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Punjab Biology 2016 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 17 MCQs from Punjab Biology 2016, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. Any group of inter-breeding organisms of the same species that exist together in both time and space is called:
- A. Gene pool
- B. Population✓
- C. True breeders
- D. Multiple alleles
Explanation: A population is a group of interbreeding individuals of the same species that live in the same area and can interbreed. Populations are defined by their geographic boundaries and can vary in size.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This refers to the complete set of unique alleles in a species or population. It includes all the genes, including all the different alleles for each gene, within a population.
- C. This term is not commonly used in biology. However, it could refer to organisms that consistently produce offspring with the same traits over generations due to homozygosity for certain alleles.
- D. Multiple alleles refer to the existence of more than two alleles (variants of a gene) for a particular trait within a population. This can lead to a variety of phenotypic expressions for that trait.
Q2. Green color blindness is called:
- A. Protonopia
- B. Dueteronopia✓
- C. Tritanopia
- D. Protanomalous
Explanation: Deuteranopia is another form of color blindness where individuals have difficulty distinguishing between red and green colors due to a lack of functioning green cones in the retina.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Protonopia is a form of color blindness where individuals have difficulty distinguishing between red and green colors due to a lack of functioning red cones in the retina.
- C. Tritanopia is a form of color blindness where individuals have difficulty distinguishing between blue and yellow colors due to a malfunction or absence of blue cone cells in the retina.
- D. Protanomalous is a type of red-green color blindness where individuals have a reduced sensitivity to red light due to a shifted peak wavelength of the red cone photopigment.
Q3. Alfred Wallace developed a theory of natural selection essentially identical to:
- A. Linnaeous
- B. Darwins✓
- C. Lamarks
- D. Mendels
Explanation: The theory of natural selection developed by Darwin is essentially identical to the theory proposed by Alfred Wallace. Both Darwin and Wallace independently formulated the concept of natural selection to explain the diversity of life on Earth, with Darwin publishing his ideas first in "On the Origin of Species" in 1859 and Wallace presenting similar ideas shortly afterward.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Carl Linnaeus was a Swedish botanist and zoologist known for his work in taxonomy, the classification of organisms. However, Linnaeus did not develop a theory of natural selection. Instead, he is renowned for his system of binomial nomenclature, the two-part naming system used for classifying species.
- C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed an early theory of evolution known as Lamarckism or the inheritance of acquired characteristics. Lamarck suggested that organisms could acquire new traits during their lifetime through interactions with their environment, and these acquired traits could be passed on to offspring. However, Lamarck's theory was later largely discredited, as it does not adequately explain the mechanism of evolution.
- D. Gregor Mendel is known for his pioneering work in genetics and his discovery of the basic principles of heredity. Mendel's experiments with pea plants led to the formulation of Mendelian genetics, which describes how traits are inherited from one generation to the next through discrete units called genes. Mendel's work laid the foundation for modern genetics but did not directly address the mechanism of natural selection.
Q4. In Sindh the desert ecosystem is called:
- A. Thar✓
- B. Thal
- C. Sahara
- D. Gobi
Explanation: Thar Desert is located in the southern part of Sindh province in Pakistan. It is one of the largest deserts in the Indian subcontinent.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Thal Desert is located in Punjab province, Pakistan, not in Sindh. It is smaller in comparison to the Thar Desert.
- C. The Sahara Desert is located in North Africa, far from Sindh, Pakistan.
- D. The Gobi Desert is located in northern China and southern Mongolia, also far from Sindh, Pakistan.
Q5. The animal that is caught and eaten is called:
- A. Predator
- B. Prey✓
- C. Host
- D. Parasite
Explanation: Prey refers to the animal that is hunted, killed, and eaten by another animal, known as the predator. In this context, the prey is the animal that is caught and eaten.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A predator is an animal that hunts, kills, and eats other animals (prey) for sustenance. So, in this context, a predator is not the animal being eaten but rather the one doing the eating.
