Q30. Four events in the transmission of nerve impulses across synapses are: I. depolarisation of the presynaptic membrane II. propagation of postsynaptic action potential III. reabsorption of the transmitter substance IV. release of transmitter substance into the synaptic cleft In which sequence do these events occur? FIRST -> LAST

• A. I, III, II, and IV
• B. I, IV, II and III✓
• C. IV, I, III and II
• D. IV, III, I and II
• E. II, I, IV and III

Explanation: The sequence of transmission of nerve impulse is as follows:1.Depolarisation occurs at the presynaptic terminal.2.This leads to the release of the transmitter substance to the cleft.3.This leads to the depolarization at the postsynaptic membrane.4.Then the transmitter substance is reabsorbed back to the presynaptic membrane.

Q31. A person with blood group A will not produce:

• A. None of these
• B. Anti-A antibodies✓
• C. Anti-B antibodies
• D. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Explanation: A person with blood group A will have A antigens on his RBCs but anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma. Similarly, a person with blood group O will have no antigens on his RBCs but anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma. A person with blood group A cannot have anti-A antibodies.

Q32. Referring to sexual reproduction, humans are:

• A. Hermaphrodites
• B. Vivaparous✓
• C. Oviparous
• D. Self-fertilized

Explanation: The main difference between oviparous and viviparous animals is that oviparous animals do not undergo any embryonic development inside the mother whereas viviparous animals develop into young animals inside the mother. This means oviparous animals lay eggs. These eggs develop and hatch into young individuals.A hermaphrodite is an organism with both male and female genitalia. In sexually reproducing organisms, males have organs that produce male gametes, usually sperm. Sometimes the genders pair off equally, one male for one female. Other times, one male or female will breed with a large group of the other gender.

Q33. What is true for pili and flagella-like structures of bacteria?

• A. Both are same in size
• B. Both help in movement
• C. Both are composed of proteins✓
• D. All of the above options are correct

Explanation: Option A: This is not the correct option because pili are smaller than flagella.Option B: Flagella help in locomotion while pili are used in conjugation therefore this is not the correct option.Option C: This is the correct option. Flagella are made up of a protein called flagellin whereas pili are made of a protein called pilin.Option D: Option A and B are incorrect therefore this cannot be the correct option.

Q34. There are 3 stages of HIV infection, which sequence is correct

• A. AIDS, Chronic HIV, Acute HIV
• B. Chronic HIV, AIDS, Acute HIV
• C. Acute HIV, Chronic HIV, AIDS✓
• D. all of them

Explanation: In stage one, People have a large amount of HIV in their blood. They are very contagious. Some people have flu-like symptoms. This is the body’s natural response to infection. But some people may not feel sick right away or at all. If you have flu-like symptoms and think you may have been exposed to HIV, seek medical care and ask for a test to diagnose acute infection. In stage 2, This stage is also called asymptomatic HIV infection or clinical latency. HIV is still active but reproduces at very low levels. People may not have any symptoms or get sick during this phase. Without taking HIV medicine, this period may last a decade or longer, but some may progress faster. People can transmit HIV in this phase. At the end of this phase, the amount of HIV in the blood (called viral load) goes up and the CD4 cell count goes down. The person may have symptoms as the virus levels increase in the body, and the person moves into Stage 3. People who take HIV medicine as prescribed may never move into Stage 3. In the third stage, The most severe phase of HIV infection. People with AIDS have such badly damaged immune systems that they get an increasing number of severe illnesses, called opportunistic infections. People receive an AIDS diagnosis when their CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm, or if they develop certain opportunistic infections. People with AIDS can have a high viral load and be very infectious. Without treatment, people with AIDS typically survive about three years.

Q35. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is like endoplasmic reticulum but devoid of _ and exhibit a highly specialized _ pattern.

• A. Ribosome, repeating✓
• B. Mitochondrion, repeating
• C. Ribosome, simplified
• D. Mitochondrion, simplified
• E. Ribosome, zig zag

Explanation: Sarcoplasmic Reticulum has no ribosomes on its surface unlike the rough endoplasmic reticulum since its main task is to store Ca2+ ions. With regard to the pattern or structure, it is repeating as it has, for example, T tubules at intervals and a network of convoluted tubules which is far from simple. So, the answer would be A.

Q36. Sequence of amino acids, in a polypeptide chain of protein molecule, corresponds to the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA for that protein. If the reading frame of mRNA for a human protein is 993 nucleotides, including a stop codon at the end, how many amino acids would be incorporated in the polypeptide chain?

• A. 93
• B. 330✓
• C. 331
• D. 993

Explanation: Recall that a codon consists of three nucleotides, and each codon corresponds to a single amino acid. A stop codon, however, does NOT code for an amino acid; they signal the end or termination of the polypeptide chain. Hence, out of the 993 nucleotides, the last three correspond to a stop codon and hence 990 nucleotides are to be considered. 990 nucleotides correspond to 330 codons (990 divided by 3), and since each codon codes for a single amino acid, 330 codons will code for 330 amino acids, hence, the answer is B.

Q37. Amoeboid movements and movement of cyclosis is due to?

• A. Microfilaments✓
• B. Microtubules
• C. Intermediate filaments
• D. Cytoskeleton

Explanation: Microfilaments, also known as actin filaments, are thin filaments composed of the protein actin. They are part of the cytoskeleton and play a role in various cellular processes, including cell movement, cell shape changes, and muscle contraction. Microfilaments are directly responsible for amoeboid movements or cyclosis.

Q38. The diagram shows a section through the human brain.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E

Explanation: The figure is not given in the question. The first label part is the thalamus, the second part is the cerebellum, and the third part is the medulla oblongata. Then, according to the given options Thalamus receives signals related to pleasure and pain. The cerebellum is responsible for the voluntary control of skeletal muscles. The medulla controls breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and swallowing. Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Q39. A person was married to his cousin and both are heterozygous for Sickle Cell anemia. Among their four kids, what will be proportion of homozygotes?

• A. 75%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 100%
• D. 25%

Explanation: As can be seen from the cross below, 50 percent of the offspring are heterozygotes, i.e. 50 percent possess the sickle cell trait. 25 percent are normal i.e. homozygous for HbN, while 25 percent have sickle cell anemia, i.e. homozygous for HbS. In total, 50 percent are homozygous (25 percent plus 25 percent) so, option B is correct.

Q40. Stretch receptors are present in the _ of tetrapods.

• A. Hepatic Arteries
• B. Carotid Arteries✓
• C. Renal Arteries
• D. Pulmonary Arteries

Explanation: Stretch receptors are found around the carotid artery, where they monitor blood pressure and stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland.

Q41. A family of five daughters is expecting another delivery. The chance of its beings a son is?

• A. Zero
• B. 25%
• C. 50%✓
• D. 100%

Explanation: The chances of a baby being either boy or girl are always 50% because in human beings there are 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. The female is homozygous while the male is heterozygous and genetically responsible for the sex of the child. Sperms are of two types, i.e. sperms have an X-chromosome which leads to a girl being born, and sperms have a Y-chromosome which is responsible for a boy being born. So, the correct answer is '50%'.

Q42. A child with AB blood group who was born to a mother of the genotype IAIA cannot have the father of the genotype:

• A. IA IA✓
• B. IB IB
• C. IB IO
• D. IB IB and IB IO

Explanation: The genotype of the mother is IA IA. A child with blood group AB will have a genotype IA IB. This genotype of the child is possible in 2 cases either if the genotype of the father is IB IB or IB IO. But a genotype IA IA of the father will not result in AB blood group of the child. Thus the correct answer is option A.

Q43. Diaphragm is a sheet of:

• A. Smooth muscles
• B. Cardiac muscles
• C. Skeletal muscles✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: The floor of the chest is called diaphragm which is a sheet of skeletal muscles. Diaphragm contracts during inhalation and expands during exhalation.

Q44. It is the most energy rich compound.

• A. FADH2
• B. ATP✓
• C. NADH
• D. GTP

Explanation: ATP is indeed the most energy-rich compound in cellular metabolism. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the cell's primary energy currency. It stores and transfers energy for various cellular processes. The energy stored in ATP is primarily in the form of the high-energy phosphate bonds between its three phosphate groups.When ATP is hydrolyzed by the enzyme ATPase, it undergoes a reaction in which one of the phosphate groups is cleaved, forming adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi). This hydrolysis reaction releases a significant amount of energy that can be utilized by cells to perform work.The energy released from the hydrolysis of ATP powers a wide range of cellular processes, including muscle contraction, active transport of molecules across membranes, synthesis of macromolecules, nerve signal transmission, and many other energy-requiring reactions in cells.

Q45. The venous blood in tissues has carbon dioxide:

• A. 19.6 ml/100 ml of blood
• B. 50 ml/100 ml of blood
• C. 54 ml/100 ml of blood✓
• D. 96 ml/100 ml of blood

Explanation: The venous blood in tissues has 54 ml carbondioxide/100 ml of blood.

Q46. In which organism males are haploid?

• A. Aphids
• B. Mosquito
• C. Butterfly
• D. Honey bee✓

Explanation: The only organism in the list that has haploid males is the honeybee. This is because honeybees have a unique sex determination system called haplodiploidy. In haplodiploidy, the sex of an offspring is determined by the number of sets of chromosomes that the offspring inherits from its mother. If the offspring inherits a single set of chromosomes from its mother, it will be male. If the offspring inherits two sets of chromosomes from its mother, it will be female.

Q47. Which of the following is a hypnotic drug?

• A. Xanax
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Butabarbital
• D. Diazepam
• E. All of these✓

Explanation: Hypnotic drugs or sleeping pills are a type of sedative. These drugs have a relaxing effect on the CNS and are used to induce sleep in insomniac patients. Some examples of such drugs include Xanax, butabarbital, diazepam, and lorazepam.

Q48. Calcium, during muscle contraction binds with?

• A. Tropomyosin
• B. Troponin C✓
• C. Troponin I
• D. Troponin T

Explanation: Correct option is B. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through calcium ion channels when the membrane of the T-tubular system is excited. It binds to Troponin C causing it to conform, hence permitting the myosin head to latch onto the actin filament, onsetting muscle contraction.

