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Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 17 MCQs from Punjab Biology 2017 Paper 1, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. The category of plants that have adaptation of small and thick leaves to limit water loss is called
- A. hydrophytes
- B. xerophytes✓
- C. mesophytes
- D. aygrophytes
Explanation: Xerophytes have the adaptations for reduced rate of transpiration. Many xerophytes possess small, thick leaves to limit water loss by reducing surface area proportional to the volume. Their cuticle is thick, waxy and leathery. Stomata are on lower surface of leaves and located in depression. Some as cacti, during the driest season, shed their leaves to restrict transpiration completely, thus stems are the photosynthetic organs. In rainy season, stem stores water for use in dry conditions
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Hydrophytes are plants adapted to aquatic environments and thus do not need to conserve water. Their adaptations typically involve traits to facilitate water uptake and gas exchange rather than water conservation. Conversely, plants with small and thick leaves to limit water loss are typically xerophytes, adapted to arid environments where water conservation is crucial.
- C. Mesophytes have moderate water availability. In sufficient supply of water stomata are kept open to promote loss of excess water, however, in restricted supply stomata close to prevent the loss e.g. Brassica, rose, mango etc.
- D. Xerophytes, not aygrophytes, have adaptations like small and thick leaves to reduce water loss. These adaptations include reduced surface area and thick cuticles to minimize transpiration, common in arid environments. Aygrophytes, a non-existent term, do not describe any specific plant category with water-saving adaptations.
Q2. The reabsorption of water in collecting tubules is under the control of
- A. aldosterone
- B. ADH✓
- C. tubular secretion
- D. pressure filtration
Explanation: ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption. It does so by altering the permeability of the collecting ducts and distal tubules, allowing them to absorb more water back into the bloodstream. This mechanism helps regulate body fluid balance by conserving water and reducing urine volume, particularly in response to dehydration or low blood volume situations.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Aldosterone primarily promotes the reabsorption of sodium ions and excretion of potassium ions in the kidneys, affecting ion balance, not water reabsorption. Water reabsorption is mainly regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acting on the collecting ducts.
- C. Tubular secretion in the kidneys involves the movement of substances from the blood into the renal tubules, not the reabsorption of water. Reabsorption of water primarily occurs through osmosis in the renal tubules, facilitated by aquaporin channels, and is distinct from tubular secretion.
- D. Pressure filtration is responsible for the initial filtration of blood in the kidneys, but reabsorption of water occurs primarily through osmosis and active transport in the renal tubules, not filtration.
Q3. Turgor pressure is generated by osmotic pressure of
- A. cell cytosol
- B. cell vacuole✓
- C. cytoplast
- D. protoplast
Explanation: Turgor pressure is generated by the osmotic pressure exerted by the cell vacuole. When the vacuole accumulates solutes, water enters the vacuole via osmosis, creating a hydrostatic pressure that pushes against the cell wall, contributing to cell rigidity and plant support.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Turgor pressure is primarily generated by the osmotic pressure of the vacuole, not the cytosol, as water enters the vacuole due to osmosis, creating pressure against the cell wall.
- C. Turgor pressure primarily arises from the osmotic pressure of vacuoles, not cytoplasm, due to the accumulation of water within the vacuole. Cytoplasm contributes minimally to turgor pressure compared to the significant osmotic pressure exerted by vacuoles.
- D. Turgor pressure is generated by the osmotic pressure of the vacuole, not the protoplast, within plant cells. The vacuole's high solute concentration causes water influx, creating pressure against the cell wall.
Q4. Skeletal muscles are called striated (stripped) because of the presence of
- A. red and yellow band
- B. white and yellow band
- C. alternating dark and light band✓
- D. red and black band
Explanation: Skeletal muscles appear striated due to the alternating pattern of light and dark bands, known as striations, under a microscope. These bands are caused by the arrangement of contractile proteins actin and myosin within the muscle fibers, giving rise to the sarcomere structure. The precise alignment and overlap of these proteins result in the striated appearance, indicative of the functional organization necessary for muscle contraction.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. It is incorrect because skeletal muscles are called striated due to the alternating light and dark bands formed by the arrangement of actin and myosin filaments. These bands give skeletal muscle its striped appearance under a microscope.