- C. A host is an organism that harbors another organism (such as a parasite or a disease) within its body. However, the host is not typically eaten by the parasite. Instead, the parasite lives on or inside the host, often causing harm or deriving benefit at the host's expense. So, in the context of being eaten, the term "host" does not apply.
- D. A parasite is an organism that lives in or on another organism (the host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the host's expense. Parasites typically do not directly consume the host organism as a food source. Instead, they may consume the host's bodily fluids or tissues. Therefore, in the context of being eaten, the term "parasite" is not applicable.
Q6. Ozone Molecule is made up by binding of three atoms of:
- A. Nitrogen
- B. Hydrogen
- C. Oxygen✓
- D. Carbon
Explanation: The ozone molecule is made up of three atoms of oxygen (O).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The ozone molecule is made up of three atoms of oxygen (O).
- B. The ozone molecule is made up of three atoms of oxygen (O).
- D. The ozone molecule is made up of three atoms of oxygen (O).
Q7. The protection of the internal environment from the harms of the fluctuation in the external environment is termed as:
- A. Osmoregulation
- B. Thermoregulation
- C. Excretion
- D. Homeostasis✓
Explanation: Homeostasis refers to the overall stability and balance maintained by living organisms in their internal environment despite external fluctuations. It involves regulating various physiological parameters such as temperature, pH, blood sugar levels, and fluid balance within narrow ranges compatible with life. Homeostasis ensures that cells, tissues, and organs function optimally and adapt to changes in the external environment to maintain overall health and well-being.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This process regulates the balance of water and solutes, such as salts, within an organism's body to maintain internal stability. It ensures that cells are neither swollen with excess water nor dehydrated, despite changes in external water availability or salt concentrations. Osmoregulation is crucial for maintaining proper cellular function and preventing damage due to osmotic stress.
- B. Thermoregulation involves the control of body temperature within a narrow range to maintain optimal physiological function. Organisms adjust their metabolic rate, behavior, and physical characteristics (like sweating or shivering) to counteract fluctuations in external temperature. Maintaining proper body temperature is essential for enzymatic reactions, cellular function, and overall health.
- C. Excretion is the process of eliminating metabolic wastes and harmful substances from the body to maintain internal balance and prevent toxicity. Organs such as the kidneys, liver, lungs, and skin play crucial roles in excretion by removing waste products like urea, carbon dioxide, and excess salts. Efficient excretion is vital for maintaining homeostasis by preventing the buildup of toxic substances.
Q8. Animals of the group of flat worms have a simple tubular excretory system called:
- A. Kidney
- B. Nephron
- C. Nephridian
- D. Protonephridium✓
Explanation: Protonephridia are the simple excretory structures found in flatworms, such as planarians. They consist of flame cells (or protonephridial tubules) connected to ducts that remove excess water and waste products from the body cavity and release them outside through pores. Protonephridia play a role in osmoregulation and the removal of metabolic wastes in flatworms.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The kidney is a complex organ found in vertebrates, including humans. It functions as the primary excretory organ, filtering blood to remove waste products and excess substances, such as urea, water, and electrolytes, and producing urine.
- B. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and producing urine. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, each consisting of a renal corpuscle (glomerulus and Bowman's capsule) and a renal tubule. Nephrons regulate the composition of urine by reabsorbing essential substances and secreting waste products.
- C. This term is not commonly used in biology. It may be a variation of "nephridium," which refers to the excretory organ found in many invertebrates, including annelids (segmented worms) and some mollusks. Nephridia are tubular structures that filter fluid from the coelom (body cavity) and expel waste products out of the body.
Q9. Seven vertebrae which lie in the neck region are called:
- A. Lumber region
- B. Thoracic region
- C. Pelvic region
- D. Cervical region✓
Explanation: The cervical region refers to the upper part of the vertebral column, specifically the region corresponding to the neck. It contains seven cervical vertebrae (C1-C7), which are smaller and more flexible compared to other vertebrae to allow for a wide range of motion in the neck. The cervical region supports the head and facilitates movements such as nodding, rotation, and tilting of the head.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The lumbar region refers to the lower part of the vertebral column, specifically the region between the thoracic (chest) and sacral (pelvic) regions. It consists of five lumbar vertebrae (L1-L5), which are larger and more robust compared to other vertebrae to support the weight of the upper body. The lumbar region is located below the thoracic region and above the pelvic region.