Q49. E. coli is

• A. Anaerobic
• B. Gram negative
• C. Facultative
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: E coli is a gram negative (Stains pink with Gram's stain), facultative and anaerobic microbe.

Q50. Taxonomy includes the arrangement of organisms into different taxa. Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy of various taxa of classification?

• A. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum✓
• B. Order, family, class, phylum, kingdom
• C. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum
• D. Species, genus, order, family, class, phylum

Explanation: The correct hierarchy of various taxa in biological classification is:Species, genus, family, order, class, phylumExplanation:1. Species: The fundamental unit of classification, consisting of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.2. Genus: A group of closely related species.3. Family: A group of related genera.4. Order: A group of related families.5. Class: A group of related orders.6. Phylum: A group of related classes.This hierarchical arrangement helps organize and categorize living organisms based on their evolutionary relationships. Mnemonics, that one can use to memorize the taxonomic hierarchy, which is Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species, in that specific order are as follows:-“Dear King Philip Came Over For Good Soup" (the first letter of each word corresponds to a taxa)- Kingdom Phylum went to a Class and Ordered his Family to look for a Genius(Genus) who is a rare Species. The diagram, given below, illustrates the hierarchy.

Q51. In eggs, Ca+2 plays an important role especially at the time of fertilization. Therefore _ are present in many thousand numbers inside the cell membrane.

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Endoplasmic Reticulum✓

Explanation: It is known that the Endoplasmic reticulum acts as a reservoir for Ca2+ in cells as in contractile cells. Since Ca2+ plays an important role in fertilization therefore many Ca2+ in the form of the Endoplasmic reticulum should be present.

Q52. Which two reactions occur during photophosphorylation?

• A. ATP is hydrolyzed and NADP is reduced
• B. ATP is hydrolyzed and NADPH is oxidized
• C. ATP is synthesized and NADP is reduced✓
• D. ATP is synthesized and NADPH is oxidized

Explanation: "The explanation for this question will be added soon!".

Q53. Which one of the following is present outside the plasma membrane but inside the cell wall?

• A. Sphaerosome
• B. Peroxisome
• C. Lomasome✓
• D. Golgi body

Explanation: 'Lomasomes' are present outside the plasma membrane but inside the cell wall. They are membranous structures, often containing internal membranes, located between the plasma membrane and cell wall of plant cells. Lomasomes appear to be accumulations of ejected material, between the plasmalemma and cell wall that has become sequestered by the deposition of wall material. Thus, the correct answer is option 'C'.

Q54. Which of the following statements is true about ATP?

• A. ATP is a coenzyme✓
• B. ATP is the prosthetic part of an enzyme
• C. ATP is the organic portion of an enzyme
• D. ATP is an enzyme

Explanation: Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is a well-known non-vitamin coenzyme that transfers phosphate groups during reactions. It is also known as the cellular currency of energy. It also transports substances and energy required during reactions.

Q55. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of;

• A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid✓
• B. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
• C. Hexokinase by glucose
• D. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Explanation: A classic example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid. Malonic acid has a structural resemblance to succinate. So, it competes with succinate for the active site on the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. If the concentration of malonic acid is more, the rate of the enzymatic reaction will be drastically reduced.

Q56. _ refers to the breakdown or removal of the capsid

• A. Assembly
• B. Uncoating✓
• C. Integration
• D. Maturation

Explanation: Uncoating is the breakdown or removal of the capsid.

Q57. The area on the left hemisphere related to speech is called?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Broca's area✓
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Occipital lobe

Explanation: Option A: The amygdala is commonly thought to form the core of a neural system for processing fearful and threatening stimuli (4), including detection of threat and activation of appropriate fear-related behaviors in response to threatening or dangerous stimuliOption B: Broca’s area is also known as the motor speech area. It is near the motor cortex and utilized in speech production, located in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area regulates breathing patterns while speaking and vocalizations required for normal speech.Option C: Hypothalamus is ,a structure deep in your brain, acts as your body's smart control coordinating center. Its main function is to keep your body in a stable state called homeostasis. It does its job by directly influencing your autonomic nervous system or by managing hormonesOption D: The occipital lobes sit at the back of the head and are responsible for visual perception, including colour, form and motion. Damage to the occipital lobe can include: Difficulty with locating objects in environment

Q58. Which disorder among the following CANNOT be detected by amniocentesis?..

• A. Haemophilia
• B. Heart defects✓
• C. Tay-Sachs disease
• D. Cystic fibrosis

Explanation: This question is simply choosing the odd one out. Heart defects are not genetic.Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic defects like those mentioned in other options.

Q59. Nuclear Histones are conjugated molecules that function in _.

• A. RNA coiling
• B. Gene expression✓
• C. DNA formation
• D. Protein synthesis

Explanation: Histones are involved in gene expression, as they play a role in regulating the accessibility of DNA to the transcriptional machinery.

Q60. Ptyalin can convert starch into:

• A. Monosaccharide form
• B. Oligosaccharide form✓
• C. Polysaccharide form
• D. All given options

Explanation: Amylase is found in saliva and breaks starch into maltose and dextrin, an oligosaccharide.

Q61. What are the distinguishing features of fibrous proteins?

• A. Non-crystalline
• B. Elastic
• C. Disorganized
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Fibrous proteins are made up of polypeptide chains that are elongated and fibrous in nature or have a sheet-like structure. They are also non crystalline and elastic hence the answer is both A and B.

Q62. Carotenoids perform protective function in which of the following organism?

• A. Animals
• B. Plants
• C. Both✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Carotenoids perform a protective function in plants. They act as pigments and antioxidants, helping to protect plant cells from damage caused by excessive light and reactive oxygen species. Moreover, carotenoid pigments, present in many eyes and photoreceptors, seem especially suited to protect against the deleterious effects of light because they absorb the dangerous short wavelength part of the light spectrum. Hence correct option is option C.

Q63. What is critical in photoperiodism?

• A. Length of light period
• B. Length of dark period✓
• C. Both Options A and B are correct
• D. None of these options is correct

Explanation: Both the length of the light period and the length of the dark period play important roles in photoperiodism. But, only length of dark period is critical in photoperiodism, because if plants are grown according to their short or long priods but only if their length of dark period is interrupted by a small period of light then their flowering is prevented.

Q64. Male and female sea urchins release their sperm and eggs Into the water where fertilization takes place. How can their reproduction be described?

• A. asexual reproduction which results in genetically dissimilar offspring
• B. asexual reproductlon whlch results In genetically identical offspring
• C. Sexual reproduction which results in genetically dissimilar offspring✓
• D. Sexual reproduction which results in genetically identical offspring

Explanation: In a type of reproduction in which gametes join to form a new offspring, this type of reproduction is called sexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction involves the mixing of two genetic materials resulting in genetically dissimilar offspring.

Q65. Whenever a muscle contracts, a sarcomere can be shortened up to _ % of its total length.

• A. 15
• B. 25
• C. 35✓
• D. 45

Explanation: Sarcomere length is reduced by only about 35% (to a little under 2 mm) by a maximal shortening of the muscle.

Q66. Monosynaptic reflex arc consists of:

• A. One sensory neuron only
• B. One motor neuron only
• C. Two neurons, One sensory neuron, and one motor neuron✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Correct option is C. When a reflex arc consists of only two neurons, one sensory neuron, and one motor neuron, it is defined as monosynaptic It allows for direct communication between sensory and motor neurons, resulting in muscle stimulation. A common example of a monosynaptic reflex is the knee-jerk reflex.

Q67. In a typical compound microscope the resolution is 2 μm. Which is about _ that of naked eye.

• A. 100 x
• B. 300 x
• C. 400 x
• D. 500 x✓

Explanation: A human eye cannot distinguish objects smaller than 1000 μm (1 mm). In other words, the resolution of a human eye is 1000 μm, while a light microscope can typically magnify images up to 500× to resolve details down to 2 μm.

Q68. α(1→4) glycosidic linkage is present in

• A. Maltose✓
• B. Sucrose
• C. Cellulose
• D. Cellobiose

Explanation: Maltose is composed of two units of D- glucose linked together through alpha 1,4 glycosidic bond. Cellobiose is an intermediate sugar formed by the hydrolysis of cellulose by enzyme cellulase. Cellobiose is composed of two units of D- glucose linked together through a beta-1,4 glycosidic bond.Sucrose is a molecule composed of two monosaccharides, namely glucose and fructose.Cellulose is a linear polymer glucan and is composed of glucose units,which are linked by β-(1–4)-glycosidic bonds.

Q69. Proteoglycan in cartilages (which consists of polysaccharides) are also attached to:

• A. Chondroitin✓
• B. Ossein
• C. Casein
• D. Cartilagin
• E. None

Explanation: Proteoglycans consist of polysaccharides attached with protein chondroitin. It is present in cartilage as well as in extracellular material. Ossein is a protein present in the matrix of bone. Casein is a milk protein.

Q70. Vertebrae of the neck are called:

• A. Coccygeal vertebrae
• B. Cervical vertebrae✓
• C. Sacral vertebrae
• D. Lumbar vertebrae

Explanation: In tetrapods, 'cervical vertebrae' (singular: vertebra) are the vertebrae of the neck, immediately below the skull. Truncal vertebrae (divided into thoracic and lumbar vertebrae in mammals) lie caudal (toward the tail) of cervical vertebrae.

Q71. The hormone labeled X in the diagram is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. FSH
• D. LH✓
• E. Testosterone

Explanation: Hormone X is LH because at 14th day of menstrual cycle, LH has highest peak which causes ovulation and stimulate ovaries to produce progesterone.

Q72. Hepatic and Pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Secretin✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Glucagon

Explanation: Secretin is a hormone that regulates water homeostasis throughout the body and influences the environment of the duodenum by regulating secretions in the stomach, pancreas, and liver.

Q73. The inflammation of bronchi or bronchioles is known as _.

• A. Emphysema
• B. Asthma
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Bronchitis✓

Explanation: Bronchitis is an inflammation of the lining of your bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from your lungs.