- B. This statement is incorrect because skeletal muscles are called striated due to the alternating pattern of dark A bands and light I bands observed under a microscope. These bands result from the arrangement of myofilaments within the muscle fibers, not the presence of white and yellow bands. The striated appearance reflects the organization of sarcomeres, the contractile units of skeletal muscle, consisting of overlapping actin and myosin filaments.
- D. This statement is incorrect because skeletal muscles are called striated due to the alternating light and dark bands observed under a microscope, known as striations, caused by the arrangement of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fibers. The colors red and black are not typically associated with the striations observed in skeletal muscle tissue.
Q5. Fruit ripening is associated with the burst of respiratory activity called
- A. glycolysis
- B. respiration
- C. krebs cycle
- D. climacteric✓
Explanation: Fruit ripening triggers a burst of respiratory activity known as the climacteric phase, marked by increased ethylene production. This surge in respiration leads to elevated levels of carbon dioxide and heat, driving metabolic changes such as sugar breakdown and flavor development. The climacteric phase is a crucial stage in fruit ripening, facilitating softening, color changes, and aroma enhancement.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Fruit ripening is associated with ethylene-induced respiratory activity, not glycolysis. Ethylene triggers the respiratory burst by activating enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation, leading to increased energy production and ripening processes.
- B. Fruit ripening is associated with ethylene-induced climacteric respiratory activity, distinct from basal respiration. This burst of activity triggers metabolic changes leading to fruit softening, color changes, and flavor development.
- C. Fruit ripening involves a burst of respiratory activity known as climacteric respiration, which differs from the Krebs cycle. Climacteric respiration leads to increased ethylene production, initiating ripening processes such as softening, color changes, and flavor development in fruits.
Q6. Evolution of the pollen tube parallels the evolution of
- A. embryo
- B. leaf
- C. fruit
- D. seed✓
Explanation: The evolution of the pollen tube parallels the evolution of seeds due to their interdependent roles in reproduction and dispersal. Both structures evolved to improve the efficiency of fertilization and seed formation, ensuring successful reproduction and offspring survival. The development of pollen tubes allowed for the direct delivery of sperm cells to ovules, enhancing the chances of fertilization and subsequent seed development, contributing to the reproductive success of seed plants.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The evolution of the pollen tube is not directly correlated with the evolution of the embryo because these processes involve different reproductive structures and stages. While the pollen tube facilitates the delivery of male gametes to the ovule, embryo evolution pertains to the development and diversification of the zygote into a mature plant structure.
- B. The evolution of the pollen tube is primarily associated with reproductive adaptations for efficient fertilization, whereas leaf evolution involves adaptations for photosynthesis and resource acquisition. These two processes are driven by different selective pressures and are not necessarily correlated in evolutionary trajectories.
- C. The evolution of the pollen tube is primarily related to the reproductive processes of plants, aiding in the transport of male gametes to female ovules. In contrast, the evolution of fruit involves adaptations for seed dispersal and protection, serving different ecological functions.
Q7. Each chromosome when visible consists of two unseparated replicas
- A. chiasma
- B. tetrad
- C. homologus chromosome
- D. chromatids✓
Explanation: Each visible chromosome consists of two identical replicas called chromatids, which are held together by a centromere. These chromatids contain identical genetic information and are formed during DNA replication in the S phase of the cell cycle. The chromatids separate during cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This phenomenon occurs during the metaphase stage of mitosis or meiosis, where each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, formed during DNA replication. Chiasma refers to the point of genetic exchange between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, not the visible duplication of chromosomes.
- B. The term "tetrad" refers to a group of four chromatids formed during meiosis, not the individual replicated chromatids. Each chromosome, when visible, consists of two unseparated replicas called chromatids, which are joined at the centromere. These chromatids contain identical genetic information and are held together until they separate during cell division.
- C. Each visible chromosome consists of two unseparated replicas called sister chromatids. These chromatids are identical copies of each other, formed during DNA replication in the S phase of the cell cycle. They remain attached at the centromere until they separate during cell division, ensuring each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information.