- B. The thoracic region refers to the middle part of the vertebral column, corresponding to the chest area. It contains twelve thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12), each of which articulates with a pair of ribs, forming the thoracic cage that protects the heart, lungs, and other vital organs.
- C. The pelvic region refers to the lower part of the trunk, including the pelvis and associated structures. It contains the sacrum and coccyx (which are fused vertebrae), as well as the hip bones (ilium, ischium, and pubis). The pelvic region supports the weight of the upper body and provides attachment points for muscles, ligaments, and organs of the reproductive and digestive systems.
Q10. The joint that allows the movements in two directions is called:
- A. Cartilaginous joints
- B. Synovial joints
- C. Hinge joints✓
- D. Ball and socket joint
Explanation: The joint allows the movements in two directions. These are at the elbow and knee. At these joints, a pair of muscles are arranged in the same plane as that of joints. One end of each muscle, the origin is fixed to the immovable bone on one side of the joint, and the other end of the muscles, the insertion is attached to the far side of the joint.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. These joints allow only slight movement and are connected by either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. Examples include the joints between vertebrae in the spine.
- B. These are the most common type of joint in the body and allow a wide range of movements. They are characterized by a synovial cavity filled with synovial fluid, which lubricates the joint. Examples include the knee, elbow, and shoulder joints.
- D. These joints allow movement in multiple directions, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. They consist of a rounded, ball-like end of one bone fitting into a cup-like socket of another bone. Examples include the hip and shoulder joints.
Q11. The processes conducting impulses away from the body are called:
- A. Dendrites
- B. Dendron
- C. Nissl's granules
- D. Axon✓
Explanation: The axon is the long, slender projection of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body towards other neurons, muscles, or glands. So, the correct answer is the axon.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Dendrites are branched extensions of a neuron that receive signals from other neurons and conduct those signals toward the cell body, not away from it. So, this option is not correct in this context.
- B. "Dendron" is not a commonly used term in neuroscience. It may refer to a part of a neuron, similar to a dendrite, but it's not a standard term.
- C. Nissl bodies (or Nissl granules) are specialized structures found in the cell body of neurons. They are involved in protein synthesis. They are not directly involved in conducting impulses away from the body.
Q12. The end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle is called:
- A. Menopause✓
- B. Emotional stress
- C. Malnourishment effect of cycle
- D. Mensuration
Explanation: This is the correct answer. Menopause is the natural biological process that marks the end of a woman's menstrual cycles. It typically occurs in women in their late 40s or early 50s and is characterized by the cessation of menstrual periods for at least 12 consecutive months.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Emotional stress can affect the menstrual cycle, but it does not refer to the complete stop of the menstrual cycle itself. Stress can cause irregularities in the menstrual cycle, including missed periods or changes in flow, but it is not the same as menopause.
- C. Malnutrition can indeed affect the menstrual cycle, particularly if it leads to significant weight loss or inadequate intake of essential nutrients. However, this option does not specifically refer to the end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle.
- D. This term refers to the monthly shedding of the uterine lining, which is a normal part of the menstrual cycle in women of reproductive age. Menstruation does not refer to the end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle; instead, it is a recurring process that typically occurs until menopause.
Q13. The animals that lay shelled eggs to protect the developing embryo from harsh terrestrial conditions are called:
- A. Oviparous✓
- B. Viviparous
- C. Ovoviviparous
- D. Egg laying mammals
Explanation: This term refers to animals that lay eggs, which hatch outside the mother's body. The eggs have a protective shell that provides a safe environment for the embryo to develop until it's ready to hatch. Examples of oviparous animals include birds, reptiles (such as turtles and snakes), and most fish.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Viviparous animals give birth to live offspring that have developed inside the mother's body. There is no egg stage outside the body; instead, the embryo receives nourishment directly from the mother through a placenta or similar structure. Mammals like humans, dogs, and whales are viviparous.