Q74. Hexokinase is used in:

• A. None of these
• B. Glycolysis✓
• C. Kreb's Cycle
• D. Calvin Cycle

Explanation: Hexokinase is an enzyme used in the phosphorylation of glucose during the first step of glycolysis. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. The reaction involves the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to glucose, resulting in the formation of glucose-6-phosphate.

Q75. Antibodies can be digested by using which of the following types of enzymes?

• A. Lipase
• B. Protease✓
• C. Amylase
• D. Polymerase

Explanation: Antibodies, being proteins, can be digested or broken down by proteolytic enzymes. Proteolytic enzymes, also known as proteases or peptidases, specifically cleave peptide bonds in proteins, leading to their degradation.

Q76. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is:

• A. Chracteristics - Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements, Examples - Knee joint
• B. Characteristics - Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion, Examples - Skull bones
• C. Characteristics - Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones, Examples - Joint between atlas and axis✓
• D. Characteristics - Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement, Examples - Gliding joint between carpals

Explanation: All articulations between bones that help in a certain kind of movement, are placed at a distance from each other to prevent friction between them during movement. This space between the two bones is filled with synovial fluid that also helps reduce friction. For example the ball and socket joint of the pelvic girdle, the pivotal joint between the atlas and the axis.So, the correct answer is 'Characteristics - Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones, Examples - Joint between atlas and axis'.A.Knee joint is one of the examples of synovial joint but it allows movement in various directions.B. This is an example of fibrous joint.D.This is an example of synovial joint but lymph is not filled between two bones rather it contains synovial fluid.FTB page# 43STB page # 39

Q77. Tay Sach's disease is caused by absence of enzyme required to breakdown _.

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Glycogen
• C. Glucose
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a inherited disorder that progressively destroys nerve cells (neurons) in the brain and spinal cord. It is caused due to the mutation in the gene which is responsible for producing enzyme involved break down of fatty substance.

Q78. The diagram shows some of the muscles and bones of the human arm.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Please refer to the explanation below:

Q79. The diagram represents the human respiratory system. While inhalation, which of the labelled muscles contract?

• A. X only
• B. X and Y only
• C. X and Z only
• D. Y and Z only✓
• E. X, Y and Z

Explanation: During breathing diaphragm contracts and external intercostal muscles contract, which are labeled as Z and Y respectively in the above diagram.X is an intercostal muscle that relaxes.

Q80. The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen is:

• A. Myoglobin✓
• B. Globin
• C. Haemoglobin
• D. Hemocyanin

Explanation: Myoglobin is a pigment that has the highest affinity to bind with oxygen.

Q81. Enzyme substrate specificity is a result of which property of enzymes?

• A. The primary structure of enzymes
• B. The secondary structure of enzymes
• C. Tertiary structure of enzymes✓
• D. Quarternary structure of enzymes

Explanation: Tertiary structure of enzymes. Enzyme-substrate specificity arises from the unique three-dimensional shape of the enzyme's active site, which is determined by the enzyme's tertiary structure. The active site is a pocket or cavity on the surface of the enzyme that is specifically shaped to bind the substrate. The shape of the active site is complementary to the shape of the substrate, allowing them to fit together like a lock and key.

Q82. A pure breeding plant with the dominant phenotype of character P and the recessive phenotype of character Q was crossed with another pure breeding plant with the recessive phenotype of character P and the dominant phenotype of Q. The offspring of this cross were crossed with a double homozygous recessive for P and Q and the following results were obtained: 22 were phenotypically dominant for P and recessive for Q 5 were phenotypically dominant for both P and Q 4 were phenotypically recessive for both P and Q 24 were phenotypically recessive for P and dominant for Q Which one of the following types of Inheritance is illustrated by these results?

• A. Gene linkage of P and Q✓
• B. Independent segregation of P and Q
• C. Mendelian dihybrid Inheritance
• D. Multiple alleles
• E. Polygenic Inheritance

Explanation: When a pure breeding phenotypic dominant character P and recessive character Q is crossed with pure breeding recessive character P and dominant character Q, the cross is below:- PPqq X ppQQ will give PpQq. Now when this PpQq is crossed with recessive for both:- PpQq X ppqq will give PpQq ; Ppqq ; ppqq ; ppQq The ratio when there is a dihybrid cross between heterozygous character and homozygous recessive character is 9:3:3:1. However, the above ratio is not consistent with what it should be. This happens when there is a gene linkage between two characters

Q83. When a muscle bends one part upon the other, it is called

• A. abductor
• B. regulator
• C. extremor
• D. flexor✓

Explanation: Flexor muscle bends one part of a limb on another at a joint, e.g., biceps. It brings the fore arm towards the upper arm. Flexor work antagonistically with extensors. Abductor (levator) is a type of muscle whose function is to move a limb away from the body. E.g., deltoides of shoulder.

Q84. The function of a cell wall in prokaryotes is:

• A. To give cells rigidity
• B. To give specific shape
• C. To protect from osmotic lysis
• D. All of Above✓

Explanation: All prokaryotic cells have a stiff cell wall located underneath the capsule (if there is one). This structure maintains the 'cell's shape', protects the cell interior, and prevents the cell from bursting when it takes up water. Since the bacterial cell wall is 'thick and rigid', it will maintain the shape of the cell and also 'protect it from osmotic lysis' just like the cell wall of plants. Hence, the correct option is 'D'.

Q85. Which of the following is not a true characteristic of spermatogonia?

• A. They develop into primary spermatocytes through mitosis
• B. They are undifferentiated
• C. They are germ line cells
• D. They are haploid✓

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q86. Purple non-sulphur bacteria is an example of which of the following?

• A. Heterotrophic bacteria
• B. Saprotrophic bacteria
• C. Chemosynthetic bacteria
• D. Photosynthetic bacteria✓

Explanation: Option A: Heterotrophic bacteria is incorrect because heterotrophic bacteria are bacteria that obtain their energy from organic compounds, rather than sunlight.Option B: Saprotrophic bacteria is also incorrect because saprotrophic bacteria are bacteria that obtain their energy by decomposing dead organic matter.Option C: Chemosynthetic bacteria is also incorrect because chemosynthetic bacteria are bacteria that obtain their energy from the oxidation of inorganic compounds, rather than sunlight.OpytionD: Purple bacteria or purple photosynthetic bacteria are gram-negative proteobacteria that are phototrophic which means they are capable of producing their food via photosynthesis. They are pigmented with bacteriochlorophyll a or b, together with various carotenoids, which give them colours ranging between purple, red, brown, and orange.

Q87. Some substances lack definite heats of fusion. These substances are:

• A. Isomorphs
• B. Polymorphs
• C. Amorphous solids✓
• D. Crystalline solids

Explanation: 'Amorphous solids' do not possess any particular heat of fusion thus Option C is correct. 'Crystalline solids' consist of atoms, ions, and molecules arranged in a definite and repeating three-dimensional pattern with definite heat of fusion. 'Isomorphs' are substances with different chemical compositions, exhibiting the same structure. 'Polymorphs' are multiple 3D structural forms of a substance.

Q88. Before a collision, molecules

• A. Get faster
• B. None of these
• C. Stops
• D. Slow Down✓

Explanation: Before a collision, molecules tend to slow down instantaneously in order to react with each other.

Q89. When we calculate the radii of Hydrogen atom by this equation r = 0.529A (n2) where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, the distance between orbits of hydrogen atom will:

• A. Decrease
• B. Increase✓
• C. Remains the same
• D. Be constant

Explanation: After substituting the values it can be seen that there is a general increase.

Q90. Which of the following is a factor affecting the rate of reaction?

• A. Amount of Substrate.
• B. Catalyst
• C. Temperature
• D. All of these.✓

Explanation: The major factors upon which the rate of a chemical reaction depends are:Amount of substrate/Concentration,Temperature,Catalyst, etc.Hence, all of the given options are correct.

Q91. The %age of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate is

• A. 46%
• B. 82%
• C. 33%✓
• D. 13%

Explanation: Ammonium nitrate, (NH4NO3), a salt of ammonia and nitric acid, used widely in fertilizers and explosives. The commercial grade contains about 33.5 percent nitrogen,

Q92. Half-life for 1st order reactions is:

• A. T½ = k/0.693
• B. T½ = 0.693/k✓
• C. None of these
• D. T½ = 0.693k

Explanation: The half-life of first-order reactions is given by the equation:T1/2 = 0.693/kwhere 'k' is the rate constant.

Q93. Benzene in the presence of AlCl3 produces acetophenone when reacts with:

• A. Acetyl chloride✓
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Ethyl benzene
• D. Ethanoic acid

Explanation: The benzene reacts with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride to form acetophenone.

Q94. The decomposition of phosphorus pentachloride in the presence of moisture takes place by the following mechanism. The rate equation for this reaction will be:

• A. Rate = k [POCl3][H2O]3
• B. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]✓
• C. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]4
• D. Rate = [PCl5][H2O]

Explanation: For the rate equation, the reactants of ONLY the rate-determining step, which is the slow step, are taken into account in a multi-step reaction, NOT the overall equation or the fast step. Since the slow step here consists of one mole of PCL5 and one mole of H2O in the reactants, the rate equation will contain these two substances, each raised to the power 1, which is reflected in option B only.Option A takes into account the fast step only.Option C takes into account the overall reaction.Option D does not have the rate constant k mentioned in the question.

Q95. The test used to distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols is:

• A. 2,4 - DNPH test
• B. Tollens test
• C. Lucas Test✓
• D. Fehling solution test

Explanation: Lucas' Solution is a solution of anhydrous ZnCl and concentrated HCl and we use this solution to examine the class of alcohol that we are dealing with. The difference is present between the time taken for the alcohol to convert into chloroalkane. This change is marked by the solution becoming milky white from colourless and also an oily layer is formed on the surface of the solution during the reaction by the chloroalkane formed. Tertiary alcohols show the results almost immediately, followed by secondary alcohols showing results between 3-5 minutes. The primary alcohols do not show a result unless heated. 2,4 - DNPH is a test for the detection of aldehydes and ketones. Tollens and Fehling Solution are used to differentiate between an aldehyde and ketone. Only Aldehydes gives Tollens and Fehlings tests.

