Home/Past Papers/Punjab / UHS/Punjab Biology 2018 Paper 1
Punjab Biology 2018 Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 17 MCQs from Punjab Biology 2018 Paper 1, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. Archaebacteria can tolerate temperature
- A. 45°C
- B. 85°C
- C. 100°C
- D. 120°C✓
Explanation: Archaebacteria can tolerate temperatures up to 120°C due to their unique membrane lipids and enzymes that remain stable under extreme heat conditions. This adaptation allows them to thrive in environments such as hot springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Archaebacteria can tolerate temperature upto 120oC so it is incorrect option.
- B. Archaebacteria can tolerate temperature upto 120oC so it is incorrect option.
- C. Archaebacteria can tolerate temperature upto 120oC so it is incorrect option.
Q2. Biome is a large
- A. Simple community
- B. Complex community
- C. Regional community
- D. Climax community✓
Explanation: Biomes are considered climax communities because they have reached a state of ecological equilibrium, where the dominant plant and animal species are well-adapted to the prevailing environmental conditions and remain relatively stable over time. This stability reflects the balance achieved between biotic and abiotic factors within the biome.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A biome is not a simple community because it encompasses a large geographical area and consists of multiple interacting ecosystems with diverse plant and animal species. These ecosystems exhibit complex interactions and adaptations to environmental factors such as climate, soil type, and topography, resulting in a rich diversity of life forms and ecological processes within the biome.
- B. A biome is not a complex community because it represents a large geographic area characterized by similar climatic conditions, vegetation, and animal life, rather than a specific intricate network of interacting species. Instead, it encompasses multiple ecosystems within its boundaries, each with its own unique community structure.
- C. A biome is not a regional community because it encompasses a large geographical area characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and ecological conditions, whereas a regional community refers to a smaller-scale grouping of interacting species within a specific geographic region.
Q3. The desert ecosystem of Mianwali and Bhakkar is called
- A. Thal✓
- B. Thar
- C. Cholistan
- D. Sahara
Explanation: In Pakistan you can ind the desert ecosystem in western Punjab (Mianwali and Bukhar) where it is known as “Thal”
Why the other options are wrong
- B. In Sindh, this desert ecosystem is called “Thar”.So it is incorrect.
- C. In southern Punjab, areas like Fort Abbass, Bahawal Nagar, Yazman, Bahawal Pur (Cholistan), therefore it is incorrect.
- D. A dramatic example is occurring in the Sahel, which borders the southern edge of the Sahara desert in Africa.
Q4. The bone which provides attachment site for muscles
- A. Compact bone✓
- B. Spongy bone
- C. Hip bone
- D. Cartilage
Explanation: The correct answer is A) compact bone.A) Compact bone: Compact bone provides strength and support to bones and serves as the primary attachment site for muscles and tendons. It forms the dense outer layer of bones, protecting internal structures and providing a rigid framework for movement.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Spongy bone, also known as trabecular or cancellous bone, is found within the interior of bones. It has a porous structure composed of trabeculae, providing structural support and flexibility while also housing bone marrow.
- C. The hip bone, or coxal bone, is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvis. While it contributes to the attachment of some muscles, its primary function is to support the weight of the body and protect internal organs.
- D. Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found at the ends of bones, in joints, and in various other structures such as the nose and ears. While it provides some support and cushioning, it is not primarily responsible for muscle attachment.
Q5. Treasure of all types of resources is
- A. Weather
- B. Climate
- C. Environment
- D. Water✓
Explanation: The correct answer is C) environment.C) Environment: The environment encompasses all living and non-living components of Earth, including air, water, soil, plants, animals, and humans. It encompasses the interactions between these components and influences resource availability and sustainability.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Weather refers to the short-term atmospheric conditions of a specific place, including temperature, humidity, precipitation, wind speed, and atmospheric pressure. While weather can impact resource availability temporarily, it does not encompass the full range of resources.
- B. Climate refers to the long-term patterns of temperature, humidity, precipitation, and other atmospheric conditions in a particular region. While climate influences the distribution of resources over time, it is not the comprehensive collection of resources.
- C. Environment: The environment encompasses all living and non-living components of Earth, including air, water, soil, plants, animals, and humans. It encompasses the interactions between these components and influences resource availability and sustainability.