- C. This term describes animals that produce eggs, but instead of laying them externally, the eggs are retained within the mother's body until they hatch or are ready to hatch. The young then emerge as fully developed offspring rather than as embryos. Some examples of ovoviviparous animals include certain species of sharks, some snakes, and some insects.
- D. These are mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young. This is a rare phenomenon in the animal kingdom, with only a few known examples. The most famous egg-laying mammals are monotremes, such as the platypus and echidna, which are native to Australia and nearby regions.
Q14. Immediately after fertilization, the egg undergoes a series of mitotic divisions called:
- A. Morulla
- B. Gastrulation
- C. Cleavage✓
- D. Blastulla
Explanation: Cleavage refers to the rapid series of mitotic divisions that occur in the early stages of embryonic development just after fertilization. These divisions result in the formation of a blastula, which is a hollow ball of cells. Cleavage divisions do not increase the overall size of the embryo but instead increase the number of cells.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes several rounds of mitotic divisions, resulting in a solid ball of cells called a morula. This stage typically occurs around 3 days after fertilization and consists of around 16 cells.
- B. Gastrulation is a later stage in embryonic development. It involves the reorganization of cells into three germ layers: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. This process sets the stage for the formation of tissues and organs in the developing embryo.
- D. The blastula is a stage of embryonic development characterized by a hollow sphere of cells, formed during the cleavage stage. The blastula is followed by gastrulation, during which the three germ layers are formed.
Q15. DNA was discovered in:
- A. 1869✓
- B. 1864
- C. 1961
- D. 1971
Explanation: A German Chemist, Friedrich Miescher, discovered DNA in 1869, only four years after Mendel’s work was published.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. A German Chemist, Friedrich Miescher, discovered DNA in 1869, only four years after Mendel’s work was published.
- C. A German Chemist, Friedrich Miescher, discovered DNA in 1869, only four years after Mendel’s work was published.
- D. A German Chemist, Friedrich Miescher, discovered DNA in 1869, only four years after Mendel’s work was published.
Q16. The period of life cycle of cells between two consecutive divisions is termed as:
- A. G0 phase
- B. Interphase✓
- C. G1 phase
- D. G2 phase
Explanation: This is the period between two consecutive cell divisions. It's the longest phase of the cell cycle and is divided into three subphases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2 (second gap). Interphase is when the cell grows, carries out metabolic activities, and replicates its DNA in preparation for cell division.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The G0 phase, also known as the resting phase, is a stage in the cell cycle where cells are not actively dividing nor preparing to divide. Cells in the G0 phase are in a quiescent state and may remain there indefinitely or temporarily before re-entering the cell cycle. This phase is common in cells that have differentiated and no longer need to proliferate actively, such as mature nerve cells and muscle cells.
- C. This is the first gap phase of interphase. During G1, the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. It also checks its environment to ensure conditions are favorable for DNA synthesis and cell division.
- D. This is the second gap phase of interphase. During G2, the cell continues to grow and prepares for mitosis or cell division. It checks for any errors in DNA replication and ensures that the cell is ready for division.
Q17. Synapses take place in
- A. Leptotene
- B. Zygotene✓
- C. Pachytene
- D. Anaphase
Explanation: Synapses occur during the prophase of meiosis I, specifically in the substage called "zygotene." During zygotene, homologous chromosomes pair up and form structures called synaptonemal complexes, which facilitate the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes through a process called crossing over.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Leptotene is the initial stage of prophase I, where chromosomes condense but do not yet pair up.
- C. Pachytene is a later stage of prophase I, following zygotene, characterized by further condensation of chromosomes and the completion of synapsis, where crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs.
- D. Anaphase is a stage of mitosis or meiosis where sister chromatids (or homologous chromosomes in meiosis I) separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell.
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