Q96. In the reaction, 2SO2 (g) + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 (g) ∆H= -X cal most favorable conditions of temperature and pressure for a greater yield of SO2 are:

• A. Low temperature and low pressure
• B. High temperature and low pressure
• C. High temperature and high pressure
• D. Low temperature and high pressure✓

Explanation: According to Le Chatelier's principle, when a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the position of the equilibrium shifts in a direction so that the effect of the change is nullified. When pressure is increased, the equilibrium will shift to product side (which contains less number of moles of gaseous species). This nullifies the effect of increase in pressure. Hence, more and more product will be formed.Low temperature favours exothermic reaction. Heat is evolved during the reaction (positive value of enthalpy change).

Q97. The chemical reaction in which reactions require high amount of activation energy are generally:

• A. Slow✓
• B. First fast then slow
• C. First slow then fast
• D. Spontaneous

Explanation: The activation energy of a chemical reaction is closely related to its rate. Specifically, the higher the activation energy, the slower the chemical reaction will be. This is because molecules can only complete the reaction once they have reached the top of the activation energy barrier.

Q98. Which of the following compounds will form a hydrocarbon on reaction with Grignard reagent?

• A. CH3CH2OH✓
• B. CH3COOCH3
• C. CH3COCH3
• D. CH3CHO

Explanation: A Grignard reagent reacts with compounds containing active H atom, such as water, ammonia, amines, alcohols, alkynes etc., to form a hydrocarbon. It does not form hydrocarbon with ethanal and propanone. CH3CH2OH will form a hydrocarbon on reaction with Grignard's reagent as on reaction with Grignard's reagent −OH group will get replaced by the R− group of RMgX leading to the formation of hydrocarbon.

Q99. Due to the presence of a common ion, the solubility of a salt:

• A. Decreases✓
• B. Increases
• C. First decreases then increase
• D. Remain unchanged

Explanation: The presence of a common ion decreases the solubility of a salt in the solution. This is known as the common ion effect.

Q100. When the concentration of reactants are unit, the rate of reaction is then called _?

• A. Rate constant
• B. Both rate constant and velocity constant✓
• C. Velocity constant
• D. Reaction constant

Explanation: The rate of reaction is given by Rate of reaction = k [A] [B] where k is rate constant or velocity constant and [A] [B] are the concentrations of reactants When the concentration of reactants is equal to unity then Rate of reaction = k [1][1] Rate of reaction = k Thus when the concentration of reactants is equal to unity then the rate of reaction is equal to the rate constant also known as velocity constant.

Q101. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g?

• A. 450 K✓
• B. 800 K
• C. 600 K
• D. 900 K

Explanation: So we know that, P₁V₁ / P₂V₂ = W₁T₁ / W₂T₂ Substituting in the above formula we get, => 1 × 1 / 0.75 × 1 = 2 × 300 / 1 × T₂ => 1 / 0.75 = 600 / T₂ Cross Multiplying we get, => T₂ × 1 = 600 × 0.75 => T₂ = 450 K

Q102. Keeping inview the values of standard reduction potential given above, which one of the following would you select as a feasible redox chemical reaction?

• A. Cl- + I2 -> Cl2 + 2I-
• B. Cu + Zn2+ -> Cu2+ + Zn
• C. Mg + 2H + -> Mg2+ + H2✓
• D. 2Au + 6H+ -> 2Au3+ + 3 H2

Explanation: For a redox reaction to be feasible, the emf of it must be positive. (NOTE: When calculating emf, you take the voltage of each half equation according to the scenario, i.e. one will exhibit the same order as those shown above so, the E value is directly taken, but for some, you have to reverse the sign of the E value since the reaction, itself, is reversed). In option A, the emf is = -1.36 + 0.54 = -0.82, so NOT FEASIBLE. In option B, the emf is = -0.34 -0,76 = -1.10, so NOT FEASIBLE. In option C, the emf is = 2.37 + 0.00V = 2.37 so, it IS FEASIBLE; answer is C. In option D, the emf is = -1.50 + 0 = -1.54 (the coefficient of the reaction is not taken into account) so, it is NOT FEASIBLE.

Q103. What would be the major product of the following reaction?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: The given reaction is Friedel Craft Acylation. Given C2H5OCl in the presence of AlCl3 leads to the addition of C2H5O to the benzene ring. Since, CH3 is an ortho-para directing group. It leads to the addition of substances at ortho-para positions, which are (2,4) positions. So there is an addition of C2H5O at either of ortho or para position.

Q104. Three reactions are given i. H2SO4 + 2HF ⟶ F2 + SO2 + 2H2O ii. H2SO4 + 2HBr ⟶ Br2 + SO2 + 2H2O iii. H2SO4 + 8HI ⟶ 4I2 + H2S + 4H2O The strongest reducing agent in these reactions is:

• A. HI✓
• B. HF
• C. HBr
• D. All of the above

Explanation: HI is the strongest reducing agent. The compounds having low dissociation energy are a stronger reducing agent than the others having high dissociation energy. The HI has low thermal stability as compared to HF, HCI, and HBr. HI can release H atoms easily as compared to HF, HCI, and HBr to reduce the other compound. The decreasing order of the reducing character is HI>HBr>HCl>HF

Q105. A child's balloon has a volume 3.80 dm3, when the temperature is 35°C. If the balloon is put in a refrigerator and cooled to 5°c, the approximate volume of the balloon is (assume pressure inside the balloon is equal to atmospheric pressure):

• A. 3.00 dm3
• B. 3.43 dm3✓
• C. 3.08 dm3
• D. 3.25 dm3
• E. 0.54 dm3

Explanation: V1=3.8 dm3 ; T1= 35 +273=308K V2=?; T2=5+273=278K V1/T1=V2/T2 3.8/308=V2/278 V2=3.43 dm3

Q106. The shielding effect increases?

• A. Down the Group✓
• B. Along the period
• C. Diagonally
• D. Only along the d-block

Explanation: As you go down the group, the period number increases, thus a new subshell is added.This leads to an increased shielding effect as more subshells are present to lessen the nuclear attraction experienced by valence electrons.

Q107. By heating 25g of limestone (CaCO3) , the weight of carbon dioxide produced is

• A. 14 g
• B. 71 g
• C. 11 g✓
• D. 2 g
• E. 10 g

Explanation: Limestonechemically is CaCO3 the reaction is CaCO3 --> CaO + CO2 weights= 100gm CaCO3 gives 56gm CaO + 44gm CO2 soif we use 25 gms = 14 + 11 gms It is because we are dividing the masses by 4 Hence the answer is 11 grams.

Q108. In the figure given below, the electron flow in external circuit is from:

• A. Copper to zinc electrode
• B. Right to left
• C. Porous partition to zinc electrode
• D. Zinc to copper electrode✓

Explanation: The electrons flow from the oxidation reaction (Zn (s) --> Zn2+ (aq) + 2 e-) to the reduction half-cell (Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- --> Cu (s)). So the electrons flow from the left to the right (zinc to copper electrode).

Q109. Fused Bauxite is electrolyzed to get _?

• A. Sodium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Aluminum✓
• D. Iron

Explanation: Fused bauxite, which is a mixture of aluminum oxide (Al2O3), iron oxide (Fe2O3), and other impurities, is electrolyzed to produce pure aluminum metal in a process called the Hall-Héroult process. In this process, fused bauxite is dissolved in a molten cryolite (Na3AlF6) electrolyte, which lowers the melting point of the mixture and makes it more conductive. Carbon anodes are used to supply electrons to the system, and the aluminum ions produced at the cathode are reduced to form liquid aluminum metal, which accumulates at the bottom of the cell. Oxygen gas is produced at the anode, where it reacts with the carbon anode to form carbon dioxide.

Q110. Why does Cr show 3d54s1 configuration instead of 3d44s2?

• A. Because it is transition element
• B. Because it shows different oxidation states
• C. Because of extra stability of half filled d5 system✓
• D. Because it is typical transition element

Explanation: The correct answer is: Because of the extra stability of the half-filled d5 system. The electron configuration of chromium (Cr) is often represented as 3d5, 4s1 instead of 3d4, 4s2. This is because the configuration of 3d5, 4s1 provides a half-filled d-orbital, which offers extra stability compared to the 3d4, 4s2 configuration.

Q111. For a reaction given below C(s) + O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) + 394 kJ / mol The enthalpy of reaction is

• A. 394 kJ / mol
• B. -394 kJ / mol✓
• C. 197 kJ / mol
• D. -197 kJ / mol

Explanation: Formation of Carbon dioxide from Carbon and Oxygen is an exothermic reaction. Almost 394kJ of heat is produced or given off.From the equation it is seen that since it is an exothermic reaction-1 mole of CO2 releases 394kJ of heat and when energy is released enthalpy change is negative.(Please note that the"+394" in the question is NOT enthalpy change. It is simply the energy released with the reaction. The question requires us to determine the enthalpy change based on this information).

Q112. The rate of a reaction in general can be increased by all the following factors except:

• A. By increasing temperature
• B. Using a suitable catalyst
• C. By an increase in activation energy✓
• D. By increasing conc. Of reactants

Explanation: Activation energy is inversely proportional to the rate of the reaction. When the activation energy increases, the rate of the reaction decreases. The addition of the catalyst either increases or decreases the rate of the reaction. When the temperature of the reaction is increased or the concentration of the reactants is increased, the rate of the reaction increases.

Q113. The order of reaction for which half-life is inversely proportional to the concentration of reaction is?

• A. Second Order✓
• B. Zero Order
• C. First Order
• D. Third Order

Explanation: A second-order reaction is a type of chemical reaction that depends on the concentrations of a one second-order reactant or two first-order reactants. This reaction proceeds at a rate proportional to the square of the concentration of one reactant, or the product of the concentrations of two reactants.

Q114. What is the % relative humidity at 25 C and 0.01876 atm if the vapor pressure of water is 23.76 mm Hg.