Q8. The sex chromosomes of the person affected with klinefelter's syndrome are
- A. XYY
- B. XXX
- C. XXY✓
- D. XY
Explanation: Contrary to popular belief, individuals with Klinefelter syndrome do not have the karyotype XXY. Instead, they typically have one or more additional X chromosomes, resulting in variations such as XXY, XXYY, or XXXY. These extra X chromosomes can lead to a range of developmental and physiological differences, including infertility and various physical and cognitive traits.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. In Klinefelter's syndrome, individuals typically have an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of XXY, not XYY. This additional X chromosome leads to characteristic physical and developmental differences associated with the condition.
- B. Klinefelter's syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, resulting in a karyotype of XXY, not XXX. This additional X chromosome can lead to physical and developmental differences in affected individuals.
- D. In Klinefelter's syndrome, affected individuals have an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of XXY instead of the typical XY. This chromosomal variation leads to characteristic features such as infertility, gynecomastia, and cognitive impairments.
Q9. Neuroglial cells provide the neuron with
- A. protection
- B. support
- C. nutrition
- D. all✓
Explanation: Neuroglial cells, also known as glial cells, play crucial roles in supporting and maintaining the function of neurons within the nervous system. They provide neurons with essential nutrients, regulate their chemical environment, and remove debris and waste products. Additionally, neuroglial cells provide physical support and insulation for neurons, contributing to the structural integrity of the nervous tissue. Overall, these supportive functions are essential for the proper functioning and survival of neurons, highlighting the importance of neuroglial cells in neural physiology.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Neuroglial cells provide neurons with protection by maintaining the structural integrity of the nervous system and supporting their function through various roles such as insulation, immune defense, and nutrient supply.
- B. Neuroglial cells provide structural support, insulation, and nourishment to neurons in the nervous system. They also play crucial roles in maintaining the chemical environment and repairing damaged neurons.
- C. Neuroglial cells support neurons by providing them with nutrition, including glucose and other essential nutrients. Additionally, neuroglial cells help regulate the extracellular environment, ensuring optimal conditions for neuronal function.
Q10. Apical dominance in plants occurs due to higher concentration of
- A. cytokinin
- B. gibberellin
- C. ethane
- D. auxin✓
Explanation: Apical dominance in plants occurs due to the higher concentration of auxin produced by the apical bud. This auxin inhibits the growth of lateral buds, promoting the vertical growth of the main stem. As a result, the apical bud maintains dominance over lateral branches, regulating the overall growth pattern of the plant.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Apical dominance in plants is primarily regulated by the hormone auxin, not cytokinin. Auxin is synthesized in the apical meristem and inhibits the outgrowth of lateral buds, promoting the dominance of the apical bud. Cytokinin, on the other hand, tends to promote lateral bud growth, opposing the effects of auxin and thus not contributing to apical dominance.
- B. Apical dominance in plants is not regulated by a higher concentration of gibberellin. Instead, it is primarily controlled by auxin, which inhibits the growth of lateral buds, promoting the dominance of the apical meristem. This hormonal balance regulates plant growth and ensures proper development by controlling the distribution of growth resources within the plant.
- C. Apical dominance in plants is not primarily regulated by ethane concentration but rather by the hormone auxin. Auxin produced by the apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral buds, maintaining the dominance of the main shoot. This inhibition prevents the development of competing branches, allowing the main shoot to grow upward.
Q11. The number of histone protein molecules in a single nucleosome are
- A. 06
- B. 09
- C. 08✓
- D. 10
Explanation: The number of histone protein molecules in a single nucleosome is 8. Together, they form a protein complex around which approximately 200 base pairs of DNA are wrapped, contributing to the structural organization of chromatin within the cell nucleus.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. It is not correct option as 08 histone molecules forms a complex around nucleosome.
- B. It is not correct option as 08 histone molecules forms a complex around nucleosome.
- D. It is not correct option as 08 histone molecules forms a complex around nucleosome.
Q12. Deuteranopia is a colour blindness of
- A. red
- B. blue
- C. green✓
- D. yellow
Explanation: Deuteranopia is a form of color blindness characterized by a reduced sensitivity to green light. Individuals with this condition have difficulty distinguishing between different shades of green and red. Deuteranopia is caused by the absence or malfunction of green cone cells in the retina.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. It is incorrect as red color blindness is called protanopia.
- B. It is incorrect as red color blindness is called tritanopia.
- D. It is not a type of color blindness.