Q6. A dilute solution compared to cell concentration is termed as
- A. Hypertonic
- B. Hypotonic✓
- C. Isotonic
- D. Paratonic
Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration compared to the cell. This leads to water moving out of the cell, causing it to shrink or undergo crenation.
- C. An isotonic solution has the same solute concentration as the cell. In this scenario, there is no net movement of water, and the cell maintains its shape and volume.
- D. There is no scientific term called "paratonic" in the context of solutions and cell concentration.
Q7. The number of NH3 molecules required to produce one molecule of urea is
- A. 1
- B. 2✓
- C. 3
- D. 4
Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Urea is produced from two molecules of ammonia (NH3) through a condensation reaction, forming one molecule of urea (CO(NH2)2) and one molecule of water (H2O). Thus, two ammonia molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of urea.Therefore it is incorrect option.
- C. Urea is produced from two molecules of ammonia (NH3) through a condensation reaction, forming one molecule of urea (CO(NH2)2) and one molecule of water (H2O). Thus, two ammonia molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of urea.Therefore it is incorrect option.
- D. Urea is produced from two molecules of ammonia (NH3) through a condensation reaction, forming one molecule of urea (CO(NH2)2) and one molecule of water (H2O). Thus, two ammonia molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of urea.Therefore it is incorrect option.
Q8. Which one is not a joint disease?
- A. Arthritis
- B. Sciatica✓
- C. Disc slip
- D. Spondylosis
Explanation: The correct answer is B) sciatica.A) Arthritis: Arthritis refers to inflammation and pain in the joints. It encompasses various conditions affecting the joints, such as osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.B) Sciatica: Sciatica is not a joint disease; instead, it is a symptom of an underlying condition, such as a herniated disc or spinal stenosis. It involves pain, numbness, or tingling that radiates along the sciatic nerve, which runs from the lower back down the back of each leg.C) Disc slip: Disc slip, commonly known as a herniated or slipped disc, involves the displacement or rupture of the intervertebral discs in the spine. While it can cause pain and discomfort, it primarily affects the spinal discs rather than the joints.D) Spondylolysis: Spondylolysis is a defect or stress fracture in the vertebrae, typically occurring in the lower back (lumbar spine). While it involves the bones of the spine, it is not primarily considered a joint disease.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Arthritis refers to inflammation and pain in the joints. It encompasses various conditions affecting the joints, such as osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.
- C. Disc slip, commonly known as a herniated or slipped disc, involves the displacement or rupture of the intervertebral discs in the spine. While it can cause pain and discomfort, it primarily affects the spinal discs rather than the joints.
- D. Spondylolysis is a defect or stress fracture in the vertebrae, typically occurring in the lower back (lumbar spine). While it involves the bones of the spine, it is not primarily considered a joint disease.
Q9. A vehicle for the transport of male gamete in a land plant is
- A. Water
- B. Pollen tube✓
- C. Pollen grain
- D. Wind
Explanation: The pollen tube acts as a vehicle for the transport of male gametes in land plants because it provides a direct pathway for the sperm cells to travel from the pollen grain to the ovule, facilitating fertilization.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Water does not serve as a vehicle for the transport of male gametes in land plants because most land plants rely on specialized structures like pollen grains or spores for dispersal and fertilization, rather than relying on water for gamete transport as seen in aquatic plants.
- C. Pollen grains themselves are not the vehicles for the transport of male gametes; instead, they are dispersed from the male reproductive structures (anthers) to female reproductive structures (stigmas) where fertilization occurs.
- D. Wind does not act as a vehicle for the transport of male gametes in land plants because male gametes, typically pollen grains, require a moist environment for effective transport to the female reproductive organs. Wind dispersal does not provide the necessary moisture for the survival and viability of male gametes during transport.
Q10. Reproduction is necessary for the survival of
- A. Individual
- B. Specie✓
- C. Population
- D. Community
Explanation: Reproduction ensures the continuation of species by producing offspring that inherit genetic traits, allowing for adaptation to changing environments and the maintenance of biodiversity. Without reproduction, species would fail to replace aging individuals and face extinction over time.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Reproduction is not necessary for the survival of an individual because survival refers to an organism's ability to maintain essential life functions and sustain itself, which can occur independently of reproduction. While reproduction ensures the continuation of a species, an individual can survive without engaging in reproductive activities.