• A. 40 %
• B. 50 %
• C. 60 %✓
• D. 70%

Explanation: Strategy: relative humidity measures how much water vapor is present in the air. It is expressed as the ratio between the pressure exerted by the water vapor and it’s vapor pressure at a given temperature. To calculate the problem, use this formula:

Q115. Beryllium(Be) shows the diagonal relationship with:

• A. Al✓
• B. B
• C. Mg
• D. Na

Explanation: The elements of the 2nd period, show resemblance in properties with elements of the 3rd period, placed diagonally. This is called the diagonal relationship. Beryllium (Be) shows a diagonal relationship with aluminum (Al).

Q116. Electrophile in sulphonation of benzene is:

• A. HSO4-
• B. H2SO4
• C. SO3✓
• D. HSO3

Explanation: SO3 acts as an electrophile in sulphonation. Sometimes H2SO4 is also seen in equations in place of SO3 because H2SO4 dissociates to give SO3, which in turn acts as an electrophile that’s why B is not the best choice.

Q117. According to coulomb's law, the electrostatic forces of attraction between electron and nucleus are _ to its square of the radius.

• A. Directly proportional
• B. Inversely proportional✓
• C. Equal
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: Coulomb's law states that the force of attraction or repulsion acting along a straight line between two electric charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely to the square of the distance between them.

Q118. Line spectrum of sodium contains _ colored line/lines separated by a definite distance

• A. one yellow
• B. two yellow✓
• C. two brown
• D. two golden

Explanation: The sodium line spectrum contains 2 bright yellow lines, also known as the Sodium D-Lines.

Q119. Study the following facts: Zn → Zn+2 + 2e― Eo = +0.76 V Cu → Cu+2 + 2e― Eo = – 0.34 V

• A. Cu + Zn+2 → Cu+2 + Zn
• B. Cu+2 + Zn+2 → Cu + Zn
• C. Cu+2 + Zn → Cu + Zn+2✓
• D. Cu+2 + Zn+2 → Cu + Zn+2

Explanation: The half cell equation with the lower Eo is the anode. Electrons travel from cathode to anode. (Flip the equation with the lower Eo and then 2e cancel out).

Q120. How many chain isomers are shown by C5H12?

• A. 5
• B. 4
• C. 3✓
• D. 2

Explanation: C5H12 can have 3 isomers.

Q121. In CCl4, all C-Cl bonds are _ but the molecule is overall _.

• A. Polar, Nonpolar✓
• B. Nonpolar, Neutral
• C. Polar, Neutral
• D. Neutral, Nonpolar

Explanation: CCl4, or carbon tetrachloride, contains only polar bonds. The molecule, however, is nonpolar because it has symmetrical geometry. These four equivalent carbon–chlorine bonds generate four dipole moments. These dipole moments cancel each other, and the molecule has no overall polarity. Hence, A is the correct option.

Q122. Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes exhibits:

• A. Substitution reaction
• B. Elimination reaction
• C. Addition reaction✓
• D. Condensation reaction

Explanation: Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes exhibits addition reactions. Addition reactions in an unsaturated compound mean a compound that has a double bond can undergo addition reactions. The addition reactions can be classified into three main categories. Electrophilic addition: In these types of reactions, a species, that accepts an electron pair, attacks the electron-rich site of the double bond between carbon atoms. The reaction examples include the reactions of alkenes with hydrogen halides to give alkyl halides. Nucleophilic addition: In these types of reactions, species that have electron pairs, donate to form a chemical bond. These reactions usually occur in compounds having a carbonyl group like aldehydes or ketones. Free-radical addition: In these types of reactions, non-polar molecules form bonds with unsaturated compounds. These reactions occur when free radicals are formed. Free radicals are species that have unpaired valence electrons.

Q123. The stability in the following structure is due to the:

• A. Weak van der Waal’s forces
• B. Disulfide bridges
• C. Presence of unpaired electron in the structure
• D. Hydrogen bonding between NH group of one peptide and CO group of another peptide✓

Explanation: The alpha helix (α-helix) is a type of secondary structure of proteins and is in a right hand-helix conformation in which every backbone N−H group hydrogen bonds to the backbone C=O. group of the amino acid located three or four residues earlier along the protein sequence.

Q124. Those elements, with an electronic configuration of valence shell ns2 np6 show little tendency to react chemically, are called?

• A. Lanthanides
• B. Actinides
• C. Alkali metals
• D. Noble gases✓

Explanation: The reactivity of lanthanides is generally lower than that of the corresponding alkali and alkaline earth metals. Lanthanides are relatively unreactive with water and oxygen, and they do not readily dissolve in most acids. However, they can react with strong oxidizing agents, such as chlorine or fluorine, to form a variety of compounds. Actinides are highly reactive elements due to their large atomic and ionic radii, high charge densities, and the presence of f-orbitals, which make them more susceptible to oxidation and reduction reactions. The alkali metals are highly reactive metals, and their reactivity increases from top to bottom of the group. Noble metals include metals such as gold, silver, platinum, and palladium. These metals are characterized by their low chemical reactivity, which is due to the fact that they have a completely filled outermost electron shell.

Q125. Which group gives a yellow precipitate of triiodomethane when warmed with alkaline aqueous iodine?

• A. An amide group, CH3CONH2
• B. Ethyl ketone group, C2H5COR
• C. A primary alcohol group as in propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH
• D. Methyl ketone group, CH3COR✓

Explanation: In the case of ethanal, methyl ketone or a secondary alcohol with a methyl group in the alpha position, a pale yellow precipitate of iodoform or triiodomethane is formed.

Q126. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using:

• A. Joule's Law
• B. Ohm's Law
• C. Hess's Law✓
• D. Faraday's Law
• E. Boyle's Law

Explanation: Hess' law states that the change of enthalpy in a chemical reaction (i.e. the heat of reaction at constant pressure) is independent of the pathway between the initial and final states. In other words, if a chemical change takes place by several different routes, the overall enthalpy change is the same, regardless of the route by which the chemical change occurs (provided the initial and final conditions are the same). Hess’s law allows the enthalpy change (ΔH) for a reaction to be calculated even when it cannot be measured directly.

Q127. What is the emf of Zn-Cu cell ?

• A. 1.01V
• B. 1.23V
• C. 1.1V✓
• D. 1.44V

Explanation: Standard cell potential of Zn-Cu cell is 1.1V.

Q128. Glucose(C6H12O6) is the most important nutrient in a cell for generating chemical potential energy, what is the mass percent of carbon in 1.5g of sample?

• A. 33%
• B. 40%✓
• C. 53.3%
• D. 6.67%

Explanation: The mass percent of the carbon in a 1.5g sample of glucose is approximately 40%. To determine the mass percent of carbon in a sample of glucose (C6H12O6), we need to calculate the mass of carbon in the sample and then express it as a percentage of the total mass. The molar mass of glucose is calculated as follows: C: 6 atoms x 12.01 g/mol = 72.06 g/mol H: 12 atoms x 1.01 g/mol = 12.12 g/mol O: 6 atoms x 16.00 g/mol = 96.00 g/mol Total molar mass of glucose: 72.06 g/mol + 12.12 g/mol + 96.00 g/mol = 180.18 g/mol Now, to find the mass of carbon in 1.5 g of glucose, we can use the molar mass ratio of carbon to glucose: Mass of carbon = (Mass of glucose / Molar mass of glucose) x Molar mass of carbon Mass of carbon = (1.5 g / 180.18 g/mol) x 72.06 g/mol Mass of carbon = 0.599 g Finally, we can calculate the mass percent of carbon in the sample: Mass percent of carbon = (Mass of carbon / Mass of sample) x 100 Mass percent of carbon = (0.599 g / 1.5 g) x 100 Mass percent of carbon = 39.93% Therefore, the mass percent of carbon in a 1.5 g sample of glucose is approximately 39.93%.

Q129. The enthalpy of certain reactions at 273 K is -20.75 kJ. The enthalpy of the same reaction at 373 K (if heat capacities of reactants and products are the same) will be:

• A. －20.75 kJ✓
• B. -2075 kJ
• C. Zero
• D. －20.75 x 373/273 kJ

Explanation: As it is provided in the given statement that heat capacities of reactants and products are the same, therefore there will be no energy change in the reaction. By Kirchoff's Rule; ∆Cp=∆H2-H1/T2-T1∆Cp(T2-T1)=∆H2-H1As, ∆Cp= 0 , ∆H2=H1 , therefore;H2= -20.75KJ

Q130. Which among the following gives ppt. with terminal alkynyl hydrogen?

• A. Ammonical silver nitrate
• B. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
• C. Both a and b✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Terminal hydrogen of alkynes is acidic in nature, therefore it forms a red ppt. with ammonical cuprous chloride and white ppt. with ammoniacal silver nitrate solutions.

Q131. Cyanohydrins can be synthesized from ketones through:

• A. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• B. Unimolecular Nucleophilic substitution reaction
• C. Electrophilic substitution reaction
• D. Bimolecular Nucleophilic substitution reaction
• E. Nucleophilic elimination reaction

Explanation: A cyanohydrin reaction is an organic chemical reaction by an aldehyde or ketone with a cyanide anion or a nitrile to form a cyanohydrin. This nucleophilic addition is a reversible reaction but with aliphatic carbonyl compounds equilibrium is in favor of the reaction products. The cyanide source can be potassium cyanide, sodium cyanide or trimethylsilyl cyanide.

Q132. One Calorie is equivalent to:

• A. 0.4184J
• B. 41.84 J
• C. 4.184 J✓
• D. 418.4 J

Explanation: There are 4.184 joules in 1 calorie.

Q133. Which molecule is planar?

• A. SF4
• B. XeF4✓
• C. NF3
• D. SiF4

Explanation: In XeF4, there are two lone pairings. Ans. The electron geometry of Xenon is octahedral, but the molecular geometry is square planar. This is because there are six bonding electron pairs in Xenon, so it has an octahedral electron geometry, but two electron pairs in the centre are unbound and lone pairs.

Q134. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are:

• A. Angular and non - zero✓
• B. Angular and zero
• C. Linear and zero
• D. Linear and non - zero

Explanation: As we can see that H2S is a bent molecule, so the dipole moment is non-zero because sulfur is more electronegative than hydrogen and makes the molecule slightly polar. Thus, the geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are Angular and non- zero.