Q13. The first restriction enzyme was isolated by
- A. kary mullis
- B. hamilton✓
- C. sanger
- D. mendel
Explanation: In 1970, Hamilton O. Smith, at Johns Hopkins University, isolated the first restriction enzyme
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The first restriction enzyme was discovered by Hamilton Smith and colleagues, not Kary Mullis.
- C. Hamilton Smith discovered the first restriction enzyme in 1970, while Frederick Sanger is known for his contributions to DNA sequencing methods.
- D. The first restriction enzyme was discovered by Hamilton Smith in 1970, not by Gregor Mendel. Smith's discovery of the enzyme, revolutionized molecular biology by allowing for the manipulation of DNA.
Q14. The endosymbiont hypothesis was proposed by
- A. cuvier
- B. lyell
- C. lynn margulis✓
- D. malthus
Explanation: The endosymbiont hypothesis, proposed by Lynn Margulis in the 1960s, suggests that eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living prokaryotic organisms that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells. Margulis's groundbreaking theory provided a compelling explanation for the evolutionary origins of these organelles and has since become widely accepted in the field of biology.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The endosymbiont hypothesis was proposed by Lynn Margulis, not by Cuvier. Margulis suggested that eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from symbiotic relationships between prokaryotic cells. This hypothesis provided a comprehensive explanation for the presence of these organelles within eukaryotic cells and has since been widely accepted in the field of evolutionary biology.
- B. The endosymbiont hypothesis was indeed proposed by Lynn Margulis, not by Lyell. Margulis suggested that eukaryotic organelles, such as mitochondria and chloroplasts, originated from symbiotic relationships between ancestral prokaryotic cells. Her groundbreaking theory provided a compelling explanation for the evolutionary origins of these organelles within eukaryotic cells.
- D. The endosymbiont hypothesis was proposed by Lynn Margulis in the 1960s, not by Malthus. Margulis suggested that eukaryotic organelles like mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from symbiotic relationships between prokaryotic cells, which became incorporated into ancestral eukaryotic cells.
Q15. Who proposed the term niche in ecology
- A. haeckel
- B. Darwin
- C. Charles Eton
- D. Josph Grinnel✓
Explanation: The term "niche" in ecology was indeed proposed by Joseph Grinnell, an American zoologist, in the early 20th century. Grinnell introduced the concept to describe the specific ecological role and habitat requirements of a species within its environment.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The term "niche" in ecology was not proposed by Ernst Haeckel. It was introduced by the ecologist Joseph Grinnell in 1917 to describe the role and position of a species within its ecosystem.
- B. The term "niche" in ecology was not proposed by Darwin but rather by the ecologist Joseph Grinnell in 1917. Grinnell introduced the concept to describe the role and position of a species within its environment, encompassing its interactions with biotic and abiotic factors.
- C. The term "niche" in ecology was not proposed by Charles Elton, but rather by the ecologist Joseph Grinnell in the early 20th century. Grinnell introduced the concept of the ecological niche to describe the unique role and habitat occupied by a species within its ecosystem.
Q16. Alpine coniferous forests are found on high
- A. latitudes
- B. longitude
- C. altitude✓
- D. slopes
Explanation: Coniferous forests located at high altitude are called alpine
Why the other options are wrong
- A. coniferous forests located at high latitude are called boreal.
- B. Alpine coniferous plants are not present on high longitude.
- D. Incorrect option.
Q17. The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is caused by an increasing level of
- A. hydrocarbon
- B. nitrocarbon
- C. chloroflorocarbon✓
- D. chlorine
Explanation: The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is indeed caused by an increasing level of CFC (chlorofluorocarbon) emissions. CFCs released into the atmosphere break down ozone molecules in the stratosphere, leading to ozone depletion. This process allows more harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation to reach the Earth's surface, posing risks to human health and the environment.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is primarily caused by the release of ozone-depleting substances, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), not by an increasing level of hydrocarbons.
- B. The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is primarily caused by the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated compounds, not by an increasing level of nitrocarbon. These chemicals react with ozone molecules in the stratosphere, leading to ozone depletion.
- D. The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is not caused by an increasing level of chlorine, primarily from human-made chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released into the atmosphere. These chemicals break down ozone molecules, leading to ozone depletion and the formation of the ozone hole.
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