- C. Reproduction is not necessary for the immediate survival of a population because individual organisms can persist for a period of time without reproducing, relying on resources obtained from the environment and the reproductive efforts of prior generations to sustain themselves. However, over the long term, reproduction is essential for the continuation and growth of the population to ensure its sustainability and genetic diversity.
- D. Reproduction is not necessary for the survival of a community because survival is primarily dependent on the maintenance of existing individuals and their interactions within the ecosystem. While reproduction is essential for the continuation of species, the overall community survival relies more on factors such as resource availability, ecological balance, and adaptation to environmental conditions.
Q11. Apoptosis is
- A. Division of cells
- B. Death of cells by tissue damage
- C. Suicide of cells✓
- D. Weakness of cells
Explanation: Apoptosis is often termed "suicide of the cell" because it is a programmed cell death mechanism initiated by the cell itself in response to various signals or conditions. This self-destructive process helps maintain tissue homeostasis by eliminating damaged, infected, or unwanted cells, ultimately contributing to overall organism health.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Apoptosis is not cell division but rather programmed cell death, where cells self-destruct in a controlled manner, playing crucial roles in development, tissue homeostasis, and the removal of damaged cells. Unlike cell division, apoptosis leads to the elimination of cells without generating new ones.
- B. Apoptosis is a controlled process of programmed cell death that occurs in response to specific signals or developmental cues, distinct from the indiscriminate cell death caused by tissue damage. It serves regulatory functions in growth, development, and maintaining tissue homeostasis.
- D. Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is a crucial mechanism that maintains tissue homeostasis by eliminating damaged or unnecessary cells, contributing to overall organism health. It ensures proper development, eliminates potentially harmful cells, and regulates tissue growth, highlighting its role as a vital process rather than a weakness.
Q12. Cell cycle involves
- A. Growth of cell
- B. Replication of DNA
- C. Cell division
- D. Growth of cell, replication of DNA and cell division✓
Explanation: 1. Growth: During the cell cycle, the cell undergoes a period of growth where it accumulates nutrients and synthesizes necessary biomolecules to increase its size and prepare for division.2. Replication: The cell replicates its DNA during the S phase of the cell cycle, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information. This step is crucial for maintaining genetic integrity and providing the necessary material for division.3. Division: The cell divides into two daughter cells during the M phase (mitosis or meiosis), ensuring the distribution of replicated DNA and cellular components to each new cell. Division is essential for growth, repair, and reproduction in multicellular organisms, enabling the expansion and renewal of tissues and the propagation of genetic material.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. During the cell cycle, the cell undergoes a period of growth where it accumulates nutrients and synthesizes necessary biomolecules to increase its size and prepare for division.
- B. The cell replicates its DNA during the S phase of the cell cycle, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information. This step is crucial for maintaining genetic integrity and providing the necessary material for division.
- C. The cell divides into two daughter cells during the M phase (mitosis or meiosis), ensuring the distribution of replicated DNA and cellular components to each new cell. Division is essential for growth, repair, and reproduction in multicellular organisms, enabling the expansion and renewal of tissues and the propagation of genetic material.
Q13. Resting membrane potential of a neuron is
- A. -50mV
- B. -60mV
- C. -70mV✓
- D. -80mV
Explanation: The resting membrane potential of a neuron is approximately -70mV due to the unequal distribution of ions across the cell membrane, with more negatively charged ions inside the cell than outside. This potential difference is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump and ion channels, contributing to the neuron's readiness to generate and transmit electrical signals.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is typically around -70mV, not -50mV. This value represents the electrical charge difference across the neuronal membrane when the cell is at rest, maintained by the unequal distribution of ions across the membrane.
- B. Resting membrane potential of neurons typically -70mV, not -60mV. This potential is established by the uneven distribution of ions across the cell membrane, particularly potassium (K+) and sodium (Na+), through the action of ion channels.
- D. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is typically around -70mV, not -80mV. This potential is maintained by the unequal distribution of ions across the cell membrane and the activity of ion channels.