Q135. Solution contains 85.5 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 cm3. What is its molarity?

• A. 1 M✓
• B. 0.5 M
• C. 0.25 M
• D. 2 M

Explanation: Molarity is moles of a substance divided by the volume in liters or cubic decimeters. For moles, divide the given mass with the molar mass of sucrose, which is (12x12+22+11x16) 342 grams per mol. Number of moles is 85.5/342 which comes out to 0.25 mol. To convert 250 cubic cm to liters, divide by 1000, so this comes out to 0.25 liters. Molarity = 0.25/0.25 = 1M so, answer is A.

Q136. Molar heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of:

• A. A liquid into its vapours at its boiling point✓
• B. Liquids into its vapours
• C. Solids into vapours
• D. Solid into liquid at its melting point

Explanation: Molar heat of vapourization refers to the conversion of one mole of a liquid to its vapors at a constant temperature, which is the boiling point of the liquid. That is why option A is correct. Option B is partially correct because vaporization refers to the conversion of a liquid to gas, however, at a constant temperature. Options C and D are incorrect because vaporization does not involve the conversion of solids to liquids.

Q137. The smallest number of molecules are present in?

• A. 3.6g of H2
• B. 4.8g of C2H5OH
• C. 2.8g of CO
• D. 5.4g of N2O5✓

Explanation: Using the formulas; Moles = mass in (g) / Mr no.of molecules = moles× Avogadro's constant. Moles= 5.4/108 = 0.05 mol No. of molecules = 0.05×6.022×1023 = 3.011×1022 Option D has the least number of molecules thus it is the correct option

Q138. In Cannizzaro's reaction, Benzyl alcohol is obtained from?

• A. benzaldehyde✓
• B. benzene
• C. picric acid
• D. benzyl chloride

Explanation: Cannizaro is the reaction in one which is given by the aldehyde and there is no alpha carbon present in the "aldehyde".

Q139. The ionization energy of groups _ shows an abnormal trend?

• A. 3A & 4A
• B. 5A & 6A
• C. 6A & 4A
• D. 3A and 6A✓

Explanation: The ionization energies of group IIIA and VIA show abnormal trends because elements of these groups tend to lose electrons easily to become stable.

Q140. In the second period of elements, although oxygen lies next to nitrogen yet its ionization first energy is lower than that of nitrogen because?

• A. Oxygen is paramagnetic in character.
• B. Nuclear charger of oxygen is greater than nitrogen.
• C. Oxygen has higher electron affinity.
• D. In oxygen, there exists repulsion between pair of electrons present in the same orbital of valence shell.✓

Explanation: Option A is factually correct but has no bearing on ionization energy. Option B is factually correct as oxygen has one more proton in its nucleus than nitrogen, however, because of this, the ionization energy must increase, but in reality, the ionization energy of oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen. Option C is factually correct, but has no bearing on activation energy. Option D is correct because oxygen has 6 valence electrons compared to Nitrogen's 5 valence electrons so, the electronic configuration of the last shell of O is 2s2 2p4 compared with nitrogen's 2s2 2p3. In N, the p subshells have all three orbitals, singly filled with electrons whereby in oxygen, one p orbital has a pair of electrons. In this orbital, the two electrons exert repulsion which will lower the ionization energy due to a decrease in the effective nuclear force of attraction between the outermost electron and nucleus in the oxygen atom.

Q141. Power developed by a person on eating 100g of ice per minute is:

• A. 130 W
• B. 560 cal/sec
• C. 560 J/sec✓
• D. none of these

Explanation: A mass of ice eaten by the man per second. m =100/60=5/3 g/s Latent heat of ice, L = 80 cal/g. Therefore, energy required per second by the man in eating the ice, i.e., power developed by the man. = mL =5/3 x 80 cal/s 3 =5x80/3x4.2J/s=560W

Q142. In an inelastic collision, Momentum is _ and Kinetic Energy is _ respectively.

• A. Not conserved ; not conserved
• B. conserved ; not conserved✓
• C. Conserved ; conserved
• D. Not conserved ; conserved

Explanation: B is the answer as momentum is always conserved in a closed system however if we talk about the kinetic energy, it isn’t conserved as it is converted to other forms of energy hence the overall energy is conserved but kinetic energy, solely, isn’t.

Q143. The charge on the electron and proton is reduced to half. If the present value of Rydberg constant is 𝑅, then the new value of Rydberg constant will be:

• A. 𝑅/2
• B. 𝑅/4
• C. 𝑅/8
• D. 𝑅/16✓

Explanation: Explaination is given in the image.

Q144. A galvanometer has a resistance of 20 ohms and a full-scale deflection when a current of 0.001 ampere flows in it. What is the value of the series resistance to convert it into a voltmeter of range 10 volts?

• A. 7780 ohms
• B. 9980 ohms✓
• C. 5580 ohms
• D. 4480 ohms
• E. 3380 ohms

Explanation: As we know that converting a galvanometer into a voltmeter,we use formula Rh=V/Ig -Rg where Rh is the series resistance V is the voltage Ig is a full-scale deflection Rg is the resistance of the galvanometer so by putting values: Rh=10/0.001 -20 Rh=9980 ohm

Q145. When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a uniform wire of length l and radius r, a current I flows in the wire. If same potential difference is applied to the ends of another wire of the same material but of length 2l and radius 2r, the current in the wire is:

• A. I/4
• B. 2I✓
• C. I
• D. I/2

Explanation: R=ρl/A When radius is doubled : Area=2*pi*(2r) = 2*pi*4r Hence the area has increased by 4 times. New resistance : Rx = ρ*2l/4A = ½ R V=IR where V remains same and R becomes half I = V / ½R I become equal to 2I.

Q146. The unstable atom means?

• A. Electrons are increasing
• B. Protons are increasing
• C. Neutrons are increasing
• D. Any of these✓

Explanation: Multi electronic species are unstable, it prefers to lose electrons and form a stable octet or duplet; a "higher proton and neutron" number means a heavier nucleus which is naturally radioactive, i.e. naturally unstable. An unstable atom also has excess internal energy, with the result that the nucleus can undergo a spontaneous change (change in the number of protons and/or neutrons) towards a more stable form.

Q147. If displacement-time graph is a curve, which of the following is correct:

• A. area under graph represent displacement
• B. gradient of the graph is constant
• C. gradient of the tangent of graph represents acceleration
• D. gradient of the tangent of graph represents velocity✓

Explanation: Area under the graph of a disp/time graph is acceleration and gradient is velocity so the correct answer is D.

Q148. A pendulum undergoes simple harmonic motion. The phase difference between the displacement and the acceleration of the particle is:

• A. 0
• B. π/2
• C. π✓
• D. 3π/2

Explanation: Option C is correct. In SHM, acceleration is directed towards mean while displacement is towards extreme. The phase difference is 180 degrees or π.

Q149. The question is as follows:

• A. 1250 J
• B. l000J
• C. 3500J
• D. 2500 J✓

Explanation: This question requires use of calculus, and is beyond the scope of the pre-medical syllabus.

Q150. What will be the expression for the observed frequency, if the source is moving towards the observer?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: The Doppler equation tells how the observed frequency (f) changes with moving source with speed (us). The observed frequency will be greater than the frequency of the source (f0) for a source moving towards the observer.

Q151. A ball moving horizontally with speed ‘v’ strikes the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is equal to that of the ball if the collision is elastic the bob will rise to a height:

• A. v2/g
• B. v2/2g✓
• C. v2/4g
• D. v2/8g
• E. v2/7g

Explanation: From the conservation of linear momentum before and after the collision, mv=(m+m)v′ ⟹v′=v/2 All the initial kinetic energy gets converted to gravitational potential energy at the maximum height. Thus, ½ (2m)v2=(2m)gh =>V2/2g

Q152. A star moving away from earth shows _.

• A. Green shift
• B. Red shift✓
• C. Blue shift
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option B is correct because: When an object moves away from us, the light is shifted to the red end of the spectrum, as its wavelengths get longer. Option C is incorrect because: If an object moves closer, the light moves to the blue end of the spectrum as its wavelengths get shorter. Options A and D are incorrect because: These options don’t fit the question.

Q153. A first harmonic stationary sound wave is produced in the air of the cylinder, which is half-filled with water. More water is added to the cylinder, and now first harmonic stationary wave is produced with a different frequency. What is the change in frequency and nature of displacement in air at the surface of the water?

• A. Nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = decrease
• B. Nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = increase
• C. Nature of displacement = node change in frequency = increase✓
• D. Nature of displacement = node change in frequency = decrease

Explanation: Since the cylinder is half-filled with water, we can treat this as a pipe where it is closed on one end and open on the other. The closed end is a node. Adding water would decrease the original length, change the node, and increase the frequency as the formula for frequency is F = V/2L and since the length is decreasing, the frequency is increasing. Hence Option C is correct.

Q154. A body is hanging from a rigid support by an extensible string of length L. It is struck inelastically by an identical body of mass m with horizontal velocity v =√2gl , the tension in the string increases just after striking by:

• A. mg
• B. 3mg
• C. 2mg✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Before collision, writing force equations T= mg (i) Using conservation of momentum mv = 2mv' v'= v/2 (ii) After collision, writing force equations T' - 2mg = 2mv'²/ L T' = 2mg + 2mv'²/L (iii) Given that v= square root (2gL) (iv) From (ii), (iii), (iv), T' = 3mg Increase on tension is T' - T = 2mg

Q155. The power loss 𝑃 in a resistor is calculated using the formula: 𝑃 =𝑉2/R The uncertainty in the potential difference 𝑉 is 3% and the uncertainty in the resistance 𝑅 is 2%. What is the uncertainty in 𝑃?

• A. 4%
• B. 7%
• C. 8%✓
• D. 11%

Explanation: •The fractional error in V would be3×2=6•The fractional error in R would be2•So the fractional error of power would be equal to the sum of the fractional errors of both potential difference and resistance;6+3=8•NOTE= The given % error is multiplied by the power as in case of potential difference.

Q156. When a body moves in a circle the angle between its linear velocity and angular velocity is always :

• A. 0°
• B. 180°
• C. 360°
• D. 90°✓

Explanation: The angle between the linear velocity and the angular velocity of a body moving in a circle is 90°.

Q157. Which one of the following properties is not exhibited by the longitudinal waves?

• A. Interference
• B. Reflection
• C. Diffraction
• D. Polarization✓

Explanation: Longitudinal waves can’t undergo polarization. Polarization is the property exhibited by transverse waves only. Longitudinal waves however can undergo interference, reflection, and diffraction.

Q158. If μ is the permeability of the medium and ∈ permittivity of the medium then the value of √ 1 / μ . ∈. Is equal to _.

• A. Planck's constant
• B. Speed of sound waves
• C. Speed of ultrasound waves
• D. Speed of light✓

Explanation: √ 1 / μ . ∈ would represent the speed of light.

Q159. A plane is moving with speed v at a height 'h' in the horizontal direction. The time taken to reach the ground is:

• A. √2g/u
• B. None of these
• C. √(2h/g)✓
• D. √(2u/g)

Explanation: If we solve the second equation of motion for time:h = ut + 1/2gt2Since it is moving with v velocity therefore the initial velocity u must have been zeroh = 1/2gt2t2 = 2h/gt = √2h/g

Q160. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Power is proportional to voltage only
• B. Power is proportional to current only
• C. Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current
• D. Power is proportional to both voltage and the current✓

Explanation: D. Electric Power is the work done in an electric circuit in time 'T'.P = W/TBut W = QV,So, the equation becomes,P = QV/tAs, Q = I tP = ItV /tP = IVHence, Power is directly related to both current and voltage.

Q161. A _ is a positively charged particle with properties similar to the α-particle. Its mass is one fourth and charge is one half of that of an α-particle. It is smaller in size and carries less energy at the same velocity.

• A. Beta particle
• B. Gamma ray
• C. Neutron
• D. Proton✓

Explanation: An alpha particle have : Mass: 4 times the mass of proton, =6.68×10^-27 kg, so that means, mass of protons is ¼ times of that of an alpha particle. Charge: 2 times the charge of proton, =3.2×10^-19 Coulomb. It means charge of proton is ½ of that of an alpha particle

Q162. 1/Req = 1/Rl + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + ..... +1/Rn is the combination in

• A. Series
• B. Parallel✓
• C. Both of them
• D. None of them

Explanation: When resistors are connected in parallel, the potential difference across all the resistors is the same. The total current is given by,

Q163. Two forces, 5 N and 10 N are acting at ‘O’ and ‘P’ respectively on a uniform meter rod suspended at the position of center of gravity 50cm mark as shown in the figure.

• A. 80 cm
• B. 75 cm✓
• C. 70 cm
• D. 65 cm

Explanation: For the rod to bebalanced, the clockwise moment must be equal to the anticlockwise moment. 5*50=10*x 250/10=x x=25cm 50+25=75cm.

Q164. On a planet, a vertically-launched projectile takes 12.5 s to return to its starting position. The projectile gains a maximum height of 170 m. The planet does not have an atmosphere. What is the acceleration of free fall on this planet?

• A. 2.2 m s−2
• B. 8.7 m s−2✓
• C. 27 m s−2
• D. 54 m s−2

Explanation: Explanation is given below:

Q165. The number of down quarks in a proton is:

• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 1✓

Explanation: The two types of particles that you need to know are hadrons and leptons. Particles that are affected by the strong nuclear force are called hadrons, like protons and neutrons. Leptons are particles that are affected by weak nuclear force, like electrons. Hadrons are made of quarks that have several flavors. Two of the aforementioned flavors are "up" and "down". The quark composition is such that the overall charge of the particle is maintained. If the particle in question is a proton, as in this case, the charge would be +1. Proton: u u d

Q166. If a cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm is connected across a resistance R, the current that flows is same as that when a cell of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.3 ohm is connected across the same resistor. Then R=_Ohm.

• A. 0.3✓
• B. 0.6
• C. 0.5
• D. 0.75

Explanation: Option A is correct.

Q167. An object whose mass is 100 g starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 20 cm/s2. At the end of 8 s its momentum is _ in g cm/s.

• A. 500
• B. 8000
• C. 16000✓
• D. 33000
• E. 64000

Explanation: mass = 100gram = 0.1kg initial velocity (u) = 0 acceleration (a) =20cm per second square =0.2 metre per second square.Time=8 second Final velocity =? According to the equation v=u+at v=0+0.2 * 8 =1.6m/s Momentum = mass * velocity =0.1 * 1.6 =0.16 kg m/second =16000 gram cm/second

Q168. Which of the following is an instrument for monitoring radiations:

• A. GM tube✓
• B. Radar
• C. Wilson cloud chamber
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: The Geiger-Mueller (GM) detector is a common portable instrument choice for a general laboratory radioactive material survey. GM detectors are capable of detecting alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. However, this instrument is limited by its ineffectiveness in detecting lower energy beta and gamma emitters. Radars send out electromagnetic waves as short pulses which may be reflected by objects in their path, in part reflecting to the radar. When these pulses intercept precipitation, part of the energy is scattered back to the radar. A cloud chamber, also known as a Wilson cloud chamber, is a particle detector used for visualizing the passage of ionizing radiation.

Q169. Which of the following statement shows that no work is done?

• A. Pushing a car to start it moving
• B. Lifting the weights.
• C. The moon Orbiting the earth.✓
• D. Writing an essay on a page.

Explanation: When the moon revolves around the earth, the displacement is normal to the direction of force on the moon. Therefore no work is done by the moon.Work is the dot product of force and displacement.W=F.dcos theta

Q170. The nuclear equation shown has a term missing. What is represented by the missing term?

• A. An antineutrino✓
• B. An electron
• C. A neutrino
• D. A positron

Explanation: when a negative beta particle is produced an antineutrino is also produced

Q171. If a cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm is connected across a resistance R, the current that flows is the same as that when a cell of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.3 ohms is connected across the same resistor. Then R= Ohm.

• A. 0.3✓
• B. 0.6
• C. 0.5
• D. 0.75

Explanation: Figure 1 describes the first cell and figure 2 describes the second cell, both carrying the same current i. i is the circuit current and to find R Using ohm's law for figure 1. V=IR V= i Req1 , where i is the circuit current and Req1 is the resistance of the first cell. Req1 = 0.5 + R (since they are in series the resistance are added) V= i Req1 2= i (0.5 + R) i = 2 / 0.5 + R — eq1 Using ohm's law for figure 2. V=IR V= i Req2I, where i is the circuit current, and Req2 is the resistance of the second cell. Req = 0.3 + R (since they are in series the resistance are added) V= i Req2 1.5 = i (0.3 + R) i= 1.5 / 0.3 + R —- eq2 Equating both eq1 and eq2 2 / 0.5 + R = .5 / 0.3 + R 0.6 + 2R = 0.75 + 1.5R 0.5R = 0.15 R = 0.15/0.5 R="0.3 ohms"

Q172. The flux is the region where magnetic field:

• A. Changes direction
• B. Changes strength
• C. Changes polarity
• D. Does not change✓

Explanation: Magnetic flux is a static region around a magnet in which the magnetic force exists. Magnetic flux is defined as the number of magnetic field lines passing through a given surface area. According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF) in a conductor. This EMF generates a current that produces a magnetic field that opposes the original change in magnetic flux. This phenomenon is known as Lenz's Law. Therefore, a magnetic field cannot change in flux because any change in the magnetic field would induce an EMF that would produce a current that opposes the change in flux. So, option D is the only correct answer.

Q173. An electron is situated midway between two parallel plates 0.5 cm apart. One of the plates is maintained at a potential of 60 volts above the other. The force on the electron is (e = -1.6x10-19)

• A. 1.82x10-15 N
• B. 3.00x10-16 N
• C. 1.92x10-15 N✓
• D. 3.00x10-15 N
• E. 5.00x10-15 N

Explanation: This is the following solution for the above question:

Q174. A ball falls vertically and bounces on the ground. The following statements are about the forces acting while the ball is in contact with the ground. Which statement is correct?

• A. The force that the ball exerts on the ground is always equal to the weight of the ball.
• B. The force that the ball exerts on the ground is always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force the ground exerts on the ball.✓
• C. The force that the ball exerts on the ground is always greater than the weight of the ball.
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: If a ball falls vertically and bounces on the ground, then by Newton’s 3rd law of motion, the force that the ball exerts on the ground is always equal in magnitude and opposite direction to the force that ground exerts on the ball. Thus, option B is correct. All other options are incorrect because both forces can not be greater or equal to each other. They must oppose each other in order to approve Newton's Third Law of motion.

Q175. Under what condition an object will have zero displacement but non zero distance?

• A. Linear motion
• B. Circular motion✓
• C. Random motion
• D. Oscillation

Explanation: As the object moves around in a circular track, its perpendicular distance from the center remains unchanged, so we can say that there is zero change in displacement. However, during circular motion object does cover distance in a circular path, so the change in distance is non-zero.In oscillations, linear motion, and random motion there is a change in perpendicular distance from the origin point so displacement is non-zero that is why A, C, and D are incorrect.

Q176. If two sounds have the same wavelength in air at the same temperature, what other property must they also have in common? Intensity Amplitude Frequency

• A. I only
• B. III only✓
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only
• E. I, II and III

Explanation: For wavelength to be constant for waves, their frequency and velocity should be the same as suggested by the formula velocity = frequency x wavelength. That is why the answer is III (frequency only)

Q177. Astronomers calculate speed of distant stars and galaxies using which of the following phenomena:

• A. Beats
• B. Interference
• C. Superposition principle
• D. Doppler effect✓

Explanation: Astronomers can measure the rotation speed in spiral galaxies by obtaining spectra of either stars or gas, and looking for wavelength shifts produced by the Doppler effect. Remember that the faster something is moving toward or away from us, the greater the shift of the lines in its spectrum.