Q14. Optimum temperature for the growth of plants is
- A. 30-40°C
- B. 25-30°C✓
- C. 10-20°C
- D. 5-10°C
Explanation: The optimum temperature range for plant growth, typically between 25°C to 30°C, facilitates optimal enzyme activity, photosynthesis, and nutrient uptake. Within this range, metabolic processes are maximized, promoting efficient growth, development, and yield production in most plant species. However, extremes outside this range can inhibit enzyme function, disrupt cellular processes, and lead to reduced growth and productivity.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The optimum temperature for plant growth typically ranges from 25°C to 30°C, not 30°C to 40°C, as higher temperatures can lead to heat stress and inhibit plant growth by disrupting metabolic processes and protein function.
- C. The optimum temperature for plant growth is typically higher than 10-20°C because most plants exhibit optimal growth rates within a range of 25-30°C, where enzymatic activities and metabolic processes are maximized. Lower temperatures may slow growth, while higher temperatures can lead to heat stress and inhibit plant development.
- D. The optimum temperature for plant growth typically ranges between 25°C to 30°C, as temperatures below 5-10°C are generally too cold for optimal metabolic activity and growth processes in most plant species. Warmer temperatures within this range facilitate enzymatic reactions, nutrient uptake, and photosynthesis, promoting healthy plant development.
Q15. A particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called
- A. Holotype
- B. Karyotype✓
- C. Neotype
- D. Paratype
Explanation: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's complete set of chromosomes, arranged and photographed during metaphase of cell division. It provides insight into chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, and sex determination, aiding in clinical diagnosis and genetic research.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A karyotype refers to the complete set of chromosomes present in the nucleus of an individual's cells, arranged and displayed for analysis. It provides a visual representation of an individual's chromosomal complement and is used in genetic and medical diagnostics, while a holotype is a single specimen designated as the standard reference for a species in taxonomy.
- C. A karyotype refers to the specific array of chromosomes present in an individual, typically arranged and analyzed for genetic abnormalities or disorders. Conversely, "neotype" is a term used in taxonomy to denote a specimen selected to serve as the official type specimen when the original specimen is lost or insufficient.
- D. The term "karyotype" refers to the specific arrangement and number of chromosomes within the nucleus of an individual's cells, typically displayed in a visual representation. It provides important diagnostic information about genetic disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, and species identification, distinguishing it from the nonexistent term "paratype."
Q16. All the genes found in a breeding population constitute
- A. Genotype
- B. Genome
- C. Gene frequency
- D. Gene pool✓
Explanation: The gene pool of a breeding population comprises all the genetic variation present within that population, including alleles for specific traits. This diversity is essential for adaptation, evolution, and maintaining species viability over time.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Genotype refers specifically to the genetic makeup of an individual organism, comprising the combination of alleles present at each genetic locus. While all genes in a breeding population contribute to the overall genetic diversity, genotype refers to the specific genetic composition of an individual, influencing its traits and characteristics.
- B. While all genes within a breeding population contribute to genetic variation, a genome specifically refers to the complete set of genetic material, including both genes and non-coding DNA sequences, present in an organism's chromosomes.
- C. Gene frequency refers specifically to the proportion of a particular allele within a population, while the entirety of genes in a population encompasses genetic diversity beyond allele frequencies, including variations in genotype and phenotype.
Q17. Primer for PCR contains about
- A. 05 bases
- B. 10-20 bases✓
- C. 30 bases
- D. 40 bases
Explanation: Primers for PCR typically contain around 20nucleotide bases, which are short, single-stranded DNA sequences that anneal to complementary regions on the target DNA strands. These primers serve as starting points for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA replication during the PCR process.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Primer of PCR contains about 20 bases not 5 therefore it is incorrect.
- C. Primer of PCR contains about 20 bases not 30 therefore it is incorrect.
- D. Primer of PCR contains about 20 bases not 40 therefore it is incorrect.
More Punjab / UHS Solved Papers
Biology
Punjab Biology 2015 Paper 1
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2015 Paper 1
58 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2015 Paper 2
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2016
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 1
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 2
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 3
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 4
60 solved MCQs
Biology
Punjab Biology 2018 Paper 2
60 solved MCQs