Q178. The temperature coefficient of resistance is expressed in :

• A. °C
• B. °C-1✓
• C. m°C-1
• D. None of these

Explanation: The temperature coefficient of resistance (TCR) is a measure of how much the resistance of a material changes with temperature. It is expressed in units of inverse temperature, typically degrees Celsius or Kelvin( °C-1 or K-1). The TCR is defined as the percentage change in resistance per degree Celsius of temperature change.

Q179. Oil droplets of mass m and charge q are dropped between two horizontal parallel plates. Air resistance is negligible. The droplets are falling at constant velocity when electric field strength between the plates is E. Which of the following is true?

• A. E-0
• B. E < mg/q
• C. E = mg/q✓
• D. E > mg/q

Explanation: The forces on the droplet will be due to gravitational pull (related to mass) and due to the applied electric fieldqE will be directed upwards while mg will directed downwards F= ma = qEo -mg = 0 The equation becomes qEo = mg And , Eo = mg/q Therefore only option C is correct

Q180. Identify the example/s of Static Equilibrium: I. A book lying on a horizontal tableII. A buildingIII. A bridge

• A. I only
• B. II and III only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: Static equilibrium refers to any system where the sum of the forces, and torque, on every particle of the system happens to be zero. All of the options mentioned above have net torque of zero hence all are under static equilibrium.

Q181. The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:

• A. Heat energy into chemical energy
• B. Chemical energy Into electrical energy✓
• C. Solar energy into electrical energy
• D. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

Explanation: The chemical energy stored in the battery is converted to electrical energy that derives the flow of electrical charges in the circuit.

Q182. A gas is enclosed in a container fitted with a piston of cross-sectional area of 0.10 m2. The pressure of the gas is maintained at 8000 N/m2. When heat is slowly transferred, the piston is pushed up through a distance of 4.0 cm. If 42 J heat is transferred to the system during the expansion, what is the change in the internal energy of the system?

• A. 5 J
• B. 10 J✓
• C. 20 J
• D. 30 J
• E. 40 J

Explanation: force = pressure*area = 8000*0.1= 800 N work = force*displacement = 800*0.04 = 32 J as per the 1st law of thermodynamics change in internal energy = heat - work = 42 - 32 = 10 J

Q183. Is it possible to separate north pole only from bar magnet?

• A. Yes
• B. No✓
• C. In some cases it is possible
• D. None of these

Explanation: Magnetism is a property that is caused due to separation of poles at atomic level. Even when the north pole is separated from the south pole, a new north pole is formed. So, we cannot separate the north pole from a bar magnet. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q184. Three resistors of 6 Ohms each, can be connected in all possible ways. The highest value of resistance can be obtained (in ohms) be _.

• A. 2 Ohms
• B. 4 Ohms
• C. 9 Ohms
• D. 18 Ohms✓
• E. 36 Ohms

Explanation: If we connect all three in series, combined resistance will be 6+6+6=18 (Series combination always gives the highest combined resistance)If we connect all three in parallel, combined resistance will be 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/R so R = 2 Ohms (This is the lowest possible combined resistance) This cancels options A, B, C and E since the highest possible resistance must be equal 18 Ohms.

Q185. Two identical bodies have a velocity ratio 2 : 3. What is the ratio of kinetic energies?

• A. 9:4
• B. 3:2
• C. 4:9✓
• D. 2:3

Explanation: Formula for kinetic energy is given as ½ mv2. As the masses are the same so, the kinetic energy will be in the ratios of the square of their velocities.

Q186. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as:

• A. Temperature coefficient of resistance✓
• B. Thermal coefficient
• C. Linear coefficient of expansion
• D. Volumetric coefficient of expansion

Explanation: The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is called the temperature coefficient. The resistance coefficient, abbreviated as K, a dimensionless number, is how much resistance to the flow an obstacle has. The volumetric coefficient increases in volume per unit original volume per Kelvin rise in temperature is called the coefficient of volumetric expansion. The ratio increase in length original length for the 1-degree rise in temperature is called the coefficient of linear expansion

Q187. This is the following question:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q188. Two point charges attract each other with an electric force of magnitude F. If the charge on one of the particles is reduced to one-half its original value and the distance between the particles is doubled, what is the resulting magnitude of the electric force between them?

• A. F
• B. 2F
• C. F/4
• D. F/8✓

Explanation: The electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion between to charges is given by Coulomb's Law:F = kq₁q₂/r² ---------- equation 1where,F = Electrostatic Forcek = Coulomb's Constantq₁ = magnitude of first chargeq₂ = magnitude of 2nd charger = distance between chargesNow, if we double the distance between charges and reduce one charge to one-half value, then the force will become:F' = kq₁'q₂'/r'²Where,q₁' = (1/2)q₁q₂' = q₂r' = 2rTherefore,F' = k(1/2 q₁)(q₂)/(2r)²F' = (1/8)kq₁q₂/r²using equation 1:F' = F/8As this is numerical thus only one answer is correct.

Q189. When an object is thrown upward, it rises to height h. How high is the object in terms of h, when it has lost ⅓ of its original kinetic energy?:

• A. H/2
• B. H/3✓
• C. H/4
• D. H/6

Explanation: If an object loses its kinetic energy by 1/3rd that means this energy is converted into its potential energy, as according to the law of conservation of mass loss in kinetic energy is equal to gain in potential energy. KE=PE A decrease in KE of ⅓ means an increase in PE by 1/3rd 1/3KE=PE+1/3PE Thus, to gain 1/3rd of that kinetic energy the object must climb 1/3rd of its height Link to further discussion:

Q190. The magnetic field, B, produced in a solenoid depends on:

• A. its length
• B. its length and current in it
• C. Its length and number of turns in it
• D. Its length, number of turns and current in it✓

Explanation: Inside a solenoid, B=U0IN/L where I is the current, N is the no. of turns L is length Therefore, magnetic feild inside a solenoid depends on all these factors.

Q191. A test charge of 23 μC is at a point P where an external electric field is directed to the left and has a magnitude of 3.1 x106 N/C. If the test charge is replaced with another test charge of 13 μC, what happens to the external electric field at P?

• A. It remains the same.✓
• B. It reverses direction.
• C. It changes in a way that cannot be determined.
• D. 3.1 x 105 N/C.

Explanation: This question has been repeated multiple times in other papers as well, making this a high-yield concept. The external electric field is not produced by the test charge. The presence/absence of the test charge and changing the magnitude of the test charge does not change the external electric field, rather, it changes the effect of the external field on the test charge; hence the external electric field at "P remains the same".

Q192. Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of refraction in the rarer medium is equal to:

• A. 0˚
• B. Angle of incidence
• C. Twice the angle of incidence
• D. 90˚✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. A 90˚ angle of refraction implies that the ray of light doesn’t enter the rarer medium. Option A is wrong because the angle is from the normal to the ray. Option B is wrong since that happens for total internal reflection for angles bigger than the critical angle. Option C could be right but only if the critical angle is 45˚.

Q193. When deuterium and tritium fuse together they form?

• A. Atom
• B. U atom
• C. N atom
• D. He atom✓

Explanation: Deuterium–tritium fusion is a type of nuclear fusion in which one deuterium nucleus fuses with one tritium nucleus, giving "one helium nucleus", one free neutron, and energy.

Q194. The coloumb constant is defined as: (E stands for epsilon here)

• A. 1 / 4(π E)✓
• B. 4 / (π E)
• C. 4(π E)
• D. π / 4E

Explanation: The following image shows the explanation for this question:

Q195. Essential parts: What should come next to it book

• A. Pages✓
• B. Learning
• C. Pictures
• D. Eraser

Explanation: The necessary part of a book is its pages; there is no book without pages. Not all books are writing books hence they don’t need erasers, and not all books have pictures Learning may or may not take place with a book.

Q196. Complete the series AB, EF, _ , MN

• A. IJ✓
• B. RS
• C. WX
• D. MN

Explanation: The pattern is two alphabets then two alphabets skipped. So after EF, we will skip GH hence the answer will be IJ.

Q197. During the past year, Jamshed saw more movies than Sadia. Sadia saw fewer movies than Dawood. Dawood saw more movies than Jamshed. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

• A. True
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Statement 1 = Jamshed > Sadia (True) Statement 2 = Sadia < Dawood or Dawood > Sadia (True) Statement 3 = Dawood > Jamshed (Uncertain) Since Statement 1 and 2 both imply that Sadia has seen less number of movies than, both Dawood and Jamshed, there is uncertainty about who has seen more movies between Jamshed and Dawood as not enough information is given. It can either be Dawood > Jamshed > Sadia OR Jamshed > Dawood > Sadia.

Q198. Which of the following is classified as a main rock?

• A. Metamorphic
• B. Sedimentary
• C. Igneous✓
• D. Both Options A and B are correct

Explanation: Igneous rocks are formed from melted rocks deep inside the Earth. Sedimentary rocks are formed from layers of sand, silt, dead plants, and animal skeletons. Metamorphic rocks are formed from other rocks that are changed by heat and pressure underground.

Q199. Statement: According to reports, the childrens below age 10 are being aggressive because of mobile phones. Course of Action: I. Parents needs to be strict with their child. II. Parents need to be concerned and limit their screening time.

• A. Both of the courses of action follow
• B. None of the courses of action follow
• C. Only courses of action I follows
• D. Only courses of action II follows✓

Explanation: The root cause of children getting aggressive is their mobile phones hence limiting the time that children use their phones can solve this problem. Lenient parentage is not the problem plus strict parenting sometimes causes rebellious behavior.

Q200. Dependent cause/ Independent causes: I. The construction of dams has created an obstruction in the migration of animals. II. The animals of Amazon have turned into ferocious beasts, that are damaging the property as well as a threat to the lives of people.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• D. None of these options are correct✓

Explanation: None of the options are correct and we shall break it down as to why Option D is the correct answer; No clear link between the two statements can be established. 'Statement 1' mentions the adverse effects of the construction of dams, whereas 'Statement 2' is a temporal fact, stating that animals are acting unnaturally ferocious. Since the statements are unrelated, as a consequence, they can't be deemed as either effect or cause to one another.